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MCAT Psychology 12/30/15 (From test 3)

Terms in this set (143)


Somatic symptom and related disorders, is a new category in the DSM-5 consisting of disorders described as somatoform disorders in the DSM-IV-TR

Hypochondriasis diagnosis was not included in the DSM-5, with most individuals being reclassified as having either somatic symptom disorder or illness anxiety disorder.
--> Obsession with the idea of having a serious but undiagnosed medical condition

Individuals diagnosed with illness anxiety disorder are often more concerned with illness or the idea of being ill and often lack or have minimal somatic symptoms.

In somatic symptom disorder, the focus of the individual is on the high level of distress or anxiety that is disproportionate to the seriousness of the symptoms being exhibited.

The DSM-5 criteria for conversion disorder states the individual must exhibit at least one symptom of altered voluntary motor or sensory function that shows internal inconsistency, causes distress or impairment, and cannot be explained by another mental or medical disorder. The ICD-10-CM categorizes by symptom type, with weakness (or paralysis) and abnormal movement (tremor) listed as specific symptom types.

**Somatization is the psychological mechanism whereby psychological distress is expressed in the form of physical symptoms. The psychological distress in somatization is most commonly caused by a mood disorder that threatens mental stability.
**Conversion disorder occurs when the somatic presentation involves any aspect of the central nervous system over which voluntary control is exercised. Conversion reactions represent fixed ideas about neurologic malfunction that are consciously enacted, resulting in psychogenic neurologic deficits.

Bottom-Up processing is a type of information processing based on incoming data from the environment to form a perception. When individuals encounter novel stimuli they are forced to engage in bottom-up processing and construct their perception of the stimuli from bits of raw sensory information. When considering the McGurk Effect, an individual is creating a perception from the raw visual and auditory stimuli he or she encounters in the environment. This is an example of bottom-up processing (choice B is correct).

Weber's law states that the change in a stimulus that will be perceived as just noticeable is a constant ratio of the original stimulus; this law helps explain when we will and will not perceive a difference between two of the same stimuli (for example a quiet sound and the same sound at a slightly higher volume), but does not have anything to do with the McGurk Effect (choice A is wrong).

Working memory is part of the information processing theory, however it is a component of information processing whereby an individual holds and manipulates information in their mind before that information is encoded into long-term memory, which is not integral to the McGurk effect (choice C is wrong).

Lastly, visual perception is one way in which humans receive information from their environment. Visual perception is one of many ways individuals gather data from their surroundings that interact to influence perceptions. Although visual perception is a type of sensory perception that is involved in the McGurk Effect, the McGurk Effect also relies upon auditory perception to create the illusion (choice D is wrong).

The personality disorder characterized by unstable identity and interpersonal relationships, as well as chronic feelings of emptiness and a history of suicidal thoughts and gestures is borderline personality disorder (choice C is correct).

Schizotypal personality disorder is characterized by acute discomfort in interpersonal relationships, to the point that people with this disorder rarely have friends outside of immediate family members, and odd eccentric behavior. People with this disorder also frequently have notable cognitive or perceptual disturbances (choice A is wrong).

Dependent personality disorder is characterized by a difficulty with everyday decisions, a need for advice and reassurance from others, a difficulty expressing disagreement with others out of a fear of loss of approval or support, feelings of helplessness or discomfort when alone, and an unrealistic preoccupation with fears of being abandoned. Additionally, people with this disorder have difficulty initiating projects, and go to excessive lengths to obtain nurturance or support from others (choice B is wrong).

Antisocial personality disorder is characterized by a pervasive pattern of unconcern for and violation of the rights of others, which can be see through repetitive rule-breaking or failure to conform to social norms, failure to plan ahead, impulsivity, irritability and/or aggressiveness, irresponsibility, and a lack of remorse. People with this disorder do not have an unstable sense of identity, nor do they generally regularly contemplate suicide without extreme provocation (choice D is wrong).
B. Most sociologists consider socioeconomic status (SES) when discussing social stratification. This measure is often defined in terms of power, prestige, and wealth due to the common interrelationship among these factors.

The reported salaries of specialists range from $157,000 to $316,000 for the listed lowest and highest earners, respectively. The average anesthesiologist is then expected to earn an intermediate amount (the research reports an annual average of approximately $310,000).

While estimates differ, this earning potential alone suggests that anesthesiologists are middle class, perhaps upper middle class (choice B is correct).

Middle class: $46,000 to the minimum earnings representing the upper class (this definition varies); 40 percent of the population is considered middle class.

Despite the high earnings of these medical specialists in comparison to the national average, it is a common misconception that these professionals are "upper class"; according to most models of social stratification, the income range for upper class is much higher.

Upper class: range from millions to billions; a mere 3 percent of the population are considered upper class (choice A is wrong). There are medical professionals who earn comparable amounts when accounting for additional income and wealth; for example, Dr. Mehmet Oz, a famous cardiothoracic surgeon who hosts a television program focusing on medical issues and personal health (estimated annual earnings of $4 million). However, the information provided considers the average anesthesiologist.

Working class: $19,000 to $45,000; 30 percent of the population are considered working class (choice C is wrong).

Lower class: range from no income to $18,000; 27 percent of the population are considered lower class (choice D is wrong).
D. The woman's reluctance to form bonds and attachments with others and preference to live a solitary life may be indicative of her having formed an anxious-avoidant insecure attachment style during childhood. This style is the result of the individual's primary care giver constantly rejecting or rebuffing them when they sought comfort or protection. Eventually, because of these repeated rejections, they come to expect the same from other individuals they encounter, thus at the extreme, prefer to live a life free of any attachment to others, much like the woman described (choice D is correct).

If the woman had established a secure attachment style during childhood, she would likely have numerous individuals with whom she has bonded and formed strong relationships. Thus, she would have individuals in her life from which she would like to receive comfort/support (choice A is wrong).

This woman does appear to have difficulty trusting others, which could be indicative of disorganized attachment. However, disorganized attachment usually does not lead to disavowing of relationships and significant connections to others. Rather, the quest to form connections with others is hampered by poor social skills and inability to regulate emotions (choice B is wrong).

An anxious-resistant insecure attachment style usually results from parents that are sometimes supportive and comforting and other times absent and unavailable, leaving the child uncertain about the parent's availability. This leads to preoccupation in adulthood with being abandoned by significant others, thus being hesitant to form relationships or when in relationships, displaying clingy behaviors. The woman in question, under this attachment style, would likely be very motivated to have significant people in her life be contacted and available during such a time of need (choice C is wrong).
1. is promoted by a responsive and available parent and is characterized by a child who is able to explore their environment with confidence because they know the parent will be there should they need them for comfort. A child confidently exploring and joining in different activities at a birthday party demonstrates a secure attachment style. The child seeking his mother's aid during a stressful time, such as being injured, and the parent being available to comfort and soothe him, further displays secure attachment

2. Reluctance to explore and instead clinging and remaining by the mother's side; the child is uncertain about the parent's availability because of previous separations. Because of this fear of being abandoned, he or she stays close and clings to the mother

3. Odd or awkward behaviors such as extreme shifts between proximity seeking and avoidance when separating or reuniting with the parent; A child who, upon being reunited with the parent, initially runs toward him/her with open arms and quickly shifts and runs away instead, illustrates an extreme shift between proximity seeking and avoidance. Disorganized attachment is usually the result of the child experiencing trauma, such as being physically, emotionally, or sexually abused by the parent. In this instance, the child sees the parent as both frightening and their only source of comfort, which causes them great confusion, thus, the confused, proximity seeking and avoidance behavior

4. results from the child being constantly rejected and rebuffed by the parent. These children learn to be independent early on, only depending on themselves because they learn that they can't rely on the parent because they are never available. A child exploring and climbing the jungle gym to dangerous heights displays this early independence. The child's knowledge about the unavailability or responsiveness from the parent further provides evidence of an anxious-avoidant attachment style (choice D is wrong).
B. In avoidance learning, an organism's behavior is reinforced by the termination or prevention of an aversive stimulus. In other words, the person is motivated to escape fear producing environmental stimuli or conditioned stimuli. In this instance, because the child is always met with anger when he/she encounters the parent, the parent becomes a conditioned stimulus that produces fear. The child thus begins to actively avoid interactions with the parent in an effort to avoid experiencing fear (choice B is correct).

Observational learning, also known as modeling or vicarious learning, is a part of Albert Bandura's Social Learning Theory. Bandura believed that learning could occur via watching others. However, not all observed behaviors are effectively learned. In order for the modeling process to work, according to Bandura, the following factors had to be present: attention, retention, reproduction, and motivation. The child in question is avoiding the parent and does not appear to be motivated to reproduce the aggressive behavior he is observing (choices A and C are wrong).

Role-playing is not an operant conditioning principle. Rather, it is an instance or situation in which one deliberately acts out or assumes a particular character or role. In psychology, it is a therapeutic technique designed to reduce conflict in social situations, in which participants act out particular behavioral roles in order to expand their awareness of differing points of view. Role-playing has also been the focus of many social psychology studies (choice D is wrong).
B. In order to test her hypothesis, the researcher will need to separate the influence of nature (i.e. genes) and nurture (i.e. environment). An adoption study is the best way to do this. In an adoption study, researchers compare individuals with their genetic and adopted relatives to determine if they are more similar to one group or the other. If the researcher found that the effect shown in Figure 1 only persisted if individuals with the GG/AG genotypes were also raised by adopted parents with GG/AG genotypes, then she would argue that the effect is due to environmental, rather than genetic, differences. However, if the researcher found the effect shown in Figure 1 for all adopted individuals, regardless of their adopted parents' genotypes, this would be evidence for an effect of genetics. Therefore, an adoption study would be the best way to test this hypothesis and choice B is correct.

In a twin study, researchers assess whether monozygotic (i.e. identical) twins are more similar than dizygotic (i.e. fraternal) twins to determine to what extent a behavior can be attributed to shared genes and to what extent it can be attributed to shared environment (choice A is wrong).

Transgenesis is when a researcher either introduces a new gene or removes a gene from an animal's pre-existing genome in order to assess the effect of that gene in a tightly controlled experiment. Due to ethical concerns, it is highly unlikely that a human would ever be a participant in a transgenesis study (choice C is wrong).

A developmental study would allow the researcher to assess the effect of genotype on behavior at many different points throughout a person's lifespan, but it would not allow her to assess whether the effect was due to entirely genetic or partially environmental influence (choice D is wrong).