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85 terms

A&P 7-9

Quizzes 7, 8, 9
STUDY
PLAY
A person who gets hit on the back of the head might suffer injury to which of these bones?
A. temporal
B. occipital
C. sphenoid
D. zygomatic
E. nasal
B. occipital
A person who has cerebrospinal fluid draining from the ear probably has a fracture of the
A. frontal bone
B. temporal bone
C. zygomatic bone
D. parietal bone
E. occipital bone
B. temporal bone
Which of the following bones contain a sinus?
A. maxilla
B. nasal bone
C. occipital bone
D. zygomatic bone
E. temporal
A. maxilla
Which of the following bony features is mismatched with its description?
A. crista galli-point of attachment of one of the meninges
B. occipital condyles- articulation points between the skull and vertebral column
C. alveolar process- ridge containing the teeth
D. styloid process- point of articulation of mandible with skull
E. mandibular fossa- point of articulation of mandible with skull
D. styloid process- point of articulation of mandible with skull
Failure of the palatine processes of the maxilla to fuse properly during development results in a
A. cleft lip
B. cleft chin
C. cleft palate
D. deviated septum
E. clogged sinus
C. cleft palate
A person with a fractured mandible has a broken
A. back
B. neck
C. rib
D. wrist
E. jaw
E. jaw
The ____ region of the vertebral column is located in the neck.
A. sacral
B. cervical
C. lumbar
D. thoracic
E. coccygeal
B. cervical
The dens or odontoid process is on the
A. first cervical vertebra
B. second cervical vertebra
C. first thoracic vertebra
D. second lumbar vertebra
E. coccyx
B. second cervical vertebra
Which of the following statements is true?
A. The cervical curve develops before birth
B. The adult vertebral column has three curvatures
C. Scoliosis is the term applied to normal curvature of the spine
D. An exaggerated thoracic curvature of the vertebral column is called kyphosis
E. Lordosis is an exaggeration of the cervical curvature
D. An exaggerated thoracic curvature of the vertebral column is called kyphosis
Which of the following statements is true?
A. The first cervical vertebra is called the axis
B. The spinal cord protects the vertebral column
C. Thoracic vertebrae have long, thin spinous processes
D. The sacral vertebrae are superior to the lumbar vertebrae
E. Lumbar vertebrae are generally smaller than thoracic vertebrae
C. Thoracic vertebrae have long, thin spinous processes
The coccyx is
A. absent in humans
B. also called the coxa
C. located in the upper lumbar region
D. the most inferior portion of the vertebral column
E. the bottom of the spinal cord
D. the most inferior portion of the vertebral column
Transverse foramina are found in _____vertebrae
A. cervical
B. thoracic
C. lumbar
D. sacral
E. antebrachial
A. cervical
Articular facets on the transverse processes are characteristics of ____ vertebrae.
A. cervical
B. thoracic
C. lumbar
D. sacral
E. coccygeal
B. thoracic
The loss of height that occurs with aging is due to compression of the
A. pelvic girdle
B. vertebral arches
C. vertebral bodies
D. vertebral foramen
E. intervertebral discs
E. intervertebral discs
The ribs articulate with the _____ vertebrae
A. sacral
B. lumbar
C. thoracic
D. cervical
E. coccygeal
C. thoracic
A herniated disc occurs with
A. the body of a vertebra is fractured
B. the covering of the spinal cord is torn
C. there is a fracture of the vertebral arch
D. there is a protrusion of the nucleus pulpous
E. spinal nerves are cut
D. there is a protrusion of the nucleus pulpous
What condition is the failure of vertebral laminae to fuse?
A. Lordosis
B. kyphosis
C. scoliosis
D. spina bifida
E. herniated disk
D. spina bifida
An abnormal lateral curvature of the spine is
A. lordosis
B. kyphosis
C. scoliosis
D. spinal bifida
E. herniated disk
C. scoliosis
Manubrium, body, and xiphoid process are all parts of the
A. pelvis
B. scapula
C. clavicle
D. sternum
E. sacrum
D. sternum
The upper limb and its girdle are attached rather loosely to the rest of the body. This arrangement
A. results in a disjointed appearance
B. limits fine coordination of the hands
C. allows a wide range of movements
D. restricts that amount of weight the upper limb can support
E. results in a limited range of motion
C. allows a wide range of movements
The humerus articulates with the ulna at the
A. medial epicondyle
B. lateral epicondyle
C. capitulum
D. radial fossa
E. trochlea
E. trochlea
In a farm accident, a man has his arm severed midway between his wrist and his elbow. Which of the following bones was severed?
A. radius
B. humerus
C. clavicle
D. ulna
E. both the radius and the ulna
E. both the radius and the ulna
Which of the following is not a carpal?
A. scaphoid
B. hamate
C. Navicular
D. pisiform
E. trapezium
C. Navicular
The greater sciatic notch is found on the
A. inferior edge of the pubis
B. posterior side of the ilium
C. superior edge of the ischium
D. ventral surface of the sacrum
E. inferior edge of the ischium
B. posterior side of the ilium
Which of the following statements about the femur is TRUE?
A. the head of the femur articulates with the tibia
B. the medial condyle articulates with the acetabulum
C. both the greater and lesser trochanters are attachment sites for muscles
D. the distal end of the tibia articulates with the femur
E. the proximal end of the femur articulates with the tibia
C. both the greater and lesser trochanters are attachment sites for muscles
A patient in a skiing accident is told that the lateral side of the ankle joint has been crushed. The bone that has been injured is the _________________
fibula
The deltoid tuberosity is found on what bone? _____________
humerus
The medial malleolus is part of the ____________
tibia
The pelvic girdle and lower limb are part of the _______________ skeleton
appendicular
The auditory ossicle is part of the _______________ skeleton
axial
The hyoid bone is part of the ______________ skeleton
axial
Joints are classified according to the
A. bones that are united at the joint
B. structures of the joints
C. size of the joint
D. shape of the joint
E. type of fluid in the joints
B. structures of the joints
A joint that has no joint cavity and exhibits little or no movement would be classified as a
A. fibrous joint
B. synovial joint
C. complex joint
D. cartilaginous joint
E. partial joint
A. fibrous joint
Cartilaginous joints
A. are common in the skull
B. unite two bones by means of fibrocartilage or hyaline cartilage
C. allow the most movement between bones
D. are found in the lower leg
E. are not found in the pelvic region
B. unite two bones by means of fibrocartilage or hyaline cartilage
Synovial joints are different from both fibrous and cartilaginous joints because synovial joints
A. use fibrous connective tissue to hold the bones in the joint together
B. are enclosed by a joint capsule
C. are only temporary; they are replaced in the adult
D. generally have both bones in the joint fused together
E. are not freely moveable
B. are enclosed by a joint capsule
Joints between the carpal bones are
A. costocarpal joints
B. intermetacarpal joints
C. metacarpalphalangeal joints
D. intercarpal joints
E. intracarpal joint
D. intercarpal joints
The sagittal suture is between the
A. sacrum and coax
B. two pubic bones
C. atlas and axis
D. alveolar process and tooth
E. two parietal bones
E. two parietal bones
The atlantoaxial joint is between the
A. sacrum and coax
B. two pubic bones
C. atlas and axis
D. alveolar process and tooth
E. two parietal bones
C. atlas and axis
Which of the following statements concerning sutures is false?
A. they may become completely immovable in adults
B. the opposing bones in the joint interdigitate for stability
C. the tissue between the bones is hyaline cartilage
D. the periosteum of adjacent bones is continuous over the joint
E. membranes, called fontanels, are present in some sutures at birth
C. the tissue between the bones is hyaline cartilage
When two bones grow together across a joint to form a single bon, this is called a
A. suture
B. synesmosis
C. gomphosis
D. synostosis
E. symphisis
D. synostosis
In a syndesmosis
A. there is an osseous union between the bones of the joint
B. the bones are held together by ligaments called interosseous membranes
C. it is not usual to find discs of cartilage
D. no movement occurs
E. there is a great range of motion
B. the bones are held together by ligaments called interosseous membranes
The joint between the teeth and the mandibular alveolus is an example of a
A. suture
B. syndesmosis
C gomphosis
D. synostosis
E. symphysis
C gomphosis
Cartilaginous joints
A. are common in the skull
B. unite two bones by means of fibrocartilage or hyaline cartilage
C. allow the most movement between bones
D. are found in the lower leg
E. are not found in the pelvic region
B. unite two bones by means of fibrocartilage or hyaline cartilage
The epiphyseal plate of a growing bone is actually a temporary joint called a
A. synchondrosis
B. synostosis
C. syndesmosis
D. symphysis
E. suture
A. synchondrosis
The inability to produce the fluid that keeps most joints moist indicates a disorder of the
A. cruciate ligament
B. synovial membrane
C. articular cartilage
D. bursae
E. mucus membrane
B. synovial membrane
Which of the following joints is most moveable?
A. suture
B. syndesmosis
C. symphysis
D. synovial
E. synchondrosis
D. synovial
This type of joint is multiaxial allowing a wide range of movement:
A. saddle
B. hinge
C. pivot
D. plane
E. ball and socket
E. ball and socket
The joint between the articular processes of adjacent vertebrae is a _____ joint
A. saddle
B. hinge
C. pivot
D. plane
E. ball and socket
D. plane
An example of a saddle joint is the
A. shoulder joint
B. elbow joint
C. atlanto-occipital joint
D. carpometacarpal joint
E. atlantoaxial joint
D. carpometacarpal joint
The joint between the head of the radius and the proximal end of the ulna is a _____joint
A. plane
B. saddle
C. hinge
D. pivot
E. ball and socket
D. pivot
Which of the following movements is an example of extension?
A. bending forward at the waist
B. kneeling
C. raising your arm laterally
D. using your finger to point out an area on the map
E. shrugging your shoulders
D. using your finger to point out an area on the map
Standing on one's toes is an example of a movement called
A. dorsiflexion
B. plantar flexion
C. depression
D. opposition
E. elevation
B. plantar flexion
Which of the following does NOT occur due to the effects of aging on the joints?
A. decreased range of motion
B. decreased flexibility
C. increased production of synovial fluid
D. weakening of muscles
E. decreased tissue repair
C. increased production of synovial fluid
A movement throughout 360 degrees that combines flexion, extension, abduction, and adduction is called
A. circumduction
B. rotation
C. hyperextension
D. supination
E. pronation
A. circumduction
Rotating the forearm so that the palm faces posteriorly is called
A. circumduction
B. rotation
C. hyperextension
D. supination
E. pronation
E. pronation
Which of the following does NOT influence the range of motion of a joint?
A. the shape of the articular surface of the bones
B. the amount and shape of cartilage
C. the amount of fluid in and around the joint
D. the strength and location of tendons and ligaments
E. all of these influence range of motion
E. all of these influence range of motion
Moving the shoulders posteriorly so that the scapulae approach the vertebral column is an example of
A. rotation
B. eversion
C. depression
D. retraction
D. retraction
Turning the ankle so that the plantar surface faces laterally is
A. eversion
B. inversion
C. supination
D. retraction
A. eversion
The anterior cruciate ligament prevents _____ displacement of the tibia
A. anterior
B. inversion
C. lateral
D. medial
E. radial
A. anterior
A sharp object penetrated a synovial joint. From the following list of structures, select the order in which they were penetrated
(1) tendon or muscle
(2) ligament
(3) fibrous capsule
(4) skin
(5) synovial membrane
A. 4, 1, 2, 5, 3
B. 4, 5, 1, 2, 3
C. 4, 3, 2, 5, 1
D. 4, 1, 2, 3, 5
E. 4, 2, 1, 5, 3
D. 4, 1, 2, 3, 5
(4) skin
(1) tendon or muscle
(2) ligament
(3) fibrous capsule
(5) synovial membrane
Which of the following is NOT a function of skeletal muscle?
A. body movement
B. maintenance of posture
C. respiration
D constriction of organs
E production of heat
D constriction of organs
Smooth muscle and cardiac muscle are similar in that they both
A are under involuntary control
B are striated
C are widely distributed in the body
D have multiple nuclei
E are under voluntary control
A. are under involuntary control
The capacity of a muscle cell to shorten forcefully is known as
A contractility
B excitability
C extensibility
D elasticity
E flexibility
A contractility
Muscles exhibit the property of excitability this means that the muscle
A shortens its length
B recoils to its original resting length
C stretched beyond its normal length
D responds to stimulation by the nervous system
E excites itself
D responds to stimulation by the nervous system
Which type of muscle tissue is auto rhythmic
A cardiac muscle
B smooth muscle
C skeletal muscle
D both skeletal and cardiac muscle
E both cardiac and smooth muscle
E both cardiac and smooth muscle
What type of muscle tissue causes vasoconstriction
A cardiac muscle
B skeletal muscle
C smooth muscle
C smooth muscle
A fasciculus
A is a bundle of reticular fibers
B is surrounded by perimysium
C. is only found in smooth muscle
D possesses an external lamina
E is a bundle of collagen fibers
B is surrounded by perimysium
List the following structures in the order from smallest to largest
1 muscle fiber
2 my filament
3 myofibril
4 muscle fasciculus
A 4, 2, 3, 1
B 2, 1, 4, 3
C 3, 1, 4, 2
D 2, 3, 1, 4
E 1, 2, 3, 4
D 2, 3, 1, 4

2 my filament
3 myofibril
1 muscle fiber
4 muscle fasciculus
Muscle myofibrils
A. are found in the sarcolemma
B extend from the sarcolemma to the T- tubule
C contain myosin and actin my filaments
D hold muscle cells together
E do not appear striated
C contain myosin and actin my filaments
ATP- ase is found in
A F- actin strands
B G- actin strands
C myosin heads
D tropomyosin grooves
E troponin molecules
C myosin heads
Which of the following is NOT a property of the myosin head?
A They form Cross-bridges with the active sites of actin
B They have a hinge region to bend and straighten
C They bind troponin
D They have ATP-ase activity
E They bind to ATP
C They bind troponin
A sarcomere is the
A cell membrane of a muscle fiber
B cytoplasm of muscle cells
C structural and functional unit of the skeletal muscle cell
D contractile thread that extends the length of the muscle fiber
E protein strand composed of actin or myosin
C structural and functional unit of the skeletal muscle cell
The Sarcoplasm is the
A cell membrane of a muscle fiber
B cytoplasm of muscle cells
C structural and functional unit of the skeletal muscle cell
D contractile thread that extends the length of the muscle fiber
E protein strand composed of actin or myosin
B cytoplasm of muscle cells
The Sarcolemma is the
A cell membrane of a muscle fiber
B cytoplasm of muscle cells
C structural and functional unit of the skeletal muscle cell
D contractile thread that extends the length of the muscle fiber
E protein strand composed of actin or myosin
A cell membrane of a muscle fiber
A myofibril is the
A cell membrane of a muscle fiber
B cytoplasm of muscle cells
C structural and functional unit of the skeletal muscle cell
D contractile thread that extends the length of the muscle fiber
E protein strand composed of actin or myosin
D contractile thread that extends the length of the muscle fiber
Which of the following statements regarding the sliding filament model is false?
A Actin and myosin do not shorten during contraction
B Both actin and myosin myofilaments shorten during contraction
C The sarcomere shortens
D The I band and H zones become narrower during contraction
E The A band remains constant in length
B Both actin and myosin myofilaments shorten during contraction
Which of the following is true during the resting membrane potential
A Sodium ion concentration is greater inside the cell
B Negatively charged proteins are more concentrated outside the cell
C A greater concentration of calcium ions is found inside the cell
D Potassium is concentrated primarily inside the cell
E None of these choices reflect what occurs during the resting membrane potential
D Potassium is concentrated primarily inside the cell
Lack of Acetyl cholinesterase in the synaptic cleft would result in
A continuous stimulation of the presynaptic membrane
B relaxation of the muscle
C rapid degradation of acetylcholine
D a decrease in acetylcholine production by the motor neuron
E continuous stimulation of the postsynaptic membrane
A continuous stimulation of the presynaptic membrane
A muscle fiber will respond to a stimulus when that stimulus reaches the _____ level
A resting
B relaxation
C rigor mortis
D recruitment
E threshold
E threshold
The sites where a chemical substance is transmitted from the presynaptic terminal of an axon to the postsynaptic membrane of a muscle fiber are called
A Neuromuscular junction
B sarcomeres
C my filaments
D Z disk
E cell body of neuron
A Neuromuscular junction
Synaptic vesicles in the neuromuscular junction contain
A. Calcium
B ATP
C acetylcholine
D sodium
E acetyl cholinesterase
C acetylcholine
Depolarization of the cell membrane occurs when there is a rapid influx (inflow) of
A amino acids
B calcium ions
C sodium ions
D chloride ions
E potassium ions
C sodium ions
Channels that open or close in response to changes in the electrical charge or voltage across the plasma membrane are called
A Obligated ion channels
B relegated ion channels
C voltage gated ion channels
D non -gated ion channels
E ligand gated ion channels
C voltage gated ion channels
Which of the following events occurs on the post synaptic membrane?
A release of calcium ions
B release of neurotransmitter
C Rapid degradation of acetylcholine
D acetylcholine production
E neurotransmitter combines with a receptor molecule
E neurotransmitter combines with a receptor molecule
Arrange the following list of biochemical events in the correct sequence
1 and action potential is conducted deep into the muscle fiber by the T tubule
2 Calcium ions bind to troponin
3 The membranes of the sarcoplasmic reticulum become more permeable to calcium ions
4 Calcium ions diffuse into the sarcoplasm around the myofibril
5 The troponin -tropomyosin complex moves exposing active sites
A 1, 3, 4, 2, 5
B 1, 4, 3, 2, 5
C 1, 5, 2, 3, 4
D 1, 3, 2, 5, 4
E 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
A 1, 3, 4, 2, 5

1 and action potential is conducted deep into the muscle fiber by the T tubule
3 The membranes of the sarcoplasmic reticulum become more permeable to calcium ions
4 Calcium ions diffuse into the sarcoplasm around the myofibril
2 Calcium ions bind to troponin
5 The troponin -tropomyosin complex moves exposing active sites