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Contaminated sharps must be handled in such ways (container must be labeled, be non-puncturable, be closable) except: does NOT have to be in a metal case.
Post-operative bleeding is most likely caused by the patient failing to follow the post-op instructions.
Nasopalatine duct cyst is located at the midline between maxillary central incisors. EPT (vitality) differentiates it from a periapical cyst.
A patient had a mandibular fracture quite some time ago and now has a painful movable tender mass in the old fracture area near the mental foramen: Traumatic neuroma.
Probing depth differs depending on: if probing depth increases, it may be due to reduction of inflammation and swelling, not due to a real gain of attachment.
If a patient does not have enough posterior inter-arch space for both maxillary and mandibular denture fabrication, it is necessary to: perform a tuberosity operation.
Standard root canal treatments require a dentist to perform the treatment until the: DCJ (dentinocementum junction).
If during RCT the dentist breaks the apical seating and extrudes the file over the foramen, increase the file size and re-create a new apical seat, then fill with the master cone of that size.
How old does a child/infant start to show the first sign of the primary dentition: prenatal in the uterus at 6 weeks.
If a dentist wants to check if the patient's mandible has suffered from a fracture or not, the best indication is: occlusion and arch continuity.
Best time to perform incision and drainage (I&D) at an area of infection: when the swelling is localized & fluctuant.
If a torus removal must be performed on a patient with a full-mouth dentition, the incision is made at: torus midline.
If an autogenous bone graft was placed within a mandibular bone cavity, after one year, where is the bone from within this cavity: mostly from the autogenous bone cells, only the periphery is from the cortical bone places of the cavity.
The prognosis for a mesio-distal furcation involvement of maxillary first premolars is generally good. After proper treatment, this tooth can be used as an abutment for a posterior bridge. Both statements are incorrect.
After implant placement, an edentulous patient should: immediately have healing abutments placed over the implants.
If during a recall of a patient who wears an RPD the dentist finds that the direct retainer and rests would be lifted if he presses on the RPD's edentulous area, what should the dentist do: reline the denture.
There are more detached plaques within supragingival plaques than subgingival plaques. The detached plaques within the subgingival area are the ones that are more toxic to tissue than the attached plaques. Both statements are correct.
The fact that a patient can decide for himself the treatment and the dentist would respect the patient's will: Autonomy
Moyer's Analysis: predicts the size of unerupted canines and premolars by using the mandibular incisors.
Primate Spaces: located between the lateral incisor & canine (maxillary), and canine and 1st molar (mandibular).
Effects of EPI (increase HR & BP, vasoconstriction, brochodilation). It does not cause bronchoconstriction.
Besides inadequate irrigation, another reason for a dentist to fail to totally remove a canal's necrotic tissue is: lack of straight-line access.
Besides drainage, what else should be done for a patient with acute pulpitis: antibiotic prescription.
Why can a perforation to happen on a maxillary 1st premolar during access opening for RCT: mesial concavity.
Why is z-plasty preferred over the diamond technique for a frenum detachment: less scar contraction
One week after multiple extractions and alveolplasty the patient returns with a swelling at the ridge area. The patient does not have a fever nor pain. The swelling extends to the mucogingival fold with fluid inside. X-rays show there are spicules within the swelling. The dentist should surgically drain the swelling and remove the bony spicules.
Patient who suffers from insulin shock turns unconscious: dentist should give an IV injection of 50% dextran water.
In order to give a patient an incisor with a younger look, the dentist can ROUND the incisor edge.
Inadequate attached gingiva without any periodontal signs or symptoms: no treatment is necessary.
A palatal expansion device does not need a labial bow because: a labial bow limits the expansion effect.
What effect does a cervical pull headgear have on maxillary teeth: extrusion and distal movement.
What is the most likely cause of a premature exfoliation of the primary canine: inadequate arch space
When there is premature loss of primary mandibular 2nd molars, the permanent mandibular first molar usually changes its path of eruption by erupting mesially due to: mesial drifting
What happens if there is premature exfoliation of a mandibular primary canine: mandibular incisors would move distally and lingually
A patient who works at a nuclear power plant wears a work badge for detecting exposed amounts of radiation annually. When he comes to see the dentist, the most likely reason that he does not need to wear his badge during the dental x-ray examination is: the badge detects gamma rays, not x-radiation.
A child asking repetitive and persistent questions is most likely: trying to delay the treatment
The problem that dentists encounter the most during treatment of an autistic child is: lack of communication
What disease results in a patient having osteomas and multiple intestinal polyposis: Gardner's Syndrome
A patient who has multiple odontokeratocysts in the jaw and dermal pigmented macules on the back, cyst lesions on the skin: Basal Cell Nevus Syndrome
Which syndrome has the triad of diabetes insipidus, exophthalmos, & multiple bone lesions: Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis
To differentiate cemental dysplasia from a periapical cyst, the dentist should: do a pulp vitality test (EPT).
Periodontal disease can be caused by (poor oral hygiene, plaque, faulty prosthesis), but NOT by Diabetes Mellitus
Which is not a characteristic of Additional Silicones: impression must be poured right away because alcohol would vaporize and cause distortion. Characteristics are: very stable, can be stored for more than a week, can have multiple pours, high accuracy, may release H2 in some materials.
The following have an additive action for each component when used together except: Penicillin + Tetracycline. Aspirin + Acetaminophen, and Atropine + Glycopyrolate (anti-cholinergic) have additive actions when combined.
Patient with nausea and vomiting during N2O sedation: usually inhale too high a concentration of N2O
During fabrication of a pediatric stainless-steel crown, which tooth surface requires the least reduction: lingual
Ataxic epilepsy patient's most common dental problem is: gingival hyperplasia due to their medication
Compared with a porcelain veneer, the most important advantage of a composite resin veneer: Cost
Compared with Type II plaster, which is NOT characteristics of die strength: higher expansion. Better compressive and tensile strengths, and requires less water are characteristics.
Which is a disadvantage of a resin-based GIC over a water-based GIC: easier to manipulate. Advantages of resin-based GICs: better fluoride release, better bonding and esthetics.
Characteristic of an implant that would change the bony resorption pattern is: intraosseous integration
To increase the success rate of treating localized juvenile periodontitis: combine the use of systemic antibiotics
Class II amalgam cavity preparation, what is the purpose of breaking contact at the gingival cavosurface?
Which drugs have active metabolites that prolong its effect: Diazepam, Chlordiazepoxide (all choices but narcotics)
When a child loses the primary 2nd molar before permanent 1st molar eruption, the space maintainer of choice: distal shoes
A black male has erosive lips, erythematous and blisters on his lips. He also has palmar and planta erosion and blisters: Erythema Multiform
An old man came to the clinic with pain and swelling on the left side of his mandible. He had extractions a few months ago and the healing is not going well. The x-ray shows "cotton wool" ground glass radiopacity lesion on the left side of the mandible. The bone margins are diffuse and non-clear. A large area is involved and there is no definite margin: Chronic Osteomyelitis.
A child comes to the clinic with pain at the mandible. X-ray shows "sunflower" outgrowth of bone spicules: Osteosarcoma
Which component in a local anesthetic causes the most toxic effects in a clinical situation: preservatives
When pKa increases for the same lidocaine, what happens to its effect: local anesthetics with a pKa closer to physiologic pH have a higher concentration of the non-ionized base (lipid-soluble) form to pass into the nerve cell causing a more RAPID ONSET of action.
The percentage of specific local anesthetic that is present in the base form when injected in tissue of 7.4pH, what happens to the onset of action and duration of action?
The wax pattern should be washed with soap and water before it is invested to: increase surface wetting ability
A child with a post-operational lip swelling is most likely to have bitten his lip due to the anesthesia.
Which antibiotics should a patient take who needs premedication prophylaxis and who is allergic to penicillins according to the American Heart Association 1997 recommendation: Clindamycin 600mg 1hr prior
The most likely post-operative side effect of a bilateral sagittal split osteotomy: nerve damage
For extracting 3rd molars, the following condition makes the operation easier (elastic bone, conical roots, soft tissue impaction), but NOT a small space within the tooth bud
What procedure is performed on a tooth with a necrotic pulp and unfinished root tip/apex: Apexification
When parents insist on entering the dental office with the child, the child's behavior usually: depends on parent's behavior or gets worse?
During injection of the posterior superior alveolar nerve (PSA) a swelling suddenly occurs, what most likely happened? What is the treatment for this?
The most definite way to differentiate an ameloblastoma and odontogenic keratocyst: smear cytology
When the dentist inserts a new complete denture into a patient's mouth, there is obvious occlusal disharmony. The most likely cause is: initial vertical dimension
If upper anterior teeth are placed too anteriorly & superiorly in a complete denture, the patient would have difficulty pronouncing: "s" and "th" sounds
What was done wrong if resin teeth will not stay fixed to the resin denture base: wax got in between the teeth and acrylic base during processing
For a patient with a faulty amalgam restoration, replacement with casting inlay/onlay might be better because of: better retention
Why during mixing cement, the liquid part is not taken out of its container right before mixing: to prevent loss of volatile materials
A dental patient with Type II Diabetes Mellitus: should eat and have their insulin shot or (hypoglycemic) prior to the dental procedure.
A 5-year old child who lives in a community with water fluoridation of 0.75ppm should have a supplemental fluoride intake of: 0mg (not needed)
The most abundant cells in gingival crevicular fluid in gingivitis and periodontitis: neutrophils
Which parents cannot be treated with beta-blockers as an anti-arrithymic medication: asthma patients
The two most important factors for retention of a complete denture: peripheral seal and intimate tissue contact
The reason a patient would complain of a lower complete denture "popping up" all the time: over-extension
Muscles that determine the lingual border of a mandibular complete denture: glossopalatal, mylohyoid, geniohyoid
When observing an amalgam filling, the dentist found a proximogingival angle deficiency. The most likely main cause of this is: too large an initial amount of amalgam was added to the cavity preparation.
Due to the mesial concavity of the maxillary 1st premolar, prior to amalgam condensation, the tooth is best prepared with: custom wedge and matrix
The parallel x-ray technique follows many rules to optimize the resultant image except for one rule: the target tooth and film should be as close as possible. It does follow the rules: keep the film and target tooth as parallel as possible, the incoming central ray should be perpendicular to the film and target tooth, and the film is placed as far to the x-ray source as possible.
When the electrons hit the anode from the cathode in an x-ray machine, most of the energy is converted into: HEAT
On a panoramic radiograph, there is a soap bubble appearance bilaterally in the region of the angle of the mandible. The condition is most likely: Cherubism
Organisms involved in periodontal disease: P. gingivalis, E species, bacteroids, Campylobacter rectus
If the SNA is 82° and the patient is 90°. The increase indicates a protrusive maxilla (Class II)
A patient has an MOD amalgam placed 3 weeks ago, and the patient now complains of pain with heat. This patient should be treated with: RCT
A 9-year old girl tell the dentist "my mom is always nagging me to brush my teeth." You should respond by saying, " clean teeth are healthy teeth"
The most likely site to perforate when accessing the root canal on a maxillary central: facial surface
All are true regarding composite inlay preparation (rounded internal line angles, cavosurface bevel), but NOT the margin is placed in enamel.
The interpersonal distance zone in which the dentist usually treats their patient is best described as: PERSONAL
Treatment of choice for an 8-year old patient with a 1mm intrusion of the permanent lateral maxillary incisor: allow the tooth to re-erupt
When Diazepam & Atropine are administered together, sedation and relaxation occurs, however analgesia does not.
Principle for an occlusal-lingual amalgam preparation: self retention immediately past where occlusal grooves coalesce.
A radiographic sign of occlusal trama include (hypercementosis, root resorption, alteration of lamina dura & PDL), but NOT vascular infiltration of the PDL.
What is the activity of caries if it is sealed off with a restoration: no activity (it is arrested)
To correct a posterior crossbite, the attachment must be placed on: labial of maxillary and mandibular teeth.
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