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354 terms

Nutrition #5

STUDY
PLAY
Approximately how much water (lbs) is found in a 134-lb person?
a. 34
b. 65
c. 80
d. 105
c
What is the body's most indispensable nutrient?
a. Fat
b. Water
c. Protein
d. Glucose
b
What fraction of lean tissue represents the water content?
a. 1/10
b. 1/3
c. 1/2
d. 3/4
d
Which of the following is not a function of water in the body?
a. Lubricant
b. Source of energy
c. Maintains protein structure
d. Participant in chemical reactions
b
Which of the following contributes most to the weight of the human body?
a. Iron
b. Water
c. Protein
d. Calcium
b
Among the following groups, which has the highest percentage of body water?
a. Elderly
b. Children
c. Obese people
d. Female adolescents
b
In the body, water that resides between cells is known as
a. diuretic fluid.
b. interstitial fluid.
c. edematous fluid.
d. intravascular fluid.
b
All of the following are mild symptoms of dehydration except
a. thirst.
b. fatigue.
c. weakness.
d. spastic muscles
d
Which of the following body structures helps to regulate thirst?
a. Brain stem
b. Cerebellum
c. Optic nerve
d. Hypothalamus
d
Where is interstitial water found?
a. Within cells
b. Between cells
c. Within the lungs
d. Within blood vessels
b
Which of the following is a feature of water and nutrition?
a. Water intoxication is rare but can result in death
b. Water losses from the body are highest through the feces
c. Chronic high intakes increase the risk for bladder cancer
d. Soft water has significant concentrations of magnesium and calcium
a
What minimum level of body weight loss as water impairs a person's physical performance?
a. 1-2%
b. 3-4%
c. 5-9%
d. 10-15%
b
What minimum percentage of body weight loss as water results in fatigue, weakness, and loss of appetite?
a. 1-2
b. 3-4
c. 5-6
d. 7-8
a
Abnormally low blood sodium concentration is known specifically as
a. hypertension.
b. hyponatremia.
c. hyperkalemia.
d. water intoxication
b
Which of the following is a feature of water?
a. Not a vital nutrient
b. Not found in foods
c. Oxidized to yield energy
d. Generated from oxidation of energy nutrients
d
The average daily loss of water via the kidneys, lungs, feces, and skin is approximately
a. 0 to 0.5 liters.
b. 0.5 to 1.5 liters.
c. 1.5 to 2.5 liters.
d. 3.0 to 4.0 liters.
c
What is the minimum amount of water (mL) that must be excreted each day as urine in order to carry away the body's waste products?
a. 100
b. 250
c. 500
d. 1,000
c
What is the minimum water intake for a 65-kg adult with an energy expenditure of 2,500 kcalories?
a. 250 mL
b. 650 mL
c. 1,250 mL
d. 2,500 mL
d
Approximately how much water is in a loaf of bread?
a. 2% of the loaf
b. 5% of the loaf
c. 20% of the loaf
d. 35% of the loaf
d
The minimum amount of water that must be excreted by the body to dispose of its wastes is termed
a. life supporting fluid loss.
b. mandatory water fraction.
c. obligatory water excretion.
d. minimum daily water requirement.
c
The approximate percentage of water in pizza is
a. 5.
b. 15.
c. 30.
d. 45.
d
Approximately how many mL of water/day are produced by metabolism?
a. 100
b. 250
c. 500
d. 750
b
Which of the following is present in highest concentration in soft water?
a. Sodium
b. Calcium
c. Magnesium
d. Phosphorus
a
Habitual intake of soft water is most likely to aggravate
a. scurvy.
b. diabetes.
c. hypertension.
d. megaloblastic anemia
c
Which of the following is a characteristic of caffeine intake and water balance?
a. Caffeine inhibits water absorption from the GI tract
b. Caffeine is known to act as a diuretic only when consumed as coffee or tea
c. Regular intake of caffeine promotes an increase in water retention of the interstitial fluid volume
d. Habitual consumers of caffeine lose almost no more fluid from the body than when ingesting noncaffeinated beverages
d
Which of the following types of drinking water contains the lowest amount of minerals?
a. Soft water
b. Hard water
c. Natural water
d. Distilled water
d
What organ provides the major control for homeostasis of body fluids?
a. Liver
b. Heart
c. Kidneys
d. Skeletal muscle
c
How does antidiuretic hormone function?
a. It activates renin
b. It activates angiotension
c. It stimulates water reabsorption by the kidneys
d. It stimulates sodium reabsorption by the kidneys
c
What pituitary hormone regulates kidney retention of water?
a. Thyroxine
b. Cortisone
c. Epinephrine
d. Antidiuretic hormone
d
Factors that are effective in regulating the body's water balance include all of the following except
a. adrenaline.
b. aldosterone.
c. angiotensin.
d. antidiuretic hormone
a
Aldosterone and renin each function to promote
a. electrolyte balance.
b. retention of sodium.
c. excretion of calcium.
d. constriction of blood vessels
b
Among the following, which promotes constriction of blood vessels resulting in elevation of blood pressure?
a. Phytates
b. Angiotensin
c. Aldosterone
d. Carbonic acid
b
What is the function of renin?
a. Activates angiotensin
b. Activates antidiuretic hormone
c. Stimulates the thirst mechanism
d. Stimulates water absorption from the GI tract
a
Ions that carry a positive charge are called
a. anions.
b. cations.
c. mineralytes.
d. valence ions
b
Which of the following describes a way to make an electrolyte solution?
a. Dissolve a teaspoon of salt in a glass of water
b. Vigorously shake a mixture of corn oil and water
c. Dissolve a pinch of corn starch in a glass of water
d. Vigorously shake a pinch of table sugar in warm water
a
What is the major extracellular anion?
a. Sodium
b. Lactate
c. Sulfate
d. Chloride
d
What is the major intracellular anion?
a. Protein
b. Sodium
c. Phosphate
d. Bicarbonate
c
What is the major extracellular cation?
a. Sodium
b. Sulfate
c. Protein
d. Potassium
a
What is the major intracellular cation?
a. Sodium
b. Calcium
c. Phosphate
d. Potassium
d
All of the following are properties of electrolytes except
a. they attract water.
b. they are charged particles.
c. they carry electrical current.
d. they include fat-soluble as well as water-soluble particles.
d
What is the term for the pressure that develops when two solutions of varying concentrations are separated by a membrane?
a. Hypotension
b. Hypertension
c. Osmotic pressure
d. Hypertonic pressure
c
What is the force that moves water into a space where a solute is more concentrated?
a. Buffer action
b. Osmotic pressure
c. Permeable selectivity
d. Electrolyte imbalance
b
What is the sodium-potassium pump?
a. A cell membrane protein that uses energy to pump sodium into the cell
b. A cell membrane protein that uses energy to pump sodium out of the cell
c. A mechanism present throughout interstitial fluid for draining sodium from the circulation
d. A mechanism present in the kidneys that exchanges sodium with lactic acid in order to regulate organic acid concentration
b
When a person loses fluid by sweating or bleeding, what minerals are lost in greatest quantity?
a. Sodium and chloride
b. Bicarbonate and sulfate
c. Calcium and magnesium
d. Potassium and phosphate
a
All of the following are typical ingredients in an oral rehydration therapy formula except
a. salt.
b. water.
c. sugar.
d. protein
d
The normal blood pH range is approximately
a. 6.80-7.15.
b. 6.98-7.12.
c. 7.35-7.45.
d. 7.55-8.55
c
All of the following are common participants in the regulation of body fluid pH except
a. proteins.
b. oxalic acid.
c. bicarbonate.
d. carbonic acid
a
All of the following play important roles in acid-base balance except
a. the liver.
b. the lungs.
c. the kidneys.
d. blood buffers
a
What organ is the chief regulator of the body's acid-base balance?
a. Skin
b. Liver
c. Kidneys
d. Stomach
c
What is a chief function of carbonic acid in the body?
a. Activates andiotensin
b. Activates angiotensinogen
c. Helps with gastric digestion
d. Helps maintain acid-base balance
d
Which of the following is a general property of the minerals?
a. When a food is burned, all the minerals are found in the ash
b. Absorption efficiency from foods is similar among the minerals
c. Minerals in food can be degraded by certain processing methods
d. Some minerals in food are destroyed by exposure to ultraviolet light
a
Which of the following does not serve as a major regulator of fluid balance in the body?
a. Sodium
b. Chloride
c. Calcium
d. Potassium
c
Which of the following events is specific to a salt-sensitive individual?
a. Blood pressure increases as salt intake rises
b. Immune system is activated when salt intake increases
c. Muscle cramps occur when body sodium becomes depleted
d. Thirst response is activated upon consumption of a sodium-rich food
a
In a normal individual with a daily requirement of 500 mg sodium, what would be the sodium balance after an intake of 10 g of common salt?
a. Equilibrium
b. Slight positive balance
c. Strong positive balance
d. Moderate positive balance
a
Normally, what is the relationship of the amount of sodium excreted to the amount ingested that day?
a. Intake is higher
b. Excretion is higher
c. Intake and excretion are equal
d. Excretion is unrelated to intake
c
What is another term for hypertension?
a. High blood sodium
b. High blood pressure
c. Excessive mental stress
d. Excessive muscular contraction
b
Salt-sensitive population groups include all of the following except
a. Caucasians.
b. African-Americans.
c. people with obesity.
d. people with diabetes
a
The DASH diet plan was devised to prevent
a. dehydration.
b. constipation.
c. osteoporosis.
d. hypertension
d
How much sodium is contained in a fast-food deluxe hamburger that lists a salt content of 2.5 g?
a. 100 mg
b. 125 mg
c. 1,000 mg
d. 2,500 mg
c
Even in people with normal blood pressure, what percent are salt sensitive?
a. 10
b. 25
c. 50
d. 100
b
Sam has recently been diagnosed with high blood pressure. His doctor recommended adopting the DASH diet plan. Along with including more fruits, vegetables, and whole grains, he was also advised to reduce daily sodium intake to no more than 2000 mg. How much salt (g) would be allowed under Sam's restriction?
a. 5
b. 6.5
c. 8
d. 9.5
a
What is the greatest single source of sodium in the diet?
a. Processed foods
b. Unprocessed foods
c. Natural salt content of foods
d. Salt added during cooking and at the table
a
What percentage of a person's total sodium intake derives from naturally occurring food sodium?
a. 0
b. 10
c. 50
d. 80
b
Which of the following is a feature of sodium and health?
a. Salt sensitivity is generally rare in African-Americans
b. High sodium intake is known to promote calcium excretion
c. High sodium intake over many years leads to hypertension in most people
d. Sodium alone and sodium in salt have nearly equivalent effects on blood pressure
b
Which of the following is a general characteristic of sodium in processed foods?
a. Instant chocolate pudding is a low-sodium food
b. Processed foods contribute less than half of the sodium in our diets
c. Salted peanuts contain less sodium than cereals on a per-gram basis
d. Dairy products and meats represent major sources of sodium in our diets
c
Why are salt tablets generally not recommended for people engaged in physical activity?
a. They can induce dehydration
b. They suppress the thirst mechanisms
c. They may lead to complete kidney failure
d. They reduce blood glucose concentration
a
What is the Tolerable Upper Intake Level for salt?
a. 0.5 teaspoons
b. 1 teaspoon
c. 0.5 tablespoons
d. 1 tablespoon
b
Hyponatremia refers to low blood concentration of
a. renin.
b. sodium.
c. chloride.
d. aldosterone
b
What adverse response is known to occur in people who drink copious amounts of water while participating in intense physical activity?
a. Dehydration
b. Hyponatremia
c. Metabolic alkalosis
d. Elevated blood sodium
b
Which of the following is a feature of sodium nutrition?
a. It has no AI because diets rarely lack sodium
b. It has no AI because the kidneys are highly efficient at regulating sodium balance
c. The AI is 3 g, an amount that has been shown to have little or no effect on blood pressure
d. The AI for young adults is only 1500 mg because the body possesses an unusually efficient retention mechanism
d
Which of the following minerals would a bulimia nervosa patient be likely to lose in the greatest amount?
a. Calcium
b. Chloride
c. Potassium
d. Phosphorus
b
Which of the following is a major function of chloride?
a. Participates in wound healing
b. Helps maintain gastric acidity
c. Acts as principal intracellular electrolyte
d. Protects bone structures against degeneration
b
All of the following are characteristics of chloride in nutrition except
a. deficiencies are extremely rare.
b. intake is related, in large part, to sodium intake.
c. it is necessary for maintaining electrolyte balance of body fluids.
d. the recommended intake has recently been set at 10 mg/kg body weight
d
Which of the following is the primary function of potassium?
a. Participates in wound healing
b. Helps maintain gastric acidity
c. Acts as principal intracellular electrolyte
d. Protects bone structures against degeneration
c
Which of the following is not a feature of potassium deficiency?
a. It leads to hyperglycemia
b. It leads to higher blood pressure
c. It can be prevented by consumption of potatoes
d. It is common due to availability of only a few good food sources
d
Barbara has been healthy up to the past couple of weeks, but since then has been complaining of considerable muscle weakness. Her doctor just received the results of blood tests, which showed that she is deficient in potassium. If Barbara continues her current habits of consuming a diet low in potassium, for which of the following disorders is she most likely to be at risk?
a. Rickets
b. Arthritis
c. Low blood pressure
d. High blood pressure
d
Which of the following is a feature of potassium?
a. It is unrelated to blood pressure
b. Liberal intakes may correct hypertension
c. Major dietary sources are processed foods
d. Deficiencies are usually the result of deficient intakes
b
Which of the following is a symptom of potassium deficiency?
a. Extreme thirst
b. Muscle weakness
c. Profound sweating
d. Lowered blood pressure
b
Which of the following people are at known risk for potassium depletion?
a. Athletes who are body-builders
b. Construction workers in cold climates
c. Those who ingest low amounts of fresh fruits/vegetables
d. Those who consume insufficient amounts of salted foods
c
All of the following are features of potassium in nutrition except
a. processed foods are a major source.
b. high intakes may protect against stroke.
c. per serving size, legumes are a rich source.
d. per serving size, bananas are a rich source
a
Which of the following is not among the common food sources of potassium?
a. Cheeses
b. Potatoes
c. Fresh fruits
d. Orange juice
a
Which of the following is a feature of potassium supplements?
a. Can cause toxicity
b. Should always be taken with diuretics
c. Necessary in treatment of low blood pressure
d. Absorption of the mineral decreases markedly as intake increases
a
Approximately what percentage of the body's calcium is found in the blood?
a. 1
b. 5
c. 15
d. 25
a
Almost all (99%) of the calcium in the body is used to
a. provide energy for cells.
b. provide rigidity for the bones and teeth.
c. regulate the transmission of nerve impulses.
d. maintain the blood level of calcium within very narrow limits
b
What is hydroxyapatite?
a. Abnormal cellular structures seen in osteoporosis
b. The calcium-rich crystalline structure of teeth and bones
c. A calcium regulatory hormone secreted from the trabeculae region of bone
d. A compound in plant foods that binds to calcium and phosphorus and inhibits absorption
b
As far as is known, which of the following is not a process that directly involves calcium?
a. pH regulation
b. Blood clotting
c. Nerve transmission
d. Maintenance of heart beat
a
What is calmodulin?
a. A calcium-binding protein
b. A drug that treats osteoporosis
c. A calcium supplement with high bioavailability
d. A form of calcium used in fortifying soy products
a
Which of the following is a feature of calcium in the body?
a. High blood calcium levels correlate with tetany
b. Abnormal dietary calcium intakes promote calcium rigor
c. Higher calcium intakes correlate with lower body fatness
d. Efficiency of intestinal calcium absorption is similar for children and adults
c
Which of the following regulates the level of calcium in the blood?
a. Dietary intake of calcium
b. Glucagon and epinephrine
c. Dietary intake of phosphorus
d. Parathyroid hormone and calcitonin
d
Tiffany is a strict vegan and does not consume calcium-rich plant foods nor supplements of calcium. Which of the following is most responsible for maintaining her blood calcium levels in the normal range?
a. Calcitonin
b. Calmodulin
c. Hydroxyapatite
d. Parathyroid hormone
d
Which of the following represents the least likely cause for an abnormal blood calcium level?
a. Diseases of the liver
b. Diseases of the kidney
c. Insufficient dietary intake
d. Altered secretion of parathyroid hormone
c
The muscle stiffness that results from abnormally high calcium levels in the blood is termed
a. calcium rigor.
b. calcium tetany.
c. myosinotoxicosis.
d. calmodulin dysfunction
a
Calcium absorption is facilitated by the presence of
a. fiber.
b. lactose.
c. phytic acid.
d. oxalic acid
b
All of the following are known to enhance calcium absorption from the GI tract except
a. lactose.
b. oxalates.
c. pregnancy.
d. stomach acid
b
Which of the following foods are significant sources of oxalates?
a. Seeds and nuts
b. Processed cheeses
c. Fermented dairy products
d. Spinach and sweet potatoes
d
How much calcium (mg) would typically be absorbed by a normal adult with a calcium intake of 1,000 mg?
a. 100
b. 300
c. 600
d. 950
b
All of the following dietary substances are known to adversely affect calcium balance except
a. a high-fiber diet.
b. lactose in the diet.
c. phytic acid in the diet.
d. phosphorus in the diet at a level 3 times that of calcium
b
Calcium-binding protein acts within the
a. kidneys.
b. intestines.
c. cortical bone.
d. trabecular bone
b
Which of the following is a risk of consuming calcium supplements above the UL?
a. Calcium tetany
b. Atrophic gastritis
c. Vitamin D deficiency
d. Kidney stone formation
d
Which of the following are good sources of dietary calcium?
a. Fruits
b. Breads
c. Enriched grains
d. Certain green vegetables
d
Which of the following green vegetables shows the lowest bioavailability of calcium?
a. Kale
b. Spinach
c. Broccoli
d. Mustard greens
b
On a per kcalorie basis, which of the following are the best sources of calcium?
a. Meats
b. Fruits
c. Breads
d. Vegetables
d
Which of the following shows the highest bioavailability for calcium?
a. Milk
b. Spinach
c. Broccoli
d. Pinto beans
c
All of the following are good plant sources of calcium for the body except
a. spinach.
b. almonds.
c. corn tortillas.
d. sesame seeds
a
Which of the following ages (years) is typically associated with people having the densest bone?
a. 15
b. 28
c. 35
d. 46
b
At what age do adults normally begin to lose bone mass?
a. 30-40 yrs
b. 40-50 yrs
c. 50-60 yrs
d. 60-70 yrs
a
Approximately how many people in the United States are afflicted with osteoporosis?
a. 500,000
b. 5 million
c. 25 million
d. 50 million
d
Certain green leafy vegetables have a very low calcium bioavailability due to the presence of
a. low calcium content.
b. low vitamin D content.
c. naturally occurring binders.
d. high magnesium content, which lowers calcium absorption
c
Which of the following is a feature of osteoporosis?
a. It is most common in men over 45 years of age
b. It has virtually no effect on blood calcium levels
c. It results from short-term deprivation of dietary calcium
d. It causes significant alterations in the blood levels of parathormone and calcitonin
b
What is the calcium Adequate Intake for young adults?
a. 500 mg
b. 800 mg
c. 1000 mg
d. 1500 mg
c
All of the following are characteristics of phosphorus in nutrition except
a. high dietary intakes have no adverse effects.
b. about 85% of the body's phosphorus is located in bones and teeth.
c. the phosphoric acid in cola drinks has little effect on bone content.
d. the ratio of phosphorus to calcium in the diet is important for bone maintenance
d
Which of the following is a feature of phosphorus?
a. Involved in energy exchange
b. Activates fat-soluble vitamins
c. Ranks lowest among the minerals in amount present in the body
d. Ranks highest among the minerals in amount present in the body
a
Which of the following is a feature of phosphorus in nutrition?
a. Dietary sources include fresh vegetables
b. Dietary deficiencies are virtually unknown
c. Absorption is known to be reduced by soft drink consumption
d. Its participation in bone synthesis requires equivalent intake of dietary calcium
b
Which of the following minerals is involved in the transportation of lipids through the body's lymph and blood systems?
a. Iron
b. Sodium
c. Calcium
d. Phosphorus
d
Which of the following minerals is least likely to be deficient in anyone's diet?
a. Iron
b. Calcium
c. Chromium
d. Phosphorus
d
All of the following characteristics are shared by calcium and magnesium except
a. both are involved in blood clotting.
b. both are involved in bone formation.
c. both are found in abundance in dairy products.
d. both may result in tetany when blood levels become abnormally low.
c
Where is the majority of the body's magnesium found?
a. Bones
b. Teeth
c. Fatty tissue
d. Cells of soft tissue
a
Which of the following is a major function of magnesium?
a. Transport of oxygen
b. Prevention of anemia
c. Catalyst in energy metabolism
d. Production of thyroid hormone
c
A friend shows you a newspaper article titled "Magnesium's Role in ATP Synthesis." You explain that
a. magnesium does not play a role in ATP synthesis.
b. it is not magnesium but manganese that plays the role in ATP synthesis.
c. magnesium serves as a catalyst in the reaction that adds the last phosphate to ATP.
d. there are three magnesium groups within the ATP structure that help it do its work
c
Which of the following minerals is required in the enzymatic phosphorylation of ADP?
a. Iron
b. Copper
c. Sodium
d. Magnesium
d
Which of the following is a feature of magnesium nutrition?
a. The average body contains about 100 g
b. Blood is a major reservoir of the mineral
c. Deficiency is associated with hypertension
d. Dietary intake data are the sum of the amounts from food and water
c
Which of the following is a feature of magnesium in nutrition?
a. Toxicity is common in people taking diuretics
b. High intakes interfere with stability of tooth enamel
c. The amounts present in hard water are poorly utilized
d. Average intakes from food are below recommendations
d
The magnesium present in mineral water has a bioavailability of about
a. 5%.
b. 25%.
c. 50%.
d. 90%.
c
Magnesium is known to be involved in all of the following except
a. blood clotting.
b. muscle contraction.
c. prevention of dental caries.
d. production of red blood cells
d
Sulfur is present in practically all
a. vitamins.
b. proteins.
c. fatty acids.
d. carbohydrates
b
Some amino acids can link to each other by bridges made of
a. sulfur.
b. calcium.
c. chloride.
d. magnesium.
a
What is the major source of dietary sulfur?
a. Fats
b. Protein
c. Mineral salts
d. Carbohydrates
b
All of the following are known to have a high sulfur content except
a. skin.
b. hair.
c. teeth.
d. nails
c
The outer, hard shell of bone is called
a. cortical bone.
b. dolomitic bone.
c. trabecular bone.
d. hydroxyl bone
a
All of the following are characteristics of dolomite supplements except
a. efficiency of absorption is poor.
b. they are usually sold as a very pure product.
c. they contain both calcium and magnesium.
d. they are commonly extracted from limestone
b
Which of the following is a function of trabecular bone?
a. Synthesis of vitamin D
b. Synthesis of calcitonin
c. Storage site for calcium
d. Storage site for vitamin D
c
The incidence of death within 1 year of sustaining a hip fracture is about
a. 2%
b. 6%
c. 14%
d. 25%
d
In what decade of life does osteoporosis first begin in men and women?
a. Fourth
b. Fifth
c. Sixth
d. Seventh
a
For every man who has type I osteoporosis, about how many women have it?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 6
d
The most common fracture sites of osteoporosis type I are
a. spine and wrist.
b. hip and femur.
c. neck and shoulder.
d. elbow and knee
a
What does a DEXA scan measure?
a. Bone density
b. Severity of bone microfractures
c. Bioavailability of calcium supplements
d. Calcium absorption and excretion balance
a
Which of the following is a feature of type I osteoporosis?
a. It shows onset after 70 years of age
b. It can be prevented by taking estrogen
c. It leads to formation of the "dowager's hump"
d. Its prevalence is similar between males and females
b
What percentage of hip fractures in men and women are due to osteoporosis?
a. 40-50
b. 60-75
c. 80-90
d. 100
c
All of the following are known to have a high correlation with risk for osteoporosis except
a. being thin.
b. being female.
c. having anorexia nervosa.
d. consuming a high-protein diet
d
Protective factors for osteoporosis include all of the following except
a. obesity.
b. female gender.
c. moderate alcohol intake.
d. having African American heritage
b
The strongest predictor for loss of bone density is a person's
a. sex.
b. age.
c. calcium intake.
d. blood estrogen level
b
The development of osteoporosis in men typically occurs at what age in relation to the appearance of osteoporosis in women?
a. 3 years later
b. 10 years later
c. About the same
d. 4 years earlier
b
A person's highest bone density is achieved by around age (years)
a. 18.
b. 30.
c. 55.
d. 70
b
What percentage of people with osteoporosis are female?
a. 20
b. 40
c. 60
d. 80
d
After age, what is the next strongest risk factor for osteoporosis?
a. Sex
b. Tobacco use
c. Calcium intake
d. Physical activity level
a
Antiresorptive drug treatments for osteoporosis work primarily by
a. stimulating parathormone release.
b. inhibiting kidney excretion of calcium.
c. stimulating intestinal calcium absorption.
d. inhibiting the activities of the bone-degrading cells
d
Anabolic drug treatments for osteoporosis work chiefly by
a. stimulating estrogen release.
b. enhancing osteoblast activity.
c. stimulating calcium absorption.
d. reducing renal calcium excretion.
b
Estrogen therapy for osteoporosis is often rejected because it may increase risk for
a. cancer.
b. heart disease.
c. hypertension.
d. diverticulosis
a
Which of the following is not known to be a risk factor for osteoporosis in men?
a. High BMI
b. Alcohol abuse
c. Corticosteroid use
d. Low testosterone levels
a
The primary mechanism by which soy consumption may lower the risk for osteoporosis is related to
a. greater kidney retention of calcium.
b. the presence of bioavailable calcium.
c. more stable hydroxyapatite crystal formation.
d. the estrogen-like activity of soy phytochemicals
d
What component of soy is thought to account for most of its beneficial effects on bone health?
a. Fiber
b. Protein
c. Calcium
d. Phytochemicals
d
Among the following ethnic groups, which has the highest bone density?
a. Japanese
b. Caucasian
c. African-American
d. South American Hispanic
c
What is the incidence of bone fractures in African American women in comparison with Caucasian women?
a. Same
b. One-half as much
c. Twice as much
d. Three times as much
b
Which of the following is a feature of physical activity and bone health?
a. Dancing is not an effective activity for helping maintain bone density
b. Weight training improves bone density in young but not older women
c. Working the muscles places stress on bones which promotes bone density
d. Weight-bearing activities are effective in maintaining bone mass in adults but not in adolescents
c
Which of the following best explains why Asians from Japan and China show fewer bone fractures than do Caucasians and Hispanic people?
a. They have denser bones
b. They have small, compact, hips
c. They have higher calcium intakes
d. They use less tobacco and alcohol
b
Which of the following is not a feature of body weight and bone health?
a. Weight loss adversely affects bone density
b. Negative energy balance typically reduces calcium absorption
c. A low-calcium diet promotes similar bone loss in normal and overweight people
d. People with BMIs over 30 have denser bones than their counterparts with BMIs around 25
c
All of the following are features of bone health and smoking except
a. bone density appears to recover in former smokers.
b. older smokers have less dense bones than older nonsmokers.
c. sedentary smokers have less dense bones than sedentary nonsmokers.
d. smokers adapt by increasing their calcium absorption and reducing their bone resorption rate
d
Which of the following is characteristic of calcium nutrition in teenagers?
a. The recommended intake is higher for girls than boys
b. The recommended intake is 800-1,000 mg for this population group
c. The intake of calcium is higher in boys than girls because they eat more food
d. The dietary intakes of calcium are similar for girls and boys of this population group
c
Which of the following is a feature of calcium supplements?
a. Common antacids are used as a source of calcium
b. The bioavailability of calcium from most supplements is significantly lower than from milk
c. There are large differences in the efficiency of calcium absorption from various supplements
d. The calcium in supplements made from oyster shell and bone meal is more absorbable than the calcium in calcium citrate and calcium lactate
a
Among the following calcium supplements, which is most likely to be contaminated with toxic minerals?
a. Oyster shells
b. Calcium lactate
c. Calcium citrate
d. Calcium carbonate
a
Which of the following is not a characteristic of alcohol and bone health?
a. Alcohol intake promotes urinary calcium loss
b. Even moderate alcohol intake reduces bone density
c. Bone breakdown is enhanced from excess alcohol consumption
d. Hormones involved in bone maintenance are adversely affected by alcohol intake
b
Which of the following is a characteristic of calcium supplement use?
a. Taking them with a meal enhances absorption of calcium
b. Taking them with iron supplements enhances absorption of iron
c. Supplements of calcium carbonate show higher bioavailability than calcium citrate
d. Small pills containing a large amount of calcium salt show faster dissolution in the stomach
a
For optimal utilization of calcium supplements, it is best to take them several times a day, in doses up to
a. 100 mg.
b. 200 mg.
c. 500 mg.
d. 800 mg
c
For optimal utilization of calcium supplements, it is best to take them several times a day, in doses up to
a. 100 mg.
b. 200 mg.
c. 500 mg.
d. 800 mg
c
Common side effects of taking a high-dose calcium supplement include all of the following except
a. constipation.
b. excessive gas.
c. intestinal bloating.
d. increased iron absorption
d
Among the following calcium supplements, which contains the lowest percentage of calcium?
a. Calcium citrate
b. Calcium lactate
c. Calcium carbonate
d. Calcium gluconate
d
How many mg of calcium are present in a 500-mg tablet of calcium carbonate?
a. 100
b. 200
c. 350
d. 500
b
To minimize the risk of calcium toxicity, total daily intakes should be held to a maximum of
a. 500 mg.
b. 1,000 mg.
c. 2,500 mg.
d. 5,000 mg
c
What is most likely to occur when a calcium supplement and an iron supplement are taken simultaneously?
a. Absorption of iron is reduced
b. Absorption of iron is improved
c. Excretion of iron in the urine is reduced
d. Excretion of iron in the urine is enhanced
a
Which of the following is a characteristic of the trace minerals?
a. A deficiency sign common to many trace minerals is dermatitis
b. The amounts in foods are dependent, in part, on soil composition
c. Deficiencies are more difficult to recognize in children than in adults
d. The amount of all trace minerals in the average person totals approximately 100 grams
b
A measure of the amount at which a nutrient is absorbed and used by the body is termed
a. net utilization.
b. bioavailability.
c. biological value.
d. utilization efficiency
b
Which of the following is not a general feature of the trace minerals?
a. Mild deficiencies are easy to overlook
b. They are rarely found in dietary supplements
c. Most are toxic at only 2½-7 times the requirements
d. The amounts contained in supplements are free from regulation by the FDA
b
What is the ionic state of ferrous iron?
a. -2
b. -1
c. +1
d. +2
d
What is the ionic state of ferric iron?
a. +3
b. +2
c. -2
d. -3
a
What iron-containing compound carries oxygen in the bloodstream?
a. Ferritin
b. Myoglobin
c. Transferrin
d. Hemoglobin
d
What is the oxygen-carrying protein of muscle cells?
a. Transferrin
b. Myoglobin
c. Hemoglobin
d. Cytochrome
b
If a person's body has a total of 5 grams of iron, how many grams would be found in the hemoglobin?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
d
Which of the following is a characteristic of iron transport?
a. Albumin is the major iron transport protein in the blood
b. Transferrin in the blood carries iron to the bone marrow
c. Hemochromatosis results from inability to absorb and transport iron
d. Ferritin functions by transporting iron from the spleen to the bone marrow
b
Which of the following is a protein that carries iron through the circulation to the tissues?
a. Albumin
b. Transferrin
c. Hemosiderin
d. Metallothionein
b
Which of the following is a characteristic of iron absorption?
a. MPF in plant foods enhances overall iron absorption
b. Ferritin in red meat interferes with ferrous iron absorption
c. Absorption of heme iron is about 50% higher than nonheme iron
d. Transferrin released from pancreatic juice regulates iron uptake from mucosal cells
c
Which of the following compounds provides a major storage reservoir for iron?
a. Ferritin
b. Myoglobin
c. Transferrin
d. Hemoglobin
a
All of the following are body proteins directly involved in iron metabolism except
a. ferritin.
b. transferrin.
c. hemosiderin.
d. metallothionein
d
All of the following characteristics are shared by iron and zinc except
a. absorption is inhibited by fiber.
b. absorption is inhibited by cow's milk.
c. transport in the blood is primarily by albumin.
d. absorption rises with increased needs of the body
c
Which of the following characteristics is shared by zinc and iron?
a. Good food sources include dairy products
b. Proteins in the blood are needed for their transport
c. Severe deficiencies lead to delay in the onset of puberty
d. Doses of 10 times the RDA may cause death in children
b
How does vitamin C enhance iron absorption when consumed in the same meal?
a. It activates transferrin
b. It keeps iron in the reduced ferrous form
c. It releases iron from the proteins in the stomach
d. It complexes with iron and promotes mucosal transport
b
What fraction of the total iron content of a normal diet is heme iron?
a. 1/100
b. 1/10
c. 1/3
d. 1/2
b
What percentage of the iron in a hamburger is nonheme iron?
a. 0
b. 20
c. 40
d. 60
d
Which of the following foods provides iron in the most absorbable form?
a. Rice
b. Spinach
c. Chicken
d. Orange juice
c
Which of the following is a feature of iron absorption?
a. It is lower in people with iron toxicity
b. It is higher in people with iron deficiency
c. It is lower when iron is in the form of heme rather than non-heme
d. It is higher in adults than children due to more mature intestinal function
b
Your cousin Emily is a vegetarian. Since you have just learned in your nutrition class that nonheme iron is absorbed less efficiently than heme iron, you want to make sure Emily is getting enough iron. What should you recommend Emily do to maximize her iron absorption?
a. Choose spinach as her main source of iron
b. Eat her nonheme iron sources with a glass of milk
c. Eat her nonheme iron sources with a glass of orange juice
d. Refrain from any major activity after eating to aid digestion/absorption of iron
c
Among the following, which does not contain the MFP factor?
a. Tuna
b. Spinach
c. Hamburger
d. Chicken leg
b
What is the function of MFP factor?
a. Enhances iron absorption
b. Acts as an iron enrichment nutrient
c. Simulates metallothionein synthesis
d. Acts as chelating agent for iron toxicity treatment
a
When calculating the amount of iron that can be absorbed from a meal, all of the following factors are of major importance except
a. EDTA content.
b. phytate content.
c. vitamin C content.
d. MFP factor content
a
Which of the following nutrients enhances iron absorption from the intestinal tract?
a. Biotin
b. Calcium
c. Vitamin D
d. Vitamin C
d
Absorption of iron from supplements is improved by taking them with
a. tea.
b. meat.
c. milk.
d. whole-grain bread
b
Which of the following is known to enhance iron absorption?
a. Tea
b. Coffee
c. Foods containing vitamin C
d. Foods containing vitamin E
c
All of the following factors are known to enhance the absorption of iron except
a. MFP factor.
b. organic acids.
c. ascorbic acid.
d. calcium from milk
d
Which of the following characteristics are shared by iron and zinc?
a. Neither functions in the maintenance of blood glucose
b. Neither is circulated from the pancreas to the intestines and back to the pancreas
c. Both are absorbed into intestinal mucosal cells and bound to metallothionein for transport first to the liver
d. Both are absorbed into intestinal epithelial cells but may then be lost by normal villus cell renewal processes
d
Under normal circumstances, what is the average percentage of dietary iron that is absorbed?
a. 10
b. 18
c. 33
d. 60
b
Which of the following is not known to affect iron bioavailability from complete meals?
a. Caffeine
b. Phytates
c. Vitamin C
d. MFP factor
a
All of the following are known to reduce the absorption of iron except
a. tea.
b. coffee.
c. sugars.
d. phytates
c
How would the body typically respond to loss of blood from hemorrhage?
a. More transferrin is produced to allow absorption and transport of more iron
b. The average life of the red blood cell is increased in order to allow better tissue oxygenation
c. Fewer iron storage proteins are produced, which increases the amount of iron available for synthesis of new red blood cells
d. The liver and muscles release their supply of stored red blood cells, which compensates, in part, for the decrease in red blood cell concentration of the circulation
a
All of the following are chief storage sites for surplus iron except the
a. liver.
b. spleen.
c. muscle.
d. bone marrow
c
Which of the following is known as an iron-overload protein?
a. Transferrin
b. Hemosiderin
c. Marrowferritin
d. Metallothionein
b
A person with high blood levels of hepcidin responds by
a. decreasing iron absorption.
b. increasing iron absorption.
c. decreasing zinc absorption.
d. increasing zinc absorption
a
What is hepcidin?
a. A factor in meats that enhances iron absorption
b. An intestinal mucosa protein that assists in iron turnover
c. A substance in legumes that interferes with iron absorption
d. A liver-derived hormone that helps regulate iron absorption and transport
d
Which of the following is a characteristic of iron utilization?
a. Most of the body's iron is recycled
b. The chief storage site for iron is the intestinal epithelium
c. Iron is absorbed better from supplements than from foods
d. Iron from nonheme food sources is absorbed better than that from heme food sources
a
What is the average lifespan of red blood cells?
a. Two weeks
b. One month
c. Four months
d. Six months
c
Approximately how many people worldwide are thought to be affected by iron-deficiency anemia?
a. 1 million
b. 100 million
c. 1.6 billion
d. 3.5 billion
c
About how much iron is absorbed from a vegetarian diet compared with an omnivorous diet?
a. The same
b. One-half as much
c. Twice as much
d. Three times as much
b
What is the chief function of hemosiderin?
a. Stores excess body iron
b. Inhibits hemoglobin synthesis
c. Enhances heme iron absorption
d. Enhances nonheme iron absorption
a
Approximately how much iron is lost daily by adults from urine, sweat, and shed skin?
a. 1 mg
b. 5 mg
c. 12 mg
d. 18 mg
a
All of the following are known to reduce the absorption of iron except
a. phytates.
b. MFP factor.
c. soybean protein.
d. tannic acid in tea
b
Which of the following population groups is least susceptible to iron-deficiency anemia?
a. Older infants
b. Children 2-10 years of age
c. Women of childbearing age
d. Men 20-45 years of age
d
Which of the following is found in the first stage of iron deficiency?
a. Iron stores decline, as assessed by serum ferritin
b. Hemoglobin levels fall, as assessed by complete blood count
c. Red blood cell count falls, as assessed by hematocrit count
d. Hemoglobin synthesis declines, as assessed by erythrocyte protoporphyrin
a
Which of the following represents the order of the stages of iron deficiency?
a. Iron stores decline - iron transport diminishes - hemoglobin synthesis falls
b. Hemoglobin synthesis falls - iron transport diminishes - iron stores decline
c. Iron transport diminishes - hemoglobin synthesis falls - iron stores decline
d. Iron transport diminishes - iron stores decline - hemoglobin synthesis falls
a
What is the major cause of iron deficiency?
a. Blood loss
b. Poor nutrition
c. Hereditary defect
d. Parasitic infections of the GI tract
b
Iron deficiency in children is likely to result from a diet that overemphasizes
a. milk.
b. cereals.
c. vegetables.
d. dried beans
a
Taking into account the efficiency of intestinal absorption of iron, approximately how much dietary iron must be consumed to account for the iron lost by donating a pint of blood?
a. 5 mg
b. 15 mg
c. 50 mg
d. 100 mg
b
Which of the following individuals would most likely not need an iron supplement?
a. Two-year-old
b. Elderly female
c. Pregnant female
d. Adolescent female
b
What is erythrocyte protoporphyrin?
a. Iron chelating drug
b. Hemoglobin precursor
c. Indicator of iron toxicity
d. Inherited iron-deficiency disease
b
The erythrocyte protoporphyrin level is used as an indicator of
a. late iron toxicity.
b. early iron toxicity.
c. late iron deficiency.
d. early iron deficiency.
c
The most common tests to diagnose iron deficiency include all of the following measures except
a. size of red blood cells.
b. number of red blood cells.
c. DNA content of red blood cells.
d. hemoglobin content of red blood cells.
c
What type of anemia results from iron deficiency?
a. Hemolytic
b. Megaloblastic
c. Microcytic hypochromic
d. Macrocytic hyperchromic
c
Low levels of blood hemoglobin most likely indicate a deficiency of
a. zinc.
b. iron.
c. copper.
d. manganese
b
Which of the following symptoms would ordinarily not be found in individuals with iron-deficiency anemia?
a. Fatigue
b. Headaches
c. Concave nails
d. Diminished sense of smell
d
Why are hemoglobin and hematocrit tests of limited usefulness in the assessment of iron status?
a. They are expensive to perform
b. They are notoriously inaccurate
c. They are late indicators of iron deficiency
d. The range of normal value is usually wide
c
Which of the following is a characteristic of iron deficiency?
a. Blood erythrocyte protoporphyrin levels decline as anemia worsens
b. Iron supplements are not as effective at treating anemia as is proper nutrition
c. People with anemia generally become fatigued only when they exert themselves
d. The concave nails of iron-deficiency anemia result from abnormal ferritin levels
c
Which of the following is a characteristic of iron deficiency and behavior?
a. Erythrocyte iron levels fall before mental alertness is affected
b. Moderate iron deficiency promotes constipation and hyperactivity
c. Mild iron deficiency impairs energy metabolism and neurotransmitter synthesis
d. Iron deficiency increases risk for infections that promote dysfunctional behavior
c
Which of the following is descriptive of iron deficiency and behavior?
a. The practice of pica may enhance iron absorption
b. Changes in behavior precede the appearance of anemia
c. The practice of pica may delay the onset of iron-induced behavioral changes
d. Adults are more resistant to iron-induced behavioral changes than children
b
Iron overload is also known as
a. ferrocyanosis.
b. hemoglobinemia.
c. hemochromatosis.
d. metalloferrothionosis
c
What is the name given to the ingestion of nonnutritive substances?
a. Pica
b. Goiter
c. Tetany
d. Hemosiderosis
a
Common terms that describe the body's accumulation of excess iron include all of the following except
a. iron overload.
b. hemosiderosis.
c. hemoglobinemia.
d. hemochromatosis
c
Which of the following foods should be especially limited in the diet of individuals with hemochromatosis?
a. Dairy products
b. Fluoridated water
c. Iron-fortified cereals
d. Carbonated beverages
c
Why are people with iron overload at increased risk for infections?
a. Excess tissue iron destroys vitamin C
b. Iron-rich blood favors growth of bacteria
c. Iron-rich blood impairs the immune system
d. Excess tissue iron interferes with antibiotic function
b
Which of the following is a feature of the disorder hereditary hemochromatosis?
a. It is characterized by acrodermatitis
b. It is found primarily in women of child-bearing age
c. It is associated with defects of copper and zinc absorption
d. It is the most common genetic disorder in the United States
d
Which of the following disorders may be linked with the presence of high blood iron?
a. Dermatitis
b. Diverticulosis
c. Heart disease
d. Neural tube defects
c
Which of the following describes one aspect of iron toxicity?
a. Among men in the United States, it is twice as common as iron-deficiency anemia
b. In adults, the consumption of alcohol is somewhat protective against absorption of excess iron
c. In most people with this disorder, infections are rare because bacteria are killed by excess iron in the blood
d. It is usually caused by a virus that attacks the intestinal mucosal cells leading to unregulated and excessive iron absorption
a
The most common cause of iron overload is
a. an injury to the GI tract.
b. a genetic predisposition.
c. excessive use of iron cookware.
d. excessive use of iron supplements
b
What population group is at the highest risk for iron overload?
a. Adult men
b. Adult women
c. Pregnant women
d. Adolescents
a
For every 10 adult males with iron deficiency, how many have iron overload?
a. 5
b. 10
c. 20
d. 40
c
Signs of iron toxicity include all of the following except
a. apathy.
b. fatigue.
c. hypochromic anemia.
d. increases in infections
c
What percent of the RDA for iron is consumed by the typical woman?
a. 33
b. 67
c. 100
d. 130
b
Approximately how much iron would be provided by a balanced diet supplying 2000 kcalories?
a. 3 mg
b. 6 mg
c. 12 mg
d. 30 mg
c
When eaten in the same meal, which of the following foods enhances the absorption of iron in legumes?
a. Nuts
b. Fiber
c. Oranges
d. Whole-grain breads
c
Approximately how much higher is the RDA for iron for a vegetarian woman of childbearing age compared with her nonvegetarian counterpart?
a. 33%
b. 80%
c. 150%
d. 200%
b
Which of the following is the most effective and least costly strategy for preventing an iron deficiency?
a. Consume iron supplements at a level 2-3 times the RDA
b. Switch to iron cooking utensils and eat 4 servings of red meat daily
c. Eat small amounts of citrus products and increase intake of low-fat milk
d. Eat small quantities of meat, fish, and poultry frequently together with liberal amounts of vegetables and legumes
d
Which of the following is a feature of iron nutrition?
a. Iron plays an important role in the synthesis of thyroxine
b. On average, people absorb about 50-60% of dietary iron
c. On average, women do not eat enough iron-containing foods
d. Iron deficiency represents the second most common mineral deficiency in the United States
c
Which of the following foods provides the greatest amount of iron per serving?
a. Yogurt
b. Skim milk
c. Pinto beans
d. American cheese
c
What is the Tolerable Upper Intake Level for iron?
a. 45 mg
b. 90 mg
c. 120 mg
d. Twice the RDA
a
A child diagnosed with iron-deficiency anemia would most likely benefit from increasing the consumption of
a. milk.
b. red meat.
c. fresh fruits.
d. yellow vegetables
b
In the United States, iron is currently added to which of the following foods?
a. Milk and cheese
b. Breads and cereals
c. Peanut butter and jellies
d. Orange juice and tomato juice
b
If a normal, healthy young adult woman loses an average of 2 mg/day of iron from the body, approximately what minimum amount (mg/day) should she consume from the diet to prevent negative iron balance?
a. 2
b. 5
c. 11
d. 19
c
Which of the following would represent a source of possible iron contamination?
a. An iron frypan
b. An iron chelate
c. A ferric iron supplement
d. A ferrous iron supplement
a
Which of the following is a common example of iron contamination in the diet?
a. Using an iron skillet to scramble eggs can triple their iron content
b. Cooking acidic foods in a copper pot can extract chelate iron from the pot
c. Simmering acidic foods in glass dishes leads to leaching of iron salts from the glass
d. Cooking leafy vegetables in a galvanized pot leads to a six-fold increase in iron content
a
Which of the following has been shown to improve absorption of iron from iron supplements?
a. Taking then with milk
b. Taking them with orange juice
c. Taking them on an empty stomach rather than with meals
d. Taking them in the form of the ferric salt rather than the ferrous salt
c
Why is taking vitamin C ineffective at enhancing iron absorption from standard iron supplements?
a. The iron in the supplement is in a chelated form
b. The iron in the supplement is already in the ferrous form
c. The iron in the supplement binds irreversibly with vitamin C
d. The iron supplement already contains MFP to enhance absorption
b
Which of the following is a common side effect from taking iron supplements?
a. Itching
b. Diarrhea
c. Constipation
d. Black tongue
c
What is the RDA for iron for females 19-50 years old?
a. 8 mg
b. 10 mg
c. 18 mg
d. 32 mg
c
An enzyme in which zinc or copper is an integral part of its structure is classified as a(n)
a. metalloenzyme.
b. oxidoreductase.
c. cytochromidase.
d. metallothionase
a
Which of the following defines an association between a protein and a function of zinc?
a. Thyroxine: zinc transporter
b. Globulin: transports zinc into cells
c. Transferrin: essential to zinc excretion
d. Metallothionein: promotes zinc homeostasis
d
Which of the following is a major binding protein for zinc?
a. Ligand
b. Ferritin
c. Hemosiderin
d. Metallothionein
d
Which of the following is a feature of zinc in nutrition?
a. Pancreatic enzymes are rich in zinc
b. The body's primary excretory route is urine
c. Good food sources are whole-grain products
d. Toxicity symptoms include constipation and low body temperature
a
Which of the following is known to regulate the absorption of zinc?
a. Metallothionein in the intestinal cells
b. Zinc-releasing enzymes in the intestinal mucosa
c. Pancreatic juice containing zinc-absorption enhancers
d. Bile acids which form a complex with zinc to promote its absorption
a
What is the bioavailability of dietary zinc?
a. 2-5%
b. 5-10%
c. 15-40%
d. 50-60%
c
Which of the following minerals undergoes enteropancreatic circulation during normal metabolism?
a. Iron
b. Zinc
c. Copper
d. Fluoride
b
Zinc is known to play an important role in all of the following functions except
a. wound healing.
b. synthesis of retinal.
c. production of sperm.
d. oxidation of polyunsaturated fatty acids.
d
What is the chief transport substance for zinc in the circulation?
a. Albumin
b. Metallothionein
c. Carbonic anhydrase
d. High-density lipoproteins
a
What dietary ratio of iron to zinc inhibits zinc absorption?
a. 0.5 to 1
b. 1 to 1
c. Less than 2 to 1
d. Greater than 2 to 1
d
Which of the following would be the minimum amount of dietary iron known to impair zinc absorption in an individual with a zinc intake of 15 mg?
a. 5 mg
b. 15 mg
c. 30 mg
d. 60 mg
c
Which of the following conditions is known to lead to copper deficiency?
a. Excess zinc
b. Excess protein
c. Insufficient iodine
d. Insufficient calcium
a
Which of the following is a known side effect of prolonged ingestion of excessive amounts of zinc supplements?
a. Iron toxicity due to increased ferritin synthesis
b. Zinc salt deposits in soft tissues such as the heart and kidneys
c. Copper deficiency due to interference with copper absorption
d. Mineral-binding protein deficiency due to a decrease in metallothionein production
c
What is the Tolerable Upper Intake Level for zinc?
a. 20 mg
b. 40 mg
c. 80 mg
d. 120 mg
b
Deficiency of which of the following minerals is associated with retarded growth and sexual development in children?
a. Iron
b. Zinc
c. Iodine
d. Chromium
b
Conditions associated with zinc deficiency include all of the following except
a. altered taste.
b. kidney failure.
c. abnormal night vision.
d. poor healing of wounds
b
All of the following are recognized symptoms of zinc deficiency except
a. anemia.
b. altered taste acuity.
c. impaired vision in dim light.
d. increased susceptibility to infection
a
Which of the following represents the most reliable dietary source of zinc?
a. Nuts and oils
b. Milk and yogurt
c. Fruits and vegetables
d. Meats and whole-grain cereals
d
Zinc is highest in foods that also contain a high amount of
a. fat.
b. fiber.
c. protein.
d. carbohydrate
c
All of the following are known to result from excessive zinc intake except
a. inhibition of iron absorption.
b. galvanized liver and kidneys.
c. inhibition of copper absorption.
d. decreases in high-density lipoproteins
b
Under which of the following conditions are certain supplements of zinc reported to be beneficial?
a. In the treatment of colds
b. In the treatment of Menkes syndrome
c. In the treatment of toxicity from certain other metals
d. In the treatment of slow growth syndrome in U.S. children
a
What formulation of zinc has been found effective in treating the symptoms of the common cold?
a. Zinc chelator
b. Zinc gluconate
c. Zinc plus ferrous iron
d. Zinc plus copper salt
b
Commercially available zinc-containing lozenges are advertised to be effective against
a. fatigue.
b. vitamin A toxicity.
c. the common cold.
d. slowing of the BMR
c
Which of the following is not a feature of zinc supplements?
a. They induce nausea and bad taste reactions when administered in zinc lozenges
b. They reduce the incidence of goiter in developing countries
c. They reduce the incidence of diarrhea-related deaths in children
d. They reduce the incidence of pneumonia-related deaths in the elderly
b
Goiter is caused primarily by a deficiency of
a. iron.
b. zinc.
c. iodine.
d. selenium
c
What mineral is critical to the synthesis of thyroxine?
a. Iron
b. Copper
c. Iodine
d. Magnesium
c
One of the thyroid gland hormones is called
a. thyroxine.
b. goitrogen.
c. thiostimulating hormone.
d. tissue stimulating hormone
a
What is the primary function of the thyroid hormones?
a. Precursors for hemoglobin synthesis
b. Counteract a deficiency of goitrogens
c. Control the rate of oxygen use by cells
d. Regulate acetylcholine concentrations in the central nervous system
c
The most common cause of iodine deficiency is
a. insufficient intake of iodine from foods.
b. overconsumption of other trace elements.
c. overconsumption of anti-thyroid substances.
d. pituitary deficiencies of thyroid-stimulating hormone
a
What is the response of the thyroid gland to an iodine deficiency?
a. Increase in its size to trap more iodine
b. Increase in its size to trap more thyroxine
c. Increased release of thyroid-stimulating hormone
d. Decreased release of thyroid-stimulating hormone
a
Which of the following may result from iodine deficiency?
a. Gout
b. Goiter
c. Anemia
d. Hypertension
b
A woman with a severe iodine deficiency during pregnancy may give birth to a child with
a. anemia.
b. rickets.
c. cretinism.
d. allergies
c
What nutrient deficiency during pregnancy may give rise to a child with cretinism?
a. Iodine
b. Copper
c. Chromium
d. Molybdenum
a
What is a goitrogen?
a. One of the hormones produced by the thyroid gland
b. A substance that enhances absorption of dietary iodide
c. A substance that interferes with the functioning of the thyroid gland
d. A compound used to supplement salt as a way to increase iodide intake
c
A person ingesting large amounts of thyroid antagonist substances is at high risk of developing
a. cretinism.
b. simple goiter.
c. high blood T3 levels.
d. high blood thyroxine levels
b
Which of the following foods are known to contain goitrogens?
a. Shellfish
b. Whole grains
c. Cauliflower and broccoli
d. Blueberries and raspberries
c
Which of the following fruits are known to contain substances that inhibit the functioning of the thyroid gland?
a. Apples and pears
b. Lemons and limes
c. Avocados and mangos
d. Peaches and strawberries
d
Which of the following is a prominent feature of mild iodine deficiency in children?
a. Demineralization
b. Growth retardation
c. Discoloration of teeth
d. Poor performance in school
d
What is the origin of goitrogens in the diet?
a. Naturally occurring
b. Food industry additives
c. Excessive use of fortified salt
d. Hydrogenation of certain minerals
a
You have just been hired by the World Health Organization to promote nutrition education and policies in a small country in Asia, whose population has a high prevalence of goiter. Which of the following policies would be the best to implement with respect to iodine status, cost, and efficiency?
a. Fortify the salt with iodine
b. Promote free iodine supplements for all who want them
c. Educate the population to avoid all goitrogens in their diet
d. Educate the population to spend more time at the beach as seawater, sea mist, and seafood are sources of iodine
a
Which of the following is a feature of iodide utilization?
a. It is an integral part of pituitary thyroid-stimulating hormone
b. Ingestion of plants of the cabbage family stimulates iodide uptake
c. A deficiency or a toxicity leads to enlargement of the thyroid gland
d. The amount in foods is unrelated to the amount of iodine present in the soil
c
Which of the following is a feature of iodine in nutrition?
a. Excessive intakes shrink the thyroid gland
b. Processed foods in the United States do not use iodized salt
c. Iodization of salt is mandatory in the United States but not in Canada
d. Worldwide, the prevalence of iodine deficiency and iodine toxicity are approximately the same
b
Which of the following is the richest source of iodine?
a. Corn
b. Seafood
c. Orange juice
d. Cruciferous vegetables
b
If cow's milk is found to contain unusually high levels of iodine, what is the most likely explanation?
a. Storage of milk in galvanized tanks
b. Grazing of cows on high-iodine soils
c. Addition of fortified salt at the milk processing plant
d. Exposure of cows to iodide-containing medications and disinfectants
d
Approximately how much iodized salt must be consumed to meet but not exceed the RDA for iodine?
a. 1 mg
b. ½ teaspoon
c. 1 teaspoon
d. 1 tablespoon
b
What is the adult RDA for iodine?
a. 45 µg
b. 100 µg
c. 150 µg
d. 225 µg
c
Which of the following would most likely result from an excessive intake of iodine?
a. Diarrhea
b. Skin rashes
c. Dehydration
d. Thyroid gland enlargement
d
What is the Tolerable Upper Intake Level for iodine?
a. 200 µg
b. 450 µg
c. 1100 µg
d. 2000 µg
c
Which of the following would be the most appropriate food source of iodide for a person who lives inland?
a. Fresh-water fish
b. Iodized table salt
c. Locally grown produce
d. Plants of the cabbage family
b
Your uncle Carlos has survived two heart attacks, and recently asked if he might be deficient in selenium, which he had just heard is essential to heart health. You are aware of his food habits and explain that his condition could not be the result of a dietary deficiency of selenium because
a. tap water is a source of selenium.
b. selenium is prevalent in most food groups.
c. he consumes legumes, a rich source of selenium.
d. he drinks fluoridated water, which increases bioavailability of selenium
b
Which of the following is an important function of selenium?
a. Helps blood to clot
b. Inhibits the formation of free radicals
c. Stabilizes the alcohol content of beer
d. Acts as a cross-linking agent in collagen
b
Keshan disease results from a deficiency of
a. copper.
b. selenium.
c. manganese.
d. molybdenum
b
What trace element is part of the enzyme glutathione peroxidase?
a. Iron
b. Zinc
c. Selenium
d. Chromium
c
Which of the following is a property of selenium in nutrition?
a. It participates in the functioning of insulin
b. Severe deficiency is associated with heart disease in China
c. Significant food sources include dairy and unprocessed vegetables
d. It has no RDA but the estimated safe and adequate dietary intake is only 2-3 μg/day
b
Which of the following nutrients has functions similar to those of vitamin E?
a. Iron
b. Selenium
c. Chromium
d. Molybdenum
b
Which of the following minerals functions primarily in reactions that consume oxygen?
a. Zinc
b. Copper
c. Chromium
d. Molybdenum
b
What is the Tolerable Upper Intake Level for copper?
a. 1 mg
b. 2.5 mg
c. 7.5 mg
d. 10 mg
d
Your aunt Thelma has been anemic for some time and was recently shown to be deficient in copper. Which of the following explains the association of copper and anemia?
a. Copper is required for hemoglobin synthesis
b. Copper plays a role in wound healing, which prevents excessive blood loss
c. Anemia affects synthesis of protoporphyrin, which interferes with iron absorption
d. Copper is known to protect against free radical formation, which prevents excess damage of red blood cells
a
All of the following are characteristics of copper in nutrition except
a. deficiency is rare.
b. legumes are a rich source.
c. absorption from foods is poor.
d. absorption is reduced by ingestion of zinc supplements
c
The rare genetic disorders Menkes disease and Wilson's disease result from abnormal utilization of
a. iron.
b. zinc.
c. copper.
d. manganese
c
Which of the following is a feature of copper nutrition?
a. Absorption efficiency is similar to that of iron
b. It is involved in collagen synthesis and wound healing
c. Soft water may provide significant amounts in the diet
d. Deficiency is common in children of Middle East countries
b
Which of the following meats would be the best source of copper?
a. Chicken
b. Shellfish
c. Beefsteak
d. Hamburger
b
Which of the following minerals is a cofactor in the formation of hemoglobin?
a. Iodine
b. Copper
c. Sodium
d. Calcium
b
Characteristics of manganese in nutrition include all of the following except
a. plant foods are good sources.
b. deficiencies are seen primarily in the elderly.
c. absorption is inhibited by calcium supplements.
d. toxicity is more common from environmental contamination than from the diet
b
Which of the following represents the most likely cause of manganese toxicity?
a. Consumption of supplements
b. Increased absorption due to genetic defect
c. Inhalation of dust contaminated with manganese
d. Consumption of foods grown on manganese-rich soils
c
Which of the following characteristics are shared by copper and fluoride?
a. Both may be obtained from drinking tap water
b. Both serve as cofactors for a number of enzymes
c. Neither is involved in the integrity of bones and teeth
d. Neither is known to be toxic at intakes of 10 times the estimated safe and adequate dietary intake
a
What is the primary mechanism associated with the role of fluoride in prevention of dental caries?
a. Fluoride increases calcium absorption, which increases crystal formation of teeth
b. Decay is inhibited due to neutralization of organic acids produced by bacteria on the teeth
c. Decay is reduced due to the inhibitory effects of fluoride on growth of bacteria on the teeth
d. Fluoride becomes incorporated into the crystalline structure of teeth, making them less susceptible to decay
d
Which of the following mechanisms explains why fluoride is effective in controlling tooth decay?
a. It helps regulate calcium levels in saliva
b. It helps form decay-resistant fluorapatite
c. It inhibits growth of decay-producing bacteria
d. It changes the pH of the mouth, inhibiting bacterial growth
b
What percent of the U.S. population is not exposed to a fluoridated public water supply?
a. 10
b. 30
c. 50
d. 90
b
You have just been elected mayor of Smalltownville, where the major source of drinking water is from wells. What major health problem would be expected among the children of Smalltownville?
a. Goiter
b. Dental caries
c. GI infections
d. Hemochromatosis
b
What is the most reliable source of dietary fluoride?
a. Public water
b. Dark green vegetables
c. Milk and milk products
d. Meats and whole-grain cereals
a
Which of the following is a feature of fluoride in nutrition?
a. Most bottled waters are fluoridated
b. A severe deficiency is known as fluorosis
c. Fluorapatite refers to an increase in the desire to eat fluoride-rich foods
d. A deficiency contributes to the most widespread health problem in the United States
d
Fluoride deficiency is best known to lead to
a. dental decay.
b. osteoporosis.
c. discoloration of teeth.
d. nutritional muscular dystrophy
a
What is the Tolerable Upper Intake Level for fluoride?
a. 10 mg
b. 25 mg
c. 60 mg
d. 100 mg
a
Naturally occurring food sources of fluoride include all of the following except
a. teas.
b. tuna.
c. milk.
d. shrimp
c
Which of the following does not have an RDA?
a. Iron
b. Zinc
c. Iodine
d. Fluoride
d
What is the optimal fluoride concentration in community water supplies?
a. 1 ppm
b. 2 ppm
c. 2.5 ppm
d. 4 ppm
a
Which of the following is known to cause discolored enamel of the teeth?
a. Excessive fluoride in the water
b. Insufficient fluoride in the water
c. Excessive intake of simple sugars
d. Inability of the body to absorb fluoride
a
One of the chief functions of chromium is participation in the metabolism of
a. iron.
b. proteins.
c. carbohydrates.
d. metallothionein
c
As far as is known, what hormone is dependent upon chromium for optimal activity?
a. Renin
b. Gastrin
c. Insulin
d. Antidiurectic hormone
c
Which of the following is a characteristic of chromium in nutrition?
a. A deficiency leads to hypothyroidism
b. Supplements are known to be helpful
c. Whole grains represent an excellent source
d. In the body, it enhances the action of ceruloplasmin
c
What is a glucose tolerance factor?
a. A protein that stimulates glycolysis
b. A mineral cofactor for a specific enzyme
c. A hormone that enhances pancreatic function
d. A small organic compound that promotes the action of insulin
d
Chromium deficiency is characterized by
a. hypertension.
b. hyperglycemia.
c. enlargement of the liver.
d. enlargement of the thyroid gland
b
Which of the following is a characteristic of the mineral molybdenum?
a. Enhances the activity of insulin
b. Deficiency symptoms in people are unknown
c. Unusually poor food sources are legumes and cereal grains
d. Toxicity symptoms in human beings include damage to red blood cells
b
Which of the following trace minerals is known to be involved in bone development?
a. Tin
b. Cobalt
c. Silicon
d. Barium
c
Evidence to date in animals and/or human beings suggests that normal bone metabolism requires all of the following trace minerals except
a. boron.
b. silver.
c. silicon.
d. vanadium
b
What mineral is part of vitamin B12?
a. Copper
b. Cobalt
c. Nickel
d. Vanadium
b
All of the following are considered heavy metals except
a. iron.
b. lead.
c. mercury.
d. cadmium
a
In the body, lead is known to significantly interfere with utilization of all of the following minerals except
a. iron.
b. zinc.
c. calcium.
d. selenium
d
To serve its function in oxygen delivery to body tissues, iron must interact closely with
a. copper and vitamin C.
b. selenium and iodine.
c. zinc and vitamin A.
d. chromium and calcium
a
What term designates foods that contain nonnutrient substances which may provide health benefits beyond basic nutrition?
a. Health foods
b. Organic foods
c. Functional foods
d. Disease preventative foods
c
Which of the following is a rich source of phytoestrogens?
a. Potatoes
b. Soybeans
c. Cold-water fish
d. Green, leafy vegetables
b
Lycopene is classified as a(n)
a. lignan.
b. carotenoid.
c. phytoestrogen.
d. enzyme cofactor
b
All of the following are classified as phytonutrients except
a. lutein.
b. lignans.
c. hepcidin.
d. phytosterols
c
Flaxseed is a rich source of
a. lutein.
b. lignans.
c. sulforaphane.
d. organosulfur compounds.
b