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850 terms

Developmental Psychology Flashcards for Final

Sample Questions from All Chapters Studied
STUDY
PLAY
Who's idea is this: "The life-span perspective has seven fundamental contentions."?
Paul Baltes
Who's idea is this: "Children actively construct their understanding of the world in four stages."?
Jean Piaget
Who's idea is this: "Our adult personality is determined by the way we resolve conflicts between sources of pleasure and the demands of reality at each of five stages of psychosexual development."?
Sigmund Freud
Who's idea is this: "People cognitively represent others' behavior and sometimes adopt it themselves."?
Albert Bandura
Who's idea is this: "Parenting and nurturing the next generation of children are our society's most important functions."?
Marian Wright Edelman
Who's idea is this: "Our society is increasingly age-irrelevant."?
Bernice Neugarten
Who's idea is this: "Imprinting, the rapid, innate learning that involves attachment of the young to its mother, needs to take place very early in life or it won't take place."?
Konrad Lorenz
Who's idea is this: "Children's social interaction with more skilled adults and peers is indispensable to their cognitive development."?
Lev Vygotsky
Who's idea is this: "Humans develop in psychosocial stages."?
Erik Erikson
Who's idea is this: "Rewards and punishments shape individuals' development."?
B. F. Skinner
Life-span development begins with _______ and continues through _______.
A) birth; death
B) conception; the human life span
C) infancy; the human life span
D) conception; death
D) conception; death
According to the life-span perspective, human development is:
A) dominated by the childhood period.
B) a biological process uninfluenced by environment.
C) characterized by both growth and decline.
D) irreversible.
C) characterized by both growth and decline.
Many older persons become wiser with age, yet perform more poorly on cognitive tests. This supports the life-span perspective notion that development is:
A) multidirectional.
B) multidimensional.
C) lifelong.
D) plastic.
A) multidirectional.
Parents in the United States are more likely to rear their children to be independent than are parents in Japan. This research finding supports Baltes's assertion that development is:
A) contextual.
B) multidirectional.
C) multidimensional.
D) plastic.
A) contextual.
Some dimensions of development may expand and others shrink as individuals develop. This statement supports Baltes's assertion that development is:
A) contextual.
B) multidirectional.
C) multidimensional.
D) plastic.
B) multidirectional.
Research has shown that the reasoning abilities of older adults can be improved through retraining. This is an example of how development is:
A) contextual.
B) multidirectional.
C) multidimensional.
D) plastic.
D) plastic.
In many cultures, people retire from their careers in their 50s or 60s. This is an example of a:
A) normative age-graded influence.
B) normative history-graded influence.
C) non-normative life event.
D) non-normative socioemotional event.
A) normative age-graded influence.
Like many others her age, Katherine does not know how to use a computer, but her 6-year-old grandson has no problem navigating the Internet and using a word-processing program. This is an example of an:
A) normative age-graded influence.
B) normative history-graded influence.
C) non-normative life event.
D) non-normative socioemotional event.
B) normative history-graded influence.
When Ben was 13, his father was killed in a car accident. This is an example of a:
A) normative age-graded influence.
B) normative history-graded influence.
C) non-normative life event.
D) non-normative socioemotional event.
C) non-normative life event.
The onset of puberty is an example of a:
A) normative age-graded influence.
B) normative history-graded influence.
C) non-normative life event.
D) non-normative socioemotional event.
A) normative age-graded influence.
The terrorist attacks of 9/11/2001 in the United States would be an example of a:
A) normative age-graded influence.
B) normative history-graded influence.
C) non-normative life event.
D) storm-and-stress event.
B) normative history-graded influence.
A national government's course of action designed to promote the welfare of its citizens is referred to as its:
A) advocacy program.
B) health care system.
C) minority rights legislation.
D) social policy.
D) social policy.
Which of the following processes involves changes in an individual's intelligence and language?
A) Biological processes
B) Cognitive processes
C) Social processes
D) Socioemotional processes
B) Cognitive processes
The "elementary school years" refer to which period of development?
A) Early childhood period
B) School readiness period
C) Middle and late childhood period
D) Adolescence period
C) Middle and late childhood period
The "young old" of late adulthood:
A) experience sizeable losses in cognitive potential.
B) have high levels of frailty.
C) are between 65 and 84 years of age.
D) are at the limits of their functional capacity.
C) are between 65 and 84 years of age.
The number of years since a person was born is described as his or her:
A) chronological age.
B) biological age.
C) psychological age.
D) developmental age.
A) chronological age.
Rosa is 80 years old. She continues to learn phrases in new languages, she writes poetry, and she enjoys going to museums to see the latest up-and-coming artists. These examples of her adaptive capacities demonstrate:
A) chronological age.
B) biological age.
C) psychological age.
D) social age.
C) psychological age.
As he was studying life-span development, Tyrell had to learn several interrelated, coherent sets of ideas that would help him explain and make predictions about development. In other words, Tyrell had to learn:
A) theories.
B) hypotheses.
C) models.
D) the scientific method.
A) theories.
Which theoretical perspective describes development as an unconscious process?
A) Cognitive
B) Ecological
C) Psychoanalytic
D) Ethological
C) Psychoanalytic
Which of the following stages, according to Freud, is when a child represses sexual interest and develops social and intellectual skills?
A) Oral stage
B) Phallic stage
C) Genital stage
D) Latency stage
D) Latency stage
Erik Erikson's theory emphasizes:
A) repeated resolutions of unconscious conflicts about sexual energy.
B) developmental change throughout the human life span.
C) changes in children's thinking as they mature.
D) the influence of sensitive periods in the various stages of biological maturation.
B) developmental change throughout the human life span.
The information-processing approach to development emphasizes:
A) the quality of thinking among children of different ages.
B) overcoming certain age-related problems or crises.
C) age-appropriate expressions of sexual energy.
D) that individuals manipulate information, monitor it, and strategize about it.
D) that individuals manipulate information, monitor it, and strategize about it.
From B. F. Skinner's point of view, behavior can be explained by:
A) operant conditioning.
B) classical conditioning.
C) social cognitive theory.
D) sociocultural theory.
A) operant conditioning.
According to Albert Bandura, the three factors that reciprocally influence development include:
A) cognition, reward, and observation.
B) punishment, reward, and reinforcement.
C) memory, problem solving, and reasoning.
D) behavior, the person/cognition, and the environment.
D) behavior, the person/cognition, and the environment.
If one of your professors identifies herself as a cognitive theorist, you know that she is particularly interested in:
A) thought processes.
B) repressed memories.
C) reciprocal interactions.
D) biology and evolution.
A) thought processes.
Which theory of development emphasizes critical or sensitive periods?
A) Ecological theory
B) Ethological theory
C) Behavioral theory
D) Social cognition theory
B) Ethological theory
In Bronfenbrenner's theory, the microsystem refers to the:
A) setting in which an individual lives and plays an active role.
B) culture in which an individual lives.
C) connections between the experiences in an individual's life.
D) pattern of environmental events and transitions over time.
A) setting in which an individual lives and plays an active role.
One difficulty of conducting research in the laboratory setting is that:
A) many of the complex factors of the "real world" are absent.
B) random assignment is impossible.
C) extraneous factors are difficult to control.
D) participants tend to be unaware that they are in an experiment.
A) many of the complex factors of the "real world" are absent.
To ensure that an observational measure is effective, it is important that it be conducted:
A) in a real-world setting rather than a laboratory.
B) in a controlled setting.
C) in a way that is systematic and planned carefully in advance.
D) with the consent and prior knowledge of all people being observed.
C) in a way that is systematic and planned carefully in advance.
What method of collecting data involves taking an in-depth look at a single individual?
A) Interview
B) Survey
C) Standardized test
D) Case study
D) Case study
Which of the following statements is true in regards to correlational research?
A) This type of research is difficult to administer.
B) Correlation does not equal causation.
C) Correlations do not determine the direction of a relationship.
D) Correlations do not indicate the strength of a relationship.
B) Correlation does not equal causation.
A factor that can change in an experiment, in response to a manipulated factor, is called the:
A) independent variable.
B) control variable.
C) dependent variable.
D) experimental variable.
C) dependent variable.
Which research strategy involves the simultaneous comparison of individuals of different ages?
A) Cross-sectional approach
B) Longitudinal approach
C) Sequential approach
D) Experimental approach
A) Cross-sectional approach
Which of the following terms refers to using an ethnic label in a superficial way that portrays an ethnic group as being more homogeneous than it really is?
A) Ethnic bias
B) Ethnic gloss
C) Racial effect
D) Cohort effect
B) Ethnic gloss
T or F: When considering periods of development, no particular age group reports more happiness or satisfaction than any other age group.
True
T or F: Nurture refers to an organism's biological inheritance.
False
T or F: According to Freud, people's problems are the result of experiences early in life.
True
T or F: Erik Erikson believed that people develop through eight psychosexual stages.
False
T or F: Each of Piaget's stages of cognitive development includes descriptions of distinct ways of thinking.
True
T or F: Vygotsky emphasized how culture and social interaction guide cognitive development.
True
T or F: Through operant conditioning the consequences of a behavior produce changes in the probability of that behavior's occurrence.
True
T or F: Imprinting is rapid, innate learning within a limited critical period of time that involves attachment to the first moving object seen.
True
T or F: An eclectic orientation does not follow any single theoretical approach, but rather selects and uses what is considered the best in each theory.
True
T or F: One advantage to standardized testing is that it provides information about individual differences among people.
True
T or F: The aim of descriptive research is to observe and record behavior.
True
T or F: A correlation coefficient of -0.95 implies a weak correlation.
False
T or F: Longitudinal studies are effective in studying age changes but have several drawbacks, including the fact that participants may drop out.
True
T or F: An abstract is a brief summary that appears at the end of a journal article.
False
T or F: Informed consent means that researchers must keep all of the data they gather on individuals completely confidential and anonymous.
False
Who's idea is this: "Shared environment accounts for little of the variation in children's personalities."?
Robert Plomin
Who's idea is this: "Along with T. Berry Brazelton, developed the NNNS to assess the at-risk infant."?
Barry Lester and Edward Tronick
Who's idea is this: "Neonatal neurological competence can be measured using a sensitive index."?
T. Berry Brazelton
Who's idea is this: "Massage therapy can improve at-risk infant outcomes."?
Tiffany Field
Who's idea is this: "Prepared childbirth can assist mothers during labor."?
Ferdinand Lamaze
Who's idea is this: "Genes are collaborative and development as the result of an ongoing, bidirectional interchange between heredity and environment."?
Gilbert Gottlieb
Who's idea is this: "Survivors are better adapted to their world than nonsurvivors."?
Charles Darwin
Who's idea is this: "The benefits conferred by evolutionary selection decrease with age."?
Paul Baltes
Who's idea is this: "There are three ways in which heredity and environment are correlated."?
Sandra Scarr
Who's idea is this: "Evolution pervasively influences how we make decisions."?
David Buss
The evolutionary process that favors individuals of a species that are best able to survive and reproduce is called:
A) adaptation.
B) distinction.
C) natural selection.
D) accommodation.
C) natural selection.
According to Paul Baltes, the benefits conferred by evolutionary selection:
A) increase with age.
B) decrease with age.
C) remain the same over the life span.
D) affect only the second half of life.
B) decrease with age.
Albert Bandura supports a bidirectional view of evolutionism in which:
A) environmental and biological conditions influence each other.
B) social behavior is the product of evolved biology.
C) biology does not affect human adaptation.
D) biology dictates human behavior.
A) environmental and biological conditions influence each other.
The units of hereditary information that direct cells to reproduce themselves and to assemble proteins are called:
A) chromosomes.
B) DNA.
C) genes.
D) genomes.
C) genes.
All cells in the human body, except the sperm and egg, have:
A) 46 paired chromosomes.
B) 46 unpaired chromosomes.
C) 23 paired chromosomes.
D) 23 unpaired chromosomes.
C) 23 paired chromosomes.
The typical female chromosome pattern is:
XX.
A phenotype consists of:
A) genetic material.
B) gene locations.
C) chromosome abnormalities.
D) physical and psychological characteristics.
D) physical and psychological characteristics.
The complete set of instructions for creating proteins that initiate the making of a human organism is referred to as the:
A) genotype.
B) zygote.
C) genome.
D) DNA map.
C) genome.
Which genetic disorder is caused by an extra chromosome?
Down syndrome
Which of these syndromes is not sex-linked?
A) phenylketonuria
B) Klinefelter syndrome
C) Turner syndrome
D) XYY syndrome
A) Phenylketonuria
Which of the following is a genetic disorder that impairs the body's red blood cells?
A) Hemophilia
B) Klinefelter syndrome
C) Turner syndrome
D) Sickle-cell anemia
D) Sickle-cell anemia
Twins who develop from a single fertilized egg are called:
identical twins.
Adoption studies are designed to test the different effects of:
A) parenting styles.
B) polygenic vs. single-gene traits.
C) environment and heredity.
D) knowledge of one's adopted status on children's behavior.
C) environment and heredity.
Mary begs her parents to allow her to take piano lessons. After her first several lessons, it quickly becomes apparent that Mary has a natural talent for music. This example best illustrates a(n):
A) passive genotype-environment correlation.
B) evocative genotype-environment correlation.
C) active genotype-environment correlation.
D) active genotype-phenotype correlation.
C) active genotype-environment correlation.
Rachel has always enjoyed reading. Now that she is a parent, she provides her daughter with many books to read, hoping the child will also learn to enjoy reading. How do behavior geneticists refer to this type of interaction between heredity and environment?
A) Passive genotype-environment interaction
B) Evocative genotype-environment interaction
C) Influential genotype-environment interaction
D) Active genotype-environment interaction
A) Passive genotype-environment interaction
A fertilized ovum is called a(n):
zygote.
The period of prenatal development that occurs in the first two weeks after conception is called the _______ period.
Germinal
The _____ of the embryo develops into the digestive and respiratory systems.
Endoderm
On average, the fetal period of prenatal development lasts for:
7 months.
Amniocentesis is a prenatal medical procedure that involves:
A) taking a blood sample from the mother.
B) drawing a sample of the fluid that surrounds the baby in the womb.
C) taking a sample of the placenta between the 8th and 11th week of pregnancy.
D) taking a blood sample from the fetus.
B) drawing a sample of the fluid that surrounds the baby in the womb.
Which of the following is a prenatal medical procedure in which high-frequency sound waves are directed into a pregnant woman's abdomen?
A) Fetal x-ray
B) MRI
C) Chorionic villi sampling
D) Ultrasound sonography
D) Ultrasound sonography
Organs and tissues in an unborn baby are most vulnerable to environmental changes during:
A) organogenesis.
B) the fetal period.
C) the germinal period.
D) trophoblast differentiation.
A) organogenesis.
A teratogen is a(n):
A) life-support system that protects the fetus.
B) agent that stimulates the formation of organs.
C) abnormality caused by premature birth.
D) environmental factor that produces birth defects.
D) environmental factor that produces birth defects.
Exposure to teratogens during the fetal period is likely to cause:
A) anatomical defects.
B) spontaneous abortion.
C) problems in the way organs function.
D) a difficult birthing process.
C) problems in the way organs function.
Which of the following is an example of a psychoactive drug?
A) Tetracycline
B) Aspirin
C) Estrogen
D) Alcohol
D) Alcohol
A common characteristic of babies born to women who smoke during their pregnancies is:
A) facial deformity.
B) below-average intelligence.
C) restlessness and irritability.
D) low birth weight.
D) low birth weight.
Women who plan to have children should have a blood test before they become pregnant to determine if they are immune to which infectious disease?
A) Syphilis
B) Rubella
C) Genital herpes
D) AIDS
B) Rubella
A woman experiences an at-risk pregnancy when:
A) she has a negative Rh factor and her partner has a positive Rh factor.
B) she has a negative Rh factor and her fetus does as well.
C) she has a positive Rh factor and her partner does as well.
D) she has a positive Rh factor and her partner has a negative Rh factor.
A) she has a negative Rh factor and her partner has a positive Rh factor.
A lack of folic acid in a pregnant woman's diet can result in offspring with:
A) dwarfism.
B) Marfan syndrome.
C) Down syndrome.
D) spina bifida.
D) spina bifida.
Which of the following statements is most accurate in regards to parental factors that influence pregnancy?
A) A father's age makes no difference to the health of his offspring.
B) Fetal death occurs most frequently in young mothers.
C) A baby with Down syndrome is rarely born to a mother under the age of 30.
D) Adolescent mothers suffer the lowest infant mortality rates of any age group.
C) A baby with Down syndrome is rarely born to a mother under the age of 30.
How can maternal stress affect the fetus?
A) Decreased intelligence
B) Increased risk of prematurity
C) Increased heart rate
D) Decreased growth rate
B) Increased risk of prematurity
How many stages are there in the birthing process?
Three
What physiological change occurs within the fetus during the birthing process to ensure that he or she can withstand the stress of birth?
A) Secretion of large quantities of hormones
B) Decreased heart rate
C) Decreased intake of oxygen
D) Filling of the air sacs with fluid
A) Secretion of large quantities of hormones
Which of the following is a complication of delivery?
A) Anoxia
B) Vernix caseosa
C) Jaundice
D) Toxoplasmosis
A) Anoxia
A doula is a:
A) childbearing woman.
B) certified nurse-midwife.
C) caregiver who helps a woman throughout childbirth.
D) woman who is experiencing the early stages of childbirth.
C) caregiver who helps a woman throughout childbirth.
Which of the following are/is a synthetic hormone used to stimulate contractions during the birthing process?
A) Analgesics
B) Anesthestics
C) Epidurals
D) Oxytocin
D) Oxytocin
Cesarean deliveries:
A) have a lower infection rate than vaginal deliveries.
B) are safer than breech deliveries.
C) are less common in the United States than they are in European countries.
D) are not performed as often in the United States as they have been in the past.
B) are safer than breech deliveries.
Infants born three weeks or more before the pregnancy has reached full-term are referred to as:
A) low-birth-weight infants.
B) small-for-date infants.
C) preterm infants.
D) small-for-gestational-age infants.
C) preterm infants.
Janet, a newborn, receives a score of 3 on the Apgar Scale. Janet's score indicates that she:
A) might not survive.
B) is responding well to the stress of delivery and the new environment.
C) performed as well as 70 percent of all newborns.
D) is in good physiological condition.
A) might not survive.
Which of the following assessment tools was developed to assess the at-risk infant who is preterm and/or substance-exposed?
A) Apgar Scale
B) Brazelton Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scale
C) Neonatal Intensive Care Unit Network Neurobehavioral Scale
D) Newborn Behavioral Observations System
C) Neonatal Intensive Care Unit Network Neurobehavioral Scale
T or F: Chromosomes are contained in the nucleus of a cell.
True
T or F: Humans have approximately 20,500 genes.
True
T or F: Sickle-cell anemia occurs most often in Asian Americans.
False
T or F: The epigenetic view emphasizes how heredity directs the kind of environmental experiences individuals have during their lifetime.
False
T or F: The trophoblast develops into the systems that provide nutrition and support for the embryo.
True
T or F: The placenta is a sac that contains a clear fluid in which the embryo floats.
False
T or F: The type and severity of abnormalities caused by a teratogen are linked to the genotype of the pregnant woman and the genotype of the fetus.
True
T or F: Drinking one or two servings of beer or wine a few days a week during pregnancy can have negative effects on the fetus.
True
T or F: A mother who is HIV-positive should avoid breast-feeding her infant.
True
T or F: The last stage of birth is the longest stage.
False
T or F: Natural childbirth attempts to reduce a mother's pain through education, breathing methods, and relaxation techniques.
True
T or F: In the United States, approximately 35 percent of babies are born at home.
False
T or F: In the United States, there has been a decrease in low-birth-weight infants in the last two decades.
False
T or F: The Brazelton Neonatal Behavior Assessment Scale is administered 24 to 36 hours after birth.
True
T or F: A newborn must have close contact with the mother in the first few days of life to develop optimally.
False
Who's idea is this: "Adolescent risk taking can be reduced by limiting opportunities for such behaviors."?
Laurence Steinberg
Who's idea is this: "As we age, our cells become increasingly less capable of dividing."?
Leonard Hayflick
Who's idea is this: "When the left hemisphere of his brain was removed, his right hemisphere began to take over the normal functions of the left hemisphere."?
Michael Rehbein
Who's idea is this: "Positive emotions early in adulthood are linked to longevity."?
Mankato nuns
Who's idea is this: "Aging brains can shift task responsibility from one region to another."?
Stanley Rapoport
Who's idea is this: "There is considerable variation in the decline of physical performance with age."?
MacArthur Research Network on Successful Aging
Who's idea is this: "Babies' brain activity can be measured to determine its role in memory development."?
Charles Nelson
Who's idea is this: "Early-maturing boys perceive themselves more positively than late-maturing boys."?
Berkeley Longitudinal Study
Which best demonstrates the basic principle of cephalocaudal development?
A) An infant first produces an endogenous smile, then an exogenous smile, then a laugh.
B) An infant first raises his or her head, then sits up, then stands up.
C) An infant obtains visual skills, then olfactory skills, then auditory skills.
D) An infant coos, then babbles, then speaks single words, then uses language.
B) An infant first raises his or her head, then sits up, then stands up.
Proximodistal growth refers to growth that moves from:
A) top to bottom.
B) bottom to top.
C) outer to middle.
D) middle to outer.
D) middle to outer.
Two important factors that can produce individual differences in height are:
ethnic origin and nutrition.
The average North American newborn is _____ inches long and weighs _____ pounds.
20; 7½
Children reach nearly one-half of their adult height by age:
two.
During the preschool years:
A) children experience a steady increase in body fat.
B) girls are slightly taller than boys.
C) girls are slightly heavier than boys.
D) the percentage of increase in children's height and weight decreases each year.
D) the percentage of increase in children's height and weight decreases each year.
Puberty:
A) is a marker for the beginning of adolescence.
B) is another term for adolescence.
C) has four phases that are linked with hormonal changes.
D) extends beyond the adolescent period.
A) is a marker for the beginning of adolescence.
The testes in males and the ovaries in females are referred to as the:
gonads.
Within the boundaries of about ____ years of age, environmental factors can influence the onset and duration of puberty.
9 to 17
The brain structure that monitors eating, drinking, and sex is the:
hypothalamus.
Testosterone is present in:
A) girls only.
B) boys only.
C) girls and boys in equal measure.
D) boys in a much higher measure than in girls.
D) boys in a much higher measure than in girls.
The _____ is the master gland that produces hormones that stimulate other glands.
pituitary gland
Which of the following statements is true?

A) Boys go through growth spurts earlier than girls.

B) Both boys and girls who are shorter than their peers before puberty will actually surpass their peers during the adolescent growth spurt.

C) At the beginning of adolescence, girls tend to be as tall as or taller than boys their age.

D) After puberty, girls are shorter but heavier than boys.
C) At the beginning of adolescence, girls tend to be as tall as or taller than boys their age.
The last male pubertal characteristic to develop is:
growth of facial hair.
Recent research has found that early-maturing girls are more likely than late-maturing girls to:
A) have younger friends.
B) avoid dating.
C) be dependent on their parents.
D) be depressed.
D) be depressed.
The Berkeley Longitudinal Study showed that, compared with late-maturing boys, early-maturing boys saw themselves:
A) less positively.
B) more positively.
C) smaller and weaker.
D) as bigger but more awkward.
B) more positively.
Which of the following can be expected to occur in the third decade of life?
A) Greater muscle tone and strength
B) Peak functioning of the body's joints
C) Sagging chins and protruding abdomens
D) Decrease in the body's fatty tissues
C) Sagging chins and protruding abdomens
The term sarcopenia refers to age-related:
A) loss of mental functioning.
B) bone loss.
C) increase in blood pressure.
D) loss of muscle mass and strength.
D) loss of muscle mass and strength.
Considering the normal aging process, whose blood pressure would be expected to be highest?
A) A postmenopausal woman
B) A premenopausal woman
C) A man in his 40s
D) A man in his 60s
A) A postmenopausal woman
The brain is divided into two halves called:
hemispheres.
The outer layer of the forebrain, which accounts for 80 percent of the brain's volume, is called the:
cerebral cortex.
Which lobe of the brain plays an important role in motor control?
Parietal
What part of the neuron receives information from other neurons?
Dendrites
Nathan has just turned 2 years old. Developmental psychologists believe Nathan's brain is _______ of its adult weight.
75 percent
Myelination:
A) for visual pathways occurs prenatally.
B) causes a decrease in brain size.
C) encases axons with a myelin sheath.
D) for auditory pathways is completed by the age of 2 years.
C) encases axons with a myelin sheath.
Which statement summarizes normal brain development during the seventh decade of life?
A) Both neurons and dendrites are lost, causing a deterioration in brain function.
B) A rapid increase in new neurons occurs as the brain becomes the most vital organ in old age.
C) Dendritic growth might compensate for the possible loss of neurons.
D) Dendrite connections are lost, but overall function is maintained by the growth of new neurons.
C) Dendritic growth might compensate for the possible loss of neurons.
In adolescence, the gap between the increase in risk-taking behavior and the delay in self-regulation is linked to the timing of development in the:
A) nervous system and visual cortex.
B) limbic system and frontal lobes.
C) temporal and parietal lobes.
D) adrenal glands and occipital lobes.
B) limbic system and frontal lobes.
Which was not a finding of the research involving the Sisters of Notre Dame in Mankato?
A) Sisters with high levels of folic acid showed little evidence of Alzheimer-like damage to their brains.
B) Positive emotions were linked to longevity.
C) Linguistic ability was linked with fewer incidents of cognitive impairment.
D) Sisters who engaged in service tasks instead of teaching had less decline in intellectual skills.
D) Sisters who engaged in service tasks instead of teaching had less decline in intellectual skills.
Sleep researchers have found that:
A) infants and adults exhibit similar patterns of REM sleep.
B) infants engage in more REM sleep than adults.
C) adults engage in more REM sleep than infants.
D) adults enter REM sleep earlier in the sleep cycle than infants.
B) infants engage in more REM sleep than adults.
Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) is less likely when infants sleep:
A) on their backs.
B) with their mothers.
C) in soft bedding.
D) on their stomachs.
A) on their backs.
Which of the following statements is true in regards to sleep during childhood?
A) Boys spend more time sleeping than girls.
B) Nightmares usually occur just after the child goes to bed at night.
C) Children are emotionally affected by night terrors and often resist sleeping.
D) Persistent nightmares are an indication of high stress levels.
D) Persistent nightmares are an indication of high stress levels.
The pineal gland produces _____ in preparation for the body to sleep.
Melatonin
All of the following are recommendations to help older adults sleep better at night,except:
A) avoiding caffeine.
B) staying physically active during the day.
C) staying mentally active.
D) taking short naps during the day.
D) taking short naps during the day.
The average life expectancy of individuals born today in the United States is _____ years for women and _____ for men.
80; 75
Researchers in the New England Centenarian study have found that the survival of some centenarians is due to:
A) a low-fat diet.
B) good genes.
C) their ability to cope successfully with stress.
D) a healthy relationship with their spouses.
C) their ability to cope successfully with stress.
According to Hayflick's cellular clock theory, cells can divide normally:
A) an infinite number of times.
B) a maximum of 45 to 50 times.
C) a maximum of 75 to 80 times.
D) over 100 times .
C) a maximum of 75 to 80 times.
Telomeres:
A) become longer when a cell divides.
B) are located at the bottom of chromosomes.
C) are free radicals.
D) are DNA sequences.
D) are DNA sequences.
Which of the following biological theories of aging states that people age because their cells' normal metabolism produce unstable oxygen molecules?
A) Cellular clock theory
B) Free-radical theory
C) Telomerase-injection theory
D) Hormonal stress theory
B) Free-radical theory
Tiny cellular bodies that supply energy for function, growth, and repair are called:
mitochondria.
Defects in mitochondria are linked with all of the following, except:
A) decreased immune system functioning.
B) cardiovascular disease.
C) neurodegenerative disease.
D) decline in liver functioning.
A) decreased immune system functioning.
T or F: In the first several days of life, most newborns lose 5 to 7 percent of their body weight.
True
T or F: During early childhood, boys have more fatty tissue than girls.
False
T or F: Estrogens are the main class of female hormones.
True
T or F: In childhood, boys tend to be stronger than girls because of their greater number of muscle cells.
True
T or F: In boys, increased height is associated with an increase in testosterone.
True
T or F: The age range of menarche is between 9 and 15 years of age.
True
T or F: Climacteric is the term used to describe the midlife transition in which fertility declines.
True
T or F: In general, women are experiencing menopause at an earlier age than in the past.
False
T or F: There is clear evidence at this time that the adult brain can generate new neurons.
False
T or F: Recent research suggests that the brains of aging adults may decrease in lateralization, while the brains of children increase in lateralization.
True
T or F: Dendritic growth can occur in human adults.
True
T or F: Research involving the Sisters of Notre Dame in Mankato has revealed that folic acid may protect the brain from decline.
True
T or F: Night terrors reflect emotional problems in children.
False
T or F: Adults need six hours of sleep to be able to function optimally.
False
Who's idea is this: "Infants look at different things for different lengths of time."?
Robert Fantz
Who's idea is this: "Infants assemble motor skills for perceiving and acting."?
Thelen and colleagues
Who's idea is this: "Practice is especially important in learning to walk."?
Karen Adolph
Who's idea is this: "Studied depth perception of infants with the "visual cliff" experiment."?
Eleanor Gibson and Richard Walk
Who's idea is this: "Infants do not have to see their hands when reaching for an object."?
Rachel Clifton
Who's idea is this: "We directly perceive information that exists in the world around us."?
Eleanor Gibson and James Gibson
Who's idea is this: "More than 85 percent of infants engage in non-nutritive sucking."?
T. Berry Brazelton
Who's idea is this: "Children develop motor skills in a fixed order and within specific time frames."?
Arnold Gesell
Who's idea is this: "The newborn's perceptual world is a "blooming, buzzing confusion.""?
William James
According to the dynamic systems theory:
A) mastering a motor skill requires perception and acting.
B) the development of motor skills is primarily biologically driven.
C) the development of motor skills is primarily dependent on environmental factors.
D) motor skills are initially driven by biological forces but become increasingly dependent on environmental influences.
A) mastering a motor skill requires perception and acting.
The dynamic systems theory of motor development emphasizes:
nature and nurture working together.
Which of the following statements is true in regard to newborns?
A) Newborns are completely helpless organisms.
B) Newborns have some built-in reactions to stimuli.
C) Newborns do not respond to their environment.
D) Newborns' reflexes persist throughout their life.
B) Newborns have some built-in reactions to stimuli.
Which of the following reflexes occurs when something touches an infant's palm?
A) Supporting
B) Parachute
C) Startle
D) Grasping
D) Grasping
Diane notices that sudden stimulation causes her 2-month-old to arch his back, throw his head back, fling out his arms and legs, and then rapidly close them to the center of his body. Diane's baby is exhibiting the _____ reflex.
Moro
Which of the following is an example of a gross motor skill?
A) Buttoning a shirt
B) Walking
C) Writing your name
D) Using scissors to cut a piece of paper
B) Walking
Which infant motor event typically occurs first?
A) Stands with support
B) Rolls over
C) Holds the head erect
D) Crawls
C) Holds the head erect
At what age can a baby usually sit without support?
6 months
Child development experts believe that motor activity during a child's second year:
A) is vital to the child's competent development.
B) is just practice of what was learned in the first year of life.
C) should be restricted by using devices such as playpens.
D) becomes automatic and easy to carry out.
A) is vital to the child's competent development.
Most infancy experts recommend that parents:
A) slowly ease their babies into structured exercise regimes.
B) enroll their babies in exercise classes.
C) use exercise sessions as a way to bond with their babies.
D) avoid structured exercise classes for their babies.
D) avoid structured exercise classes for their babies.
Algonquin infants who spend much of their first year strapped to a cradle board:
A) begin walking later than more active infants.
B) remain delayed in their motor development until age 4.
C) begin walking at the same age as more active infants.
D) begin crawling at the end of their first year of life.
C) begin walking at the same age as more active infants.
Romero is a normal 3-year-old. We would expect that he would be able to:
A) scramble over a jungle gym.
B) run across a room.
C) climb on the kitchen counter.
D) skip rope.
B) run across a room.
Hallie is active. She loves to tumble and show off. She is not afraid of doing what her parents consider to be hair-raising stunts on any climbing object. This type of activity and confidence is most characteristic of the:
A) 2-year-old.
B) 3-year-old.
C) 4-year-old.
D) 5-year-old.
D) 5-year-old.
Most of us reach our peak physical performance before the age of:
30.
Which of the following is an example of a fine motor skill?
A) Crawling
B) Raising a hand
C) Buttoning a shirt
D) Kicking a ball
C) Buttoning a shirt
In terms of vision, light is converted into electrical impulses in the:
retina.
Which of the following is not a sensory receptor?
A) Eyes
B) Tongue
C) Voice
D) Skin
C) Voice
Opportunities for interactions offered by objects that are necessary to perform functional activities are called:
A) perceptual processes.
B) ecological functions.
C) affordances.
D) sensory functions.
C) affordances.
Robert Fantz (1963) found that infants as young as 2 days old showed a preference for _____ stimuli.
patterned
Decreased responsiveness to a stimulus after repeated presentations of the stimulus is referred to as:
A) dishabituation.
B) tracking.
C) visual preference.
D) habituation.
D) habituation.
The newborn's vision is estimated to be:
A) 20/20.
B) 20/100.
C) 20/400.
D) 20/600.
C) 20/400.
In Gibson and Walk's (1960) experiment, infants placed on one side of a visual cliff refused to go to their mothers who coaxed them from the other side, thus demonstrating:
depth perception.
The location where the retina does not register any light is called the:
blind spot.
Glaucoma occurs when pressure in the eye damages the:
optic nerve.
Rozee's eyes have cloudy, opaque areas in the lens that prevent light from passing through, causing her to have blurred vision. The visual problem she has is:
cataracts.
How does an infant's hearing differ from that of an adult's?
A) Infants are unable to determine the general location from where a sound is coming.
B) Infants do not exhibit any auditory preferences.
C) Infants are less sensitive to pitch than adults are.
D) Infants can hear soft sounds better than adults can.
C) Infants are less sensitive to pitch than adults are.
Which part of an adult's hearing is usually the first to decline?
A) Sensitivity to high pitches
B) Sensitivity to low pitches
C) Auditory localization
D) Sensitivity to soft sounds
A) Sensitivity to high pitches
Research suggests that sensitivity to taste begins:
A) before birth.
B) within the first week after birth.
C) within the first month after birth.
D) within the first year of life.
A) before birth.
Many older adults prefer "junk food" because of a decline in their sense of:
A) taste and smell.
B) taste and touch.
C) smell and vision.
D) smell only.
A) taste and smell.
Recognizing that decreasing volume in the sound of a car engine goes with the sight of a car moving away, rather than moving toward you, is an example of:
A) ecological perception.
B) depth perception.
C) intermodal perception.
D) constructivist perception.
C) intermodal perception.
T or F: Children develop motor skills in a fixed order.
True
T or F: The newborn's reflexes are survival mechanisms.
True
T or F: The rooting reflex is a neonatal response that occurs in response to a sudden noise or movement.
False
T or F: The Moro reflex disappears at 12 to 14 months of age.
False
T or F: Mothers in industrialized cultures tend to stimulate their infants' motor skills more than mothers in developing countries.
False
T or F: Boys usually outperform girls in fine motor skills.
False
T or F: Older adults have higher neural noise than younger adults.
True
T or F: By the age of 7 years, children begin to show manipulative skills similar to the abilities of adults.
False
T or F: Newborns cannot see small things that are far away.
True
T or F: A child's vision approximates that of an adult by their second birthday.
False
T or F: At birth, babies can distinguish between some colors.
True
T or F: An important contributor to depth perception is binocular vision.
True
T or F: Many preschool children are nearsighted.
False
T or F: Newborns can feel pain.
True
T or F: Intermodal perception involves integrating information from two or more sensory modalities.
True
Who's idea is this: "A child is more likely to conserve when attending to relevant aspects of a task."?
Rochel Gelman
Who's idea is this: "The developing brain creates schemes to construct an understanding of the world."?
Jean Piaget
Who's idea is this: "Cognitive skills have their origins in social relations."?
Lev Vygotsky
Who's idea is this: "Adults often switch from acquiring knowledge to applying knowledge."?
K. Warner Schaie
Who's idea is this: "Researched infants' reactions to a physically impossible event."?
Renee Baillargeon
Who's idea is this: "Adolescent absolute/dualistic thinking gives way to reflective/relativistic thought."?
William Perry
Who's idea is this: "The level of education of emerging adults influences how likely it is that they will maximize their cognitive potential."?
Gisela Labouvie-Vief
Who's idea is this: "Adolescent egocentrism consists of an imaginary audience and personal fable."?
David Elkind
Jean Piaget developed and proposed his theories of cognitive development during the:
A) late 1700s.
B) early to mid-1880s.
C) late 1880s.
D) mid-1900s.
D) mid-1900s.
Jean Piaget gathered the information for his theories about cognitive development by:
A) reviewing the literature on cognitive development.
B) surveying thousands of parents.
C) observing his own children.
D) testing hundreds of children in his laboratory.
C) observing his own children.
Which of the following is an example of a cognitive scheme?
A) Sorting by color
B) Grasping a rattle
C) Looking at an object
D) Sucking a pacifier
A) Sorting by color
According to Piaget, the incorporation of new information into existing schemes is called:
A) operational thought.
B) equilibration.
C) accommodation.
D) assimilation.
D) assimilation.
Tim likes to explore his parents' house through touch. One day he touches the oven and burns his hand. Tim learns that although some objects are safe to touch, ovens are not. According to Piaget, this is an example of:
A) assimilation.
B) accommodation.
C) negative reinforcement.
D) positive reinforcement.
accommodation.
How many stages of cognitive development did Piaget identify?
Four
The Piagetian stage during which understanding of the world comes about through sensory experiences and motor actions is the:
A) sensorimotor stage.
B) preoperational stage.
C) concrete operational stage.
D) formal operational stage.
A) sensorimotor stage.
According to Piaget, during the first sensorimotor substage, infants' behaviors are:
A) reflexive.
B) maladaptive.
C) unchanging.
D) reinforced.
A) reflexive.
When D'Andre was 5 months old, he looked at a toy train, but when his view of the train was blocked, he did not search for it. Now that he is 9 months old, he does search for it, reflecting his development of:
object permanence.
The first substage of preoperational thought is the:
A) intuitive thought substage.
B) concrete thought substage.
C) symbolic function substage.
D) conservation substage.
C) symbolic function substage.
Piaget's most famous conservation task study involved:
A) identical beakers of liquid.
B) rows of coins.
C) balls of clay.
D) shapes and numbers.
A) identical beakers of liquid.
Much of the new research on cognitive development in children suggests that Piaget's theory:
A) was accurate.
B) was wrong.
C) needs to be modified.
D) was too specific.
C) needs to be modified.
The Piagetian concept in which an infant searches for a hidden object in a familiar location rather than looking for it in a new location is called:
A) object permanence.
B) the AB error.
C) conservation.
D) familiar operations.
B) the AB error.
In talking with Grandma on the phone, Jake suddenly exclaims, "Oh, look at that pretty red bird!" When his grandmother asks him to describe the bird, Jake says, "Out there, out there! Right there, Grandma!" He finally gets frustrated and says good-bye. This is an example of:
A) centration.
B) egocentrism.
C) intuitive thought.
D) symbolic function.
B) egocentrism.
A young child might be heard saying, "The moon is smiling at me." The child's belief that the moon has "human" qualities and is capable of action is referred to as:
A) humanism.
B) conservation.
C) animism.
D) seriation.
C) animism.
In Piaget's theory, "operations" refer to:
A) physical behaviors.
B) words and visual images.
C) abstract levels of thinking.
D) internalized mental actions.
D) internalized mental actions.
A mechanism that Piaget proposed to explain how children shift from one stage of thought to the next is called:
A) equilibration.
B) conservation.
C) transitivity.
D) knowledge transfer.
A) equilibration.
_______ is clearly evidenced in young children's lack of conservation when they focus their attention on one characteristic (such as height or length) to the exclusion of other characteristics.
Centration
To understand the relationships among relatives on a family tree, children need to be able to use the skill of:
classification.
Tyrell understands that his father can also be a son and a brother, all at the same time. This suggests that Tyrell is in the:
A) sensorimotor stage.
B) preoperational stage.
C) concrete operational stage.
D) formal operational stage.
C) concrete operational stage.
During what stage of development can a child take a pile of rocks and place them in order from largest to smallest?
A) preoperational thought
B) concrete operations
C) formal operations
D) intuitive reasoning
B) concrete operations
Reversible mental actions are called:
operations.
According to Piaget, _______ operational thought comes into play between 11 and 15 years of age.
Formal
In Piagetian terms, the cognitive ability to solve problems that develop in adolescence is called:
A) trial-and-error reasoning.
B) hypothetical-deductive reasoning.
C) concrete thinking.
D) transitivity.
B) hypothetical-deductive reasoning.
Research suggests that the age at which individuals acquire conservation skills is associated with:
A) their language skills.
B) the intelligence level of their parents.
C) the skills of their siblings.
D) the degree to which their culture provides relevant practices.
D) the degree to which their culture provides relevant practices.
According to David Elkind, personal fable and imaginary audience are parts of adolescent:
A) co-regulation.
B) expression.
C) egocentrism.
D) object permanence.
C) egocentrism.
Stephanie, a 15-year-old high school student, is afraid to go to school because of a small pimple on her forehead. This exemplifies the concept of:
A) personal fable.
B) imaginary audience.
C) realism.
D) assimilation.
B) imaginary audience.
Which of the following educational practices is supported by Piaget's theory of cognitive development?
A) Teachers should treat children as passive receptacles.
B) Assessment should focus on the use of standardized tests.
C) Teachers should require rote learning that is tested frequently.
D) Classrooms should be less structured, allowing for discovery learning.
D) Classrooms should be less structured, allowing for discovery learning.
Developmentalists who argue that Piaget got some things right but that his theory needs considerable revision are called:
A) neo-Piagetians.
B) behaviorists.
C) structuralists.
D) nativists.
A) neo-Piagetians.
Vygotsky's theory of cognitive development is similar to Piaget's theory in that it:
A) emphasizes that children actively construct their knowledge and understanding.
B) describes how children develop by interacting with the physical world.
C) proposes four stages of development that are age-related.
D) emphasizes how children develop through social interaction.
A) emphasizes that children actively construct their knowledge and understanding.
Tasks in the upper limit of the zone of proximal development (ZPD) are ones:
A) a child can perform on his or her own.
B) that are too difficult for a child to perform without assistance.
C) that require intuitive thought.
D) that require deductive reasoning.
B) that are too difficult for a child to perform without assistance.
According to Lev Vygotsky's concept of the zone of proximal development (ZPD), learning is:
A) achieved by discovering which answers will lead to rewards.
B) achieved by assimilating new understandings to accommodate the demands of the world.
C) affected by how the environment and genetically programmed learning ability interact during a critical period.
D) a social activity between a less knowledgeable child and another adult or child who is more knowledgeable.
D) a social activity between a less knowledgeable child and another adult or child who is more knowledgeable.
A toddler is likely to learn something in the zone of proximal development if:
A) the toddler has mastered all the skills necessary.
B) parents or teachers do not interfere.
C) the task is more difficult than the child can do alone.
D) the toddler needs little or no help from a parent or teacher.
C) the task is more difficult than the child can do alone.
_____ occurs when a teacher adjusts his or her level of support and guidance to the level of skill of the student.
Scaffolding
Which of the following reflects Lev Vygotsky's beliefs about language and thought?
A) Children who use a lot of private speech are usually less socially competent.
B) Children use internal speech earlier than they use external speech.
C) Language and thought initially develop together and then become independent.
D) All mental functions have social origins.
D) All mental functions have social origins.
Latoya talks to herself often, especially when she is trying to solve a difficult problem. Vygotsky would say Latoya is:
A) engaging in egocentric and immature thinking.
B) using private speech to organize and regulate her thinking.
C) functioning at the upper limit of her zone of proximal development.
D) not effected by her social environment.
B) using private speech to organize and regulate her thinking.
Vygotsky's theory of cognitive development best reflects a(n):
A) behaviorist approach.
B) information-processing approach .
C) structuralist approach.
D) social constructivist approach.
D) social constructivist approach.
With respect to adult cognitive processes, psychologist K. Warner Schaie (1977) concluded that:
A) all adults enter a postformal operational stage involving more complex strategies.
B) many adults revert back to a pragmatic concrete stage as they age.
C) adults likely do not go beyond formal operational thought, but they do progress in how they use their intellect.
D) adults in certain careers (e.g., higher education) enter an intellectual operational stage.
C) adults likely do not go beyond formal operational thought, but they do progress in how they use their intellect.
Life-span development students often complain, "Why do we have to learn all of these theories? Why don't you just teach us the right one?" This complaint reflects:
A) absolute, dualistic thinking.
B) dualistic, reflective thinking.
C) reflective, relativistic thinking.
D) complete relativistic thinking.
A) absolute, dualistic thinking.
Postformal thought is considered to be:
provisional.
T or F: Piaget used the terms assimilation, adaptation, and accommodation interchangeably.
False
T or F: According to Piaget, cognitive equilibrium and disequilibrium are common during cognitive change.
True
T or F: Piaget considered object permanence to be a major cognitive accomplishment during the preoperational stage of development.
False
T or F: Jay blames the sidewalk for "making" him trip. This is an example of centration.
False
T or F: The concept of conservation develops at approximately the same age in all cultures.
False
T or F: The concrete operational stage includes children from approximately 7 to 11 years of age.
True
T or F: The concept of egocentrism is the same in formal operational and preoperational stages.
False
T or F: Piaget studied conservation using the three mountains task.
False
T or F: Piaget gave more emphasis to how children use attention, memory, and strategies to process information than neo-Piagetians do.
False
T or F: Piaget conceived of stages as unitary structures of thought.
True
T or F: Vygotsky developed his cognitive theory in the mid-1800s.
False
T or F: Scaffolding is the range of tasks that are too difficult for the child to master alone but that can be learned with guidance and assistance.
False
T or F: Vygotsky believed that self-talk is egocentric and reflects immaturity.
False
T or F: Vygotsky held that private speech improves social competence.
True
T or F: Tools of the Mind is grounded in Piaget's theory.
False
Who's idea is this: "The core of intelligence consists of complex cognitive processes, such as memory, imagination, comprehension, and judgment."?
Alfred Binet
Who's idea is this: "Infants can be assessed using a mental scale, a motor scale, and the infant behavior profile."?
Nancy Bayley
Who's idea is this: "Emotional intelligence emphasizes interpersonal, intrapersonal, and practical aspects of intelligence."?
Daniel Goleman
Who's idea is this: "Intelligence comes in three forms: analytical, creative, and practical."?
Robert Sternberg
Who's idea is this: "People have multiple intelligences and IQ tests measure only a few of these."?
Howard Gardner
Who's idea is this: "Gifted children are precocious, march to their own drummer, and have a passion to master a domain in which they have high ability."?
Ellen Winner
Who's idea is this: "Children who are gifted are usually socially well adjusted."?
Lewis Terman
Who's idea is this: "Cognitive pragmatics are the software programs of the mind."?
Paul Baltes
_______ is the ability to solve problems and to adapt and learn from experience.
Intelligence
The intelligence test developed by Binet and Simon (1904) was designed to:
A) measure the intelligence quotient of adults and children.
B) identify gifted children.
C) predict which high school students would be successful in college.
D) determine which schoolchildren would not profit from typical school instruction.
D) determine which schoolchildren would not profit from typical school instruction.
Sally's mental age is 12, while her chronological age is 10. Sally's intelligence quotient is:
120.
When test scores are normally distributed around the average score, it means that:
A) most people score in the average range and few people score very high or very low.
B) there are equal numbers of low, average, and high scores.
C) scores obtained on repeated testings are fairly consistent.
D) the test is a good measure of the trait that it is supposed to be measuring.
A) most people score in the average range and few people score very high or very low.
When compared to the Binet intelligence test, the Wechsler test offers the advantage of:
A) an overall IQ score.
B) both verbal and nonverbal scores.
C) scores in four different content areas.
D) being suitable for testing both children and adults.
B) both verbal and nonverbal scores.
In Spearman's two-factor theory of intelligence, "g" refers to:
general intelligence.
A statistical procedure that correlates test scores to identify underlying clusters is called a(n):
A) bell curve.
B) t-test.
C) factor analysis.
D) anova.
C) factor analysis.
Sternberg's triarchic theory and Gardner's theory of intelligence both emphasize that:
A) intelligence is a general ability.
B) there are different types of intelligence.
C) intelligence consists of several specific abilities.
D) there are separate information-processing components of intelligence.
B) there are different types of intelligence.
Indira grew up in poverty and first learned to care for herself and her younger brother by selling newspapers and developing "street smarts." Although she never went to school, she has become successful in business. In terms of Robert Sternberg's triarchic theory, which type of intelligence does Indira have?
A) Analytical
B) Creative
C) Practical
D) Abstract
C) Practical
Juan is an architect. According to Howard Gardner's theory of intelligence, which type of intelligence does Juan have?
A) Spatial
B) Mathematical
C) Kinesthetic
D) Naturalist
A) Spatial
Howard Gardner has developed _______ types of intelligence.
8
According to Howard Gardner's theory of multiple intelligences:
A) most types of intelligence cannot be destroyed by brain damage.
B) individuals who are gifted excel in at least five types of intelligence.
C) individuals who are mentally retarded have only one or two types of intelligence.
D) people have multiple intelligences.
D) people have multiple intelligences.
Which of the following tests requires individuals to solve practical everyday problems?
A) Standard-Binet
B) Sternberg Triarchic Abilities Test
C) Weschler Adult Intelligence Scale
D) Weschler Intelligence Scale for Children
B) Sternberg Triarchic Abilities Test
A heritability index of 0.80 indicates:
A) no significant genetic influence.
B) that nurture is more influential than nature.
C) a strong genetic influence.
D) a moderate genetic influence.
C) a strong genetic influence.
A performance standard for an IQ test is called a:
A) norm.
B) scale.
C) percentile.
D) score.
A) norm.
The Abecedarian Intervention program has demonstrated that:
A) environment can have a powerful influence on intelligence.
B) despite the best interventions children cannot surpass their parents' IQs.
C) the early intellectual gains of children in the program could not be sustained.
D) children with IQs below 70 do not benefit from early intervention programs.
A) environment can have a powerful influence on intelligence.
Which researcher developed an intelligence assessment with a "developmental quotient" score?
A) Terman
B) Gardner
C) Sternberg
D) Gesell
D) Gesell
Which intelligence assessment elicits similar performances from infants in different cultures and is correlated with measures of intelligence in older children?
A) Bayley scales
B) Fagan Test of Infant Intelligence
C) Gesell test
D) STAT
B) Fagan Test of Infant Intelligence
Jarod is an adolescent African American. When taking an intelligence test, he is anxious about possibly confirming the old stereotype that Blacks are "intellectually inferior." He is displaying the effects of:
A) IQ bias.
B) stereotype threat.
C) discrimination.
D) culture anxiety.
B) stereotype threat.
The Gesell test used to assess normal and abnormal infants has four categories of behavior. The four categories are:
A) motor, verbal, language, and adaptive.
B) adaptive, language, verbal, and personal-social.
C) language, adaptive, personal-social, and motor.
D) verbal, personal-social, motor, and adaptive.
C) language, adaptive, personal-social, and motor.
Which assessment tool has a mental scale, a motor scale, and an infant behavior profile?
A) Apgar Scale
B) Brazelton Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scale
C) Gesell Test
D) Bayley Scales of Infant Development
D) Bayley Scales of Infant Development
Fluid intelligence is the ability to:
A) reason abstractly.
B) memorize information quickly.
C) adapt to new ways of thinking.
D) use language skillfully.
A) reason abstractly.
According to John Horn, in middle age:
A) crystallized intelligence increases, while fluid intelligence begins to decline.
B) fluid intelligence increases, while crystallized intelligence begins to decline.
C) both crystallized and fluid intelligence increase.
D) both crystallized and fluid intelligence begin to decline.
A) crystallized intelligence increases, while fluid intelligence begins to decline.
Data from the Seattle Longitudinal Study has shown that the highest level of functioning for four of the six intellectual abilities tested occurred in:
A) late adolescence.
B) early adulthood.
C) middle adulthood.
D) late adulthood.
C) middle adulthood.
The research on wisdom suggests that:
A) wisdom is generated from strong cognitive mechanics.
B) wisdom emerges in old age.
C) wisdom is gained through the accumulation of factual knowledge.
D) personality-related factors are better predictors of wisdom than cognitive factors.
D) personality-related factors are better predictors of wisdom than cognitive factors.
Organic retardation is caused by:
A) a genetic disorder or by brain damage.
B) being raised by poorly educated parents.
C) an impoverished intellectual environment.
D) traumatic experiences in early childhood.
A) a genetic disorder or by brain damage.
Everett, a 10-year-old boy, has an IQ of 48 on the Stanford-Binet intelligence test and he has difficulty adapting in his everyday life, but his teachers expect he may be able to support himself as an adult through some type of labor. He would be classified as:
A) mildly retarded.
B) moderately retarded.
C) severely retarded.
D) profoundly retarded.
B) moderately retarded.
Hyun-Joo is asked to come up with as many possible uses of a paper clip as possible. This task requires her to use:
A) verbal comprehension.
B) convergent thinking.
C) divergent thinking.
D) critical thinking.
C) divergent thinking.
The step in the creative process which often covers the longest span of time and requires the hardest work is:
A) incubation.
B) insight.
C) preparation.
D) elaboration.
D) elaboration.
Researchers have found that the age at which creativity declines:
A) is most often in the third decade of life.
B) varies with the domain involved.
C) is younger in males than females.
D) is usually after the age of 80.
B) varies with the domain involved.
T or F: The problem with intelligence is that it cannot be directly measured.
True
T or F: A bright child has a chronological age considerably above his or her mental age.
False
T or F: Scores on tests of general intelligence are substantially correlated with school grades and achievement test performance at the time of the test and years later.
True
T or F: In a normal distribution, the best test scores cluster in the middle.
False
T or F: One of the eight types of intelligence proposed by Howard Gardner is naturalist skills.
True
T or F: Practical intelligence is not taught in schools.
True
T or F: Females are more likely than males to have extremely high or extremely low scores on intelligence tests.
False
T or F: Intelligence test scores can fluctuate dramatically across the childhood years.
True
T or F: High levels of wisdom are common in older adults.
False
T or F: An IQ of 120 or higher indicates giftedness.
False
T or F: All gifted children become gifted adults.
False
T or F: Gifted children learn in a qualitatively different way than ordinary children.
True
T or F: Highly intelligent individuals are almost always highly creative.
False
T or F: Creative thinkers objectively evaluate their work.
True
T or F: Creative individuals are willing to take risks.
True
Who's idea is this: "Professional parents talk to their children more than welfare parents do."?
Betty Hart and Todd Risley
Who's idea is this: "Humans are biologically prewired to learn language."?
Noam Chomsky
Who's idea is this: "Babies are universal linguists until about 6 months of age."?
Patricia Kuhl
Who's idea is this: "Provided many ideas to help parents facilitate their child's language development."?
Naomi Baron
Who's idea is this: "The size of a child's vocabulary is positively correlated with the talkativeness of his or her mother."?
Janellen Huttenlocher
Who's idea is this: "Children can apply language rules to novel situations."?
Jean Berko Gleason
Who's idea is this: "Adults play an important role in constructing a child's language acquisition support system (LASS)."?
Jerome Bruner
Who's idea is this: "Parents did not directly or explicitly reward or correct the syntax of most children's utterances."?
Roger Brown
Language is most accurately defined as a system of _______ that allow for communication with others.
A) images
B) vocalizations
C) symbols
D) words
C) symbols
Someone with a vocabulary of only 200 words can still combine the words in different ways to say thousands of different things. This aspect of language is referred to as:
A) syntax.
B) phonology.
C) morphology.
D) infinite generativity.
D) infinite generativity.
The word ending -ing is an example of a:
A) morpheme.
B) phoneme.
C) consonant cluster.
D) semantic feature.
A) morpheme.
_______ refers to the units of meaning in word formation.
Morphology
The sound system of a language is referred to as:
A) phonology.
B) pragmatics.
C) speech.
D) grammar.
A) phonology.
Mary has difficulty sounding out words like "though" and "calendar." Her difficulties lie in which of the following aspects of language?
A) phonology
B) pragmatics
C) semantics
D) syntax
A) Phonology
Which aspect of language deals with the meaning of words and sentences?
A) phonology
B) pragmatics
C) semantics
D) syntax
C) semantics
Pointing to a tree, young Ramal says, "bird flied away." Ramal's inaccurate use of the "ed" word ending shows that he is trying to learn the _______ rules of language.
morphological
Yoshi is learning that there are many different ways to say "thank you" in Japanese. It depends on several things, such as the gender and social status of the recipient. This use of appropriate conversation demonstrates:
A) syntax.
B) semantics.
C) morphology.
D) pragmatics.
D) pragmatics.
Which of the following is the correct sequence in which babies produce sounds and gestures during their first year?
A) cooing-crying-gestures-babbling
B) crying-cooing-babbling-gestures
C) crying-babbling-cooing-gestures
D) cooing-crying-babbling-gestures
B) crying-cooing-babbling-gestures
An infant's first word is usually spoken, on average, at about ____ months of age.
13
Compared to 50 years ago, children's first words today are:
A) the same.
B) more likely related to objects than to people.
C) more likely related to people than to objects.
D) more complex.
A) the same.
A child's expansive vocabulary is directly correlated with:
A) maternal language and literacy skills.
B) parents' IQ.
C) parents' age.
D) parents' own vocabulary.
A) maternal language and literacy skills.
The ability to think about language is called:
A) metacognition.
B) comprehension.
C) metalinguistic awareness.
D) symbolic representation.
C) metalinguistic awareness.
Which approach to reading instruction includes learning complete words or entire sentences?
A) whole language approach
B) guided oral reading
C) basic-skills-and-phonics approach
D) alphabetic approach
A) whole language approach
In the debate over whether the whole language approach or the basic-skills-and-phonetics approach is the better one for teaching children to read:

A) researchers have found the whole language approach to be better.

B) researchers have found the basic-skills-and-phonetics approach to be better.

C) linguistic researchers believe the whole language approach is better, whereas educators believe the basic-skills-and-phonetics approach is better.

D) researchers have not been able to document that either approach is better.
D) researchers have not been able to document that either approach is better.
Researchers have found that bilingual education programs:
A) cause children to lose proficiency in their native language.
B) are successful when children attend for a minimum of six months.
C) allow children to successfully learn academic subjects while slowly learning English.
D) are ineffective and should be eliminated as an educational option.
C) allow children to successfully learn academic subjects while slowly learning English.
The optimal time for learning a second language is:
A) early to middle childhood.
B) late childhood.
C) adolescence.
D) none of these...
D) none of these...
Edward says to his teacher, "All the world's a stage." He is using:
A) satire.
B) a metaphor.
C) an analogy.
D) irony.
B) a metaphor.
At what point do individuals begin to understand metaphors and satire?
A) Middle childhood
B) Adolescence
C) Early adulthood
D) Middle adulthood
B) Adolescence
Caricatures are an example of:
A) satire.
B) metaphor.
C) analogy.
D) parsimony.
A) satire.
A language disorder resulting from brain damage that involves a loss of the ability to use words is:
A) LAD.
B) Broca's disorder.
C) aphasia.
D) Wernicke's disorder.
C) aphasia.
The concept of the language acquisition device is an example of how:
A) phonology derives from morphology.
B) human language is not based on biology.
C) biological evolution is inadequate to explain human language.
D) biological evolution influenced human language acquisition.
D) biological evolution influenced human language acquisition.
Chomsky's theory of language development emphasizes:
A) learning and conditioning principles.
B) biological mechanisms.
C) children's cognitive abilities.
D) the language support system provided by parents.
B) biological mechanisms.
_______ stresses that young children are intensely interested in their social world and that early in their development they can understand the intentions of other people.
A) Michael Tomasello
B) Jerome Bruner
C) Roger Brown
D) Jean Berko
A) Michael Tomasello
Which of the following is not a criticism of the behaviorist view of language acquisition?
A) It does not explain how people create novel sentences.
B) Children learn the syntax of language, even if they are not reinforced for doing so.
C) It fails to explain the extensive orderliness of language.
D) Reinforcement is not effective with infants and very young children, therefore language must be acquired through some other process.
D) Reinforcement is not effective with infants and very young children, therefore language must be acquired through some other process.
Aunt Alice is speaking in normal tones until she is handed her new baby niece. Aunt Alice's voice immediately changes into a higher pitch, and she begins using baby-talk phrases like "goo goo" and "ba ba." This change in Aunt Alice's language behavior is an example of:
A) echoing.
B) recasting.
C) child-directed speech.
D) morphology.
C) child-directed speech.
In a study conducted by Betty Hart and Todd Risley (1995), what was the main difference between the way middle-class parents and welfare parents interacted with their children?
A) Welfare parents spent more time teaching their children correct syntax.
B) Middle-class parents played with their children using mostly nonverbal communication.
C) Welfare parents read to their children more.
D) Parents on welfare talked much less to their young children than professional parents.
D) Parents on welfare talked much less to their young children than professional parents.
Little Lisa points to a ball and says "Color dat ball." Her father responds with "What color is the ball?" This is an example of:
A) echoing.
B) recasting.
C) motherese.
D) morphology.
B) recasting.
Andrew sees a cat on the lawn and says to his mother, "Kitty run." His mother responds, "Yes, the kitty is running." This is an example of:
A) generalization.
B) recasting.
C) labeling.
D) expanding.
D) expanding.
T or F: The Wild Boy of Aveyron learned to communicate effectively despite his early deprivation.
False
T or F: All human languages are characterized by infinite generativity.
True
T or F: The word golf consists of a single morpheme.
True
T or F: Deaf infants manually babble before they begin to sign.
True
T or F: In early elementary years, reversals of letters such as b, d, p, and q are indicative of potential literacy problems.
False
T or F: Telegraphic speech is limited to two-word phrases.
False
T or F: Young children's vocabularies are linked to the socioeconomic status of their families.
True
T or F: Research has shown that the whole language approach to reading is the most effective.
False
T or F: Individuals with damage to Wernicke's area cannot produce speech.
False
T or F: Chomsky's LAD is located in the brain's left hemisphere.
False
T or F: Child-directed speech is higher pitched than normal speech.
True
T or F: Language development is a simple matter of imitation and reinforcement.
False
T or F: In infancy, receptive vocabulary exceeds spoken vocabulary.
True
T or F: The whole language approach to reading emphasizes phonics.
False
T or F: Segmentation consists of tapping out or counting the sounds in a word.
True
Who's idea is this: "Older adults narrow their social interaction in order to maximize positive emotional experiences and minimize emotional risks."?
Laura Carstensen
Who's idea is this: "Children inherit a physiology that biases them to have a particular type of temperament."?
Jerome Kagan
Who's idea is this: "Love is composed of passion, intimacy, and commitment."?
Robert Sternberg
Who's idea is this: "Feeding is not the crucial element in the attachment process."?
Harry Harlow
Who's idea is this: "Adolescents report more emotional extremes than their parents report."?
Reed Larson and Maryse Richards
Who's idea is this: "The Strange Situation can measure attachment in children."?
Mary Ainsworth
Who's idea is this: "Sexual desire is the most important ingredient of romantic love."?
Ellen Berscheid
Who's idea is this: "Parents spend too much time responding to infant crying."?
John Watson
Psychologists almost always classify emotions as either:
A) harmful or beneficial.
B) positive or negative.
C) evoked or nonevoked.
D) defensive or receptive.
B) positive or negative.
The ability to inhibit or minimize the intensity of emotions is called emotional:
regulation.
Which of the following emotions is not a primary emotion?
A) Fear
B) Anger
C) Disgust
D) Guilt
D) Guilt
Which of the following emotions is a self-conscious emotion?
A) Shame
B) Joy
C) Surprise
D) Sadness
A) Shame
Suddenly, Jordan gives a long cry and then holds her breath. This is an example of a(n):
pain cry.
A smile that occurs in response to an external stimulus is referred to as a:
social smile.
Which of the following situations is most likely to produce stranger anxiety in an infant?
A) Encountering a stranger while sitting on the mother's lap
B) Meeting a stranger in a research laboratory
C) Meeting a stranger in the infant's home
D) Encountering a stranger who smiles
B) Meeting a stranger in a research laboratory
Separation protest tends to peak at _____ months of age.
15
Tina can use several terms to describe her emotions and she is learning about the causes and consequences of her feelings. She is most likely between:
A) 2 and 4 years of age.
B) 4 and 5 years of age.
C) 6 and 7 years of age.
D) 8 and 9 years of age.
A) 2 and 4 years of age.
What term best describes the emotional life of the older adult?
A) mellow
B) indifferent
C) chaotic
D) intense
A) Mellow
Socioemotional selectivity theory proposes that older adults deliberately withdraw from social contact with:
A) individuals peripheral to their lives.
B) close friends.
C) family members.
D) all but a few close family members and health care professionals.
A) individuals peripheral to their lives.
According to socioemotional selectivity theory, older adults narrow their social circles:
A) because they are preparing for death.
B) to have available social partners who satisfy their emotional needs.
C) because it is more difficult for them to maintain large social networks.
D) as they become increasingly depressed.
B) to have available social partners who satisfy their emotional needs.
According to Mary Rothbart, the dimension of temperament that includes fear, frustration, sadness, and discomfort is called:
A) effortful control.
B) extraversion surgency.
C) negative affectivity.
D) emotional intensity.
C) negative affectivity.
Chess and Thomas believe the _______ child is the most typical temperament.
easy
Josh was an active child with a lot of energy. As an adult, he is likely:
outgoing.
Research on temperament indicates that it:
A) remains relatively stable throughout the life span.
B) is learned through environmental contingencies.
C) is discontinuous throughout the life span.
D) changes as we enter adulthood.
A) remains relatively stable throughout the life span.
Attachment refers to:
A) a close bond between two people.
B) a close bond between an infant and a contact comfort object.
C) an infant's tendency to use the mother as a secure base for exploring the world.
D) a positive reaction to being held and played with by people other than the primary caregiver.
A) a close bond between two people.
In a classic study of attachment by Harlow and Zimmerman, infant monkeys spent more time with the _______ monkey regardless of which monkey fed them.
Cloth
When put on the floor to play, Baby Elaine cries as if she wants to be held. When her mother picks her up, though, Baby Elaine pushes away with both arms and turns her head away. Ainsworth would say that Baby Elaine is:
A) securely attached.
B) insecure avoidant.
C) insecure resistant.
D) disorganized.
C) insecure resistant.
The Strange Situation is an observational measure of infant attachment developed by Mary Ainsworth. It requires the infant to:
A) crawl through a tunnel with his or her mother while a stranger waits on the other side.
B) move through a series of introductions, separations, and reunions with his or her mother and a stranger.
C) experience loud noises in a room with only a stranger present.
D) choose between his or her mother and his or her father in a strange situation.
B) move through a series of introductions, separations, and reunions with his or her mother and a stranger.
Jerome Kagan has emphasized the importance of _______ as a determinant of social competence.
temperament
When comparing maternal and paternal infant interactions, it is apparent that:
A) fathers' interactions are more likely to include play.
B) fathers' interactions are more likely to center around childcare activities.
C) fathers are less able than mothers to act sensitively and responsively with their infants.
D) there are no significant differences.
A) fathers' interactions are more likely to include play.
Kagan's research concerning the effects of high-quality child care on children has revealed that this type of child care has:
A) some long-term, detrimental effects on children.
B) no observed adverse effects.
C) some negative effects in the area of cognitive development.
D) some negative effects in the area of socialization.
B) no observed adverse effects.
________ place their infants in childcare at an earlier age.
A) Poor Non-Latino White families
B) Latino mothers
C) African American families
D) Mothers with higher incomes
D) Mothers with higher incomes
Brandon, a 15-year-old who recently experienced his mother's death, is exhibiting high levels of fear, and he is often disoriented. When considering secure and insecure attachment in adolescence, Brandon's attachment would be classified as:
A) secure.
B) dismissing/avoidant.
C) preoccupied/ambivalent.
D) unresolved/disorganized.
D) unresolved/disorganized.
Adults with avoidant and anxious attachment styles are more likely to be ____ than securely attached adults.
depressed
According to Robert Sternberg's triangular theory of love, passion is:
A) a physical and sexual attraction.
B) the emotional feelings of warmth, closeness, and sharing.
C) the intent to maintain a relationship even in the face of problems.
D) affectionate love.
A) a physical and sexual attraction.
A relationship marked by intimacy and commitment, but low or lacking in passion is called:
A) affectionate love.
B) consummate love.
C) friendship.
D) romantic love.
A) affectionate love.
If the only real attraction that Richard and Jamie feel toward each other is passion (with intimacy and commitment low or absent), Robert Sternberg would argue that they are experiencing:
A) consummate love.
B) companionate love.
C) fatuous love.
D) infatuation.
D) infatuation.
Janet recently broke up with her long-time boyfriend. She says, "I forgot how important my friends are when I was going out with Rick." What kind of change is Janet experiencing?
A) Environmental negative
B) Environmental positive
C) Relational positive
D) Person negative
B) Environmental positive
T or F: The display rules of emotion are culturally universal.
False
T or F: Social smiling occurs around 4 to 6 weeks of age in response to a caregiver's voice.
True
T or F: Moodiness is a normal aspect of early adolescence.
True
T or F: Behaviorists argue that quick attention to a baby's cry will reward, and therefore increase, the crying.
True
T or F: Pubertal change is associated with positive emotions.
False
T or F: Older adults report better control of their emotions and fewer negative emotions than younger adults.
True
T or F: Chess and Thomas purport that children's temperaments can be classified into one of three types.
True
T or F: John Bowlby created the Strange Situation in order to research infant attachment.
False
T or F: There is ample evidence that security of attachment is important to development.
True
T or F: Children who spend extensive amounts of time in child care exhibit more behavior problems than those children who spend less time in child care.
True
T or F: Girls who date more have fewer symptoms of depression.
False
T or F: Romantic partners fulfill some of the same needs for adults as parents do for their children.
True
T or F: Affectionate love is passionate and erratic.
False
T or F: Consummate love occurs when one person worships another from a distance.
False
T or F: Following a romantic breakup, many people experience positive growth such as feeling more self-confident.
True
Who's idea is this: "Cognitive differences between females and males have been exaggerated."?
Janet Shibley Hyde
Who's idea is this: "Males have better math and visuospatial skills than females."?
Eleanor Maccoby and Carol Jacklin
Who's idea is this: "Parents foster behaviors and perceptions that are consonant with traditional gender role norms."?
Phyllis Bronstein
Who's idea is this: "Gender stems from the preschool child's development of sexual attraction to his or her opposite-sex parent."?
Sigmund Freud
Who's idea is this: "Women often try to interact with others in ways that will foster the other person's emotional, intellectual, and social development."?
Jean Baker Miller
Who's idea is this: "Women need to be strong, assertive, independent, and authentic in their relationships."?
Harriet Lerner
Who's idea is this: "Gender lessons do not have to be hammered into children's heads."?
Carole Beal
Who's idea is this: "Male adolescents perceive that they will be thought of as more masculine if they engage in premarital sex, drink alcohol, take drugs, and participate in delinquent activities."?
Joseph Pleck
Who's idea is this: "Gender differences result from contrasting roles of women and men."?
Alice Eagly
Who's idea is this: "Women enjoy rapport talk more than men do."?
Deborah Tannen
The term that refers to the social and psychological dimensions of being female or male is:
gender.
Sex refers to:
A) a person's identity.
B) the expectations of how a male or female should act.
C) biological aspects of being male or female.
D) gender characteristics appropriate in a particular culture.
C) Biological aspects of being male or female
_____ primarily influence the development of female sex characteristics.
Estrogens
The typical male chromosome pattern is:
XY.
Pelvic field defect involves:
A) a missing penis.
B) an absence of androgen receptors in the cells.
C) abnormally high levels of androgens.
D) enlarged adrenal glands.
A) a missing penis.
Evolutionary psychology emphasizes:
A) the importance of adaptation to explain psychological sex differences.
B) cultural evolution as the dominant type of evolution among humans.
C) genes as the most important determinant for survival.
D) physical aspects of humans as determinants of behavior.
A) the importance of adaptation to explain psychological sex differences.
Alice Eagly attributes the cause of gender differences to:
A) biologically evolved processes.
B) negative cultural stereotypes.
C) the contrasting positions and social roles of women and men.
D) the rewards and punishments for gender-appropriate behavior.
C) the contrasting positions and social roles of women and men.
The psychoanalytic theory of gender explains gender development in terms of:
A) imitation.
B) rewards and punishments.
C) sexual attraction to the opposite-sex parent.
D) peer relations.
C) sexual attraction to the opposite-sex parent.
Which gender development theory stresses that individuals actively construct their gender world?
A) Psychoanalytic theory
B) Gender schema theory
C) Social role theory
D) Social cognitive theory
B) Gender schema theory
Callie sees a man with long hair and says, "Mommy, look at the girl." Callie has not yet developed:
A) gender identity.
B) gender typing.
C) gender schema.
D) gender constancy.
D) gender constancy.
Which of the following is a proven difference between males and females?
A) Female brains are smaller than male brains.
B) Females have better math skills than males.
C) Males engage in more relational aggression than females.
D) Male brains have more folds than female brains.
A) Female brains are smaller than male brains.
A female with a high degree of both expressive and instrumental traits is considered:
A) feminine.
B) masculine.
C) aggressive.
D) androgynous.
D) androgynous.
An undifferentiated person is:
A) high on instrumental traits and low on expressive traits.
B) low on both feminine and masculine traits.
C) high on both feminine and masculine traits.
D) high on expressive traits and low on instrumental traits.
B) low on both feminine and masculine traits.
Which of these is not an area where men's roles can cause considerable strain?
A) Father-daughter relationships
B) Health
C) Male-female relationships
D) Male-male relationships
A) Father-daughter relationships
Research has suggested that psychological and behavioral differences between boys and girls become greater during early adolescence because of increased pressures to conform to traditional masculine and feminine gender roles. This is referred to as:
A) role-strain.
B) gender-role transcendence.
C) gender intensification.
D) gender assessment.
C) gender intensification.
Which researcher believes that gender differences have been greatly exaggerated?
A) Alice Eagly
B) John Gray
C) Deborah Tannen
D) Jane Shibley Hyde
D) Jane Shibley Hyde
Deborah Tannen analyzed the talk of men and women and found that, compared to women, men more commonly engage in _______ talk, in order to _______.
A) rapport; inform
B) report; inform
C) rapport; interact
D) report; interact
B) report; inform
According to Joseph Pleck's role-strain view:
A) men need to allow women into the workforce to alleviate men's burden.
B) the male role is contradictory and inconsistent.
C) men have become workaholics out of their macho need to provide for their families.
D) nurturing and being sensitive to others is now being viewed as a way for men to improve their lives.
B) the male role is contradictory and inconsistent.
According to Gutmann, during middle adulthood, men and women become free from the parental imperative. This leads to:
A) women becoming less active.
B) women becoming less assertive.
C) men becoming more sensitive.
D) men becoming more active.
C) men becoming more sensitive.
_______ scripts are stereotyped patterns of expectancies for how people should behave sexually.
Sexual
Sue believes that she should wait until she is married to have sex. This is an example of:
A) a romantic script.
B) a feminine sexual script.
C) a traditional religious script.
D) an extramarital sex script.
C) a traditional religious script.
In 1994, Robert Michael and colleagues conducted a comprehensive survey of American sexual patterns. It was found that Americans' sexual lives are:
A) more conservative than previously believed.
B) less conservative than previously believed.
C) more active than previously believed.
D) less active than previously believed.
A) more conservative than previously believed.
Sexual orientation refers to:
A) the object of one's desire.
B) one's feelings about one's own sexuality.
C) the societal implications of being male or female.
D) the moral code that determines one's sexual behavior.
A) the object of one's desire.
What do researchers believe today about the causes of sexual orientation?
A) It is primarily biological.
B) It is primarily due to learning and experience.
C) It is primarily due to social and emotional factors.
D) It is a combination of genetic, hormonal, cognitive, and environmental factors.
D) It is a combination of genetic, hormonal, cognitive, and environmental factors.
Approximately 20 percent of individuals 12 years of age and older have had this type of sexually transmitted infection:
A) syphilis.
B) gonorrhea.
C) chlamydia.
D) genital herpes.
D) genital herpes.
Which STI is asymptomatic in women?
A) Genital herpes
B) HPV
C) Syphilis
D) Chlamydia
D) Chlamydia
A few days after having intercourse, Donald notices sores around his genital area. Donald is most likely suffering from:
A) gonorrhea.
B) genital herpes.
C) syphilis.
D) HIV.
B) genital herpes.
AIDS cannot be transmitted:
A) by kissing an infected individual.
B) through blood transfusions.
C) by sharing hypodermic needles.
D) through mother-baby transmission.
A) by kissing an infected individual.
The teenage birth rate in the United States:
A) declined considerably in the 1990s.
B) is about the same as it was in the early 1990s.
C) is higher than it was in the early 1990s.
D) has been growing steadily since the early 1990s.
A) declined considerably in the 1990s.
Which of the following sex-related changes do middle-aged men experience?
A) Loss of fertility
B) An increase in sperm count
C) Reduction in sex drive
D) A dramatic drop in testosterone levels
C) Reduction in sex drive
T or F: Estrogens and androgens both occur in females and males, but in different concentrations.
True
T or F: Congenital adrenal hyperplasia occurs only in males.
False
T or F: Evolutionary psychologists argue that differing gender roles evolved due to reproductive functions.
True
T or F: The social cognitive theory of gender theorizes that children's gender development occurs as a result of sexual attraction to the opposite-sex parent.
False
T or F: A gender schema organizes the world in terms of female and male.
True
T or F: Menopause occurs in the late fifties or early sixties.
False
T or F: Boys receive earlier and more intense gender socialization than girls do.
True
T or F: The gender intensification hypothesis states that gender differences become more pronounced during middle adulthood.
False
T or F: The parental imperative is analogous to identity foreclosure.
False
T or F: Sex education programs that emphasize contraception knowledge increases the likelihood that adolescents will engage in sexual intercourse and leads to more adolescent pregnancies.
False
T or F: Ken believes that sex is acceptable only during marriage. This is an example of a romantic sexual script.
False
T or F: Gender differences that appear in heterosexual relationships also occur in homosexual relationships.
True
T or F: Genital herpes is caused by a bacterial infection.
False
T or F: Rape occurs most in large cities.
True
T or F: Early maturation is linked with early initiation of sexual activity.
True
Who's idea is this: "Self-control is strongly influenced by cognitive factors."?
Walter Mischel
Who's idea is this: "In order to make meaning of their lives, people need purpose, value, a sense of efficacy, and self-worth."?
Roy Baumeister and Kathleen Vohs
Who's idea is this: "Examining the finiteness of our existence adds meaning to life."?
Viktor Frankl
Who's idea is this: "As girls reach adolescence, they silence their "distinctive voice.""?
Carol Gilligan
Who's idea is this: "Young people who kill may be lacking a spiritual center."?
James Garbarino
Who's idea is this: "Moral development is based on moral reasoning."?
Lawrence Kohlberg
Who's idea is this: "Moral development is best understood by considering social and cognitive factors."?
Albert Bandura
Who's idea is this: "Stimulated interest in how children think about moral issues."?
Jean Piaget
_______ development involves thoughts, feelings, and behaviors regarding standards of right and wrong.
Moral
Which of the following statements best summarizes the questions that researchers ask in their study of moral development?
A) How do children feel about a moral circumstance?
B) What do children do when presented with a moral circumstance?
C) What do children believe they should do when presented with a moral circumstance?
D) What should and will children do, and how do they feel about a moral situation?
D) What should and will children do, and how do they feel about a moral situation?
A major distinction between autonomous morality and heteronomous morality is that autonomous moral thinkers focus on the:
A) consequences of behavior.
B) intentions of someone who breaks a rule.
C) way a specific behavior makes them feel.
D) rewards moral behavior will bring.
B) intentions of someone who breaks a rule.
Piaget believed that the social understanding of autonomous children comes about through:
A) parental modeling.
B) what they learn in their educational settings.
C) biological maturation.
D) the mutual give-and-take of peer relations.
D) the mutual give-and-take of peer relations.
"Heinz should steal the drug. It isn't like it really costs $2,000, and he'll be really unhappy if his wife dies." This statement is characteristic of a stage of morality called:
A) heteronomous morality.
B) individualism, purpose, and exchange.
C) mutual interpersonal expectations.
D) social contract and individual rights.
B) individualism, purpose, and exchange.
Matt is a 10-year-old who likes to play soccer during recess. One day, a friend teaches him a different set of rules about the game. Matt now plays soccer in a new way. Matt is in which stage of moral development?
A) Autonomous morality
B) Heteronomous morality
C) Basic morality
D) Extended morality
A) Autonomous morality
A little boy claims that he does not have to have a time-out when he hits his younger brother, since each time he does so it is an "accident." This happens even when his mother observes the action. This little boy:
A) believes that all hitting is wrong.
B) clearly believes in immanent justice.
C) understands that justice is not necessarily immanent.
D) understands that hitting will be punished regardless of the circumstances.
C) understands that justice is not necessarily immanent.
Lawrence Kohlberg studied moral development by:
A) analyzing patterns of children's responses to items about moral decisions on questionnaires.
B) classifying children's solutions to difficult moral problems.
C) observing children interact with each other when they are in conflict.
D) interviewing families about how they taught moral principles to their children.
B) classifying children's solutions to difficult moral problems.
Stephanie's behavior is controlled by external rewards and punishments. Stephanie's behavior reflects which level of Kohlberg's theory of moral development?
A) Preconventional reasoning
B) Conventional reasoning
C) Interconventional reasoning
D) Postconventional reasoning
A) Preconventional reasoning
In which stage of Kohlberg's scheme of moral development is a child most likely to imitate the moral standards of his or her parents?
A) Individualism, instrumental purpose, and exchange
B) Mutual interpersonal expectations, relationships, and interpersonal conformity
C) Social systems morality
D) Community rights vs. individual rights
B) Mutual interpersonal expectations, relationships, and interpersonal conformity
Sarah is about to deliver a baby. Her husband is driving her to the hospital at 80 miles per hour. Their children are also in the car. Billy says, "Daddy, you can't go this fast. It's against the law." Mandi says, "It's all right, Billy. Daddy has to get Mommy to the hospital quickly. This car is like an ambulance." What is Mandi's moral level?
A) Conventional
B) Preconventional
C) Postconventional
D) Heteronomous morality
C) Postconventional
The greatest degree of internalization of moral standards is to be found in a stage of moral development called:
A) mutual interpersonal expectations, relationships, and interpersonal conformity.
B) social systems morality.
C) social contract or utility and individual rights.
D) universal ethical principles.
D) universal ethical principles.
More than 80 percent of the respondents to a survey said that buying a stolen television set is morally wrong. Yet 50 percent admitted they would buy a stolen set if guaranteed they would not be caught. These data indicate:
A) preconventional moral reasoning.
B) social prohibitions are more potent than moral ones.
C) that purchasing stolen property is an accepted social convention.
D) that for many people, moral belief does not predict moral behavior.
D) that for many people, moral belief does not predict moral behavior.
Research on Kohlberg's theory of moral development in diverse cultures around the world has revealed:
A) no universal support for this theory.
B) support for the universality of the first four stages.
C) support for the universality of all six stages.
D) conflicting results in terms of the theory's universality.
B) support for the universality of the first four stages.
William Damon has found that, where culturally specific practices take on profound moral and religious significance, the moral development of children focuses extensively on their:
A) adherence to custom and convention.
B) imitation of older people.
C) obedience to authority figures.
D) sense of fairness involving principles of equality, merit, and benevolence.
A) adherence to custom and convention.
Gilligan has criticized Kohlberg's theory of moral development because it:
A) does not include a role for reasoning about relationships and concern for others.
B) does not recognize higher-level moral reasoning in certain cultural groups.
C) underemphasizes laws and societal structures.
D) places too much emphasis on moral thought and not enough emphasis on moral behavior.
A) does not include a role for reasoning about relationships and concern for others.
In a classic study, Hartshorne and May examined children's moral behavior and found that:
A) children were more likely to cheat than to be honest.
B) children were more likely to be honest than to cheat.
C) a completely honest or a completely dishonest child was difficult to find.
D) children with a religious background were less likely to cheat than their nonreligious peers.
C) a completely honest or a completely dishonest child was difficult to find.
According to social cognitive theorists, the ability to resist temptation is closely tied to the development of:
A) empathic behavior.
B) spontaneity.
C) abstract reasoning.
D) self-control.
D) self-control.
Lisa praises her daughter each time she sees her sharing a toy or snack with her friend. Her belief that reinforcement will help shape her daughter's moral development would be shared by:
A) social cognitive theorists.
B) psychoanalytic theorists.
C) behaviorists.
D) cognitive developmental theorists.
C) behaviorists.
When her mother asks Selena why she feels so sad, Selena says it is because her best friend just lost her puppy. Selena is exhibiting:
A) guilt.
B) empathy.
C) heteronomous morality.
D) lack of perspective taking.
B) empathy.
The _______ is the component of the superego that involves ideal standards approved of by parents.
ego-ideal
The moral exemplar approach emphasizes:
A) the transfer of parents' morals to children.
B) moral emotions.
C) global empathy.
D) moral excellence.
D) moral excellence.
Research on the relationship between the role of parenting and children's moral development has demonstrated that:
A) parenting is primarily responsible for children's moral development.
B) heredity is primarily responsible for children's moral development.
C) parenting and peer relations are jointly responsible for children's moral development.
D) peer relations and heredity are jointly responsible for children's moral development.
C) parenting and peer relations are jointly responsible for children's moral development.
Mrs. Woelfel wants to teach her teen students about the values of democracy and loyalty. She should use:
A) service learning.
B) cognitive moral education.
C) values clarification.
D) the hidden curriculum.
B) cognitive moral education.
Sandra and her class spend a part of their week at the local food bank to participate in feeding the homeless. A part of Sandra's education is to learn about this population and the resources available to them in the community. This academic approach is called:
A) community-based learning.
B) service learning.
C) applied learning.
D) resource-oriented learning.
B) service learning.
Jenny puts a Christmas gift under the donation tree at the shopping mall. She just wants to give something to a needy child. Jenny is displaying:
A) altruistic behavior.
B) the justice perspective.
C) preconventional morality.
D) social contract reasoning.
A) altruistic behavior.
The dictum "Do unto others as you would have others do unto you" expresses the role of _____ in altruism.
reciprocity
_____ means giving special consideration to individuals in a disadvantaged condition.
Benevolence
Henry is 8 years old, and his parents report that they just caught him lying and that he has been getting into fights. A psychologist is most likely to tell Henry's parents:
A) that he has a conduct disorder.
B) not to worry because these behaviors are normal for his age, and he will most likely outgrow them.
C) that he is in danger of becoming a juvenile delinquent.
D) that Henry should immediately begin receiving extensive therapy to prevent the development of a conduct disorder.
B) not to worry because these behaviors are normal for his age, and he will most likely outgrow them.
Six-year-old Cain has temper tantrums and terrorizes his sister Abby. He steals money from his mother and destroys the neighbors' property. Cain probably has:
A) a conduct disorder.
B) attention deficit disorder.
C) antisocial personality disorder.
D) oppositional defiant disorder.
A) a conduct disorder.
Which of the following is not a correct statement about delinquency?
A) In the last two decades, there has been a greater increase in female delinquency than in male delinquency.
B) Theft, property damage, and physical aggression decrease from 18 to 26 years of age.
C) The peak for violence is 18 to 19 years of age for males, and 19 to 21 years of age for females.
D) The peak age for property damage is 15-17 for males and 16-18 for females.
C) The peak for violence is 18 to 19 years of age for males, and 19 to 21 years of age for females.
The college freshmen of today are most interested in:
A) developing a meaningful philosophy of life.
B) helping others.
C) volunteering in such activities as the Peace Corps and Americorps.
D) being well-off financially.
D) being well-off financially.
Which country has the highest rate of citizens who believe in God?
A) Japan
B) Pakistan
C) Nigeria
D) Sweden
B) Pakistan
When learning about religion, 10-year-old Jeremiah focuses on particular details of pictures and stories. He is in the stage of:
A) formal operational religious thought.
B) preoperational intuitive religious thought.
C) concrete operational religious thought.
D) advanced operational religious thought.
C) concrete operational religious thought.
If a person is going to experience a religious change or reawakening, it is most likely to occur during:
A) late childhood.
B) adolescence.
C) middle adulthood.
D) late adulthood.
B) adolescence
Which of the following is linked to religiosity in adolescents?
A) Lower truancy rates
B) Lower rates of delinquent behavior
C) Lower rates of depression
D) All of these
D) All of these
If Jacob expresses typical "American attitudes" toward religion, we would expect him to:
A) deny the existence of God.
B) be less committed to particular religious denominations.
C) have strong positive feelings toward religious leaders.
D) believe that our country's spiritual and moral stature are increasing.
B) be less committed to particular religious denominations.
Compared with men's involvement in religion, women are more likely to:
A) have less faith in the mainstream religious institutions.
B) believe in a higher power.
C) change churches when they are dissatisfied.
D) experiment with alternative religious practices.
B) believe in a higher power.
Which of the following would be most consistent with the research on religion and aging?
A) Men are more spiritual than women.
B) Women are more spiritual than men.
C) Religion is more significant in the lives of people over 65 years of age.
D) Both a and c are correct.
C) Religion is more significant in the lives of people over 65 years of age.
Viktor Frankl stated that the three most distinct human qualities are:
A) religiousness, freedom, and honesty.
B) religiousness, honesty, and purposefulness.
C) spirituality, freedom, and responsibility.
D) spirituality, motivation, and purposefulness.
C) spirituality, freedom, and responsibility.
T or F: According to Piaget, a heteronomous thinker believes in immanent justice.
True
T or F: Kohlberg proposed four levels of moral thinking.
False
T or F: Kohlberg developed the "Defining Issues Test" to assess moral reasoning.
False
T or F: Kohlberg considered the possibility of adding a seventh stage to his theory, the cosmic perspective.
True
T or F: According to Carol Gilligan, Kohlberg greatly underplayed the justice perspective.
False
T or F: Resisting the temptation to cheat, lie, or steal requires self-control.
True
T or F: According to psychoanalytic theory, the superego is the moral branch of the personality.
True
T or F: Empathy is an emotional state that requires the cognitive skill of perspective taking.
True
T or F: Service learning can increase self-esteem and raise the grades of participants.
True
T or F: Todd says, "Give Kenna an extra candy, because she is sick." This is an example of fairness based on merit.
False
T or F: "McKay should go first, because he got the best score." This is an example of fairness based on benevolence.
False
T or F: Young adults in less developed countries are more likely to be religious than their counterparts in more developed countries.
True
T or F: Eight out of ten cases of juvenile delinquency involve males..
True
T or F: Females are more interested in religion than males.
True
T or F: Viktor Frankl argued that individuals find meaning in their lives based on four main needs: purpose, morality, religion, and empathy.
False
Who's idea is this: "Believes that letting sibling conflicts escalate is not a good strategy."?
Laurie Kramer
Who's idea is this: "There is less parent-adolescent conflict in India."?
Reed Larson
Who's idea is this: "Described three important characteristics of sibling relationships."?
Judy Dunn
Who's idea is this: "There are seven main principles that determine whether a marriage will work."?
John Gottma
Who's idea is this: "Parents should be both warm/responding and controlling/demanding."?
Diana Baumrind
Who's idea is this: "The social contexts of development can be analyzed in terms of environmental systems."?
Urie Bronfenbrenner
A father and child represent a ____ subsystem. Raul and Louisa are adapting to midlife change as they prepare to launch their first child. This family is in the _____ stage of the family life cycle.
A) bidyadic
B) polyadic
C) dyadic
D) reciprocal
C) dyadic
Which of the following is not a subtle change in culture that has had a significant influence on the family today?
A) Longevity of older adults
B) Television, computers, and the Internet
C) Increased upward mobility of families
D) General dissatisfaction and restlessness
C) Increased upward mobility of families
At what age do many single adults make a conscious decision to marry or to remain single?
30
According to Bronfenbrenner, the microsystem is the:
A) influence from another setting that the individual does not experience directly.
B) culture in which the individual lives.
C) sociohistorical circumstance in which the individual lives.
D) setting in which the individual lives.
D) setting in which the individual lives.
According to Bronfenbrenner, the environmental system that consists of links between microsystems is called the:
A) mesosystem.
B) exosystem.
C) macrosystem.
D) chronosystem.
A) mesosystem.
Children socialize parents just as parents socialize children. This is an example of:
A) dyadic learning.
B) reciprocal socialization.
C) scaffolding.
D) sequential interaction.
B) reciprocal socialization.
Research suggests that:
A) cohabiting before marriage increases marital satisfaction.
B) cohabiting before marriage increases the likelihood of divorce.
C) cohabiting couples have less stress and pressure than married couples.
D) relationships in cohabitation are not as equal as in marriage.
B) cohabiting before marriage increases the likelihood of divorce.
In a cross-cultural study, Buss et al. (1990) found chastity to be the most important factor in marital selection in:
A) Japan
B) Ireland
C) Germany
D) China
D) China
One of the benefits of a happy marriage is:
A) increased longevity.
B) more financial security.
C) an improved gender identity.
D) better cognitive functioning.
A) increased longevity.
A divorced adult is likely to remarry within _____ years.
3
With respect to gay and lesbian relationships, researchers have found:
A) these relationships are similar to heterosexual relationships in their satisfactions, loves, and conflicts.
B) there are more conflicts in homosexual relationships than there are in heterosexual relationships.
C) gay and lesbian partners are generally more open about expressing their love than their heterosexual counterparts.
D) there is both more conflict and more satisfaction in homosexual relationships than in heterosexual relationships.
A) these relationships are similar to heterosexual relationships in their satisfactions, loves, and conflicts.
Jim and Joe have been together for 10 years in a committed relationship. They are now talking about adopting a child. Researchers have found that, when compared with children in heterosexual families, a child reared by a homosexual couple is:
A) no more likely to become homosexual.
B) more likely to have adjustment problems.
C) less likely to have mental health problems.
D) more likely to be unpopular with their peers.
A) no more likely to become homosexual.
Which of the following is a myth about parenting?
A) Parents who have children early (in their 20s) have more energy to cope with sleepless nights.
B) Parents who have children later (in their 30s) benefit from their life experiences and therefore engage in more competent parenting.
C) Parents who learn the right techniques can mold their children into what they want.
D) A baby places restrictions on the relationship between his or her parents.
C) Parents who learn the right techniques can mold their children into what they want.
When Matt gets into trouble, his parents use strict discipline and do not allow him to tell his side of the story. Matt's parents use _____ parenting.
authoritarian
Misha has been sent to his room for sitting on his baby sister. His mother talks with him about why he cannot treat his sister this way and about other, more acceptable ways for him to express his anger. Which parenting style does this exemplify?
A) Authoritarian
B) Authoritative
C) Permissive-indulgent
D) Permissive-indifferent
B) Authoritative
Which type of child maltreatment is characterized by failure to provide for a child's basic needs?
A) Emotional abuse
B) Physical punishment
C) Child neglect
D) Physical abuse
C) Child neglect
Parents who allow their child to miss school on an ongoing basis are guilty of:
A) psychological abuse.
B) child neglect.
C) emotional abuse.
D) mental injury.
B) child neglect.
Conflict with parents escalates most often during:
A) early adolescence.
B) middle adolescence.
C) late adolescence.
D) the college years.
A) early adolescence.
Talia, age 16, has a secure attachment with her parents. One might expect she will:
A) have trouble breaking away from her parents to form peer relationships.
B) tend to be more dependent in her relationships.
C) have a lower sense of her self-worth.
D) have better relations with her peers than her insecurely attached peers.
D) have better relations with her peers than her insecurely attached peers.
Anita and Larry were always close as children. Now that they are in middle adulthood, we would expect that they would:
A) still be close.
B) be less close, particularly if they live in different parts of the country.
C) be less close no matter where they live.
D) be able to count on each other in times of crisis, but otherwise not maintain much contact.
A) still be close.
Parents are likely to treat their firstborns differently than their later-born children in that they:
A) have higher expectations for later-born children.
B) put more pressure on the firstborn for achievement and responsibility.
C) interfere less with the firstborn's activities.
D) give the firstborn less attention than later-born children.
B) put more pressure on the firstborn for achievement and responsibility.
Which of the following is likely to have the least influence on behavior?
A) Heredity
B) Parenting styles
C) Temperament
D) Birth order
D) Birth order
Which parent is more likely to use physical punishment?
A) An African American parent
B) A non-Latino White parent
C) Swedish parents
D) Both a and c
A) An African American parent
Which group has the closest intergenerational relationship?
A) Mothers and sons
B) Fathers and sons
C) Mothers and daughters
D) Fathers and daughters
C) Mothers and daughters
Which adults are part of the "sandwich" generation?
A) Old adults
B) The oldest old adults
C) Young adults
D) Middle-aged adults
D) Middle-aged adults
T or F: Emotional problems during launching can be solved by a complete cutoff from the family of origin.
False
T or F: Marriage is a similar experience for men and women.
False
T or F: Retirement, grandchildren, and more attention to hobbies usually characterize the final stage of the family life cycle.
True
T or F: Socialization between parents and children is a reciprocal process.
True
T or F: Happily married parents are more sensitive, responsive, warm, and affectionate toward their children.
True
T or F: There has been a dramatic rise in the percentage of single adults.
True
T or F: Living together before marriage is a way to decrease the chance of divorce.
False
T or F: Relationships between cohabitating men and women tend to be more equal than between husbands and wives.
True
T or F: Domesticity is a highly valued spousal trait in Canada.
False
T or F: Premarital education increased the likelihood of marital satisfaction.
True
T or F: Most divorces occur in the 10th to 15th year of marriage.
False
T or F: After divorce, most people remarry.
True
T or F: Most homosexual couples are comprised of a partner who is masculine and a partner who is feminine.
False
T or F: The use of corporal punishment to discipline children is legal in every state in America.
True
T or F: Staying married for the sake of the children is the main reason many people take so long to become divorced.
False
Who's idea is this: "Aggressive peer-rejected boys are more impulsive, more emotionally reactive, and have fewer social skills."?
John Coie
Who's idea is this: "People choose close friends over new friends as they grow older."?
Laura Carstensen
Who's idea is this: "Economic stressors diminish adolescents' belief in the utility of education."?
Vonnie McLoyd
Who's idea is this: "Play is satisfying because it satisfies the drive to explore."?
Daniel Berlyne
Who's idea is this: "Aggressive boys are more likely to perceive another child's actions as hostile."?
Kenneth Dodge
Who's idea is this: "The concept of culture can be described using a number of characteristics."?
Richard Brislin
Who's idea is this: "Children learn reciprocity through interaction with their peers."?
Harry Stack Sullivan
Who's idea is this: "Play is an important aspect of a young child's development."?
Jean Piaget
One of the most important functions of the peer group is to:
A) foster love and understanding.
B) provide playmates for the child.
C) teach the importance of friendship.
D) teach about the world outside the family.
D) teach about the world outside the family.
Anna Freud studied orphan children who banded together after their parents were killed in World War II. She found that these children:
A) were aloof with outsiders and supportive of one another.
B) adopted a care-taking adult to help them feel more secure and comfortable.
C) were wary of each other and formed a dependence on a neighboring adult.
D) depended too much on each other and developed serious disorders after the war.
A) were aloof with outsiders and supportive of one another.
The term sociometric status is used to describe the extent to which:
A) an individual's income affects their social relationships.
B) a family is accepted into the established groups within a community.
C) a child is liked or disliked by his or her peer group.
D) an individual's education affects their social relationships.
C) a child is liked or disliked by his or her peer group.
Samantha has few friends at school. Other children pay little attention to her, but no one actively dislikes her. Samantha is a _______ child.
neglected
Pedro is a rejected child. To teach him how to gain popularity with his peers, Pedro's counselor should encourage him to:
A) join a group of peers, but avoid asking them questions.
B) gain status by talking about items of personal interest to him.
C) get his peers' attention through some positive activity.
D) learn to regulate his emotions.
C) get his peers' attention through some positive activity.
The most frequent type of bullying is being belittled about:
A) learning disabilities.
B) appearance or speech.
C) family members.
D) choice of friends.
B) appearance or speech.
During adolescence, conformity to peers peaks at around the ____ grades.
ninth and tenth
Which of the following statements is true in regards to cliques?
A) Clique members are usually of the same sex.
B) Cliques average about 20 to 25 individuals.
C) Individuals are members of cliques based on reputation.
D) Cliques are large groups of individuals who participate in similar activities.
A) Clique members are usually of the same sex.
According to Brown and Lohr (1987), "populars" are:
A) athletically-oriented students.
B) middle-of-the-road students.
C) students low in intellectual abilities.
D) well-known students who lead social activities.
D) well-known students who lead social activities.
A study of crowd membership by Brown and Lohr (1987) revealed that the individuals with the lowest self-esteem were the:
A) jocks.
B) populars.
C) druggies.
D) nobodies.
D) nobodies.
Which developmentalist believed that play is exciting and pleasurable because it satisfies our exploratory drive?
A) Daniel Berlyne
B) Lev Vygotsky
C) Jean Piaget
D) Sigmund Freud
A) Daniel Berlyne
Parten's play categories are examples of increasingly complex and interactive:
A) pretense/symbolic play.
B) social play.
C) instructional play.
D) academic play.
B) social play.
Ronald watches two other children play marbles, and, although he does not join the game, he asks them a lot of questions about the rules and who owns which marbles. Ronald's behavior is an example of:
A) solitary play.
B) onlooker play.
C) unoccupied play.
D) passive-observer play.
B) onlooker play.
Several children are playing with blocks. They all take blocks from the same big pile, but they are each building their own structures without anyone else's help. The children's behavior is an example of:
A) parallel play.
B) onlooker play.
C) associative play.
D) cooperative play.
A) parallel play.
When a 2-year-old pretends to "eat" a book and uses this type of play as a funny way to explore ideas and symbols, the play is referred to as:
A) associative.
B) cooperative.
C) constructive.
D) pretense/symbolic.
D) pretense/symbolic.
Practice play:
A) increases in frequency during the elementary school years.
B) occurs throughout life.
C) revolves around the use of symbols.
D) is done for pleasure only.
B) occurs throughout life.
Which social theory of aging argues that aging is promoted through negative psychological functioning?
A) Socioemotional selectivity theory
B) Disengagement theory
C) Activity theory
D) Social breakdown-reconstruction theory
D) Social breakdown-reconstruction theory
Omar, an older retired adult who maintains his interest in friends, gold, and the stock market, illustrates which theory of aging?
A) Engagement theory
B) Disengagement theory
C) Activity theory
D) Social construction theory
C) Activity theory
Rachel is developing an increasing self-preoccupation and a decreasing interest in society's affairs. Which social theory of aging would account for Rachel's behavior?
A) Activity theory
B) Disengagement theory
C) Socioemotional selectivity
D) Selective optimization with compensation
B) Disengagement theory
Cultures that emphasize individualism:
A) value the interdependence of its members.
B) place little value on achievement.
C) give priority to personal goals.
D) focus on the preservation of group integrity.
C) give priority to personal goals.
Which of the following countries is described as collectivistic?
A) Thailand
B) Great Britain
C) Netherlands
D) Canada
A) Thailand
Kong Meng grew up in a culture that placed more value on harmonious relationships than it did on personal goals. He grew up in what type of society?
A) Collectivistic
B) Individualistic
C) Communistic
D) Socialistic
A) Collectivistic
A ceremony that marks an individual's transition from one status to another is called a:
A) rite of passage.
B) transitory stage.
C) period of transition.
D) ritualistic transition.
A) rite of passage.
In most cultures, the rite of passage is designed to:
A) maintain a controlled and responsible level of birth rate.
B) test whether adolescents are ready for adult responsibilities.
C) test whether adolescents know enough about sexuality to begin selecting mates.
D) help the adolescent make the transition from their immediate family into adulthood.
D) help the adolescent make the transition from their immediate family into adulthood.
In the United States, the attainment of adult status:
A) is marked by reaching the legal drinking age.
B) occurs at the age of 16 years.
C) is clearly delineated in most states.
D) is ambiguous.
D) is ambiguous.
The fact that far more women than men live in poverty is referred to as:
A) single-parent poverty.
B) the feminization of poverty.
C) discriminatory poverty.
D) social adjustment poverty.
B) the feminization of poverty.
The average income of retired Americans is:
A) approximately 80 percent of what they earned at the time they retired.
B) about half of what they earned when they were fully employed.
C) greater than what they earned while working once we consider they have fewer work-related expenses such as meals, work clothes, etc.
D) about the same as what they earned while working once we consider they have fewer work-related expenses such as meals, work clothes, etc.
B) about half of what they earned when they were fully employed.
Research involving four ethnic groups found that mothers from which of the following groups were the least likely to display physical affection to their children?
A) African Americans
B) Asian Americans
C) European Americans
D) Latinos
A) African Americans
The tendency to favor one's own group over other groups is called:
A) prejudice.
B) cultural preference.
C) ethnocentrism.
D) racism.
C) ethnocentrism.
T or F: Children are likely to turn to their peers over parents in times of stress.
False
T or F: There is a direct link between perspective-taking competence and effective peer relations.
True
T or F: Aggressive boys are more likely to perceive another child's actions as benevolent when the child's intention is ambiguous.
False
T or F: Controversial children are infrequently nominated as someone's best friend and are actively disliked by their peers.
False
T or F: Girls are more likely to be involved in bullying than boys are.
False
T or F: Crowds are larger and less personal than cliques.
True
T or F: Intimacy in friendship grows substantially in adolescence.
True
T or F: Women tend to have more close friends and more intimate friendships than men do.
True
T or F: Sensorimotor play occurs primarily from infancy to the middle childhood period.
False
T or F: The most frequent form of ageism is disrespect for older adults.
True
T or F: Many Western cultures are described as collectivistic rather than individualistic.
False
T or F: The absence in the United States of clear-cut rites of passage to adulthood makes the attainment of adult status ambiguous.
True
T or F: Individualistic societies are the most adept at maintaining close and positive family relationships.
False
T or F: Persistent and long-standing poverty can have especially damaging effects on children.
True
T or F: Women are far more likely to live in poverty than men.
True
Who's idea is this: "Italian physician who first worked with mentally retarded children in Rome."?
Maria Montessori
Who's idea is this: "The concept of self-efficacy can be applied to many aspects of student achievement."?
Dale Schunk
Who's idea is this: "As the founder of kindergarten, understood that young children require careful nurturing."?
Friedrich Froebel
Who's idea is this: "The socioeconomic-status differences in achievement are stronger than the ethnic differences in achievement."?
Sandra Graham
Who's idea is this: "Asian students consistently outperform U.S. students."?
Harold Stevenson
Who's idea is this: "Funded efforts to reduce school dropout rates."?
Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation
Who's idea is this: "It is important for a career to match an individual's personality type."?
John Holland
Who's idea is this: "Developed the concept of the "jigsaw" classroom."?
Elliot Aronson
According to the __________ approach, children learn best in a teacher-centered classroom that focuses on the mastery of academic skills.
A) direct instruction
B) cognitive constructivist
C) social constructivist
D) whole learning
A) direct instruction
The belief that teachers should encourage collaborative learning opportunities is most characteristic of the __________ approach to student learning.
A) direct instruction
B) cognitive constructivist
C) social constructivist
D) whole learning
C) social constructivist
_______ is credited with the founding of the kindergarten.
A) Anna Freud
B) Friedrich Froebel
C) Maria Montessori
D) Jean Piaget
B) Friedrich Froebel
A criticism of the direct instruction approach is that it:
A) does not give enough attention to the content of a discipline.
B) is too relativistic and vague.
C) stresses creativity at the expense of curriculum content.
D) turns children into passive learners.
D) turns children into passive learners.
An instructor who uses developmentally inappropriate methods for teaching the alphabet would have young children:
A) recite the alphabet three times a day.
B) learn the alphabet through music.
C) learn the alphabet by using animal names and shapes.
D) draw the letters of the alphabet in the sandbox.
A) recite the alphabet three times a day.
Because Antonio is attending a school that has adopted the Montessori approach to education, we would expect him to be encouraged to learn by:
A) memorizing such things as the alphabet and the multiplication tables.
B) structuring his thought processes.
C) choosing his own learning activities.
D) incorporating his family into his educational process.
C) choosing his own learning activities.
Dr. James Comer founded:
A) the Montessori method.
B) Head Start.
C) No Child Left Behind.
D) The School Development Program.
D) The School Development Program.
Students entering middle school experience the top-dog phenomenon. They:
A) move from the lowest position in school to the top position in school.
B) move from the top position in school to the lowest position in school.
C) become the most powerful students in their school.
D) become the most responsible students in their school.
B) move from the top position in school to the lowest position in school.
Which group is the most likely to be suspended from school?
A) Non-Latinos Whites
B) Latinos
C) Native Americans
D) African Americans
D) African Americans
Which group of high school students has the highest dropout rate?
A) Native Americans
B) Latinos
C) African Americans
D) non-Latino Whites
A) Native Americans
The number of college freshmen today who report that they often feel depressed:
A) is lower than it was in the 1980s.
B) is higher than it was in the 1980s.
C) is about the same as it always has been.
D) includes most of the college freshman population.
B) is higher than it was in the 1980s.
This researcher developed the concept of the "jigsaw classroom."
A) Elliot Aronson
B) John Ogbu
C) Jacquelynne Eccles
D) John Holland
A) Elliot Aronson
The increase in adult education is a result of:
A) a need to update skills.
B) an increased high school dropout rate.
C) a lack of jobs.
D) pressure from employers.
A) a need to update skills.
The most common disability among schoolchildren in the United States is:
A) visual impairment.
B) learning disabilities.
C) mental retardation.
D) speech handicaps.
B) learning disabilities.
According to Linda Siegel, the definition of learning disabilities should include all of the following except:
A) a minimum IQ level.
B) a significant difficulty in a school-related area.
C) the exclusion of severe emotional disorders, second-language background, sensory disabilities, and/or specific neurological deficits.
D) an age range of onset.
D) an age range of onset.
Learning disabilities often appear in association with:
A) child neglect.
B) injury in childhood.
C) lead poisoning.
D) physical limitations.
C) lead poisoning.
Which of the following statements is false in regards to learning disabilities?
A) Most children receiving special education services in the United States have been diagnosed with a learning disability.
B) More boys than girls are classified as having a learning disability.
C) The percentage of children classified as having a learning disability has increased substantially.
D) Students with learning disabilities often have difficulty with math and/or reading.
A) Most children receiving special education services in the United States have been diagnosed with a learning disability.
The definitive cause of ADHD:
A) is a low level of certain neurotransmitters.
B) has not been found.
C) is environmental toxins.
D) is heredity.
B) has not been found.
Which is the most correct statement about the treatment of ADHD?
A) Medication alone is the best treatment.
B) Physicians are slow to prescribe medication for ADHD .
C) Medication used in the combination with behavior management is a better treatment than medication alone.
D) Medications given for ADHD pose no health risk to children.
C) Medication used in the combination with behavior management is a better treatment than medication alone.
Which law was passed in 1975 requiring all students with disabilities to be given a free, appropriate public education?
A) Individuals with Disabilities Education Act
B) Education for All Handicapped Children Act
C) Special Education Act
D) Education for the Mentally Retarded Act
B) Education for All Handicapped Children Act
An individualized education plan (IEP) includes:
A) a classroom curriculum that has been adapted to suit the needs of all children.
B) a curriculum designed for a specific disability.
C) a step-by-step program for teaching in inclusive classrooms.
D) an explicit program for a specific child.
D) an explicit program for a specific child.
Project Head Start is designed for:
A) young children from low-income families.
B) preschool children with learning disabilities.
C) young children from single-parent families.
D) preschool children with physical disabilities.
A) young children from low-income families.
Calvin likes his computer class because of his strong desire to learn computers and the enjoyment he gets from learning. Calvin is demonstrating _______ motivation.
intrinsic
When faced with a difficult task, Annette enjoys the challenge of generating solution-oriented strategies that improve her performance. Annette is exhibiting a _____ orientation.
mastery
When faced with a difficult task, Clint becomes anxious and his performance suffers. Clint is exhibiting a _____ orientation.
helpless
Juan tries to discover the underlying causes of his own and other people's behavior in an effort to make sense of behaviors. Juan's search for causes is explained by:
A) self-efficacy theory.
B) attribution theory.
C) social cognitive theory.
D) behavioral theory.
B) attribution theory.
Sun expends a great deal of effort eagerly working on learning tasks, and he persists for a long time on these tasks. According to Dale Schunk's (1989, 1991) findings on student achievement, Sun is high in:
A) self-esteem.
B) self-regulation.
C) self-control.
D) self-efficacy.
D) self-efficacy.
Judy, a secretary, tends to function best in well-structured circumstances and is skilled at working with details. Holland would classify Judy as having a(n) _______ career-related personality type.
conventional
The fastest-growing careers in the United States in the near future will be in the field of:
A) medicine.
B) education.
C) service industries.
D) criminal justice.
C) service industries.
An important change in older adults' work patterns is an increase in:
A) full-time work.
B) part-time work.
C) late retirement.
D) unpaid work.
B) part-time work.
T or F: Cognitive constructivist approaches to education emphasize the teacher's role in a child's education.
False
T or F: Child-centered kindergartens focus on individual academic achievement.
False
T or F: Some have criticized the Montessori approach as neglecting the social competency needs of children.
True
T or F: High schools in the United States need a major redesign if they are to be effective in educating adolescents.
True
T or F: Males are more likely than females to drop out of school.
True
T or F: Women represent the majority of adult learners.
True
T or F: The most common problem that characterizes children with a learning disability involves mathematics.
False
T or F: Attention Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder can be diagnosed as three different types: predominantly inattentive, predominantly hyperactive/impulsive, and combined.
True
T or F: Students served in special education are required by law to have an individualized education plan.
True
T or F: A jigsaw classroom approach may be helpful in improving relationships among ethnically diverse students.
True
T or F: Hallie loves working for the "bug bucks" her teacher awards to on-task students. This is an example of intrinsic motivation.
False
T or F: Classroom rewards are bad for student motivation and should be avoided.
False
T or F: Self-efficacy is the belief that efficiency is the key to success.
False
T or F: A special challenge for many ethnic minority students is dealing with negative stereotypes and discrimination.
True
T or F: According to Holland, realistic personality types will enjoy technical fields such as construction and engineering.
False
Lifespan development covers the period from _____ to _____.
conception/death
Naturalistic observation of children would be LEAST useful in a study of:
A) Types of aggression in preschoolers.
B) How different parenting styles affect children's emotional development.
C) The relationship between how mothers talk to their toddlers and the toddlers' development of language.
D) Children's changes in heart rate in response to violent television programs.
D) Children's changes in heart rate in response to violent television programs.
What was the main idea of David Buss' theory of evolutionary psychology?
Evolutionary processes can influence behavior as well as physical features.
What is the main reason that adult development has only recently been studied?
There was the belief that few changes occur in adulthood.
Which of the following is NOT true?
A) Research has shown that twin fetuses may engage in social contact during the prenatal stage.
B) Research has shown that learning occurs during the prenatal phase.
C) Research has shown that some reflexes appear in fetuses as early as the fifth month of pregnancy.
D) Research has shown that a fetus can recognize the voice of his or her mother by the 20th week of pregnancy.
D) Research has shown that a fetus can recognize the voice of his or her mother by the 20th week of pregnancy.
Dr. Santos designs studies to examine the influence of heredity and environment on individual differences in human traits and development. She investigates
behavior genetics
John Watson's claim that he can create any type of person, successful or not, good or bad, regardless of his or her talents or capabilities, by carefully controlling the environment in which he or she grows up in a radical _____ view of development.
behaviorist/learning
Which of the following correlation coefficients indicates the strongest relationship?
A) -0.93
B) +0.87
C) +0.13
D) -0.47
A) -0.93
Biology is to _____, as environment is to _____.
nature/nurture
The idea that experiences in infancy or early childhood can have significant impact on development at later stages was first supported by:
Freud
The life-span development concept of plasticity aligns most closely with which of the following:
A) Stability
B) Change
C) Nature
D) Nurture
B) Change
It is believed that many genes interact or influence a physiological characteristic. This is the concept of:
Polygenic inheritance
Brown hair (BB or Bb) is dominant over blonde hair, which is recessive (bb). A man with brown hair is married to a woman with blonde hair. Is there any chance that their children will have blonde hair?
Yes, if the man's genes are heterozygous and he passes on his recessive gene.
The concept that genes do not determine outcomes, but rather establish the upper and lower limits of potential for the individual's development, is called:
The range of reaction
Which of these is NOT a way in which genes can actually shape an individual's environment?
A) Parents can provide their children with environments that enhance their children's inborn temperament.
B) Children engage in niche picking, or the process of choosing experiences and surroundings that are compatible with their dispositions or strengths.
C) Adults can engage in activities that are outside their "comfort zone" as a way of exposing themselves to new experiences.
D) Children's inherited tendencies or personality characteristics evoke certain responses from people, which in turn reinforces those tendencies.
C) Adults can engage in activities that are outside their "comfort zone" as a way of exposing themselves to new experiences.
The hollow, fluid-filled ball of cells that forms several days after fertilization of the egg is called:
The blastocyst
Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE of a theory?
A) A theory is an interrelated, coherent set of ideas that helps explain phenomenon and make predictions.
B) Different theories contain many different ideas that may compliment as well as contradict other theories.
C) When studying a topic, it is advisable to choose one developmental theory and disregard all others.
D) No one theory will account for all aspects of life-span development.
C) When studying a topic, it is advisable to choose one developmental theory and disregard all others.
Suppose that an infant boy is born with the appropriate sex chromosomes (one X, one Y). On his chromosome, he has inherited a recessive gene for color blindness. There is no corresponding gene on his Y chromosome for this disorder. What will this boy's phenotype be?
He WILL be colorblind.
The epigenetic view of development states that development is:
the result of an ongoing, bidirectional interchange between heredity and the environment.
The main task of the zygote is to
Implant in the wall of the mother's uterus.
Which of these statements is TRUE about the membranes of the placenta and umbilical cord?
A) They allow direct exchange of blood between mother and child, but not the exchange of drugs, hormones, or viruses.
B) They do NOT allow direct exchange of blood between mother and child.
C) They allow ONLY oxygen to pass from mother to child.
D) They allow the exchange of blood, drugs, hormones, and viruses.
B) They do NOT allow direct exchange of blood between mother and child.
Mary is 7 weeks pregnant. What is TRUE about the current state of her pregnancy?
Her child is particularly susceptible to the effects of teratogens.
Gina is pregnant and is a heavy smoker. Which of the following is her baby more likely to suffer from than the baby of a nonsmoker?
Sudden Infant Death Syndrome
Each stage in Erikson's theory presents a crisis that must be resolved. These crises are:
Opportunities to further the healthy development of personality.
The big advantage of experimentation over all other research methods is that experiments:
Identify causal relationships between variables.
Katrina played basketball in high school and in college. She recently enrolled her son in a junior basketball league. This is an example of which type of genotype-environment correlation?
Passive
A strength of the longitudinal design is that it identifies:
Long-term individual differences among children.
According to Erikson, the main task of infancy is to:
Develop trust in other people
Pregnant women who take the drug Thalidomide were more likely to _____ than women who did not take that drug.
have babies with a limb deformity
The sex of an embryo is determined by the genetic contribution from the:
father
Piaget is to _____, as Vygotsky is to _____.
biology/social interaction
What is the chromosomal defect that underlies Down Syndrome?
A third chromosome in the 21st pair
Which of these is NOT a possible genotype for a female?
A) XXY
B) XXX
C) XX
D) XO
A) XXY
During which prenatal developmental period do the following changes take place? The eyes appear, the chambers of the heart take shape, and the spinal cord begins to form.
Embryonic
RH-factor incompatibility can present serious problems for:
subsequent pregnancies only
Lifespan researchers often describe development as multidirectional. What does this mean?
Development is characterized by both growth and decline.
One of the first things that happens following the implantation of a blastocyst in the wall of a mother's uterus is:
The release of human chorionic ganadotrophin to prevent the lining of the uterus from deteriorating.
Joe lives on a farm. He is the second of seven children in his very conservative family. Jackie is growing up in New York City as the only child of liberal parents. Which ecological system is different for Joe and Jackie?
Microsystem
The drug diethylstilbestrol (DES) generated unique teratogenic effects because the abnormalities:
Did not appear in the child until adolescence
Adoption studies are designed to test the effects of:
The home environment and the biological genes
The average newborn in the US weighs:
7.5 lbs
A woman may develop a recessive sex-linked defective genetic trait:
If she is heterozygous for the recessive gene
It has been shown that people who cut bananas eventually die. This does not prove that bananas are deadly because _____ does not equal _____.
correlation/causation
Professor X's research shows that participation in extracurricular activities is correlated with grades in school. Based on the findings from this one study, what can Professor X conclude?
Participation in extracurricular activities is related to grades.
In an experiment to determine the effect of an antidepressant medicine, half of the subjects receive the medication and half receive a placebo. The group of people who receive the placebo is the:
Control group
DeCasper and his colleagues (1980) trained newborns to vary their rate of sucking on the nipples in order to control which of two different tape recordings they heard. Newborns varied their sucking in order to hear the recording of their mothers reading "The Cat in the Hat," a story that the mothers had read to them while they were still in utero. They were not as interested in hearing their mothers read a story that had NOT been read to them while they were in utero. What can we infer from these results?
Humans have the capacity to recognize stimuli that they perceived while in utero.
Sheri answered a life satisfaction rating survey every five years between the ages of 20 and 65. What type of study was this?
Longitudinal
Which of the following is NOT a way in which the AIDS virus can be transferred from a mother to her baby?
A) During pregnancy through the sharing of blood from mother to fetus.
B) During pregnancy, across the placenta.
C) During delivery through contact with maternal blood or fluids.
D) After birth, via breastfeeding.
A) During pregnancy through the sharing of blood from mother to fetus.
When using children as participants in research studies, psychologists must:
not conduct research in any circumstances that might stress the child.
Natural selection favors individuals of a species that are best able to _____.
survive/reproduce
What is the BEST explanation for an extended juvenile period in human development?
During this time, humans develop a large brain and gain experience required to master the complexities of human societies.
What BEST explains the nature of genetic expression?
The activity of genes is affected by the internal and external environment.
What is formed when fertilization occurs?
Zygote
Which genetic disorder can be controlled by diet?
Phenylketonuria (PKU)
Newborn babies are likely to exhibit signs of withdrawal if a mother heavily used which terratogen?
Heroin
Laura has a negative RH factor, and her baby has a positive RH factor. Which of the following may happen?
A) Laura's antibodies may attack the fetus.
B) The baby may die soon after birth.
C) Miscarriage or stillbirth, brain damage, and/or heart defects.
D) All of the other answers are correct.
D) All of the other answers are correct.
According to Tiffany Field's research, what can increase weight gain, alertness, and activity in preterm infants?
Massage therapy
How can an infant be protected from contracting herpes from his or her infected mother?
Caesarian-section delivery prevents the baby from coming into contact with the infected areas and will prevent transmission.
The consequences of low birth weight for babies:
are worse the smaller the infant is.
A new father is concerned that his one-week-old son has lost 5 ounces since birth, he suggests that the baby should be given formula in addition to breast milk in order to help him gain weight. This dad is:
overreacting because most infants lose weight after birth.
Paying attention to only one characteristic of an object or problem to the exclusion of all others is:
Centration
The two functions of myelin are:
to protect the axon of the neuron and to speed the conductance of neural impulses.
Which theory of aging proposes that unstable oxygen molecules ricochet around cells, damaging DNA and other structures?
Free radical
James is going through puberty quite early. Research indicates that James is likely to:
have a positive self-image.
According to the program "To Walk," experience "driving" a mobile car device facilitates the development of _____ in infants.
depth perception
To foster infants' motor development, infancy experts recommend what?
Giving infants opportunities for exercise and motor activity.
Infants' stepping reflex disappears around 3 months of age. Why?
Infants' leg muscles are not yet strong enough to counteract their rapidly increasing lower-body weight, so the reflex is masked.
Which pair is correct?
A) Left hemisphere: withdrawal emotions
B) Right hemisphere: face perception
C) Left hemisphere: visual processing
D) Right hemisphere: grammar
B) Right hemisphere: face perception
Which disorder may be the result of the improper migration of neurons during prenatal brain development?
Schizophrenia
According to Esther Thelen, motor behaviors are assembled for perceiving and acting. Her theory is called the:
dynamic systems theory.
In individuals with brain trauma or disease, healthy brain cells are often observed to change function in order to "take over" the functions of the damaged cells. This illustrates the brain's:
plasticity.
Rats raised in an enriched environment were found to have "better" brains than rats raised in impoverished environments. Which of the following was NOT observed in the brains of the rats raised in enriched environments?
A) Their brains were bigger.
B) Their brains had more and stronger connections between neurons.
C) Their brains had higher levels of certain neurotransmitters that improve brain performance.
D) Their brains finished proliferating neurons earlier in development than average.
A) Their brains were bigger.
The disease of the eye that causes deterioration of the retina, blind spots, and poor overall vision is called:
Macular degeneration
What is one hypothesis as to why many psychological disorders are not diagnosed until adolescence or later?
The biochemical changes in the brain that are associated with many disorders do not occur until adolescence.
Alicia is 2 weeks old. What part(s) of the face is she most likely to focus on when she looks at another human?
The hairline
Parkinson's disease is associated with a severe decline to which neurotransmitter?
Dopamine
To which sound is a baby MOST likely to respond with interest and enthusiasm?
Mother's voice
Three-year-olds scribble all over the page, but four-year-olds can make more precise drawings that adults can understand. This is because four-year-olds have more highly developed:
Fine motor skills
Female breast development and the deepening of the voice in males are both:
Secondary sex characteristics
Al avoids driving at night because it is difficult for his eyes to adjust after he passes oncoming cars. Al is having a problem with:
Dark adaptation.
Children who experience physical abuse are more likely to be _____ than average.
shorter
What is the relationship between sensation and perception?
Perception cannot occur unless sensation takes place first.
If infants are able to engage in intermodal perception, this means that they are able to:
coordinate information across different senses
According to the DVD "To Walk," which of the following is NOT a key difference between the gait of an early walker and a more experienced walker?
A) Early walkers take shorter steps than experienced walkers.
B) Early walkers walk using a wider stance than experienced walkers.
C) Early walkers walk more quickly than experienced walkers.
D) Early walkers "wobble" more, or don't follow a straight path, compared to experienced walkers.
C) Early walkers walk more quickly than experienced walkers.
Adolescents process emotional information primarily in the _____, whereas adults process emotional information primarily in the _____.
amygdala; frontal lobes
When John strokes his newborn son's cheek with his finger, the infant turns his head toward John's finger, opens his mouth, and tries to suck on the finger. Which temporary reflex is John's son exhibiting?
Rooting response
The decline of fertility in women is known as:
Menopause
The most influential factor in delaying brain deterioration in old age is:
Mental stimulation
A two-month-old infant has learned to repeatedly brush her hand against her cheek in order to provide herself with stimulation. According to Piaget, this action is best described as a
Primary circular reaction
According to Piaget's search tasks, an infant younger than about 8 months will not search for a toy that is hidden from her, even if she is able to watch where the toy is hidden. How did Piaget account for this?
Infants younger than 8 months have not yet developed object permanence, and don't know that the toy is just out of view.
What typical teenager behavior is due to the Piagetian concept of imaginary audience?
Adolescents' extreme self-consciousness
A child who understands that the amount of clay does not differ when it is stretched into a long strip or rolled into a large ball has grasped the concept of:
conservation.
When Sue loosens her grip on her newborn son, he startles, flails his arms briefly, and then pulls his arms to the center of his body. This response is known as the:
Moro reflex
Ally tried to build her new puzzle using the same strategy always used. When that didn't work, Ally tried a new approach. When she tried the new approach, Piaget would say she had:
assimilated
What is the main androgen that plays an important role in male puberty development?
Testosterone
What condition (food-related) can delay puberty in boys and girls?
Undernutrition
Thirteen-year-old Jodi smokes and has a sixteen-year-old boyfriend. What might have influenced Jodi's behavior?
Early physical maturation
Aunya is growing up in an orphanage and receives very little emotional, mental, or physical stimulation and nurturing. Aunya's brain development will likely be:
depressed compared to peers raised in enriched environments
Thirteen-year-old Jonathan is impulsive and emotional. This may be due to increased activity and growth in the:
Amygdala and hippocampus.
According to Piaget, what is a child's motivation for change?
An internal search for equilibrium
According to Vygotsky's theory of cognitive development, scaffolding
A) Improves how well children internalize new strategies
B) Works best if the child is scaffolded by someone more knowledgeable than they are
C) Begins at birth
D) All of the answers are true
D) All of the answers are true
What is the name given to decreased responsiveness to a stimulus after repeated presentations of the stimulus?
Habituation
What is the main difference between the way younger people and older people respond to stress and physical pain?
Older people keep stress hormones in their system longer.
What mechanisms help infants survive before they have an opportunity to learn adaptive behavior?
Reflexes
According to the cephalocaudal growth pattern, which of the following would be likely to show fast growth first?
Brain
The research of Spelke and Baillargeon shows that infants as young as 3 or 4 months old are capable of object permanence. However, critics of their research question whether an infant's _____ is a valid measure of object permanence.
Longer looking time
Which of the following is NOT a reason why older people begin to slow down physically?
A) Neural noise
B) Decrease in GABA in the brain
C) Purposeful slowing down to remain safe and error-free
D) Decrease in nectylcholine in the brain
D) Decrease in nectylcholine in the brain
Third grader Tanya forms her cursive letters in small, even rows. What best accounts for her improving dexterity?
Increased myelination
Dr. Jackson measures how long an infant regards different visual stimuli and finds that the infant looks longer at certain stimuli than at others. Which experimental method is this?
Visual preference
Well developed gross motor skills allow infants to become more independent. Independence is important because it:
Allows more and different kinds of interactions with the environment.
Vygotsky's concept of the zone of proximal development is best described as:
The difference between what cognitive tasks a child can do alone versus what he can do with the help of an adult or older peer.
Sallie is a 9-month-old infant who has been crawling for several weeks. How do you expect she will behave on the visual cliff?
Sallie will be afraid of heights and refuse to cross the cliff to her mother.
Hearing can start to decline by the age of 40. What usually declines first?
Sensitivity to high pitches
Two-week old Shayli is presented with two nursing pads. One is soaked with her mother's breast milk and the other is clean. Shayli will most likely:
Prefer her mother's nursing pad
Infants develop behavioral schemes, whereas children develop _____ schemes.
Mental
Katrina leaves her 3-month-old son with a child-care provider. Piaget would argue that Katrina's son does not miss her because he has not developed:
Object permanence
The average newborn is _____ in weight and _____ inches long.
7.5 pounds/ 20
Sue would like to hang one picture above her baby's crib. What picture would attract the MOST attention from the infant?
A drawing of a face
Which of the following is not a component of infant temperament?
A) Irritability
B) Activity level
C) Soothability
D) Depression
D) Depression