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126 terms

Abdominal Final Exam

STUDY
PLAY
Historically, the development of ultrasound began shortly after:
a. Radio communication in World War I
b. Sonar in World War II
c. Nuclear testing in World War II
d. The launching of Sputnik
b. Sonar in World War II
The early applications of obstetric ultrasound were initiated by
a. Joseph Holmes
b. Ian Donald
c. John Howry
d. William Fry
b. Ian Donald
Visualization of the cardiac structures in the heart was discovered by
a. Joseph Holmes
b. Ian Donald
c. Hertz and Edler
d. George Ludwig
c. Hertz and Edler
Which one of the following statements about the role of sonographers is false?
a.Sonographers perform ultrasound studies and
gather diagnostic data independent of the
physician
b.Sonographers must possess intellectual
curiosity and perseverance
c. Sonographers must have a technical aptitude
d. Sonographers must be able to communicate
on different levels
a.Sonographers perform ultrasound studies and gather diagnostic data independent of the physician
The angle of reflection is equal to the
a. Acoustic impedance
b. Angle of incidence
c. Refraction
d. Image resolution
b. Angle of incidence
The display mode that shows time along the horizontal axis and depth along the vertical axis is
a. A mode
b. B mode
c. M mode
d. Real time
c. M mode
An example of subjective data in a health history is
a. The physician notes bruising on the middle back
b. The patient states he has back pain
c. X-ray examinations show calcification in the
pancreatic area
d. Magnetic resonance imaging shows
calcification in the pancreas
b. The patient states he has back pain
Which one of the following statements is inappropriate for the patient interview process
a. Assure the patient that the information will be
confidential
b. Be sure the patient understands English
c. Explain how the patient will receive information
about the results of the examination
d. Always use the patient's first name to establish
a friendly relationship
d. Always use the patient's first name to establish a friendly relationship
The signs and symptoms for appendicitis include all of the following except
a. Abdominal pain
b. McBurney sign
c. Nausea and vomiting
d. Bright rectal bleeding
d. Bright rectal bleeding
The enzyme that is released when fats and proteins reach the duodenum is
a. Cholecystokinin
b. Cholestasis
c. Choledochal
d. Cholesteremia
a. Cholecystokinin
The first step of urine formation is
a. Nephron diffusion
b. Glomerular filtration
c. Albuminuria
d. Homeostasis
b. Glomerular filtration
Which one of the following is a carbohydrate enzyme
a. Glucose
b. Amylase
c. Fatty acid
d. Lipase
b. Amylase
The items we look for during an ultrasound on the aorta include all of the following
a. Diameter
b. Calcification
c. Thrombus
d. Dissection
e. All of the above
e. All of the above
Clinical indications for the ultrasound of the aorta may include all but
a. Pulsatile abdominal mass
b. Bruit
c. Pain
d. Loss of blood supply to legs
e. Hypercoaguability
e. Hypercoaguability
An area in the aorta measuring 2.9cm is
a. Normal
b. Ecstatic
c. Aneurismal
d. Tortuous
b. Ecstatic
An aneurysm in a vessel is ____ times larger than the normal segment
a. 1
b. 1.5
c. 2
d. 2.5
b. 1.5
____ aneurysms involve all three layers
a. True
b. False
c. Mural
d. Saccular
a. True
Surgery is suggested for aneurysm's measuring ___ cm or larger
a. 3
b. 5
c. 8
d. 2
b. 5
Risk factors for aneurysm include all of the following except
a. Smoking
b. Family history
c. COPD
d. Diabetes
d. Diabetes
The procedures utilized in correcting the AAA are
a. Angioplasty
b. Endografting
c. Open repair
d. Bypass grafting
Two possible answers:

b. Endografting
c. Open repair
Blood escapes through a hole in the intima of the vessel wall but is contained by the deeper layers of the aorta or by the adjacent tissue is called
a. Aneurysm
b. Pseudoaneurysm
c. AV fistula
d. Paraaortic nodes
b. Pseudoaneurysm
Masses that can stimulate AAA are all of the following except
a. Retroperitoneal tumor
b. AV fistula
c. Fibrous uterus
d. Paraaortic nodes
b. AV fistula
The IVC's proximal portion is
a. The part near the iliacs
b. The part near the liver
c. The part near the renal arteries
d. The part entering the right atria
a. The part near the iliacs
Reasons for an abnormal IVC on an ultrasound include
a. Thrombus
b. Tumor
c. Dilation
d. Congenital abnormality
e. All of the above
e. All of the above
What is the purpose of an IVC filter (fill in the blank)
To prevent a clot from entering the lungs from the lower extremities
Examples of nonresistive arteries are all of the following except
a. Internal carotid artery
b. External carotid artery
c. Renal
d. Hepatic
b. External carotid artery
Budd Chiari is caused seen as (worded per exam)
a. Thrombus in IVC or hepatic veins
b. Thrombus in aorta and tributaries
c. Thrombus in renal veins
d. Thrombus in renal arteries
a. Thrombus in IVC or hepatic veins
The portal triad contains all but
a. Portal vein
b. Aorta
c. Hepatic artery
d. Bile duct
b. Aorta
The abdominal aorta starts at what level
a. Diaphragm
b. Iliacs
c. Umbilicus
d. Sternum
a. Diaphragm
To control the growth in an abdominal aorta, one must control what
a. Temperature
b. Blood pressure
c. Oxygen levels
d. Red blood cells
b. Blood pressure
A sudden drop in hematocrit may be a sign of what
a. Budd Chiari
b. Aortic rupture
c. Paraaortic nodes
d. Necrosis
b. Aortic rupture
If you see an aneurysm in the aorta, the minimum measurements you will take in a sagittal plane will be what
a. Single level, one proximal, one mid, one distal,
each iliac
b. Proximal, mid, distal, iliacs, and one at the
aneurysm
c. Proximal, mid, distal, before aneurysm, max
aneurysm, below aneurysm and iliacs
d. Single level max aortic size
c. Proximal, mid, distal, before aneurysm, max aneurysm, below aneurysm and iliacs
Budd Chiari syndrome is rare disorder caused by obstruction of the
a. Portal veins
b. Superior mesenteric vein
c. Hepatic veins
d. Splenic vein
c. Hepatic veins
Echinococcal cysts have the highest incidence in countries in which
a. Fishing is common
b. Rock climbing is prevalent
c. Poultry is abundant
d. Sheep grazing is common
d. Sheep grazing is common
The most common benign tumor of the liver is
a. Mesenchymal hamartoma
b. Adenoma
c. Cavernous hemangioma
d. Infantile hemangioendothelioma
c. Cavernous hemangioma
Patients who have hepatocellular carcinoma are likely to have had
a. Hemochromatosis
b. Adenosis
c. Cirrhosis
d. Carcinosis
c. Cirrhosis
The most common form of neoplastic involvement of the liver is
a. Metastases
b. Hepatocellular carcinoma
c. Hepatoma
d. Hamartoma
a. Metastases
Diminished vascular structures within the liver parenchyma most likely represent
a. Obstructive portal disease
b. Cirrhosis
c. Budd Chiari syndrome
d. Acute viral hepatitis
b. Cirrhosis
The falciform ligament extends from the umbilicus to the diaphragm in a parasagittal plane containing the
a. Ligamentum venosum
b. Ligamentum teres
c. Quadrates ligamentum
d. Ligamentum falciform
b. Ligamentum teres
Which one of the following tumors consists of large blood-filled spaces
a. Adenoma
b. Hamartoma
c. Ewing angioma
d. Cavernous hemangioma
d. Cavernous hemangioma
In glycogen storage disease, type I is the most common and is also known as ___ disease
a. von Gierk
b. von Gussel
c. von Gerpe
d. von Slurpie
a. von Gierk
The amebic abscess may reach the liver through the
a. Hepatic artery
b. Gastroduodenal artery
c. Hepatorectal artery
d. Portal vein
d. Portal vein
The portion of the liver that is not covered by the peritoneum is termed
a. Quadrate lobe
b. Caudate lobe
c. Riedel's lobe
d. Bare area
e. Left lobe
d. Bare area
The liver is covered by a thick membrane of collagenous fibers intermixed with elastic elements. This membrane is called
a. Glisson's capsule
b. Gerota's fascia
c. Bowman's capsule
d. Adipose capsule
e. Crosby's capsule
a. Glisson's capsule
The most common benign neoplasm of the liver is
a. Hemangioma
b. Angiomyolipoma
c. Focal nodular hyperplasia
d. Abscess
e. Adenoma
a. Hemangioma
One can image all of the following in a case of end stage liver disease except
a. Ascites
b. Small atrophied liver
c. Biliary dilation
d. Portal hypertension
e. Echogenic nodular liver
c. Biliary dilation
A 50 year old female with a long history of alcoholism presents with increased abdominal girth. A sonogram of the abdomen is performed and the most probable finding is
a. Liver metastases
b. Massive ascites with a small echogenic liver
c. Hepatoma
d. Gallstones with a mass in the lumen of the
gallbladder
e. Dilated intrahepatic biliary ducts
b. Massive ascites with a small echogenic liver
A patient presents with ampulla of Vater obstruction, distension of the gallbladder, and painless jaundice. This is associated with
a. Hydropic gallbladder
b. Choledochal cyst
c. Courvoisier's sign
d. Hartmann's pouch
e. Kehr's sign
c. Courvoisier's sign
Identify the gastrointestinal peptide hormone, which stimulates gallbladder contraction
a. Gastrin
b. Insulin
c. Lipase
d. Cholecystokinin
e. Alkaline phosphatase
d. Cholecystokinin
A patient presents with a dilated interhapatic duct, dilated gallbladder, and dilated common bile duct. Identify the level of obstruction this is most characteristic of
a. Proximal common bile duct
b. Distal common bile duct
c. Distal common hepatic duct
d. Cystic duct
e. Neck of the gallbladder
c. Distal common hepatic duct
A fold at the fundal portion of the gallbladder is usually called
a. Hartman's pouch
b. Juncitonal fold
c. Valves of Heister
d. Phrygian cap
e. Pouch of Douglas
d. Phrygian cap
A patient presents with empyema of the gallbladder, the sonographer should expect to find
a. Pus within the gallbladder
b. Common bile duct obstruction
c. Stones within the gallbladder
d. Abscess surrounding the gallbladder
e. Duplication of the gallbladder
a. Pus within the gallbladder
A 42 year old female presents postcholecystectomy with RUQ pain, elevated serum bilirubin, and bilirubin in her urine. This is best characteristic of
a. Hepatitis
b. Stone, tumor, or stricture causing obstruction
of the bile duct
c. Small common duct stone less than 5mm in
diameter
d. Alkaline phosphatase will be normal
e. Pancreatic pseudocyst
b. Stone, tumor, or stricture causing obstruction of the bile duct
A cause of a small gallbladder is
a. Prolonged fasting
b. Insulin dependent diabetes
c. Chronic cholecystitis
d. Hydrops
e. Ascites
c. Chronic cholecystitis
Nonshadowing, nonmobile, echogenic foci imaged within the gallbladder lumen are most likely
a. Polyps
b. Calculi
c. Biliary gravel
d. Sludge ball
e. Thin bile
a. Polyps
Hydrops of the gallbladder is
a. A small contracted gallbladder
b. A gallbladder with a thicken wall
c. A thick wall gallbladder filled with stones
d. Congenital duplication of the gallbladder
e. An enlarged gallbladder
e. An enlarged gallbladder
A 44 year old patient presents with painless jaundice and palpable RUQ mass. This is most characteristic of
a. Acute hepatitis
b. Cirrhosis
c. Porcelain gallbladder
d. Courvoisier gallbladder
e. Klatskin tumor
d. Courvoisier gallbladder
A six year old child presents with recurrent fever, RUQ pain, and jaundice. An abdominal sonogram is performed. The liver and gallbladder appear normal but a 2cm cyst is seen communicating with the CBD. This cystic structure most likely represents
a. A Choledochal cyst
b. A pseudocyst
c. An aortic aneurysm
d. A mucocele
e. Hydatid cyst
a. A Choledochal cyst
Calcification of the gallbladder wall is called
a. Cholesterolosis
b. Courvoisier gallbladder
c. Hydropic gallbladder
d. Porcelain gallbladder
d. Porcelain gallbladder
The causes of a large gallbladder include all of the following except
a. Adenomyomatosis
b. Pancreatic carcinoma
c. Diabetes mellitus
d. Fasting patient
e. Common bile duct obstruction
a. Adenomyomatosis
In cases of choledocholithiasis, stones tend to lodge in the
a. Pancreatic duct
b. Common bile duct
c. Ampulla of Vater
d. Common hepatic duct
c. Ampulla of Vater
A Phrygian cap of the gallbladder is
a. Partial septation
b. Calcification of the gallbladder wall
c. Septations within the organ
d. Folding of the fundus
d. Folding of the fundus
Gas-forming bacteria in the gallbladder appear on ultrasound as
a. Dilated round shape
b. Nonshadowing echogenic mass
c. Localized dilation
d. Bright echo with a comet tail artifact
d. Bright echo with a comet tail artifact
Classic symptoms of the gallbladder disease include all of the following except
a. Hematuria
b. RUQ pain
c. Right shoulder pain
d. Nausea and vomiting
a. Hematuria
Thickening of the gallbladder wall may be caused by all of the following except
a. Hepatitis
b. Pancreatitis
c. Adenomyomatosis
d. Cholecystitis
b. Pancreatitis
A fusiform dilation of the common bile duct that causes obstruction is known as
a. Choledochal cyst
b. Adenomyomatosis
c. Cholangitis
d. Phrygian cap
a. Choledochal cyst
Inflammation f the gallbladder is
a. Cholecystitis
b. Choledocholithiasis
c. Cholesterosis
d. Adenomyomatosis
a. Cholecystitis
The most common location of pancreatic pseudocyst
a. Lesser sac
b. Porta hepatis area
c. Groin
d. Splenic hilum
e. Mediastinum
a. Lesser sac
If a mass in the area of the pancreatic head is found, what other structure should be examined sonographically
a. The liver
b. The IVC
c. The spleen
d. The kidney
e. The bowel
a. The liver
The most common primary carcinoma of the pancreas is
a. Insulinoma
b. Cystadenocarcinoma
c. Adenocarcinoma
d. Pancreatic pseudocyst
e. Lymphoma
c. Adenocarcinoma
In comparison to the normal adult, the pancreas in children will be relatively
a. More echogenic
b. Less echogenic
c. The same echogenicity
d. Larger and less echogenic
e. Complex
d. Larger and less echogenic
An abdominal sonogram is performed and there is a suggestion of a mass in the head of the pancreas. Identify the other structures that should be evaluated
a. The biliary system and gallbladder to evaluate
biliary obstruction
b. The hepatic artery and splenic artery to
document dilatation
c. The kidneys to evaluate renal obstruction
d. Liver to evaluate focal masses
e. Spleen to document size
a. The biliary system and gallbladder to evaluate biliary obstruction
An older man with a history of alcoholism is recently diagnosed with acute pancreatitis. His hematocrit and hypotension levels are decreased. Your differential diagnosis includes
a. Hemorrhagic pancreatitis
b. Cholecystitis
c. Pseudocyst
d. Chronic pancreatitis
a. Hemorrhagic pancreatitis
A patient with painless jaundice, weight loss, and a decrease in appetite should be evaluated for
a. Cholecystitis
b. Adenocarcinoma of the pancreas
c. Pancreatitis
d. Pancreatic pseudocyst
b. Adenocarcinoma of the pancreas
Clinical signs and symptoms in acute pancreatitis include all of the following except
a. Severe abdominal pain radiating to the back
b. Severe abdominal pain radiating to the right
shoulder
c. Elevated amylase
d. Nausea and vomiting
b. Severe abdominal pain radiating to the right shoulder
A most common cause of acute pancreatitis in the United States is
a. Colitis
b. Alcohol intake
c. Biliary tract disease
d. Pancreatic malignancy
c. Biliary tract disease
The pancreas is reflective in its sonographic appearance because of the multiple
a. Islets of Langerhans
b. Cooper ligaments
c. Small glands or acini
d. Fat between the lobules
d. Fat between the lobules
The persistence of the dorsal and ventral pancreas with the head encircling the duodenum is called
a. Hypoplasia
b. Cystic fibrosis
c. Agenesis
d. Annular pancreas
d. Annular pancreas
A condition that causes increased secretion of abnormal mucus by the exocrine gland is
a. Cystic fibrosis
b. Fibrocystic disease of the pancreas
c. Diabetes
d. Cystic mucosal disease
a. Cystic fibrosis
Gallstones are present in 40% to 60% of patients with
a. Chronic pancreatitis
b. Annular pancreas
c. Cystic fibrosis
d. Acute pancreatitis
d. Acute pancreatitis
In cases of acute pancreatitis, the parenchyma of the pancreas generally appears
a. Homogeneous
b. Echogenic
c. Calcified
d. Hypoechoic
d. Hypoechoic
The pancreas is found behind the ___ omental sac
a. Greater
b. Inferior
c. Superior
d. Lesser
d. Lesser
The head of the pancreas lies
a. Anterior to the liver
b. Posterior to the aorta
c. Medial to the duodenum
d. Lateral to the IVC
c. Medial to the duodenum
The ___ passes through a groove posterior to the pancreatic head
a. Common bile duct
b. Gastroduodenal artery
c. Hepatic duct
d. SMV
a. Common bile duct
The tail of the pancreas is located
a. Posterior to the left kidney, near the splenic
hilum
b. Anterior to the left kidney, near the splenic hilum
c. Posterior to the right kidney, near the liver hilum
d. Anterior to the right kidney, near the liver hilum
b. Anterior to the left kidney, near the splenic hilum
The primary pancreatic duct is the duct of ____
a. Santorini
b. Ampulla
c. Vater
d. Wirsung
d. Wirsung
Parapelvic cysts are located in the
a. Renal hilum
b. Renal cortex
c. Lower pole
d. Pararenal space
a. Renal hilum
The most common solid renal mass found in childhood is
a. Renal cell carcinoma
b. Angiomyolipoma
c. Wilm's tumor
d. Von Hippel-Lindau tumor
c. Wilm's tumor
Fusion of the lower pole of the kidneys is called
a. Cross-renal ectopia
b. Pelvic kidney
c. Supernumerary kidney
d. Horseshoe kidney
d. Horseshoe kidney
The most echogenic portion of the kidney is (are) the
a. Cortex
b. Sinus
c. Medullary pyramids
d. Parenchyma
b. Sinus
A cortical bulge in the lateral border of the kidney is called a(n)
a. Junctional parenchmal defect
b. Dromedary hump
c. Extrarenal pelvis
d. Column of Bertin
b. Dromedary hump
A dilated renal pelvis without ureteral dilation is observed in patients with
a. Hydronephrosis
b. Posterior urethral valve obstruction
c. Ureteropelvic junction obstruction
d. Ureterocele
c. Ureteropelvic junction obstruction
Which one of the following clinical findings is the most likely reason for a renal artery duplex examination
a. Hypertension
b. Oliguria
c. Hematuria
d. Severe flank pain
a. Hypertension
A renal sonogram is performed. The findings of hypoechoic areas adjacent to the renal sinus is most consistent with
a. Bifid renal pelvis
b. Renal pyramid
c. Column of Bertin
d. Junctional parenchymal defect
b. Renal pyramid
A common finding in people over 50 years of age is
a. Renal calculi
b. Renal cysts
c. Multicystic disease
d.Hypernephroma
b. Renal cysts
Renal vein thrombosis may be visualized in patients with
a. Pyelonephritis
b. Renal calculi
c. Renal cell carcinoma
d. Angiomyolipoma
c. Renal cell carcinoma
The process of disposing metabolic wastes is called
a. Urea
b. Excretion
c. Deamination
d. Urination
b. Excretion
The kidneys are located in the
a. Peritoneal cavity
b. Retroperitoneal cavity
c. Perirenal cavity
d. Perirenal space
b. Retroperitoneal cavity
The left kidney is in contact with the
a. Spleen, pancreas, and gallbladder
b. Spleen, gallbladder, and duodenum
c. Pancreas, colon, and porta hepatis
d. Spleen, pancreas, colon, and jejunum
d. Spleen, pancreas, colon, and jejunum
The right kidney is in contact with the
a. Spleen, colon, and adrenal gland
b. Liver, colon, and adrenal gland
c. Liver, pancreas, and gallbladder
d. Liver, gallbladder, and splenic flexure
b. Liver, colon, and adrenal gland
A triangular-shaped lesion on the peripheral border f the kidney most likely represents a(n)
a. Renal tumor
b. Artifact from rib
c. IVC compression
d. Junctional parenchymal defect
d. Junctional parenchymal defect
The left renal vein courses
a. Posterior to the IVC
b. Anterior to the IVC
c. Anterior to the aorta
d. Anterior to eh SMA
c. Anterior to the aorta
Renal sonography is not helpful in evaluating
a. Obstructive uropathy
b. Cyst formation
c. Renal function
d. Angiomyolipoma
c. Renal function
A potential space located between the liver edge and right kidney is
a. Morison's pouch
b. Douglas' pouch
c. Cul-de-sac
d. Winhauer space
a. Morison's pouch
Pyonephrosis refers to the presence of
a. Blood in a dilated collecting system
b. Pus in a dilated collected system
c. Urine in a dilated collecting system
d. A perinephric abscess
b. Pus in a dilated collected system
A benign vascular fatty tumor of the kidney is called
a. Angiomyolipoma
b. Hypernephroma
c. Neuroblastoma
d. Lymphoma
a. Angiomyolipoma
Hydronephrosis may be best demonstrated sonographically by which one of the following patterns
a. Distorted shape of the kidney outline
b. Multiple cystic masses throughout the renal
parenchyma
c. Fluid-filled pelvocaliceal collecting system
d. Hyperechoic pelvocaliceal collecting system
c. Fluid-filled pelvocaliceal collecting system
Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease may be characterized by all of the following statements except
a. The disease is latent until the fourth or fifth
decade of life
b. The severity of the disease varies, depending
on the genotype
c. The disease may be associated with cysts in
the liver, pancreas, and spleen
d. The involved kidneys are small and extremely
echogenic
d. The involved kidneys are small and extremely echogenic
The most common location of renal ectopia is in the
a. Pelvis
b. Intrathoracic
c. Epigastric region
d. Retroperitoneum
a. Pelvis
Which one of the following disorders does not produce a complex sonographic pattern
a. Infected cyst
b. Hemorrhagic cyst
c. Hematomas
d. Congenital simple cyst
d. Congenital simple cyst
Which one of the following describes a bladder diverticulum
a. Cystic enlargement of the bladder orifice
b. Echogenic mass of the bladder wall
c. Herniation of the bladder wall
d. Focal thickening of the bladder wall
c. Herniation of the bladder wall
Which one of the following statements about the spleen is false
a. The spleen lies inferior to the diaphragm
b. The normal adult spleen measures
approximately 7cm in width
c. The spleen is located within the retroperitoneum
d. The spleen lies in the posterior to the
hypochondrium
c. The spleen is located within the retroperitoneum
Splenomegaly may result from all of the following except
a. Trauma
b. Congestion
c. Subphrenic abscess
d. Collagen vascular disease
c. Subphrenic abscess
An abnormal decrease in platelets may be the result of a(n)
a. Infection
b. Bone marrow disorder
c. Internal hemorrhage
d. Allergic reaction
c. Internal hemorrhage
In the early stages of sickle cell anemia the spleen generally appears
a. Atrophied
b. Heterogeneous
c. Enlarged
d. Hyperechoic
c. Enlarged
Which one of the following statements describes the correct anatomic location f the structures adjacent to the spleen
a. The diaphragm is anterior, lateral, and inferior
to the spleen
b. The fundus of the stomach and lesser sac are
medial and posterior to the splenic hilum
c. The left kidney lies inferior and medial to the
spleen
d. The right adrenal and kidney lie superior to the
spleen
c. The left kidney lies inferior and medial to the spleen
Splenic infarction is most commonly the result of
a. Cardiac emboli
b. Splenomegaly
c. Splenic trauma
d. Pneumonia
a. Cardiac emboli
When accessory spleens are present they are usually located
a. At the inferior margin of the spleen
b. On the posterior aspect of the spleen
c. Near the hilum of the spleen
d. Near the kidney
c. Near the hilum of the spleen
The splenic vein courses along the posterior border of the
a. Spleen
b. Kidney
c. Pancreas
d. Adrenal gland
c. Pancreas
Primary tumors that may metastasize to the spleen originate from all of the following structures except
a. Kidney
b. Ovary
c. Stomach
d. Brain
d. Brain
The best patient position to evaluate the spleen is
a. Supine
b. Left lateral decubitus
c. Left posterior oblique
d. Right decubitus
d. Right decubitus
Which one of the following symptoms is the most symptom in patients with a splenic hemartoma
a. Asymptomatic
b. Epigastric pain
c. Abdominal pain
d. RUQ pain
a. Asymptomatic
A spleen that has migrated from its normal location is termed
a. Accessory spleen
b. Wandering spleen
c. Ectopic spleen
d. Splenomegaly
b. Wandering spleen
In the adult, splenomegaly is diagnosed when the lengthof the spleen exceeds ___ cm
a. 11
b. 12
c. 13
d. 14
c. 13
Atrophy of the spleen may be found in all of the following except
a. Normal individuals
b. Wasting diseases
c. Sickle cell anemia
d. Cirrhosis
d. Cirrhosis
A chronic disease of unknown causes that involves all bone marrow elements is
a. Thalassemia
b. Polycythemia vera
c. Leukemia
d. Hodgkin disease
b. Polycythemia vera