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926 terms

A&P 1 Final COMPLETE

STUDY
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The type of muscle fiber that is most resistant to fatigue is the ______ fiber.
slow
Contractions that utilize anaerobic ATP production
require maximal contraction of muscles for short periods of time
During activities requiring aerobic endurance
most of the muscle's energy is produced in mitochondria
Fast muscle fibers can develop a larger number of mitochondria in response to
repeated, exhaustive stimulation
Which of the following statements are true regarding human muscles?
both C and D
Each of the following changes in the skeletal muscles is a consequence of aging except that
muscle fibers increase their reserves of glycogen
Heat energy produced from muscle contraction is released through the ____ system.
integumentary
Which of the following statements is false?
Cardiac muscle control is neural
Which of the following is not characteristic of smooth muscle?
Smooth muscle connective tissue forms tendons and aponeuroses
Which of the following is not a function of smooth muscle tissue?
forcing blood from the heart into the major arteries
The ability of smooth muscle to function over a wide range of lengths is called
plasticity
Muscle tissue, one of the four primary types of tissue, consists chiefly of muscle cells that are highly specialized for
contraction
The types of muscle tissue include all of the following except
striated muscle
At each end of the muscle, the collagen fibers of the epimysium, perimysium, and endomysium come together to form either a bundle known as a _____, or a broad sheet called an aponeurosis.
tendon
In order for a muscle to contract properly, it requires
all of the above
Skeletal muscle contracts only under stimulation from
the central nervous system
Differences between skeletal muscle cells and typical cells include which of the following?
both A and B
Each skeletal muscle fiber contains ____ myofibrils.
hundreds to thousands
When a skeletal muscle fiber contracts,
all of the above
Knowning that the myofibrils attached at the Z line of the sarcolemma and at either end of the muscle fiber, when myofibrils get shorter, the muscle fiber
shortens
The pull called tension is a(n) ____ force.
active
The cytoplasm of the synaptic terminal contains mitochondria and vesicles filled with molecules of the neurotransmitter
acetylcholine
Knowing the five steps that occur causing a neuron to stimulate a muscle fiber, if there is a problem with the release of calcium ions in the third step,
the action potential does not arrive
ATP metabolism normally provides _____ percent of the ATP demands of resting cell.
95
In an isotonic contraction,
tension rises and the skeletal muscle length changes
The contraction of a muscle exerts a pull on a bone because
muscles are attached to bones by tendons
Large diameter, densely packed myofibrils, large glycogen reserves, and few mitochondria are characteristics of
fast fibers
When contraction occurs
A, B, and C
Which of the following hormones directly stimulates growth of muscle tissue and increased muscle mass?
testosterone
Because skeletal muscle contractions demand large quantities of ATP, skeletal muscles have
a rich vascular supply.
During muscle contraction, all of the following occur, except
hemoglobin concentration in muscle fibers increases.
Physical evidence that supports the sliding filament theory of muscle contraction includes
decreased distance between Z lines during contraction.
When myosin cross-bridges bind to the active sites on actin,
they pivot toward the M line
Which of the following is greater?
the concentration of calcium ion in the sarcoplasmic reticulum of a resting muscle
The following is a list of the events that occur during a muscle contraction......
3, 5, 1, 2, 4, 6
After death, muscle fibers run out of ATP and calcium begins to leak from the sarcoplasmic reticulum into the sarcoplasm. This results in a condition known as
rigor mortis
How would blocking the activity of acetylcholinesterase affect skeletal muscle?
It would cause spastic paralysis
When acetylcholine binds to receptors at the motor end plate, the muscle membrane becomes
more permeable to sodium ions
Which of the following is not a function of skeletal muscle?
all of the above
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
Skeletal muscles are responsible for the pumping action of the heart.
The dense layer of collagen fibers that surround an entire skeletal muscle is the
epimysium
Nerves and blood vessels that service the muscle fibers are located in the connective tissues of the
perimysium
The delicate connective tissue that surrounds the skeletal muscle fibers and ties adjacent muscle fibers together is the
endomysium
The bundle of collagen fibers at the end of a skeletal muscle that attaches the muscle to bone is called a(n)
tendon
Muscle fibers differ from "typical cells" in that muscle fibers
have many nuclei
The advantage of having many nuclei in a skeletal muscle fiber is
the ability to produce large amounts of the enzymes and structural proteins needed for contraction
Skeletal muscle fibers are formed from embryonic cells called
myoblasts
The cell membrane of skeletal muscle is called the
sarcolemma
The cytoplasm of a skeletal muscle fiber is called the
sarcoplasm
The series of membranous channels that surround each myofibril is the
transverse tubule
The functional unit of a skeletal muscle fiber is the
sarcomere
Interactions between actin and myosin filaments of the sarcomere are responsible for
muscle contraction
In a sarcomere, thick filaments are linked laterally by
M line
Thin filaments at either end of the sarcomere are attached to the
Z line
The area of the sarcomere containing the thick filaments is the
Z line
The area of the sarcomere containing only thin filaments is the
I band
The area in the center of the A band that contains only thick filaments is the
H band
Each thin filament consists of
a pair of protein strands wound together
The sarcoplasmic reticulum stores
calcium ions
The skeletal muscle complex known as the triad consists of
a transverse tubule and terminal cisternae
Cross-bridges are portions of
myosin molecules
At rest, active sites on the actin are blocked by
tropomyosin molecules
At rest, the tropomyosin molecules is held in place by
troponin molecules
Each skeletal muscle fiber is controlled by a neuron at a single
neuromuscular junction
The space between the neuron and the muscle is the
synaptic cleft
Receptors for acetylcholine are located on the
motor end plate
Action potentials are conducted into a skeletal muscle fiber by
transverse tubules
Active sites on the actin become available for binding when
calcium binds to troponin
In response to action potentials arriving from the transverse tubules, the sarcoplasmic reticulum releases
calcium ions
Which of the following acts as an ATPase during the contraction cycle of muscle?
myosin cross-bridges
When calcium ion binds to troponin,
active sites on the myosin are exposed
The most important factor in decreasing the intracellular concentration of calcium ion after contraction is
diffusion of calcium into the sarcoplasmic reticulum
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
When the sarcomeres are slightly less than fully shortened, contraction cannot occur.
Calcium ions are released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum during the _____ of contraction.
latent period
The type of contraction represented by a single stimulus / contraction / relaxation sequence is a(n)
twitch
When a muscle is stimulated repeatedly for several seconds with a constant stimulus, the amount of tension gradually increases to a maximum. This phenomemnon is called
complete tetanus
A muscle producing peak tension with rapid cycles of contraction and relaxation is said to be in
incomplete tetanus
If a second stimulus arrives before the relaxation phase has ended, a second, more powerful contraction occurs. This is called
wave summation
A muscle that is stimulated so frequently that the relaxation phase is completely eliminated is said to exhibit
complete tetanus
The increase in muscle tension that is produced by increasing the number of active motor units is called
recruitment
The type of contraction in which the muscle fibers produce increased tension but do not shorten is called
isometric
A resting muscle generates most of its ATP by
aerobic respiration
Creatine phosphate
acts as an energy reserve in muscle tissue
During anaerobic glycolysis
A and B only
At peak levels of muscle exertion the mitochondria can supply
only about 1/3 of the enrgy required by the muscle
When energy reserves in a muscle are exhausted and lactic acid levels increase, _______ occurs.
fatigue
During the recovery period following exercise, all of the following are true, except
muscle fibers remain contracted
During the Cori cycle in the liver
glucose is produced from lactic acid
During the recovery period the body's need for oxygen is increased because
additional oxygen is required to metabolize the lactic acid produced during exercise
Fast fibers
produce powerful contractions
The smallest living unit within the human body is
the cell
Which of the following terms is not used to define the structure that separates the contents of a human cell from its surrounding medium?
cell wall
The plasma membrane is composed of
a bilayer of phospholipids.
Water molecules and small ions enter a cell through
channels formed by integral proteins.
Which of the following cytoskeleton components moves the chromosomes during cell division?
microtubules
Many proteins in the cytosol are ________ that accelerate metabolic reactions.
enzymes
Microscopic analysis of a tissue sample indicates that it contains abundant myosin and actin filaments. This tissue is probably formed from
muscle cells.
A mature red blood cell lacks a nucleus. Thus, it
cannot make new proteins and will be worn out within a few months.
Messenger RNA is vital to the cell because
mRNA can leave the nucleus and DNA cannot leave the nucleus.
The movement of oxygen from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration is an example of
diffusion.
Osmotic pressure

**forces water to move toward the higher solute concentration.
**forces water to move across a semipermeable membrane.
**can be opposed by hydrostatic pressure.
all of the above
**to move toward the higher solute concentration and can be opposed by hydrostatic pressure.
all of the above.
A substance containing atoms of different elements that are bonded together is called a(n)
compound.
Breathing faster and deeper eliminates more carbon dioxide from the body than normal breathing. Under these circumstances
more carbon dioxide will diffuse out of the blood.
Two types of vesicular transport include
endocytosis and exocytosis.
A cell duplicates its chromosomes during the ________ phase.
S
During mitosis, two daughter cells form, each of which has
the same number of chromosomes as the original cell.
The study of tissues is called ________.
histology
Functions of epithelia include all of the following, except
supporting muscle cells.
Epithelium is connected to underlying connective tissue by
a basal lamina.
Cells that are specialized for secretion
exhibit polarity.
Close examination of an organ reveals a lining of several layers of cells. The layers do not contain any blood vessels and one surface of the cells is open to the internal cavity of the organ. This tissue is probably
epithelium.
Simple cuboidal epithelium is found
forming the kidney tubule
The heart and blood vessels are lined by
simple squamous epithelium.
Unicellular exocrine glands secrete
mucus.
The epithelium that lines the body cavities is known as ________.
mesothelium
Cells that store fat are called
adipocytes.
The dominant fiber type in dense connective tissue is
collagen.
The three types of connective tissue include
connective tissue proper, fluid connective tissues, and supporting connective tissues.
Which of the following connective tissue cells produces collagen?
fibroblasts
Defense cells in blood are called white blood cells or ________.
leukocytes
Chondrocytes are to cartilage as osteocytes are to
bone
Which type of connective tissue is found between the ribs and the sternum, or supporting the trachea?
hyaline cartilage
A herniated disc is an injury of the pads of cartilage between the vertebrae in which the cartilage bulges from normal position. What type of cartilage is affected?
fibrous cartilage
The reduction of friction between the parietal and visceral surfaces of an internal cavity is the function of
serous membranes.
Tissue that is specialized for contraction is ________ tissue.
muscle
Intercalated discs and pacemaker cells are characteristic of
cardiac muscle tissue.
Which of the following statements about tissue swelling that occurs during inflammation is true?
both triggered by histamine and caused by increased endothelial permeability
Each of the following is a function of the integumentary system, except

synthesis of vitamin C.
maintenance of body temperature.
excretion of salts and wastes.
provision of sensation.
protection of underlying tissue.
synthesis of vitamin C.
The layer of dividing cells at the base of the epidermis is the
stratum germinativum.
The layer of the skin that provides a barrier against bacteria as well as chemical and mechanical injuries is the
epidermis.
While walking barefoot on the beach, Joe stepped on a thorn that penetrated through the sole of his foot to the dermis. How many layers of epidermis did the thorn penetrate?
5
The primary pigments contained in the epidermis are
carotene and melanin.
________ is a pigment found in vegetables that can make the skin appear orange or yellow.
Carotene
Melanin is produced by melanocytes within the stratum ________.
germinativum
An important vitamin that is formed in the skin when it is exposed to sunlight is
vitamin D.
Characteristics of the epidermis include
self-repairing.
flexible.
serving as UV radiation protection.
multilayered.
CORRECT ANSWER -all of the above
The layer of the skin that contains bundles of collagen and elastic fibers responsible for the strength of the skin is the ________ layer.
reticular
The protein that permits stretching and recoiling of the skin is
elastin
he layer of hard keratin that coats the hair is termed the
cuticle
Hairs are produced within organs called ________.
hair follicles
The ________ glands in the axilla become active at the time of puberty.
spocrine sweat
The highest concentration of merocrine sweat glands is found
on the palms of the hands
A common cause of dandruff is
inflammation around sebaceous glands.
Nail production occurs at the nail
root
The following are stages in the regeneration of skin following an injury.

1. blood clot/scab formation
2. cellular migration
3. epidermis covers granulation tissue
4. epidermis covers scar tissue

The correct order for these events is
1, 2, 3, 4.
The type of burn that may require a skin graft is a
full-thickness burn
Treatment of full-thickness burns includes which of the following?

assist tissue repair
prevent infection
increase caloric intake
replace fluids
all of the above
all of the above
The tough "horny" superficial layer of the epidermis is known as the
stratum corneum
Which of the following happens if body temperature rises above normal?
Blood flow to the skin increases
Jaundice is indicated by
a yellowish skin coloration
When the arrector pili muscles contract,
"goose bumps" are formed
The substance called sebum is commonly known as ________.
skin oil
Skin can regenerate effectively even after considerable damage has occurred because
stem cells persist in both epithelial and connective-tissue components of the skin even after injury.
Wrinkles in elderly individuals are the result of
loss of elastic filaments in the reticular layer of the dermis.
The branch of biological science that studies the external and internal structure of the body and the physical relationship among body parts is called ________.
anatomy
Anatomy uses a special language, called ________, that involves the use of word roots, prefixes, suffixes, and combining forms to construct terms related to the body in health and disease.
medical terminology
Anatomical features that change during illness are studied in ________ anatomy.
pathological
The study of the liver is to gross anatomy as the study of the liver cell is to
cytology
The study of the function of specific organ systems is called
systemic physiology
Which organ system provides support, protection of soft tissue, mineral storage, and blood formation?
skeletal
Which of the following is arranged in correct order from the most COMPLEX to the SIMPLEST?

**tissue, cellular, molecular, organ, system, organism
**organ, organism, molecular, cellular, tissue, system
**cellular, tissue, molecular, system, organ, organism
**organism, system, organ, tissue, cellular, molecular
**molecular, cellular, tissue, organ, system, organism
organism, system, organ, tissue, cellular, molecular
Which organ system removes carbon dioxide from the bloodstream?
respiratory
kin, hair, and nails are associated with the ________ system.
integumentary
The maintenance of a constant internal environment in an organism is termed
homeostasis
The tendency for physiological systems to stabilize internal conditions is called ________.
homeostasis
If a response decreases a disturbance, the system is classified as a ________ feedback system.
negative
If a response increases a disturbance, the system is classified as a ________ feedback system.
positive
A person facing forward with hands at the sides and palms facing forward is in the
anatomical position
Which of the following terms refers to the foot?

pedal
cervical
antebrachial
brachial
femoral
pedal
A midsagittal section would pass through the

heart.
lung.
kidney.
leg.
spleen.
heart
A person is lying on the bed gazing at the ceiling. She is in the ________ position.

caudal
supine
anatomical
dorsal
prone
supine
The liver is primarily located in the ________ quadrant.

left upper
right upper
left lower
hepatic
right lower
right upper
The common term for the carpal region is the ________
wrist
Which of the following organs is not contained within the abdominal cavity?

spleen
pancreas
ovary
stomach
small intestin
ovary
Identify the correctly spelled term describing the organ that separates the ventral body cavity into superior and inferior cavities.

mediastinum
diaphragm
diafragm
mediastienum
diaphram
diaphragm
The smallest stable units of matter are

electrons.
protons.
neutrons.
molecules.
atoms.
atoms
Radioisotopes have unstable

electron clouds.
protons.
ions.
isotopes.
nuclei.
nuclei
The mass of an atom is largely determined by the number of ________ it has.

protons
neutrons
protons + electrons
protons + neutrons
electrons
protons + neutrons
A nanometer is

10^-6 meter.
10^-12 meter.
10^-8 meter.
10^-9 meter.
10^-10 meter.
10^-9
The chemical behavior of an atom is determined by

the mass of the nucleus.
the outermost electron shell.
the size of the atom.
the number of neutrons.
the number of protons.
the outermost electron shell
When atoms complete their outer electron shell by sharing electrons, they form

cations.
covalent bonds.
ionic bonds.
hydrogen bonds.
anions.
covalent bonds
By weight, which element is the second most abundant in the human body?

nitrogen
hydrogen
calcium
oxygen
carbon
carbon
The three familiar states of matter are solids, liquids, and ________.
gases
AB → A + B is to decomposition as A + B → AB is to

synthesis.
combustion.
metabolism.
replacement.
exchange.
synthesis
The chemical notation that indicates concentration is represented as

{}.
||.
<>.
[ ].
().
[ ]
Chemical reactions that yield energy, such as heat, are said to be

activated.
endergonic.
exergonic.
thermonuclear.
neutral.
exergonic
Oxygen is required in biological systems for

serving as catalysts.
chemical messengers.
storage of energy.
cellular metabolism.
serving as structural components of bone.
cellular metabolism
Which of the following statements about water is not correct?

-can dissolve many substances
-is responsible for much of the mass of the human body
-contains hydrogen bonds
-has a relatively low heat capacity
-is composed of polar molecules
has a relatively low heat capacity
Hydrophilic molecules readily associate with

lipid molecules.
water molecules.
hydrophobic molecules.
both lipid and hydrophobic molecules.
all of the above
water molecules
A(n) ________ is a homogeneous mixture containing a solvent and a solute.
solution
A(n) ________ removes hydrogen ions and a(n) ________ releases hydrogen ions.

element; compound
acid; base
molecule; acid
base; acid
compound; element
base:acid
Carbohydrate molecules

-are composed of C, H, O, and N atoms.
-are the building blocks of cellular membranes.
-form the regulatory molecules known as enzymes.
-contain the genetic information found in cells.
-are the body's most readily available source of energy.
are the body's most readily available source of energy.
A polysaccharide that is formed in liver and muscle cells to store glucose is

cellulose.
glycogen.
fructose.
lactose.
sucrose.
glycogen
Carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins are classified as

organic molecules.
bases.
acids.
salts.
inorganic molecules.
organic molecules
Lipids

-cushion organs against shocks.
-provide roughly twice the energy as carbohydrates.
-form essential structural components of cells.
-help to maintain body temperature.
-all of the above
all of the above
You would expect a peptide bond to link

a sugar and a peptide.
two simple sugars.
two nucleotides.
a peptide and a fatty acid.
two amino acids.
two amino acids
An amino acid is to a protein as ________ is to a nucleic acid.

a neutron
a proton
a purine
a protein
a nucleotide
a nucleotide
Adenine and guanine are

-purines represented by A and G.
-pyrimidines represented by T and C.
-purines represented by T and C.
-pyrimidines represented by A and G.
-nucleotides represented by A and G.
purines represented by A and G.
The most abundant high-energy compound in cells is

-adenosine diphosphate.
-DNA.
-adenosine triphosphate.
-RNA.
-adenosine monophosphate.
adenosine triphosphate
Identify the product formed from the phosphorylation of ADP.

-ribose
-adenine
-adenosine triphosphate
-deoxyribonucleic acid
-adenosine diphosphate
adenosine triphosphate
Muscle proteins are destroyed after 17 days and then replaced. This is an example of

-disease.
-metabolic turnover.
-surface tension.
-surveillance.
-specificity.
metabolic turnover
Which of following is a function of the skeletal system?

calcium homeostasis
body support
protection of internal organs
blood cell production
all of the above
all of the above
Which of the following bones is classified as "irregular" in shape?

patella
frontal
ulna
metatarsal
vertebra
vertebra
The carpal bones are examples of ________ bones.

long
flat
irregular
short
sesamoid
short
A rib is an example of a ________ bone.

sutural
short
sesamoid
long
flat
flat
The shaft of a long bone is called the

diaphysis.
epiphysis.
metaphysis.
epiphyseal plate.
lamella.
diaphysis
The smooth, rounded articular process of a bone is termed a

condyle.
crest.
head.
trochlea.
ridge.
condyle
A projection at an angle on a bone is termed a(n) ________
ramus
Our bones are constantly changing to adapt to the demands we place on them.

True
False
true
Which of the following labels best matches osteocyte?

mature bone cell
secretes organic matrix
dissolves matrix
stem cell
mature bone cell
Through the action of osteoclasts,

new bone is formed.
fractured bones regenerate.
bony matrix is dissolved.
osteoid is calcified.
bony matrix is dissolved
The space occupied by an osteocyte is called a

Volkmann's canal.
trabecula.
Haversian canal.
lacuna.
Venetian canal.
lacuna
The structural units of mature compact bone are called

lacunae.
lamellae.
canaliculi.
osteocytes.
osteons.
osteons
________ bone reduces the weight of the skeleton and reduces the load on muscles.

Short
Irregular
Compact
Long
Spongy
spongy
Which of the following is formed by intramembranous ossification?

carpal bones
roof of the skull
clavicle
femur
both roof of the skull and clavicle
both roof of the skull and clavicle
The articular cartilage of a typical long bone is composed of what type of cartilage?

osseous cartilage
hyaline cartilage
fibrocartilage
elastic cartilage
synovial cartilage
hyaline cartliage
When the epiphyseal plate is replaced by bone,

appositional bone growth begins.
long bones have reached their adult length.
the bone becomes more brittle.
interstitial bone growth begins.
puberty begins.
long bones have reached their adult length
A(n) ________ fracture shatters the bone.
comminuted
A condition in which bone becomes riddled with holes is called

osteoporosis.
osteomyelitis.
osteomalacia.
osteitis.
osteopenia.
osteoporosis
Which of the following is not part of the axial division of the skeletal system?

hyoid bone
skull
auditory ossicles
vertebral column
pectoral girdle
pectoral girdle
The foramen magnum is found in the ________ bone.

sphenoid
frontal
parietal
temporal
occipital
occipital
The zygomatic arch is formed by the union of processes from which two bones?

frontal and temporal
temporal and zygomatic
zygomatic and maxilla
temporal and maxilla
sphenoid and temporal
temporal and zygomatic
my answers
22
You witness one of your friends in a fight. Your friend Gregg is hit in the jaw and when looking at him, his face looks misaligned. You immediately take him to the emergency room and are not surprised to learn that he has a broken

temporal bone.
external auditory meatus.
clavicle.
zygomatic bone.
mandible.
mandible
The frontal and parietal bones articulate at the ________ suture.
coronal
The four spinal curves include all but one of the following. Identify the exception.

sacral
thoracic
pelvic
cervical
axial
axial
The part of the vertebrae that transfers weight along the axis of the vertebral column is the

intervertebral space.
vertebral arch.
vertebral body.
articular processes.
none of the above
vertebral body
The ribs articulate with the

cervical vertebrae.
thoracic vertebrae.
lumbar vertebrae.
all of the above
cervical vertebrae and thoracic vertebrae only
thoracic vertebrae
The vertebral column contains ________ lumbar vertebrae.

12
75
5
31
4
5
All of the following are true of the sacrum, except that it

-provides a point of attachment for leg muscles.
-articulates with the coccyx.
-articulates with the second and third lumbar vertebrae.
-provides protection for reproductive, digestive, and excretory organs.
-articulates with the pelvic ones
articulates with the second and third lumbar vertebrae.
The first cervical vertebra is better known as the ________.
atlas
Humans normally have ________ pairs of ribs.

6
2
24
12
10
12
The sternum contains

the body.
the jugular notch.
the xiphoid process.
the manubrium.
all of the above
all of the above
Ribs 8 to 12 are called ________ because they do not attach directly to the sternum.
false ribs
Which of the following is not a component of the appendicular skeleton?

-femur
-metatarsals
-humerus
-scapula
-None of the above-all are appendicular bones.
None of the above-all are appendicular bones.
The clavicle articulates with the scapula
distally with the acromion
Two prominent features of the clavicle are the conoid tubercle at the distal end and the ________ tuberosity at the proximal end.
costal
Which of these is a forearm bone?
radius
fibula
humerus
tibia
femur
radius
The radius articulates with the
-humerus.
- ulna.
-carpals.
-all of the above
- humerus and carpals only
all of the above
The bones that form the palm are the
metacarpals
The bones that form the palm are the
ulna, radius, and humerus.
hamate, capitate, and trapezium.
femur, patella, and tibia.
femur, tibia, and fibula.
ilium, ischium, and pubis.
hamate, capitate, and trapezium..
Tina falls and fractures her pisiform bone. What part of her body was injured?
wrist
The superior border of the ilium that acts as a point of attachment for both ligaments and muscles is the
-iliac notch.
- acetabulum.
- posterior superior iliac spine.
- anterior iliac spine.
- iliac crest.
iliac crest
The sacrum articulates with the
-ischium and pubis.
-ilium and ischium.
-ischium.
-pubis.
-ilium.
ilium
Study of human skeletons can reveal information concerning the person's

-age and nutritional status.
- sex.
- size and handedness.
- all of the above
- sex, age, and nutritional status.
all of the above
The fusion of the ilium, ischium, and pubis forms each coxal bone.

True or
False
True
The longest and heaviest bone in the body is the

-humerus.
- tibia.
-coxal bone.
- femur.
-fibula.
femur
Which of the following is the heel bone?

-patella
-navicular
-calcaneus
-talus
- cuboid
calcaneus
The largest bone of the lower limb is the

-humerus.
-tibia.
- femur.
-calcaneus.
- fibula.
femur
The ligament that surrounds the ________ attaches to the tibial tuberosity.
patella
On a field trip you discover a skeleton with the following characteristics. The acetabulum is directed laterally, the ischial spine points medially, and the angle inferior to the pubic symphysis is less than 90 degrees. The long bones of the arms and legs are relatively light and show epiphyseal plates. This skeleton is probably from

-an elderly female.
-a young male.
- a young female.
- an elderly male.
-Cannot tell on the basis of this information.
a young male
An immovable joint is a(n)

-syndesmosis.
-diarthrosis.
-amphiarthrosis.
- synarthrosis.
-symphysis
synarthrosis.
A slightly movable joint is a(n)

-gomphosis.
- diarthrosis.
- amphiarthrosis.
- synarthrosis.
- synostosis.
amphiarthrosis.
A freely movable joint is a(n)

-synarthrosis.
- amphiarthrosis.
-diarthrosis.
- symphysis.
- syndesmosis.
diarthrosis
A suture is an example of a(n)

-diarthrosis.
-synarthrosis.
-symphysis.
- amphiarthrosis.
- syndesmosis.
synarthrosis.
A ligamentous connection such as an interosseus ligament is termed a

syndesmosis.
gomphosis.
symphysis.
synostosis.
synchondrosis.
syndesmosis.
The surface of articular cartilage is

smooth.
slick.
rough.
flat.
both slick and smooth.
both slick and smooth.
Functionally, the pubic symphysis is classified as a(n) ________ articulation.
amphiarthrotic
To pinch with a thumb and finger involves a movement called

eversion.
opposition.
rotation.
retraction.
circumduction.
opposition.
The movements known as dorsiflexion and plantar flexion involve moving the

foot.
leg.
hip.
hand.
arm.
foot
Monaxial joints are known as ________ joints.

gliding
ellipsoid
ball-and-socket
saddle
hinge
hinge
Lifting a stone with the tip of foot is

dorsiflexion.
inversion.
plantar flexion.
circumduction.
eversion
dorsiflexion.
The movement of rotating a limb toward the anterior surface of the body is called ________.
medial rotation
All of the following movements occur at the intervertebral joints, EXCEPT
dorsiflexion.
rotation.
flexion.
extension.
lateral flexion
dorsiflexion.
The "rotator cuff" of the shoulder functions to


-limit the range of movements.
-allow biaxial movement.
-reinforce the joint capsule.
-all of the above
-both reinforce the joint capsule and limit the range of movements.
both reinforce the joint capsule and limit the range of movements
The largest and strongest articulation at the elbow is the

humeroradial joint.
radial joint.
humero-ulnar joint.
ulnaradial joint.
ulnar joint.
humero-ulnar joint.
The normal movement of the hip joint during walking involves

extension.
abduction.
flexion.
adduction.
both flexion and extension
both flexion and extension
The ligament that provides support to the front of the knee joint is the ________ ligament.

tibial collateral
posterior cruciate
anterior cruciate
popliteal
patellar
patellar
A common injury to the ankle occurs by excessive turning of the sole inward, termed


protraction.
inversion.
eversion.
plantar flexion.
dorsiflexion.
inversion
Which of the following movements is a good example of hyperextension?

-spreading the fingers
-extreme bending of the head backwards
-turning the hand palm upward
- moving the hand toward the shoulder
-opening the mouth
extreme bending of the head backwards
An extension past the anatomical position is known as

rotation.
extension.
double jointed.
flexion.
hyperextension.
hyperextension.
Which of the following movements is a good example of supination?

-spreading the fingers
- turning the hand palm upward
- opening the mouth
- moving the hand toward the shoulder
-extreme bending of the head backwards
turning the hand palm upward
The joint that permits the greatest range of mobility of any joint in the body is the ________ joint.

hip
elbow
wrist
knee
shoulder
shoulder
Arthritis always involves damage to the ________ cartilages, but the specific cause can vary.
articular
Which of the following is a recognized function of skeletal muscle?

produce movement
maintain posture
guard body entrances and exits
maintain body temperature
all of the above
all of the above
The contraction of a muscle exerts a pull on a bone because

-muscles are attached to bones by ligaments.
-muscles are attached to bones by bursae.
-muscles are attached to bones by tendons.
-muscles are attached to bones by ligaments or by tendons.
-muscles are attached to bones by ligaments, by bursae or by tendons.
muscles are attached to bones by tendons.
The dense layer of connective tissue that surrounds an entire skeletal muscle is the

endomysium.
fascicle.
perimysium.
epimysium.
tendon.
epimysium
The delicate connective tissue that surrounds the skeletal muscle fibers and ties adjacent muscle fibers together is the

epimysium.
endomysium.
perimysium.
superficial fascia.
periosteum
endomysium.
The bundle of collagen fibers at the end of a skeletal muscle that attaches the muscle to bone is called a(n)

fascicle.
myofibril.
tendon.
ligament.
epimysium.
tendon.
Which of the following best describes the term muscle origin?

-connective tissue that surrounds an entire muscle
-tendon attachment that moves
-broad tendon sheet
-tendon attachment that doesn't move
-connective tissue that surrounds a single muscle fiber

Correct
tendon attachment that doesn't move
Muscle fibers differ from "typical cells" in that muscle fibers

- lack a plasma membrane.
- are very small.
- lack mitochondria.
- have many nuclei.
- both have many nuclei and are very small.
have many nuclei.
Which of the following best describes the term sarcomere?

-storage site for calcium ions
-largely made of myosin molecules
-repeating unit of striated myofibrils
-thin filaments are anchored here
-protein that accounts for elasticity of resting muscle
repeating unit of striated myofibrils
Interactions between actin and myosin filaments of the sarcomere are responsible for

- the striped appearance of skeletal muscle.
-muscle contraction.
- the conduction of neural stimulation to the muscle fiber.
-muscle relaxation.
- muscle fatigue.
muscle contraction.
The region of the sarcomere that always contains thin filaments is the

M line.
Z line.
A band.
I band.
H band.
I band.
Cross-bridges are portions of

troponin molecules.
actin molecules.
calcium ions.
myosin molecules.
tropomyosin molecules.
myosin molecules.
Each skeletal muscle fiber contains ________ myofibrils.

50 to 100
100 to 150
150 to 200
200 to 500
hundreds to thousands
hundreds to thousands
Which statement about the microscopic anatomy of skeletal muscle fibers is true?

Cross striations result from the lateral alignment of thick and thin filaments.
Each fiber has many nuclei.
Tubular extensions of the sarcolemma penetrate the fiber transversely.
Muscle fibers are continuous from tendon to tendon.
All are true
All are true
The narrow space between the synaptic terminal and the muscle fiber is the

synaptic cleft.
M line.
synaptic knob.
motor end plate.
motor unit.
synaptic cleft.
In response to action potentials arriving along the transverse tubules, the sarcoplasmic reticulum releases

hydrogen ions.
potassium ions.
calcium ions.
acetylcholine.
sodium ions
calcium ions.
The cytoplasm of the neuromuscular terminal contains vesicles filled with molecules of the neurotransmitter

epinephrine.
acetylcholine.
antidiuretic hormone.
norepinephrine.
all of the above
acetylcholine.
Which of the following motor units would produce the greatest tension?

a motor unit in an eye muscle
a motor unit in a hand muscle
a motor unit in a back muscle
a motor unit in a back muscle
When a muscle is stimulated repeatedly at a high rate, the amount of tension gradually increases to a steady maximum tension. This is called

incomplete tetanus.
complete tetanus.
wave summation.
recruitment.
a twitch.
complete tetanus.
A single motor neuron together with all the muscle fibers it innervates is called

a motor unit.
an end plate.
an end foot.
a dermatome.
a myotome.
a motor unit.
In which of the following would the motor units have the fewest muscle fibers?

calf muscles
thigh muscles
muscles of the neck
muscles that control the eyes
postural muscles of the back
muscles that control the eyes
A resting muscle generates most of its ATP by

the tricarboxylic acid cycle.
anaerobic respiration.
glycogenolysis.
aerobic metabolism of fatty acids.
hydrolysis of creatine phosphate.
aerobic metabolism of fatty acids.
Decreased blood flow to a muscle could result in all of the following, EXCEPT:

an increase in intracellular lactate.
an increase in intracellular glycogen.
an oxygen debt.
a shift to anaerobic glycolysis.
muscle fatigue.
an increase in intracellular glycogen
Which of these would lead to increased oxygen consumption?
increased aerobic respiration by muscle cells

increased muscle activity
increased heat production
increased conversion of lactic acid to glucose
all of the above
all of the above
The type of muscle fiber that is most resistant to fatigue is the ________ fiber.

high-density
slow
intermediate
anaerobic
fast
slow
Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding human muscles?

Most have both slow and fast fibers.
Slow fibers are abundant in the calf muscles.
Eye muscles are composed entirely of fast fibers.
Slow fibers are abundant in the back muscles.
All of the above.
All of the above.
At each end of the muscle, the collagen fibers of the epimysium, and each perimysium and endomysium, come together to form a

sheath.
satellite cell.
tenosynovium.
ligament.
tendon.
tendon
Which of the following best describes the term sarcoplasmic reticulum?

repeating unit of striated myofibrils
largely made of myosin molecules
thin filaments are anchored here
storage and release site for calcium ions
protein that accounts for elasticity of resting muscle
storage and release site for calcium ions
The area in the center of the A band that contains no thin filaments is the

M line.
H band.
zone of overlap.
Z line.
I band.
H band
At rest, active sites on the actin are blocked by

tropomyosin molecules.
ATP molecules.
troponin molecules.
myosin molecules.
calcium ions.
tropomyosin molecules.
Compared to a "typical" body cell, skeletal muscle cells are

- filled with crystalline 3-D arrays of -fibrous proteins.
- larger than normal cells.
- capable of rapid shortening against a load.
- multinucleate.
- all of the above
all of the above
Which of the following is greater?

= the concentration of calcium ion in the sarcoplasm of a resting muscle
=the concentration of calcium ion in the sarcoplasmic reticulum of a resting muscle
the concentration of calcium ion in the sarcoplasmic reticulum of a resting muscle
Receptors for acetylcholine are located on the

synaptic cleft.
transverse tubule.
motor end plate.
sarcomere.
synaptic knob.
motor end plate
Muscles that guard entrances and exits of internal passageways are ________ muscles.

convergent
parallel
pennate
bipennate
circular
circular
Most of the skeletal muscles in the body are

circular muscles.
parallel muscles.
convergent muscles.
pennate muscles.
straight muscles
parallel muscles.
________ muscle fibers pull in different directions, permitting different actions depending on stimulation.

Pennate
Straight
Circular
Convergent
Parallel
Convergent
Muscle fibers in skeletal muscle form bundles called ________.
fascicles
A muscle that inserts on the body of the mandible is probably involved in

spitting.
chewing.
blowing.
frowning.
kissing
chewing
A muscle that assists the muscle that is primarily responsible for a given action is a(n)

levator.
antagonist.
originator.
synergist.
agonist.
synergist.
The end of a muscle that remains stationary when the muscle contracts is called the ________.
origin
The triceps brachii muscle is an agonist that extends the elbow.

True
False
True
The names of the muscles can indicate all of the following, EXCEPT

-the action of the muscle.
collagen content of the muscle.
- the location of the muscle.
- structural characteristics of the muscle.
- the angle of the muscle relative to the long axis of the body.
collagen content of the muscle.
Each of the following terms is used to describe the shape of a muscle, EXCEPT

pyriformis.
trapezius.
pectinate.
splenius.
hallucis.
hallucis.
Muscles visible at the body surface are often called

internus.
extrinsic.
superficialis.
intrinsic.
profundus
superficialis.
The "kissing muscle" that purses the lips is the

procerus.
orbicularis oris.
zygomaticus.
levator labii.
orbicularis oris.
The origin of the frontalis muscle is the

galea aponeurotica.
forehead.
mandible.
frontal bone.
occipital bone.
galea aponeurotica.
The muscle that elevates the tongue is the

styloglossus.
palatoglossus.
genioglossus.
hyoglossus.
digastric.
palatoglossus.
The muscle that inserts on the superior surface of the pubis around the symphysis is the

external oblique.
transversus abdominis.
scalene.
rectus abdominis.
internal oblique.
rectus abdominis.
Which of the following muscles compresses the abdomen?

diaphragm
external oblique
rectus abdominis
transverse abdominis
- external oblique, rectus abdominis, and transverse abdominis
external oblique, rectus abdominis, and transverse abdominis
The ________ covers the anterior surface of the neck.

epicranium
orbicularis oris
buccinator
occipitofrontalis
platysma
platysma
The ________ muscle is the strongest jaw muscle.

lateral pterygoid
pterygoid
masseter
medial pterygoid
digastric
masseter
Muscles that insert on the olecranon process of the ulna can act to

flex the forearm.
extend the carpals.
abduct the forearm.
adduct the forearm.
extend the forearm.
extend the forearm.
Which of the following is the insertion of the pectoralis major?


the vertebral border near the spine
the mastoid region of the skull
the clavicle and scapula
the occipital bone of the skull
the greater tubercle of the humerus
the greater tubercle of the humerus
Which of the following does NOT move the shoulder girdle?


trapezius
pectoralis major
serratus anterior
rhomboid
deltoid
deltoid
The muscle that adducts and rotates the scapula laterally is the

subclavius.
pectoralis minor.
levator scapulae.
serratus anterior.
rhomboid.
rhomboid.
A muscle that adducts the humerus is the

coracobrachialis.
deltoid.
trapezius.
latissimus dorsi.
both coracobrachialis and latissimus dorsi.

Correct
both coracobrachialis and latissimus dorsi
Which of the following originates on the medial epicondyle of the humerus?

pronator teres.
flexor carpi radialis
palmaris longus
flexor carpi ulnaris
all of the above
all of the above
Which of the following is a member of the hamstring group?

semitendinosus
semimembranosus
biceps femoris
all of the above
semimembranosus and semitendinosus only

Correct
all of the above
Which of these muscles is a member of the quadriceps group?

rectus femoris
vastus lateralis
vastus medialis
vastus intermedius
all of the above
all of the above
If you bruised your gluteus maximus, you would expect to experience discomfort when

abducting your hip.
extending your hip.
flexing your hip.
laterally rotating your hip.
both extending your hip and laterally rotating your hip.
both extending your hip and laterally rotating your hip.
Jill suffers a severe cut that severs the tendon that attaches the insertion of the flexor carpi ulnaris. As a result of this injury, what action is difficult for her to perform?

flex her forearm
flex her shoulder
flex her ulna
flex and adduct her hand
flex her elbow
flex and adduct her hand
Which of the following is NOT a function of the nervous system?

control peripheral effectors
integrate sensory information
direct long-term functions, such as growth
coordinate voluntary and involuntary activities
sense the internal and external environments
direct long-term functions, such as growth
The ________ nervous system is composed of the brain and spinal cord.

afferent
efferent
peripheral
central
autonomic
central
The part of the peripheral nervous system that carries sensory information to the CNS is designated

efferent.
somatic.
motor.
afferent.
autonomic
afferent.
The ________ division carries motor commands to muscles and glands.
efferent
Which of the following is NOT a recognized structural classification for neurons?

bipolar
anaxonic
pseudopolar
unipolar
multipolar
pseudopolar
Clusters of RER and free ribosomes in neurons are called

Nissl bodies.
neurofibrils.
perikaryon.
neurofilaments.
microglia.
Nissl bodies.
The axon is connected to the soma at the

telodendria.
synapse.
axon hillock.
collaterals.
synaptic knobs
axon hillock.
The site of intercellular communication between neurons is the

hillock.
synaptic knob.
synapse.
telodendria
collateral.
synapse.
Neurons in which dendritic and axonal processes are continuous and the soma lies off to one side are called

unipolar.
tripolar.
bipolar.
anaxonic.
multipola
unipolar.
Active neurons need ATP to support which of the following?

-the movement of materials from the soma by axoplasmic transport
-the recovery from action potentials
-the synthesis of neurotransmitter molecules
-the movement of materials to the soma by axoplasmic transport
-all of the above
all of the above
The basic functional unit of the nervous system is the ________.
neuron
Match the system with its components.
{# w/ letter}
1. central nervous system
2. peripheral nervous system
3. somatic nervous system
4. autonomic nervous system
A) includes all neural tissue outside the CNS
B) includes the spinal cord and brain
C) controls visceral effectors
D) controls skeletal muscle contractions
1-B,2-A,3-D,4-C
The largest and most numerous of the glial cells in the central nervous system are the

oligodendrocytes.
ependymal cells.
microglia.
astrocytes.
satellite cells
astrocytes.
of the following is NOT a function of the neuroglia?

phagocytosis
secretion of cerebrospinal fluid
memory
maintenance of blood-brain barrier
support
memory
The myelin sheath that covers many CNS axons is formed by

oligodendrocytes.
astrocytes.
satellite cells.
ependymal cells.
microglia.
oligodendrocytes.
Regions of the CNS where neuron cell bodies dominate constitute the ________ matter.
gray
Ion channels that are always open are called ________ channels.
leak
local
regulated
active
gated
leak
Opening of sodium channels in the axon membrane causes

- repolarization.
-hyperpolarization.
- depolarization.
- increased positive charge inside the membrane.
- depolarization and increased positive charge inside the membrane.
depolarization and increased positive charge inside the membrane.
Ions can move across the plasma membrane in which of the following ways?

-by ATP-dependent ion pumps like the sodium-potassium exchange pump
-through passive or leak channels
- through voltage-gated channels as in the action potential
-through chemically-gated channels as in neuromuscular transmission
-all of the above
all of the above
Voltage-gated sodium channels have both an activation gate and a(n) ________ gate.

swinging
threshold
repolarization
inactivation
ion
inactivation
How would the absolute refractory period be affected if voltage-regulated sodium channels failed to inactivate?

It would last indefinitely.
It would be much briefer.
It would be basically unaffected
It would last indefinitely
Puffer fish poison blocks voltage-gated sodium channels like a cork. What effect would this neurotoxin have on the function of neurons?

= Action potentials would lack a repolarization phase.
-Neurons would depolarize more rapidly.
-The axon would be unable to generate action potentials.
-The absolute refractory period would be shorter than normal.
-None, because the chemically gated sodium channels would still function.
The axon would be unable to generate action potentials.
A shift of the resting transmembrane potential toward 0 mV is called ________.
depolarization
In the process of continuous action potential propagation,

- local currents depolarize a sensitive spot distant from the active zone.
- local currents depolarize the region just adjacent to the active zone.
- at threshold, sodium channels begin to open rapidly.
- the action potential is triggered by graded depolarization of the initial segment.
-the action potential is triggered by graded depolarization of the initial segment, at threshold, sodium channels begin to open rapidly, and ocal currents depolarize the region just adjacent to the active zone.
-the action potential is triggered by graded depolarization of the initial segment, at threshold, sodium channels begin to open rapidly, and ocal currents depolarize the region just adjacent to the active zone.
Which of the following comparisons between neurons and muscle tissue is FALSE?

-Muscle fibers conduct action potentials only by continuous propagation.
- Action potentials are briefer in muscle fibers.
-Muscle fibers conduct action potentials at slow speeds.
-Action potentials last longer in muscle fibers.
- Resting potentials are greater in muscle fibers.
Action potentials are briefer in muscle fibers
The ion that triggers the release of acetylcholine into the synaptic cleft is

magnesium.
chloride.
calcium.
potassium.
sodium.
calcium.
Integral membrane proteins that connect electrical synapses are called

synapsins.
receptors.
sodium channels.
connexons.
desmosomes.
connexons.
The same ________ can have different effects depending on the properties of the ________.

neurotransmitter; receptor
receptor; neurotransmitter
propagation; neurotransmitter
substrate; receptor
hormone; neurotransmitter
neurotransmitter; receptor
Part A
Adrenergic synapses release the
neurotransmitter

GABA.
acetylcholine.
dopamine.
norepinephrine.
serotonin.
norepinephrine.
Which of the following is not a possible drug effect on synaptic function?

- change the type of receptor found in the postsynaptic membrane
-interfere with neurotransmitter reuptake
- prevent neurotransmitter inactivation
- interfere with neurotransmitter synthesis
- block neurotransmitter binding to receptors
change the type of receptor found in the postsynaptic membrane
Summation that results from the cumulative effect of multiple synapses at multiple places on the neuron is designated

temporal summation.
inhibition of the impulse.
hyperpolarization.
impulse transmission.
spatial summation
spatial summation.
The afferent division of the PNS _____________.

carries sensory information
controls smooth muscle
carries motor commands
controls skeletal muscle
carries sensory information
The axon hillock connects the axon with the __________.

cell body (soma)
collaterals
telodendria
synaps
cell body (soma)
Which is the largest and most abundant type of neuroglia?

satellite cells
astrocytes
oligodendrocytes
ependymal cells
astrocytes
The sodium-potassium exchange pump stabilizes resting potential at about __________.

-10 mV
-70 mV
-90 mV
+66 mV
-70 mV
Which of these is the earliest step in the generation of an action potential?

Sodium channels inactivate.
Sodium channels open.
Potassium channels open.
Potassium channels inactivate.

Correct
Sodium channels open
Which of these axons will conduct an action potential most quickly?

Type A fiber
Type B fiber
Type C fiber
All fibers have the same propagation speed
Type A fiber
Which ion triggers synaptic vesicles to discharge neurotransmitter into the synaptic cleft?

sodium
magnesium
potassium
calcium
calcium
Which of these neurotransmitters do adrenergic synapses use?

norepinephrine
GABA
nitric oxide
acetylcholine
norepinephrine
EPSPs are ___________.

EPSPs have all of these characteristics.
graded
postsynaptic
excitatory
EPSPs have all of these
If a nerve cell receives many IPSPs at the same time, __________.

it will show spatial summation
the nerve cell will approach threshold
the membrane potential will depolarize
the nerve cell will be strongly excited
it will show spatial summation
Which of these is not part of the peripheral nervous system (PNS)?

spinal cord
cranial nerves
spinal nerves
afferent nerve fibers
spinal cord
The spinal cord consists of __________ segments, each associated with two pairs of nerve roots.

31
5
29 to 31
12
31
The cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) circulates within the __________.

subdural space
dura mater
subarachnoid space
pia mater
subarachnoid space
The gray horns of the spinal cord contain __________.

unmyelinated axons
neuron cell bodies (somas)
neuroglia
The gray horns contain all of these elements.
The gray horns contain all of these elements.
The region of the body surface monitored by a pair of spinal nerves is known as a(n) __________.

segment
input domain
dermatome
dermal band
dermatome
Nerve cells (neurons) that control peripheral effectors are known as __________.

afferent fibers
motor neurons
peripheral neurons
axons
motor neurons
Which of these is not one of the essential components of a reflex arc?

receptor activation
output to a peripheral effector
integration process in the CNS
output to upper motor neuron
output to upper motor neuron
The input for the stretch reflex comes from the __________.

extrafusal fibers
gamma motor neuron
muscle spindle
efferent fibers
muscle spindle
A distinction about the flexor reflex is that it __________.

prevents a muscle from generating excessive tension
is an example of a monosynaptic reflex
moves a limb away from a painful stimulus
prevents a muscle from overstretching
moves a limb away from a painful stimulus
In the adult brain, which is the largest region?

midbrain
diencephalon
cerebellum
cerebrum
cerebrum
Which of these is NOT a property of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?

It protects the brain and spinal cord.
It is produced at the arachnoid granulations.
It circulates in the subarachnoid space.
It supports the brain.
It is produced at the arachnoid granulations.
Which of these statements about the medulla oblongata is TRUE?

It connects the brain and spinal cord.
It contains centers for respiration.
It is part of the brain stem.
All of these statements are true of the medulla oblongata.
All of these statements are true of the medulla oblongata
Which of these is the pons not involved in?

respiration
control of food intake
connections to cerebellum
The pons is involved in all of these
control of food intake
The cerebellum __________.

adjusts posture
coordinates learned movements
has peduncles connecting to the cerebrum
All of these are true for the cerebellum.
All of these are true for the cerebellum
Which of these statements regarding the midbrain is FALSE?

It is also called diencephalon.
It is the headquarters of the reticular activating system (RAS).
It contains corpora quadrigemina.
It regulates auditory reflexes.
It is also called diencephalon.
The largest component of the diencephalon is the __________.

tegmentum
thalamus
hypothalamus
epithalamus
thalamus
Which of the following is NOT a component of the limbic system?

amygdaloid body
globus pallidus
fornix
cingulate gyrus
globus pallidus
The cerebrum is divided into two hemispheres by the __________.

sagittal sulcus
sagittal sinus
central sulcus
longitudinal fissure
longitudinal fissure
Which of these electroencephalogram (EEG) waveforms is characteristic of a resting, healthy adult?

theta waves
alpha waves
delta waves
beta waves
alpha waves
Which of these statements about the afferent division of the nervous system is TRUE?

It ascends with motor information.
It descends with motor information.
It descends with sensory information.
It ascends with sensory information
It ascends with sensory information
Which of these is a general sense?

temperature
proprioception
pain
All of these are general senses
All of these are general senses
Which of these is NOT a type of mechanoreceptor?

tactile
baroreceptor
proprioceptor
nociceptor
nociceptor
If a nerve impulse was transmitted to the central nervous system (CNS) on a C fiber, ____________.

-it would lead to a slow sensation of cold
-it would lead to a slow sensation of pain
- it would lead to a quick sensation of pain
- it would lead to a quick sensation of col
it would lead to a slow sensation of pain
Which of these is NOT an ascending tract?

fasciculus cuneatus
fasciculus gracilis
reticulospinal
spinocerebellar
reticulospinal
Which of these sensory modalities is not carried within the posterior column pathway?

pressure
pain
fine touch
proprioception
pain
What is the minimum number of synapses that must be crossed before an afferent nerve impulse becomes a perception?

one
two
at least four
three
three
The __________ tract carries information for maintaining balance.

vestibulospinal
lateral corticospinal
anterior corticospinal
rubrospinal
vestibulospinal
The corticospinal system exerts __________.

voluntary control over skeletal muscles
involuntary control over smooth muscles
involuntary control over cardiac muscle
voluntary control over smooth muscles
voluntary control over skeletal muscles
Destruction of upper motor neurons in the LEFT cerebral hemisphere results in loss of _______________.

sensation on the right side
movement on the left side
movement on the right side
sensation on the left side
movement on the right side
The statement "there is always a peripheral synapse between the CNS and the effector organ" is __________.

true only for the parasympathetic nervous system
true only for the sympathetic nervous system
true only for the somatic nervous system
true for both the parasympathetic and the sympathetic nervous systems
true for both the parasympathetic and the sympathetic nervous systems
Which response is NOT part of sympathetic activation?

increased alertness
increased heart rate
decreased muscle tone
decreased sensitivity to painful stimuli
decreased muscle tone
Which of these substances is not a neurotransmitter at a sympathetic effector synapse?

norepinephrine
gamma amino butyric acid (GABA)
acetylcholine (ACh)
epinephrine



`
gamma amino butyric acid (GABA)
Which nerves contain the most parasympathetic preganglionic fibers?

vagus
splanchnic
trigeminal
optic
vagus
Which of these organs does NOT receive parasympathetic input?

heart
lungs
skin
stomach
skin
Which of these organs does NOT receive dual innervation?

eye
heart
salivary gland
sweat gland
sweat gland
Which of the following is NOT an example of a visceral reflex?

pupillary reflex
tendon reflex
vomiting reflex
defecation reflex
tendon reflex
Stimuli that maintain the waking state act through the _________.

prefrontal lobes
general interpretive area
reticular activating system
pyramidal system
reticular activating system
The difficulties with memory and language common with advancing years may be signs of __________.

senile dementia
supermaturity
delirium agitans
Alzheimer disease
senile dementia
The nervous and endocrine systems can interact through __________.

chemicals carried in the blood
locally-released chemicals
direct physical contact
The nervous and endocrine systems can interact through all of these means
The nervous and endocrine systems can interact through all of these means
The first step in the process of olfaction is __________.

mucus production
sniffing the air
an odorant molecule binding to a specific protein
All of these events occur at the beginning of olfaction.
an odorant molecule binding to a specific protein
Gustatory receptors function most like __________.

hair cells
photoreceptors
olfactory receptors
vestibular receptors
olfactory receptors
Lacrimal glands ____________.

produce a watery secretion
moisten the cornea
produce lysozyme
Lacrimal glands perform all of these functions
Lacrimal glands perform all of these functions
Which of these is not one of the three layers of the eye?

scleral tunic
fibrous tunic
vascular tunic
neural tunic
scleral tunic
Which of these is the correct pathway for transmission of visual information?

photoreceptor → bipolar cell → bipolar cell
ganglion cell → bipolar cell → photoreceptor
photoreceptor → bipolar cell → horizontal cell
photoreceptor → horizontal cell → ganglion cell
photoreceptor → bipolar cell → bipolar cell
Retinal, a component of all the visual pigments, is made from __________.

vitamin K
vitamin E
vitamin A
vitamin D
vitamin A
Which of these is NOT a type of photoreceptor?

blue cone
yellow cone
red cone
green cone
yellow cone
The external ear does NOT include the ___________.

stapes
pinna
acoustic meatus
tympanic membra
stapes
The bony labyrinth does NOT include the __________.

acoustic meatus
vestibule
cochlea
semicircular canals
acoustic meatus
Cochlear hair cells are located in the ___________.

vestibule
organ of Corti
perilymph
acoustic meatus
organ of Corti
___ is considered the oldest medical science
anatomy
Anatomy is to physiology as ___ is to___
structure; function
The worldwide official standard of anatomical vocabulary is:
Termionologia Anatomica
Anatomical features that change during illness are studied in ___ anatomy
pathological
Which of the following is arranged from MOST to Least complex?:
a. cell, tissue, molecule, system, organ, organism
b. molecule, cell, tissue, organ, system, organism
c. Tissue, cell, molecule, organ, system, organism
d. organism, system, organ, tissue, cell, molecule
d
Ventral is the same as __ and dorsal is the same as __:
a. front;back
b. posterior;anterior
c. anterior;posterior
d. a and c
e. b and c
d
the heart is ___ to the lungs
medial
the term 'coronal' is the same as:
frontal
moving from the elbow to the wrist is an example of moving in a__ direction
distal
making a sagittal section results in the separation of __ portions of the body
right and left
the chin is __ to the nose
inferior
The muscle known as the diaphragm separates the __ from the __
thoracic cavity; abdominal cavity
the central principal of physiology is:
homeostasis
what kind of elements are Na and K in the body?
minor
what kind of element is C in the body?
major
what kind of elements are I and Fe in the body?
trace
what kind of elements are H and N in the body?
major
what kind of elements are P and K in the body?
minor
Most of the mass of an atom is:
located within the nucleus, and due to the mass of the protons and neutrons
the mass of electrons is:
negligible
The chemical reactivity of an element is determined by the:
number of electrons in the outer shell
the __ of an atom is constant
atomic number
an atom which as lost an electron is a(n):
ion
(T/F) The gene is the smallest living unit
false
(T/F) Nucleic acids are made of units of nucleotides
true
(T/F) based on electron configurations the elements N and Si have similar chemical behavior
False
(T/F) An atom is electrically neutral
True
(T/F) the mass of an atom is determined by the number of protons and electrons
False
(T/F) an isotope has an unchanged number of protons and a changed number of neutrons
True
(T/F) a pyrimidine is a 2-cyclic nitrogen base
false
(T/F) negative feedback is more common than positive feedback
true
(T/F) proteins account for about 20% of body mass
true
(T/F) four elements account for 96% of body mass
true
processes and absorbs nutrients; stores energy
digestive system
provides oxygen; removes carbon dioxide
respiratory system
sensory info; body temp, regulation; protection
integumentary system
defense against infection and disease
lymphoid system
interprets sensory info; directs responses
nervous system
excretes blood waste products; controls water balance
urinary system
movement; protection' support
muscular system
site of sex cell production
reproductive system
distribution of a variety of materials
cardiovascular system
produces hormones to control many functions
endocrine system
supports and protects; produces blood cells
circulatory system
spell out DNA
Deoxyribonucleic acid
spell out RNA
ribonucleic acid
spell out the matches on DNA: A,G,T,C,U
adenine, guanine, thymine, cytosine, uracil
spell out MRI
magnetic resonance imaging
spell out CAT scan
computerized (axial) tomography
spell out PET
positron emission tomography
spell out ATP
adenosine triphosphate
the smallest stable units of matter are:
atoms
the "atomic number" of an atom is determined by how many __ it has
protons
the mass number represents the number of:
protons and neutrons
radioisotopes have unstable:
nuclei
The chemical behavior of an atom is determined by:
the outermost electron shell
the weakest bond between atoms is the _- bond
hydrogen
Ionic bonds are formed when:
electrons are completely transferred from one atom to another
a solution containing equal numbers of hydrogen ions and hydroxide ions is:
neutral
the alpha-helix and pleated sheet are examples of __ protein structure
secondary
two examples of an inorganic substance are:
water, carbon dioxide
A(n) __ removes hydrogen ions and a(n) __ releases hydrogen ions
acid; base
non polar organic molecules are good examples of:
hydrophobic compounds
a shortage of cholesterol in the body could interfere with the formation of:
plasma membranes, proteins
The reaction A + B + energy -> AB is an example of an
endergonic reaction
chemical reactions that yield energy, such as heat, are said to be:
exergonic
you would expect a peptide bond to link:
two amino acids
in a molecule of nitrogen, three pairs of electrons are shared by to nitrogen atoms. The type of bond that is formed is an example of
triple covalent bond
if a pair of electrons is unequally shared between atoms, a ___ occurs
polar covalent bond
in hydrolysis reactions, compounds react with
water, causing decomposition
in dehydration reactions, compounds
lose water molecules
the average time between synthesis and breakdown is known as the __ time.
turnover
a functional group s best described as reoccurring clusters of:
atoms that generally influence the chemical properties of the molecules they are a part of
a side chain on an amino acid is sometimes called __
an R group
what is needed to form a triglyceride molecule?
1 glycerol molecule, 3 fatty acid molecules
in the body, inorganic compounds:
can serve as buffers, may be held together by ionic bonds
the most important metabolic fuel molecule in the body is:
glucose
a polysaccharide that is formed in liver and muscle cells to store glucose is:
glycogen
an amino acid is to a protein as __ is to nucleic acid
nucleotide
a nucleotide consists of:
a five-carbon sugar, a nitrogen base, and a phosphate group
according to the rules of complimentary base pairing in nucleic acids, cytosine would pair with:
guanine
the most abundant high-energy compound in cells is:
ATP
provide roughly twice the energy as carbohydrates, form essential structural components of cells, and cushion organs against shock
lipids
a fatty acid that contains two or more double covalent bonds is said to be:
polyunsaturated
what is cholesterol
lipid
what is hemoglobin
proteins
what are steroids
lipids
what is glycogen
carbohydrates
what is a triglyceride
lipid
what is collagen
proteins
what are eicosanoids
lipids
what are made of C,H,O,N
proteins
what have a ratio of 1:2:1
carbohydrates
what are made of C, H, O, N, and P
nucleic acids
what kind of group has a strong base and takes part in dehydration synthesis
hydroxyl
what kind of group has hydrogen in donor/ acts as an acidcarboxyl
carboxyl
what kind of group may store energy bonds?phosphate
phosphate
what kind of group depending on pH may accept or release hydrogen ionsamino
amino
what kind of group has a nitrogen base
pyrimidine
the smallest living unit in the human body is:
the cell
Examples of non-membranous organelles:
ribosomes, cytoskeleton, cilia, centriole
the viscous layer that provided protection and lubrication for the cell membrane is known as the:
glycocalyx
replication, transcription, and translation
occurs during interphase
replication
copies DNA
transcription
copies protein code to mRNA
translation
directs protein synthesis
carrier-mediated
method of movement for glucose
vasicular transport
method of movement for phagocytosis and pinocytosis
exchange pump
method of transport for Na+ and K+
receptor mediated
method of transport for iron and cholesterol
osmosis
method of transportation for water
hypertonic
solution classification for plasmolysis/crenation possible
hypotonic
solution classification for possible cytolysis
isotonic
solution classification for equilibrium
MPF
growth factor that targets all dividing cells
erythropoietin
growth factor that targets bone marrow
growth hormone
growth factor that targets all cells, especially connective and epithelial tissues
FGF
growth factor that targets connective tissue
muscle, neural, connective, epithelial
what are the four main tissue types?
epithelial
which type of tissue has a"top" and a "bottom"?
providing physical protection, controlling permeability, absorption, and production specialized secretions
What are the functions of the epithelia?
basal lamina
epithelium is connected to underlying connective tissue by
squamous, cuboidal, columnar
what are the three shapes of epithelial cells
heart and blood vessels
mesothelium is to the body cavities as endothelium is to the
endocrine
glands that secrete hormones into the interstitial fluid
adipocytes
cells that store fat
collagen
the dominant type of connective tissue
bone
chondrocytes are to cartilage as osteocytes are to
hyaline
the most common type of cartilage
peritoneum
the serous membrane lining the abdominal cavity is the
macrophages
cells that engulf bacteria or cell debris within loose connective tissue are
tendons
attach skeletal muscles to bones
ligaments
connect one bone to another
collagen, reticular, and elastic
the three types of protein fibers in connective tissue are
connective
type of tissue - hyaline; adipose; liquid
epithelial
type of tissue - stratified squamous; transitional
connective
type of tissue- cells are fixed, wandering or mesenchymal
neural
type of tissue- have axons and dendrites
muscle
type of tissue - may be a foot or more in length, each cell containing 100s of nuclei
cutaneous membrane and accessory structures
make up the integumentary system
accessory structures
hair follicles and nails
hypodermis
not considered part of the dermis
cutaneous membrane
vitamin d synthesis
cutaneous membrane and accessory structures
sensory receptors
hypodermis
where are areolar and adipose tissue
cutaneous membrane
dermis and epidermis
cutaneous membrane and hypodermis
the skin
epidermis
stratified squamous epithelial cells
dermis
superficial papillary and deep reticular layers
dermis
made up of both loose and dense irregular connective tissue
dermis
where are nerves and capillaries
epidermis
four layers
epidermis
where are keratinocytes
dermis
collagen and elastin fibers
ear wax
another name for cerumen
peach fuzz
what is the nickname for vellus hairs
embryonic hairs
what is lanugo
sebaceous, sweat
two types of integumentary glands
exocrine
sebaceous and sweat glands are the __ type
collagen
strong, stretch-resistant fiber in the dermis
elastic
dermal fibers which allow stretching/recoiling
sensible perspiration
general term for substances released by the sweat glands to cool the skin, reduce body temp, and dilute harmful chemicals
blood clot
a scab
cuticle
the stratum corneum of the nail root extends over the exposed nail, forming an eponychium or..
sebum
secretion which lubricates and inhibits growth of bacteria on the skin
cyanosis
bluish coloration of the skin due to reduced blood circulation
process
any projection or bump
ramus
an extension of a bone making an angle with the rest of the structure
trochanter
a large, rough projection
tuberosity
a smaller, rough projection
tubercle
a small, rounded projection
crest
a prominent ridge
line
a low ridge
spine
a pointed or narrow process
head
the expanded articular end of an epiphysis, separated from the shaft by a neck
neck
a narrow connection between the epiphysis and the diaphysis
condyle
a smooth, rounded articular process
trochlea
a smooth, grooved articular process shaped like a pulley
facet
a small, flat articular surface
fossa
a shallow depression
sulcus
a narrow groove
foramen
a rounded passageway for blood vessels or nerves
canal or meatus
a passageway through the substance of a bone
fissure
an elongated cleft
sinus or antrum
a chamber within a bone, normally filled with air
red bone marrow
blood cell formation
crack repair
osteoprogenitor cells
osteoblasts
synthesize osteoid
tuberosity
bone marking
sulcus
narrow groove
cancellous bone
spongy bone
osteon
Haversian system
spicules
intramembranous ossification
endochondral ossification
interstitial and appositional growth
storage area for calcium and lipids, involved in blood cell formation, and provides structural support for the entire body
The functions of the skeletal system are:
yellow marrow
storage of lipids that represent an important energy reserve in bone occur in areas of
humerus
example of a long bone
bones forming the roof of the skull and the scapula are referred to as
flat bones
what indicates where blood vessels or nerves lie alongside or penetrate bones
depressions, grooves, and tunnels
foramen
an anatomical term used to describe a rounded passageway for blood vessels or nerves
mature bone cells found in lacunae are called
osteocytes
giant multinucleate cells involved in the process of osteolysis are:
osteoclasts
one of the basic histological differences between compact and spongy bone is that in compact bone
the basic functional unit is the osteon
spongy or cancellous bone, unlike compact bone, resembles a network of bony struts separated by spaces that are normally filled with:
bone marrow
spongy bone is found primarily at the __ of long bones
expanded ends of long bones, where they articulate with other skeletal elements
compact bone is usually thickest where:
stresses arrive from a limited range of directions
during intramembranous ossification the developing bone grows outward from the ossification center in small struts called
spicules
when osteoblasts begin to differentiate within a mesenchymal or fibrous connective tissue, the process is called
intramembranous ossification
the process during which bones begin development as cartilage models and the cartilage is later replaced by bone is called
endochondral ossification
the region known as the metaphysics is the area where:
cartilage is being replaced by bone
two parts of bone formation
endochondral and intramembranous ossification
osteoblasts within connective tissue in intramembranous ossification starts in:
osteoblasts within connective tissue
osteblasts within connective tissue in intramembranous ossification secretes:
collagen
what does collagen form
organic matrix (ground substance)
osteblasts within connective tissue in intramembranous ossification produces
trabeculae
trabeculae grows into
spongy bone
osteoblasts become trapped to become
osteocytes
spongy bone is surrounded by
compact bone
osteocytes occupy:
lacunae
where is lacunae found
spongy and compact bone
where does endochondral ossification start
hyaline cartilage
hyaline cartilage is covered by
perichondrion
perichondrion becomes
periosteum
periosteum produces:
osteoblasts
osteoblast develop into (endochondral ossification)
spongy bone
glands that regulate calcium ion concentration
thyroid and parathyroid
the thyroid releases:
calcitonin
what causes a decrease in calcium concentration in body, and increase in excretion of calcium in kidneys, and calcium deposited in bone?
calcitonin
what are the results of the causes of calcitonin
decreased calcium level
with the thyroid gland production a decrease in calcium level, and the parathyroid gland production an increase in calcium level, what do they make together?
homeostasis
what does parathyroid gland release?
parathyroid hormone
what causes an increase in calcium concentration in body, releases stored calcium from bone, and enhances reabsorption of calcium ions in kidneys?
parathyroid hormone
what are the results of the causes of parathyroid hormone (PTH)
increase in calcium level
the storage of lipids in bones occurs in the __
yellow marrow
of the five major functions of the skeleton, the two that depend on dynamic nature of bone are mineral storage and __
support
cuboidal cells that synthesize the organic components of the bone matrix are:
osteoblasts
in adults, the cells responsible for maintaining the matrix in osseous tissue are the:
osteocytes
the surface features of the skeletal system that yield an abundance of anatomical information are referred to as _
bone markings
a smooth, rounded articular process that articulates with an adjacent bone is a __
condyle
the basic function unit of compact bone
osteon
the expanded region of a long bone consisting of spongy bone is called the __
epiphysis
when osteoblasts differentiate within a mesnechymal or fibrous connective tissue, the process is called __
intramembranous ossification
the type of ossification that begins with the formation of a hyaline cartilage model
endochrondral
the process that refers specifically to the formation of bone
ossification
the major mineral associated with the development and mineralization of the bone is
calcium
the organic and mineral components of bone matrix are continually being recycled and renewed through the process of __
remodeling
during bone renewal, as one osteon forms through the activity of osteoblasts, another is destroyed by __osteoclasts
osteoclasts
the ability of bone to adapt to new stresses results from the turnover and recycling of __
matrix
the hormone synthesized in the kidneys that is essential for normal calcium and phosphate ion absorption in the digestive tract is _-
calcitriol
where is calcitriol formed
kidneys
fractures that shatter the affected area into a multitude of bony fragments are called __ fractures
comminuted
fractures that project through the skin are called __ fractures
compound
if the calcium ion concentration of the blood rises above normal, C cells in the thyroid gland secrete __
calcitonin
bones with complex shapes and short, flat, notched, or ridges surfaces are termed __
irregular
sutural bones, which are small, slate, odd-shaped bones found between the flat bones of the skill, are referred to as __ bones
wormian
the reduction of bone mass that occurs with aging is called __
osteoporosis
osteoclast-activating factor is released by tissues affected by many__
cancers
osteogenesis
bone formation
remodeling
bone maintenance
thyroxine
stimulates bone growth
rickets
vitamin d deficiency
vitamin a
stimulates osteoblast activity
scurvy
vitamin c deficiency
parathyroid hormone
increased calcium concentration
comminuted fracture
bony fragments
osteopenia
inadequate ossification
osteoporosis
reduction in bone mass
the process of relaxing other tissues with bone
ossification
the major effect that exercise has on bones is
serves to maintain and increase bone mass
growth hormone from the pituitary gland and thyroxine from the thyroid gland maintain normal bone growth activity at the
epiphyseal plates
when large amounts of calcium ions are mobilized in the body fluids, the bones
become weaker
a fracture in which one side of the shaft is broken and the other is bent
greenstick fracture
a Pott's fracture, which occurs at the ankle, is identified primarily by:
its specific location
a normal part of the aging process results in bones becoming
thinner and weaker
osteoporosis is more frequent in older women than men due to:
decline in circulating estrogen
changing the magnitude and direction of forces generated by skeletal muscles is an illustration of the skeletal function of:
leverage
a sesamoid bone would most often be found:
near joints and at the knee, the hands, and feet
what isolates the bone from surrounding tissues, provides a route for circulatory and nervous supply, and actively participates in bone growth and repair
periosteum
osteolysis is an important process in the regulation of
calcium and phosphate concentration in body fluids
the calcification of cartilage results in the production of
calcified cartilage
two thirds of the weight of bone is accounted for by
crystals of calcium phosphate
healing of a fracture, even after severe damage, depends on the survival of:
the circulatory supply and the cellular components of the endosteum and periosteum
the three organs regulating the calcium ion concentration in body fluids are the:
bones, intestinal tract, and kidneys
when the calcium ion concentration of the blood rises above normal, secretion of the hormone calcitonin:
increases the rate of calcium ion excretion
when cartilage is produced at the epiphyseal side of the metaphysics at the same rate as bone is deposited on the opposite, bones:
grow longer
a bone is covered by a
periosteum
a bone is lined on the inside with an
endosteum
after fertilization, the skeleton begins to form in about
6 weeks
the hormones that stimulate bone growth are
calcitonin and parathormone
appositional bone growth at the outer surface results in:
an increase in the diameter of a growing bone
the vitamins that are specifically required for normal bone growth are:
ADEK
the hormones that coordinate the storage, absorption, and excretion of calcium ions areL
calcitonin and parathyroid hormone
CH lower case 4 means
there is one carbon and four hydrogen atoms
A good example of positive feedback would be
enhancement of labor contractions
the innermost electron shell in an atom holds up to ______atoms
2
Atom X has seventeen protons. How many electrons in its valence shell?
7
Which of the following describes cells?
They are the structural building blocks of all plants and animals
Which of the following would be correctly classified as a protein?
Enzymes, liposaccharide, starch, cholesterol, cellulose
enzymes
special catalytic molecules called ___ control chemical reactions in the body
enzymes
______means toward or at the back of the body, behind
Dorsal
Cell membranes are _____ _____ because they allow some substances to pass but not others.
selectively permiable
______ is a broad term that covers all chemical reactions within the body cells.
metabolism
AB------>A+B is an example of _______ reaction
decomposition
Which of the following would be an example of an organic molecule?
CH4 (lower 4) carbon hydrogen four
A solution that has a pH of 2 could best be described as being
acidic
Some cells contain large numbers of mitochondria while others have relatively few or none. This suggests that
cells with large numbers of mitochondria have a high energy demand
The movement of oxygen from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration is an example of
diffusion
This type of feedback exaggerates the effects of variations from normal
positive
If cells are placed in a hypertonic solution containing a solute to which the membrane is impermeable, what will happen
the cells will lose water and shrink
the chin is __ to the nose
inferior
which of the following statements is correct regarding the electrical charge of subatomic particles
protons are positively charged, electrons are negatively charged, and neutrons are neutral
when electrons are transferred from one atom to another the two atoms unite as a result of the opposite charges
an ionic bond is formed
a process that requires cellular energy to move a substance against its concentration gradient is called
active transport
An anatomical term that is the same as ventral
anterior
the anatomical position is used
as a standard reference point for directional terms regardless of the actual position of the body
The process of discharging particles from inside a cell to outside is called
exocytosis
the phrase____ _____ describes the plasma membrane consisting of phospholipids, proteins, and cholesterol that drift in a bilayer.
fluid mosaic model
____ are molecules with two fatty acid chains and a phosphate group that form biological membranes.
phospholipids
synthesis of lipids and glycogen takes place in the
smooth ER.
Isotopes of an element differ in the number of
neutrons in the nucleus
The plasma membrane is
The phospholipid bilayer surrounding the cell
The organic compounds that function in building tissues and acting as enzymes are the
proteins
The intake of small membrane vesicles from the extracellular fluid is called
endocytosis
Groups of cells that have a common funtion are called
tissue
the simplest atom-containing one proton, one electron, and no neurons is
hydrogen
the molecuel made by mitochondria that provides the power to the cell is
ATP
fatty acids are
hydrophobic
which of the following is both an anion and a compound
HCO-3 (lower case 3)
What is the major function of ribosomes
manufacture proteins
which of the following elements of a control system detects a change?
receptor
The main, general purpose of negative feedback is
to maintain homeostasis
Phospholipids
are both hydrophilic and hydrophobic in nature
the skin swells and puckers during a long bath this suggests that the bath water is a
hypotonic
the chemical notation, the symbol Ca+2(lower case two) means
a calcium ion that has lost two electrons
the anatomical position is characterized by all of the following except
palms turned posteriorly
a red blood cell placed in pure water would
swell and burst
Which of the following statements about RNA is true
RNA is single stranded
Which of the following consists of a network of intracellular membranes with attached ribosomes?
rough endoplasmic reticulum
All of the following are true concerning enzymes except that they
are consumed during the reaction
Starch is an example of a
polysaccharide
Which of the following is a concept of the cell theory?
Cells are the basic structural unit of life
The movement of water across a membrane from an area of higher water concentration to an area of lower water concentration is known as
osmosis
A solution that contains a higher solute concentration than the cytoplasm of a cell is called
hypertonic
A control mechanism that responds to a stimulus by decreasing its intensity is called a ________ _________
negative feedback
The random movement of molecules (and ions) down their concentration gradient is called
diffusion
The body's ability to maintain stable internal conditions is referred as
homeostasis
The correct sequence from simplest to most complex
atoms, molecules, cells, tissues, organ
molecules that store and process genetic information are the
nucleic acids
the four elements that make up about 96% of body matter are
(cohn) carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, nitrogen
A person is lying on the bed gazing at the ceiling. She is in the _____ position
supine
Many names for sugars end in the suffix
-ose
_________ release calcium from bone to maintain blood calcium levels.
osteoclasts
Int the serous membrane, the membrane layer that wraps around individual organs is called
visceral
The lacunae of osseous tissue contain
osteocytes
Muscle tissue possesses contractablility, also known as the ability to
shorten
Although you get wet swimming, a tough protein within the skin prevents it from soaking up moisture like a sponge. This substance is
Keratin
Most cells of the subcutaneous layer are
adipocytes
What is the first threat to life from a massive third-degree burn?
dehydration
The most important minerals stored in bones are
calcium and phosphorus
In adults, the function of the yellow marrow is to
store adipose tissue
The canal that runs through the core of each osteon contains
blood vessels and nerve fibers
The uppermost layer of skin is
full of keratin
A hole through a bone is termed a
foramen
The adult skeleton contains (how many?)______ bones
206
_____ is brown, yellow-brown, or black pigment that accumulates in epidermal cells
melanin
The interconnecting tiny arches of bone tissue found in spongy bone are called
trabeculae
Your skin, after it is exposed to sunlight, will produce which vitamin?
Vitamin D
Which one of the following is not one of the four main tissue categories?
osseous tissue
The production of blood cells occurs within which body system?
skeletal
The shaft of a long bone is called the
diaphysis
the white cresent area located over the nail matrix is called the
lunala
The type of tissue consisting of cells embedded in an extracellular matrix is______ tissue
connective
Epithelial cells that are adapted for removing material from the surface usually have____ at their free suface
microvilla
The articular cartilage of a typical long bone is composed of what type of cartilage?
hyaline
____ attach skeletal muscles to bones, and ______connect one bone to another.
Tendons; ligaments
Nutrients reach the surface of the skin (epidermis) through the process of
upward diffusion of nutrients from the blood vessels in the dermis
Cells of neural tissue that support the tissue are called
neuroglia
The skin is a
cutaneous membrane
The lining of the medullary cavity is called the
endosteum
Which of the following membranes line the cavaties that communicate with the exterior of the body?
mucous
Through the action of osteoclasts
bony matrix is dissolved
The central canal of the osteon contains
blood vessels
Examination of a tissue sample reveals groups of cells united by junctional complexes and interlocking membranes. The cells have one free surface and lack blood vessels. The tissue is most likely______ tissue.
epithelial
A deep hollow on a bone is termed a
fossa
Epithelial tissue consisting of one layer of cells flattened like fish scales is called
simple squamous
What is an essential function of epithelial cells?
Provied a physical barrier, produce specialized secretions, control permiablility , all of the above

all of the above
Which of the following is not a connective tissue
adipose
What structure allows a bone to grow in length
epiphyseal plate
Intercalated disks are found in
cardiac muscle tissue only
_______ marrow is found between the trabeculae of spongy bone
red
The type of burn that involves injury to the epidermis and the upper region of the dermis and is red, blistered, and painful is termed as a ______ degree burn
second
When similar cells act together to perform a function, it is called a ________
tissue
The most abundent mineral in the human body is
calcium
Endochondral ossification begins with the formation of a
cartilage model
The "tanning" effect (darkening of the skin) that occurs when a person is exposed to the sun is somewhat productive due to
increased production of melanin that helps to block ultraviolet light
When the epiphyseal plate is replaced by bone
long bones have reached their adult length.
_______bone reduces the weight of the skeleton and reduces the load on muscles
spongy
An alternative term for a muscle cell is a
muscle fiber
Which muscle seperates the thoracic and the abdominopelvic cavities?
diaphram
An immovable joint found only between skull bones is called a
suture
In the classification of joints, which of the following is true
All synovial joins are freely movable.
Fibrous joints are classified as
sutures, syndesmosis, and gomphosis
In symphysis joints the articular surfaces of the bones are covered with
hyaline cartilage
Menisci refer to
semilunar cartilage pads
An example of an interosseus fibrous joint is
the radius and ulna along its length
Calcium ions bind to the _______ molecule in skeletal muscle cells.
troponin
Fibrous cartilage discs that provide cushioning in joints are called_______.
menesci
The movement of a body part superiorly is called_______.
elevation
In skeletal muscle contraction, calcium apparently acts to
remove the blocking action of tropomyosin.
An elaborate network of membranes in skeletal muscle cells that functions in calcium storage is the
sarcoplasmic reticulum
A sarcomere is
the area between two Z disks
Which of the following is composed of myosin
think filaments
The term aponeurosis refers to
a sheetlike indirect attachment to a skeletal element
The muscle cell membrane is called the
sarcolemma
After nervous stimulation stops, ACh in the synaptic cleft is prevented from continuing stimulation of contraction by
acetylcholinesterase destroying the Ach
The membranous areas between the cranial bones of the fetal skull are called
fontanels
The structural theory that explains how a muscle fiber contracts is called the _____ _____ ______.
sliding filament theory
The carilaginous parts that seperate vertabrae are called ______ ______.
intervertabral disks
The inferiormost part of the sternum is the ________
xiphoid process
A fracture in the shaft of the bone would be a break in the _____.
diaphysis
Electrical impulses reach the muscle cell's interior to alter the cell's chemical environment via what network?
transverse tubules
The smallest functional unit is the what? Interactions between its thick and thin filaments are responsible for muscle contractions.
sarcomere
_______ is the neurotransmitter or chemical released by a motor neuron to communicate with other cells.
acetylcholine
An _____ is a muscle whose contraction is chiefly responsible for producing a particular movement.
agonist
What is the central shaft of a long bone called?
diaphysis
The origin of a particular skeleton muscle is defined as
the attachment site to the less moveable bone.
The eight ____ bones make up the wrist.
carpal
The pelvic girdle is included in what division of the skeleton?
appendicular
Muscle fibers in skeletal muscles for bundles called ________?
fasicles
True ribs are directly connected to the sternum by _______ ______?
costal cartilage
As ATP binds to the myosin head at the beginning of a muscle contraction cycle,
the mysosin head detaches from the actin
What type of membrane wraps a fascicle
perimysium
A sarcomere is
the contractile unit between two Z discs
Place these structures of the skeletal muscle in order from largest to smallest
fascicle, muscle cell (fiber), myofibril, sarcomere, myofilament
Which of the following bones is not weight bearing?
Fibula
The axon terminals of a nerve cell and the sarcolemma of a skeletal muscle join at the
synaptic cleft
________ are cartilaginous joints.
synchondroses
The heel bone is called the ______?
calaneus
The smallest carpal is the ______?
pisiform
The mechanical force of contraction is generated by
The sliding of thin filaments past thick ones
The gap between the axon terminal of a motor neuron and the sarcolemma of a muscle cell is called the
synaptic cleft
Neurotransmitters are released upon stimulation from a nerve impulse by the
axon terminals of the motor neuron
While doing "jumping jacks" during an exercise class, your arms and legs move laterally away from the midline of your body. This motion is called
abduction
The I band contains
thin filaments
Atriculations permitting only slight degress of movement are
amphiarthroses
The H zone contains
thick filaments
The major function of the intervertabral discs is to
absorb shock
The sliding filament model of contraction involves
actin and myosin sliding past each other and partially overlap
There are ___ pairs of cranial nerves.
12
The infundibulum connects the hypothalamus to the _______ _______ .
pituatary gland
The term anaerobic means
without O2
Inside of the mitochondrian, during the transition reaction, each pyruvic acid molecule
loses a carbon atom
Receptors stimulated by the physical forces that cause movement of fluid or vibration within the body are
mechanoreceptors
The period after an initial stimulus when a neuron is not sensitive to another stimulus is the _________
absolute refractory period
The all-or-none principle states that
all stimuli great enough to bring the membrane to threshold will produce identical action potentials
The sensory receptors of the semicicular canals are located in the
ampullae
The small, peglike projections of the tongue's surface are called the
papillae
A substance that tastes sour most likely contains
hydrogen ions or acid
Which of the following processes produces the most ATP per molecule of glucose oxidized
aerobic respiration
The ossicles connect the
tympanic membrane to the oval window
The cerebrum is speparated from the cerebellum by the
transverse fissure
In order to get enough energy out of food to survive, humans must have a constant supply of
oxygen
The pathway of vibrations through the ossicles from the tympanic membrane, or eardrum, to the oval window is
malleus, incus, stapes
As a result of glycolysis there is a net gain of __ ATPs
2
The cytoplasmic extensions that, together with the cell body, provide the main receptive surfaces for neurons are the ______
dendrites
A second nerve impulse cannot be generated until ____
the membrane potential has reestablished
Nociceptors are sensitive to
pain
In what way does the interior surface of a cell membrane of a resting (nonconducting) neuron differ from the external environment? The interior is ______
negatively charged and contains less sodium
The polarization of a nerve fiber refers to having the
potassium ions inside the cell and sodium outside the cell
The primary function of cellular respiration is to
break down food molecules and generate ATP
Preparing the body for the "fight-or flight" response is the role of the _______
sympathetic nervous system
The receptors for taste and smell are classified as _________
CHEMORECEPTORS
Dynamic equilibrium receptors are found in the ______ ______
semicurcular canals
Equilibrium receptors are located in the
inner ear
Oxidation is the _____ and reduction is the______
loss of electrons....gain of electrons
(leo the lion says ger)
The part of the peripheral nervous system that brings information to the central nervous system is the
afferent division
Respiration_______, and cellular respiration______
is gas exchange... produces ATP
Specific cells responsible for information processing and transfer are called_______
NEURONS
A gap between the Schwann cells in the peripheral system is called a_______ __ _______
node of ranvier
The term central nervous system refers to the
brain and spinal cord
The "resting and digesting" division of the automatic nervous system is the
parasympathetic division
The brain area that regulates activities that control the state of wakefulness or alertness of the cerebral cortex is the
reticular formation
The primary connection between cerebral hemispheres is the
corpus callosum
An impulse from one nerve cell is communicated to another nerve cell via the
synapse
A structure that allows the middle ear to communicate with the nasopharynx is the
auditory tube
Olfactory receptors are examples of
chemoreceptors
The substance released at axon terminals to propagate a nervous impulse is called a
neurotransmitter
The part of a neuron that conducts impulses away from its cell body is called an
axon
The sodium-potassium pumps
PUMPS 3 SODIUM IONS OUTSIDE THE CELL AND TWO POTASSIUM IONS INSIDE
By-products of cellular respiration include
carbon dioxide and water
The hearing receptors are located in the
organ of corti
Temperature senses use two types of
free nerve endings
A shallow groove on the surface of the brain is called a ______
sulcus
The two cerebral hemispheres are seperated by the
longitudinal fissure
If a resting potential becomes more negative, the cell
hyperpolorizes
Schwann cells are functionally similar to
oligodendrocytes
Sensory receptors that monitor the position of joints in space are called
proprioceptors
Which of the following does not occur n the mitochondria?
glycolysis
The end products of the citric acid cycle include all to the following except
pyruvate
The subarachnoid space lies between what two layers of meninges?
ARACHNOID AND PIA
The cerebrospinal fluid
is formed mostly by the choroid plexuses and modified by the ependymal cells
The following are the main steps in the generation of an action potetial
A graded depolarization brings an area of an excitable membrane to threshold. Sodium channel activation occurs. Sodium ions enter the cell and depolarization occurs. Sodium channels are inactivated. Potassium channels open and potassium moves out of the cell, initiating repolarization. A temporary hyperpolarization occurs.