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218 terms

2003 Nb-PART II

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2003 NDBE-PART II EXAM
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Which microbe is least likely to be killed in an autoclave: Bacillus
1.
Contaminated sharps must be handled in such ways (container must be labeled, be non-puncturable, be closable) except: does NOT have to be in a metal case.
2.
The closest act the dentist would have for comforting a patient: tap on the shoulder.
3.
The best way to communicate with the patient: talk to the patient while making eye contact.
4.
The patient's sadness can be observed from: his facial expression.
5.
CN V2 should be anesthetized intraorally at the: pterygopalatine fossa or sphenopalatine fossa.
6.
Which condition would delay a dentist's decision to take full mouth x-rays: pregnancy
7.
Post-operative bleeding is most likely caused by the patient failing to follow the post-op instructions.
8.
Nasopalatine duct cyst is located at the midline between maxillary central incisors. EPT (vitality) differentiates it from a periapical cyst.
9.
A patient had a mandibular fracture quite some time ago and now has a painful movable tender mass in the old fracture area near the mental foramen: Traumatic neuroma.
10.
Probing depth differs depending on: if probing depth increases, it may be due to reduction of inflammation and swelling, not due to a real gain of attachment.
11.
If a patient does not have enough posterior inter-arch space for both maxillary and mandibular denture fabrication, it is necessary to: perform a tuberosity operation.
12.
Function of a post is to: provide retention of a core material.
13.
Standard root canal treatments require a dentist to perform the treatment until the: DCJ (dentinocementum junction).
14.
If during RCT the dentist breaks the apical seating and extrudes the file over the foramen, increase the file size and re-create a new apical seat, then fill with the master cone of that size.
15.
A child completes his/her primary dentition to occlusion at age: 2.5 years.
16.
How old does a child/infant start to show the first sign of the primary dentition: prenatal in the uterus at 6 weeks.
17.
If a dentist wants to check if the patient's mandible has suffered from a fracture or not, the best indication is: occlusion and arch continuity.
18.
Best time to perform incision and drainage (I&D) at an area of infection: when the swelling is localized & fluctuant.
19.
If a torus removal must be performed on a patient with a full-mouth dentition, the incision is made at: torus midline.
20.
An allograft is from: freeze-dried human bone graft.
21.
If an autogenous bone graft was placed within a mandibular bone cavity, after one year, where is the bone from within this cavity: mostly from the autogenous bone cells, only the periphery is from the cortical bone places of the cavity.
22.
Enamel pearls occur mostly on: Incisors
23.
The prognosis for a mesio-distal furcation involvement of maxillary first premolars is generally good. After proper treatment, this tooth can be used as an abutment for a posterior bridge. Both statements are incorrect.
24.
After implant placement, an edentulous patient should: immediately have healing abutments placed over the implants.
25.
Tissue condition is used for treating: inflammatory papillary hyperplasia.
26.
If during a recall of a patient who wears an RPD the dentist finds that the direct retainer and rests would be lifted if he presses on the RPD's edentulous area, what should the dentist do: reline the denture.
27.
After periodontal surgery, the re-attachment can happen to dentin or cementum.
28.
Scaling can be done on both enamel and the root surface (cementum).
29.
Root planing can only be done on cementum.
30.
There are more detached plaques within supragingival plaques than subgingival plaques. The detached plaques within the subgingival area are the ones that are more toxic to tissue than the attached plaques. Both statements are correct.
31.
The fact that a patient can decide for himself the treatment and the dentist would respect the patient's will: Autonomy
32.
Moyer's Analysis: predicts the size of unerupted canines and premolars by using the mandibular incisors.
33.
Primate Spaces: located between the lateral incisor & canine (maxillary), and canine and 1st molar (mandibular).
34.
A posterior crossbite should be corrected ASAP.
35.
Effects of EPI (increase HR & BP, vasoconstriction, brochodilation). It does not cause bronchoconstriction.
36.
Besides inadequate irrigation, another reason for a dentist to fail to totally remove a canal's necrotic tissue is: lack of straight-line access.
37.
Besides drainage, what else should be done for a patient with acute pulpitis: antibiotic prescription.
38.
N2O is contraindicated in patients with: mild-moderate asthma.
39.
TMD patients usually have: Psychosis
40.
Why can a perforation to happen on a maxillary 1st premolar during access opening for RCT: mesial concavity.
41.
Why is z-plasty preferred over the diamond technique for a frenum detachment: less scar contraction
42.
If a child has a diastema of 2mm at age 8: it can be a normal condition.
43.
One week after multiple extractions and alveolplasty the patient returns with a swelling at the ridge area. The patient does not have a fever nor pain. The swelling extends to the mucogingival fold with fluid inside. X-rays show there are spicules within the swelling. The dentist should surgically drain the swelling and remove the bony spicules.
44.
Patient who suffers from insulin shock turns unconscious: dentist should give an IV injection of 50% dextran water.
45.
In order to give a patient an incisor with a younger look, the dentist can ROUND the incisor edge.
46.
Inadequate attached gingiva without any periodontal signs or symptoms: no treatment is necessary.
47.
Histologically, an aspirin burn is: mucosal necrosis.
48.
The purpose of leveling the curve of Spee: correct and open the bite.
49.
A palatal expansion device does not need a labial bow because: a labial bow limits the expansion effect.
50.
What effect does a cervical pull headgear have on maxillary teeth: extrusion and distal movement.
51.
Most of the time, why type of force can a removable appliance provide: TIPPING
52.
What is the definition of total anterior facial height on a cephalograph: nasion-menton
53.
Where are points A & B on a cephalograph: between the incisors
54.
What is the most likely cause of a premature exfoliation of the primary canine: inadequate arch space
55.
When there is premature loss of primary mandibular 2nd molars, the permanent mandibular first molar usually changes its path of eruption by erupting mesially due to: mesial drifting
56.
What happens if there is premature exfoliation of a mandibular primary canine: mandibular incisors would move distally and lingually
57.
Inter-canine distance INCREASES after the mixed dentition.
58.
After age 6, mandibular growth of a child mostly happens: posterior to 2nd molars
59.
Where is the maxillary growth center: maxillary tuberosity
60.
If there is no succedaneous tooth, a primary tooth would absorb: more slowly
61.
A patient who works at a nuclear power plant wears a work badge for detecting exposed amounts of radiation annually. When he comes to see the dentist, the most likely reason that he does not need to wear his badge during the dental x-ray examination is: the badge detects gamma rays, not x-radiation.
62.
If there is radiation exposure of 4Gy on the arm, the likely reaction is: Erythema
63.
Which cells are most sensitive to radiotherapy: Hematopoietics
64.
With an upper limb IV injection, the most likely problem is: phlebitis
65.
A child asking repetitive and persistent questions is most likely: trying to delay the treatment
66.
The problem that dentists encounter the most during treatment of an autistic child is: lack of communication
67.
What disease results in a patient having osteomas and multiple intestinal polyposis: Gardner's Syndrome
68.
Polyposis perioral pigmentation is seen with: Peutz-Jeghers
69.
A patient who has multiple odontokeratocysts in the jaw and dermal pigmented macules on the back, cyst lesions on the skin: Basal Cell Nevus Syndrome
70.
Which syndrome has the triad of diabetes insipidus, exophthalmos, & multiple bone lesions: Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis
71.
To differentiate cemental dysplasia from a periapical cyst, the dentist should: do a pulp vitality test (EPT).
72.
Acute pulpitis would cause malaise and fever in a patient.
73.
Aspirin stops pain by interfering with signal interpretation in the CNS.
74.
Natural endorphins are (enkephalin, endorphin, dynorphin), but NOT: Bradykinin
75.
The action of morphine for pain relief: mimicking the body's endorphin system.
76.
Which does not have anti-inflammatory reactions: Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
77.
Periodontal disease can be caused by (poor oral hygiene, plaque, faulty prosthesis), but NOT by Diabetes Mellitus
78.
Which material is very hard to remove from a patient's mouth: POLYETHER
79.
Which is not a characteristic of Additional Silicones: impression must be poured right away because alcohol would vaporize and cause distortion. Characteristics are: very stable, can be stored for more than a week, can have multiple pours, high accuracy, may release H2 in some materials.
80.
Glass ionomer cements is composed of: Aluminosilicate + Polyacrylic Acid
81.
The best and most effective way to remove stained mottled enamel: office bleaching
82.
The microabrasion technique involves: HCL + Pumice
83.
Intrinsic stain can be caused by: Porphyria
84.
The following have an additive action for each component when used together except: Penicillin + Tetracycline. Aspirin + Acetaminophen, and Atropine + Glycopyrolate (anti-cholinergic) have additive actions when combined.
85.
The maximum concentration used for N2O sedation: 50%
86.
Patient with nausea and vomiting during N2O sedation: usually inhale too high a concentration of N2O
87.
The percentage of the US population who see a dentist each year: 60%
88.
The best sedative medication to used in a dental office: N2O
89.
Schedule II Drugs are:
90.
During fabrication of a pediatric stainless-steel crown, which tooth surface requires the least reduction: lingual
91.
Ataxic epilepsy patient's most common dental problem is: gingival hyperplasia due to their medication
92.
The optimal incisal reduction of an anterior PFM crown: 1.5mm
93.
The most important advantage of a porcelain veneer: Esthetics
94.
Compared with a porcelain veneer, the most important advantage of a composite resin veneer: Cost
95.
Compared with Type II plaster, which is NOT characteristics of die strength: higher expansion. Better compressive and tensile strengths, and requires less water are characteristics.
96.
Which is a disadvantage of a resin-based GIC over a water-based GIC: easier to manipulate. Advantages of resin-based GICs: better fluoride release, better bonding and esthetics.
97.
Characteristic of an implant that would change the bony resorption pattern is: intraosseous integration
98.
The recommended number of implants for complete edentulous patients: 6 maxillary + 4 mandibular
99.
The term that describes the number of cases of a disease divided by the population: Prevelance
100.
The median of 10, 20, 20, 20, 30, 35, 40, 40, 50, 50, 60: 35 (the middle number)
101.
An apically positioned flap is almost impossible to perform on: maxillary lingual area
102.
To increase the success rate of treating localized juvenile periodontitis: combine the use of systemic antibiotics
103.
Class II amalgam cavity preparation, what is the purpose of breaking contact at the gingival cavosurface?
104.
What is the purpose of placing retention grooves and where are they placed?
105.
Which feature provides the bond onlay the most retention?
106.
Which drugs have active metabolites that prolong its effect: Diazepam, Chlordiazepoxide (all choices but narcotics)
107.
When a child loses the primary 2nd molar before permanent 1st molar eruption, the space maintainer of choice: distal shoes
108.
A black male has erosive lips, erythematous and blisters on his lips. He also has palmar and planta erosion and blisters: Erythema Multiform
109.
What is the most likely diagnosis of a bilateral white macule on the floor of the mouth?
110.
An old man came to the clinic with pain and swelling on the left side of his mandible. He had extractions a few months ago and the healing is not going well. The x-ray shows "cotton wool" ground glass radiopacity lesion on the left side of the mandible. The bone margins are diffuse and non-clear. A large area is involved and there is no definite margin: Chronic Osteomyelitis.
111.
A child comes to the clinic with pain at the mandible. X-ray shows "sunflower" outgrowth of bone spicules: Osteosarcoma
112.
Which component in a local anesthetic causes the most toxic effects in a clinical situation: preservatives
113.
System effects of Lidocaine & epinephrine:
114.
When pKa increases for the same lidocaine, what happens to its effect: local anesthetics with a pKa closer to physiologic pH have a higher concentration of the non-ionized base (lipid-soluble) form to pass into the nerve cell causing a more RAPID ONSET of action.
115.
The percentage of specific local anesthetic that is present in the base form when injected in tissue of 7.4pH, what happens to the onset of action and duration of action?
116.
The wax pattern should be washed with soap and water before it is invested to: increase surface wetting ability
117.
A child with a post-operational lip swelling is most likely to have bitten his lip due to the anesthesia.
118.
Lidocaine is the local anesthetic that can also be used as a topical anesthetic.
119.
Which antibiotics should a patient take who needs premedication prophylaxis and who is allergic to penicillins according to the American Heart Association 1997 recommendation: Clindamycin 600mg 1hr prior
120.
A tongue with a smooth, pink swelling of the dorsum: Fibroma
121.
The most likely post-operative side effect of a bilateral sagittal split osteotomy: nerve damage
122.
Which nerve would the ramus split osteotomy most likely damage: inferior alveolar nerve
123.
For extracting 3rd molars, the following condition makes the operation easier (elastic bone, conical roots, soft tissue impaction), but NOT a small space within the tooth bud
124.
An open-ended question: allows patient to respond freely
125.
The most common medication for Trigeminal neuralgia: Tegretol
126.
A patient taking Dicumarol most likely has a history of: coronal infarct
127.
The common sign of all types of shock: lack of perfusion
128.
The first sign of a patient suffering from insulin shock: sweating
129.
Which areas should scalloping be reduced in periodontal surgery: anterior esthetic region
130.
The best sign of a successful apexogenesis: continuous completion of the root apex
131.
What procedure is performed on a tooth with a necrotic pulp and unfinished root tip/apex: Apexification
132.
Which sycope is most common in the dental office: psychogenic
133.
When parents insist on entering the dental office with the child, the child's behavior usually: depends on parent's behavior or gets worse?
134.
The toxic effect of sulfram is produced by which of its metabolites: acetyl aldehyde
135.
During injection of the posterior superior alveolar nerve (PSA) a swelling suddenly occurs, what most likely happened? What is the treatment for this?
136.
Which injection most likely has a positive aspiration:
137.
Which drug produces gingival hyperplasia and immunodepression: Phenytoin
138.
A child who is having leukemia treatment most likely has an infection of: Candidiasis
139.
The most definite way to differentiate an ameloblastoma and odontogenic keratocyst: smear cytology
140.
The most likely diagnosis of a soft tissue lesion fixed at the margins: malignancy
141.
The cyst that has lymphoid tissue and epitheloid cells: lymphoepithelioid cyst
142.
The most likely sign of a neoplasm: Anaplasia
143.
When the dentist inserts a new complete denture into a patient's mouth, there is obvious occlusal disharmony. The most likely cause is: initial vertical dimension
144.
A dentist who uses 5-HEMA for clinical situations most likely experiences: contact dermatitis
145.
If upper anterior teeth are placed too anteriorly & superiorly in a complete denture, the patient would have difficulty pronouncing: "s" and "th" sounds
146.
What was done wrong if resin teeth will not stay fixed to the resin denture base: wax got in between the teeth and acrylic base during processing
147.
What is the purpose of beveling at the MON cavosurface?
148.
For a patient with a faulty amalgam restoration, replacement with casting inlay/onlay might be better because of: better retention
149.
When the restorative material is resin, a ZOE base material should be avoided (not be used).
150.
Why during mixing cement, the liquid part is not taken out of its container right before mixing: to prevent loss of volatile materials
151.
Red erosion at the gingiva, buccal mucosa, and tongue is: erosive lichen planus
152.
A dental patient with Type II Diabetes Mellitus: should eat and have their insulin shot or (hypoglycemic) prior to the dental procedure.
153.
A 5-year old child who lives in a community with water fluoridation of 0.75ppm should have a supplemental fluoride intake of: 0mg (not needed)
154.
The best concentration of APF for clinical use: 1.23%
155.
0.5oz of chlorhexidine = ___ml of chorhexidine?
156.
Which field can be a specialty according to the ADA: public health
157.
The most abundant cells in gingival crevicular fluid in gingivitis and periodontitis: neutrophils
158.
Which parents cannot be treated with beta-blockers as an anti-arrithymic medication: asthma patients
159.
The most important factor for retention of a complete denture: peripheral seal
160.
The two most important factors for retention of a complete denture: peripheral seal and intimate tissue contact
161.
The reason a patient would complain of a lower complete denture "popping up" all the time: over-extension
162.
The cause of epulis fissuratum: an unstable denture
163.
A patient complains his TMJ pops on opening and clicks during closing: reciprocal clicking
164.
Muscles that determine the lingual border of a mandibular complete denture: glossopalatal, mylohyoid, geniohyoid
165.
The salivary gland most likely to have a sialolith: submandibular gland
166.
The most common intra-oral site of a melanoma: hard palate
167.
When observing an amalgam filling, the dentist found a proximogingival angle deficiency. The most likely main cause of this is: too large an initial amount of amalgam was added to the cavity preparation.
168.
Which type of amalgam requires larger condensers and lateral condensation: Spherical
169.
Which metal element of the cobalt-chromium alloy provides anti-corrosion properties: chromium
170.
Due to the mesial concavity of the maxillary 1st premolar, prior to amalgam condensation, the tooth is best prepared with: custom wedge and matrix
171.
The tooth with the most consistent root canal: maxillary canine
172.
Maxillary lateral incisor root tip usually tips to the: distal
173.
Which tooth has a triangular canal shape: maxillary central incisor
174.
The pulp chamber shape of a mandibular first molar with 4 canals: trapezoidal
175.
The buccal curvature of roots cannot be observed on a x-ray.
176.
The parallel x-ray technique follows many rules to optimize the resultant image except for one rule: the target tooth and film should be as close as possible. It does follow the rules: keep the film and target tooth as parallel as possible, the incoming central ray should be perpendicular to the film and target tooth, and the film is placed as far to the x-ray source as possible.
177.
When the electrons hit the anode from the cathode in an x-ray machine, most of the energy is converted into: HEAT
178.
On a panoramic radiograph, there is a soap bubble appearance bilaterally in the region of the angle of the mandible. The condition is most likely: Cherubism
179.
Radiographic widening of the PDL space around all teeth: Scleroderma
180.
Treatment of a tooth fractured below the alveolar bone level: Extraction
181.
SCIATIC NERVE can be injured when giving a patient an injection in the buttocks.
182.
A child with nursing bottle caries has caries: buccally on maxillary anterior teeth.
183.
The apical foramen most often exits the root canal 0.5mm from the apex.
184.
The dental x-ray machine tube is surrounded by OIL
185.
The best way to image the TMJ: MRI
186.
The local anesthetic most likely to produce a hematoma: PSA nerve block
187.
In taking radiographs, mA controls the MEAN ENERGY of the x-ray.
188.
Recent myocardial infarction (MI) is contraindicated in elective RCT.
189.
Organisms involved in periodontal disease: P. gingivalis, E species, bacteroids, Campylobacter rectus
190.
If a new patient informs you he is taking Dicumarol daily, you would want to order a PT test.
191.
The nerve involved with a LeForte II fracture: infraorbital nerve
192.
When orthodontically moving a tooth, the center of resistance is: ½ down the root
193.
If the SNA is 82° and the patient is 90°. The increase indicates a protrusive maxilla (Class II)
194.
A patient has an MOD amalgam placed 3 weeks ago, and the patient now complains of pain with heat. This patient should be treated with: RCT
195.
Cement of choice for composite inlays/onlays: resin cement
196.
Percent of mandibular first molars with 4 canals: 35-40%
197.
A 9-year old girl tell the dentist "my mom is always nagging me to brush my teeth." You should respond by saying, " clean teeth are healthy teeth"
198.
The most likely site to perforate when accessing the root canal on a maxillary central: facial surface
199.
With a Modified Widman Flap, you most likely reduce bone by: removing infected osseous tissue
200.
A clinical remount is done to compensate for VDO
201.
All are true regarding composite inlay preparation (rounded internal line angles, cavosurface bevel), but NOT the margin is placed in enamel.
202.
A finding of juvenile periodontitis: Leukopenia
203.
The interpersonal distance zone in which the dentist usually treats their patient is best described as: PERSONAL
204.
Treatment of choice for an 8-year old patient with a 1mm intrusion of the permanent lateral maxillary incisor: allow the tooth to re-erupt
205.
Biotransformation is all (conjugation, hydrolysis, oxidation), but NOT covalent bonds
206.
When Diazepam & Atropine are administered together, sedation and relaxation occurs, however analgesia does not.
207.
Principle for an occlusal-lingual amalgam preparation: self retention immediately past where occlusal grooves coalesce.
208.
A radiographic sign of occlusal trama include (hypercementosis, root resorption, alteration of lamina dura & PDL), but NOT vascular infiltration of the PDL.
209.
Properties of sodium hypochlorite that is most undesirable is: toxicity to vital dentin
210.
What is the activity of caries if it is sealed off with a restoration: no activity (it is arrested)
211.
The most frequent site from where pain radiates to the ear: mandibular molar
212.
The therapeutic index of a drug indicates the drug's relative: Efficacy
213.
Cleft palate deformity occurs during which trimester of pregnancy: First Trimester
214.
Advantages of hybrid glass ionomers:
215.
To correct a posterior crossbite, the attachment must be placed on: labial of maxillary and mandibular teeth.
216.
The majority of cells in dental pulp are: fibroblasts
217.