Created from the Gleim 2012 Private Pilot FAA Knowledge Test. Includes all know FAA questions.
Does not include questions that reference charts or other images.
Does not include Recreational Pilot knowledge
This set is only intended to be used by people who have purchased the Gliem Private Pilot books.
What is one purpose of wing flaps?
To enable the pilot to make steeper approaches to a landing without increasing the airspeed.
One of the main functions of flaps during approach and landing is to:
Increase the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed.
What is the purpose of the rudder on an airplane?
To control yaw.
Which is not a primary flight control surface? A. Flaps B. Stabilator C Ailerons
The elevator controls movement around which axis?
Which statement is true concerning primary flight controls? A. The effectiveness of each control surface increases with speed because there is more flow over them B. Only when all three primary flight controls move in sequence do the airflow and pressure distribution change over and around the airfoil. C. Primary flight controls include ailerons, rudder, elevator, and trim systems
A. The effectiveness of each control surface increases with speed because there is more flow over them.
Which of the following is true concerning flaps? A. Flaps are attached to the leading edge of the wing and are used to increase wing lift. B. Flaps allow an increase in the angle of descent without increasing airspeed. C. Flaps are high drag devices deployed from the wings to reduce lift.
B. Flaps allow and increase in the angle of descent without increasing airspeed.
Which device is a secondary flight control? A. Spoilers B. Ailerons C. Stabilators
Trim systems are designed to do what?
They relieve the pilot of the need to maintain constant back pressure on the flight controls.
The four forces acting on an airplane in flight are:
Lift, Weight, Thrust, & Drag
When are the four forces that act on an airplane in equilibrium?
During unaccelerated flight.
What is the relationship of lift, drag, thrust, and weight when the airplane is in straight-and-level flight?
Lift equals weight. Thrust equals drag.
Which statement relates to Bernoulli's principle?
Air traveling faster over the curve upper surface of an airfoil causes lower pressure on the top surface.
The term "angle of attack" is defined as the angle...
between the wing chord line and the relative wind.
Angle of attack is defined as the chord line of an airfoil and the...
Direction of the relative wind.
The angle of attack at which an airplane wing stalls will...
Remain the same regardless of gross weight.
As altitude increases, the indicated airspeed at which a given airplane stalls in a particular configuration will...
Remain the same regardless of altitude.
In what flight condition must an aircraft be placed in order to spin?
During a spin to the left, which wing(s) is/are stalled?
Both wings are stalled.
How will frost on the wings of an airplane affect takeoff performance?
Frost will disrupt the smooth flow of air over the wing, adversely affecting its lifting capability.
Why is frost considered hazardous to flight?
Frost spoils the smooth flow of air over the wings, thereby decreasing lifting capability.
How does frost affect the lifting surfaces of an airplane on takeoff?
Frost my prevent the airplane from becoming airborne at normal takeoff speed.
What is ground effect?
The result of inference of the surface of the earth with the airflow patterns about an airplane.
Floating caused by the phenomenon of ground effect will be most realized during an approach to land when at...
Less than the length of the wingspan above the surface.
What must a pilot be aware of as a result of ground effect?
Induced drag decreases; therefor, any excess speed at the point of flare may cause considerable floating.
Ground effect is most likely to result in which problem?
Becoming airborne before reaching recommended takeoff speed.
What force makes an airplane turn?
The horizontal component of lift.
An airplane said to be inherently stable will...
require less effort to control.
What determines the longitudinal stability of an airplane?
The location of the CG with respect to the center of lift.
Changes in the center of pressure of a wing affect the aircraft's...
Aerodynamic balance and controllability.
An airplane has been loaded in such a manner that the CG is located aft of the aft CG limit. One undesirable flight characteristic a pilot might experience with this airplane would be...
Difficulty in recovering from a stalled condition.
What causes an airplane (except a T-tail) to pitch nosedown when power is reduced and controls are not adjusted?
The downwash on the elevators from the propeller slipstream is reduced and the elevator effectiveness is reduced
Loading an airplane to the most aft CG will cause the airplane to be...
Less stable at all speeds.
In what flight condition is torque effect the greatest in a single-engine airplane?
Low airspeed, high power, high angle of attack.
The left turning tendency of an airplane caused by P-factor is the result of the...
Propeller blade descending on the right, producing more thrust than the ascending blade on the left.
When does P-factor cause the airplane to yaw to the left?
When at high angles of attack.
The amount of excess load that can be imposed on the wing of an airplane depends upon the...
Speed of the airplane.
Which basic flight maneuver increases the load factor on an airplane as compared to straight-and-level flight?
During an approach to a stall, an increased load factor will cause the aircraft to...
Stall at a high airspeed.
In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the north if...
An aircraft is accelerated while on an east of west heading.
During flight, when are the indications of a magnetic compass accurate?
Only in straight-and-level unaccelerated flight.
Deviation in a magnetic compass is caused by the...
Magnetic fields within the aircraft distorting the lines of magnetic force.
In the Northern Hemisphere, if an aircraft is accelerated or decelerated, the magnetic compass will normally indicate...
Correctly when on a north or south heading.
In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate initially a turn toward the west if...
A right turn is entered from a north heading.
In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the south when...
The aircraft is decelerated while on a west heading.
In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate initially a turn toward the east if...
A left turn is entered from a north heading.
What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from a south heading in the Northern Hemisphere?
The compass will indicate a turn to the right, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring.
The pitot systems provides impact pressure for what instrument?
Which instrument will become inoperative if the pitot tube becomes clogged?
If the pitot tube and outside static vents become clogged, which instruments would be affected?
The altimeter, airspeed indicator, & vertical speed indicator.
Which instrument(s) wil become inoperative if the static vents become clogged?
Airspeed, altimeter, and vertical speed.
What does the red line on an airspeed indicator represent?
What is an important airspeed limitation that is not coded on airspeed indicators?
What is absolute altitude
The vertical distance of the aircraft above the surface.
What is true altitude?
The vertical distance of the aircraft above sea level.
What is density altitude?
The pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature.
Under what conditions is pressure altitude and density altitude the same value?
At standard temperature.
Under what condition is indicated altitude the same as true altitude?
When at sea level under standard conditions.
Under what condition will pressure altitude be equal to true altitude?
When standard atmospheric conditions exist.
What is pressure altitude?
The altitude indicated when the barometric pressure scale is set to 29.92.
Altimeter setting is the value to which the barometric pressure scale of the altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates...
True altitude at field elevation.
If it is necessary to set the altimeter from 29.15 to 29.85 what change occurs?
700 foot increase in indicated altitude. (The altimeter-indicated altitude moves in the same direction as the altimeter setting and changes about 1,000 ft. for every change of 1" Hg.)
If a pilot changes the altimeter setting from 30.11 to 29.96 what is the approximate change in indication?
Altimeter will indicate 150 feet lower.
If a flight is made from an area of low pressure into an area of high pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate...
Lower than the actual altitude above sea level.
If a flight is made from an area of high pressure into an area of lower pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate...
Higher than the actual altitude above sea level.
Which condition would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than true altitude? A. Air temperature lower than standard B. Atmospheric pressure lower than standard C. Air temperature warmer than standard
C. Air temperature warmer than standard.
Under what condition will true altitude be lower than indicated altitude? A. In colder than standard air temperature B. In warmer than standard air temperature C. When density altitude is higher than indicated altitude
A. Colder than standard air temperature.
How do variations in temperature affect the altimeter?
Pressure levels are raised on warm days and the indicated altitude is lower than the true altitude.
What is a benefit of flying with a glass cockpit?
Situational awareness is increased.
What steps must be taken when flying with glass cockpits to ensure safe flight?
Regularly scan both inside and outside, use all appropriate checklist, and cross-check with other forms of information.
An abnormally high engine oil temperature indication may be caused by...
The oil level being too low.
Excessively high engine temperatures will...
Cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, & possible permanent internal engine damage.
Excessively high engine temperatures, either in the air or on the ground, will...
Cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, & possible permanent internal engine damage.
For internal cooling, air cooled engines are especially dependent on...
The circulation of lubricating oil.
If the engine oil temperature and cylinder head temperature gauges have exceeded their normal operating range, the pilot may have been operating with...
too much power and with the mixture set too lean.
What action can a pilot take to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating during a climb?
Reduce rate of climb and increase airspeed.
What is one procedure to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating.
Enrich the fuel mixture.
How is engine operation controlled on an engine equipped with a constant-speed propeller?
The throttle controls power output as registered on the manifold pressure gauge and the propeller control regulates engine RPM.
A precaution for the operation of an engine equipped with a constant-speed propeller is to...
Avoid high manifold pressure settings with low RPM
What is an advantage of a constant-speed propeller?
Permits the pilot to select the blade angle for the most efficient performance.
One purpose of the dual ignition system on an aircraft engine is to provide for...
If the ignition switch ground wire becomes disconnected, the magneto...
May continue to fire.
With regard to carburetor ice, float-type carburetor systems in comparison to fuel injection systems are generally considered to be...
More susceptible to icing.
Which condition is most favorable to the development of carburetor icing?
Temperature between 20ºF and 70ºF and high humidity.
The possibility of carburetor icing exist even when the ambient air temperature is as...
High as 70ºF and the relative humidity is high.
If an aircraft is equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller and a float-type carburetor, the first indication of carburetor ice would most likely be...
Loss of RPM.
The operating principle of float-type carburetors is based on the...
Difference in air pressure at the venturi throat and the air inlet.
The presence of carburetor ice in an aircraft equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller can be verified by applying carburetor heat and noting...
A decrease in RPM and then a gradual increase in RPM.
Generally speaking, the use of carburetor heat tends to...
Decrease engine performance.
Applying carburetor heat will...
Enrich the fuel/air mixture.
What change occurs in the fuel/air mixture when the carburetor heat is applied?
The fuel/air mixture becomes richer.
During the run-up at a high-elevation airport, a pilot notes a slight engine roughness that is not affected by the magneto check but grows worse during the carburetor heat check. Under these circumstances, what would be the most logical initial action?
Check the results obtained with a leaner setting of the mixture.
The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture at altitude is to...
Decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for decreased air density.
While curising at 9,500 feet MSL, the fuel/air mixture is properly adjusted. What will occur if a descent to 4,500 feet MSL is made without readjusting the mixture?
The fuel/air mixture may become excessively lean.
Detonation occurs in a reciprocating aircraft engine when?
The unburned charge in the cylinders explodes instead of burning normally.
Detonation may occur at high-power settings when?
The fuel mixture ignites instantaneously instead of burning progressively and evenly.
If a pilot suspects that the engine (with a fixed-pitch propeller) is detonating during climb-out after takeoff, the initial course of action to take would be to...
Lower the nose slightly to increase airspeed.
If the grade of fuel used in an aircraft engine is lower than specified for the engine, it will most likely cause...
The uncontrolled firing of the fuel/air charge in advance of normal spark ignition is know as...
What type fuel can be substituted for an aircraft if the recommended octane is not available?
The next higher octane aviation gas.
Filing the fuel tanks after the last flight of the day is considered a good operating procedure because this will...
Prevent moisture condensation by eliminating airspace in the tanks.
o properly purge water from the fuel system of an aircraft equipped with fuel tank sumps and afuel strainer quick drain, it is necessary to drain fuel from the...
Fuel strainer drain and the fuel tank sumps.
On aircraft equipped with fuel pumps, when is the auxiliary electric driven pump used?
In the event engine-driven fuel pump fails.
Which would most likely cause cylinder head temperature and engine oil temperature gauges to exceed their normal operating ranges? A. Using fuel that has a lower-than-specified fuel rating B. Using fuel that has a higher-than-specified fuel rating C. Operating with higher-than-normal oil pressure
A. Using fuel that has a lower-than-specified fuel rating.
What should be the first action after starting an aircraft engine?
Adjust for proper RPM and check for desired indication on the engine gauges.
Should it become necessary to hand prop an airplane engine, it is extremely important that a competent pilot...
Be at the controls in the cockpit.
An electrical system failure( battery and alternator) occurs during flight. In this situation, you would...
Experience avionics equipment failure.
A positive indication on an ammeter...
Shows the rate of charge on the battery.
To keep a battery charged, the alternator voltage output should be...
Higher than the battery voltage.
Which of the following is a true statement concerning electrical systems? A. The master switch provides current to the electrical system B. The airspeed indicator is driven by the electrical system C. Lights and radios use the electrical system for power
C. Lights and radios use the electrical system for power.
The numbers 9 and 27 on the approach ends of the runway indicate that the runway is orientated approximately...
090 and 270 Magnetic.
The numbers 8 and 26 on the approach ends of the runway indicate that the runway is orientated approximately...
080º and 260º Magnetic.
When approaching taxiway holding lines from the side with the continuous line, the pilot...
Should not cross the lines without ATC clearance.
What is the purpose of the runway/runway hold position sign?
Denotes intersecting runways.
What does the outbound destination sign identify?
Identifies direction to takeoff runways.
When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway, what is the purpose of the taxi way directional sign?
Indicates designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection.
What purpose does the taxiway location sigh serve?
Identifies taxiway on which an aircraft is located.
An airport's rotating beacon operated during daylight hours indicates...
That weather at the airport located in Class D airspace is below basic VFR weather minimums.
A lighted heliport my be identified by a...
Green, yellow, & white rotating beacon.
A military air station can be identified by a rotating beacon that emits...
Two quick, white flashes between green flashes.
How can a military airport be identified at night?
Dual peaked (two quick) white flashes between green flashes.
Airport taxiway edge lights are identified at night by...
Blue omnidirectional lights.
To set the high intensity runway lights on medium intensity, the pilot should click the microphone seven times, and the click it...
five times within 5 seconds.
Which is the correct traffic pattern departure to use at a noncontrolled airport?
Comply with any FAA traffic pattern established for the airport.
The recommended entry position to an airport traffic pattern is...
To enter 45º at the midpoint of the downwind leg at traffic pattern altitude.
An on glide slope indication from a tri-color VASI is...
A green light signal.
An above glide slope indication from a tri-color VASI is...
An amber light signal.
A below glide slope indication from a tri-color VASI is...
A red light signal.
A below glide slope indication from a pulsating approach slope indicator is...
A pulsating red light.
When approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI), the pilot shall...
Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope.
While operating in class D airspace, each pilot of an aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI) shall...
Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a save landing.
A slightly high glide slope indication from a precision approach path indicator is...
Three white lights and one red light.
Wingtip vortices are created only when an aircraft is...
Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to...
Sink below the aircraft generating the turbulence.
How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wing tip?
Outward, upward, & around each tip.
When taking off or landing at an airport where heavy aircraft are operating, one should be particular alert to the hazards of wing tip vortices because this turbulence tends to...
Sink into the flight path of the aircraft operating below the aircraft generating the turbulence.
The greatest vortex strength occurs when the generating aircraft is.
Heavy, clean, & slow.
The wind condition that requires maximum caution when avoiding wake turbulence on landing is...
Light, quartering tailwind.
When departing behind a heavy aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by maneuvering the aircraft...
Above and upwind from the heavy aircraft.
When landing behind a large aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by staying...
Above the large aircraft's final approach path and landing beyond the large aircraft's touchdown point.
When landing behind a large aircraft, which procedure should be followed for vortex avoidance?
Stay above its final approach flightpath all the way to touchdown.
During a night flight,you observe a steady red light and a flashing red light at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of he other aircraft?
The other aircraft is crossing to the left.
During a night flight, you observe a steady white light and a flashing read light ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?
The other aircraft is flying away from you.
During a night flight, you observe steady red and green lights ahead at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?
The other aircraft is approaching head-on.
The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during daylight hours is to use...
A series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10 degree sector.
The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during nighttime hours is to use...
Peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing offcenter viewing.
How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft?
There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft.
Prior to starting each maneuver, pilots should...
Visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance..
What procedure is recommended when climbing or descending VFR on an airway?
Execute gently banks left and right for continuous visual scanning of the airspace.
Responsibility for collision avoidance in an alert area rest with...
Most midair collision accidents occur during...
Pilots are encouraged to turn on their landing lights when operating below 10,000 feet, day or night, and especially when operating...
In conditions of reduced visibility.
After landing at a tower-controlled airport, when should the pilot contact ground control?
When advised by the tower to do so.
If instructed by ground control to taxi to Runway 9, the pilot may proceed...
To the next intersecting runway where further clearance is required.
Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) is the continuous broadcast of recorded information concerning...
noncontrol information in selected high-activity terminal areas.
Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast indicates that...
The ceiling is at least 5,000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more
A blue segmented circle on a Sectional Chart depicts which class airspace?
Airspace at an airport with a part-time control tower is classified as Class D airspace only...
When the associated control tower is in operation.
When a control tower located on an airport within class D airspace ceases operation for the day, what happens to the airspace designation?
The airspace reverts to Class E or a combination of Class E and G airspace during the hours the tower is not in operation.
A non-tower satellite airport, within the same Class D airspace as that designated for the primary airport, requires radio communications be established and maintained with the...
Primary airport's control tower.
Unless otherwise authorized, two-way radio communications with Air Traffic Control are required for landings or takeoffs...
At all tower controlled airports regardless of weather conditions.
The lateral dimensions of Class D airspace are based on...
The instrument procedures for which the controlled airspace is established.
If a control tower and an FSS are located on the same airport, which function is provided by the FSS during those periods when the tower is closed?
Airport Advisory Service.
Prior to entering an Airport Advisory Area, a pilot should...
Contact the local FSS for airport and traffic advisories.
When should pilots state their position on the airport when calling the tower for takeoff?
When departing from a runway intersection.
The normal radius of the outer area of Class C airspace is...
All operations within Class C airspace must be...
In communications with the responsible ATC facility.
The vertical limit of Class C airspace above the primary airport is normally...
Under what conditions may an aircraft operate from a satellite airport within Class C airspace?
The pilot must contact ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff.
What initial action should a pilot take prior to entering Class C airspace?
Contact approach control on the appropriate frequency.
TRSA Service in the terminal radar program provides...
Sequencing and separation for participating VFR aircraft.
From whom should a departing VFR aircraft request radar traffic information during ground operations?
Ground control, on initial contact.
Basic radar service in the terminal radar program is best described as...
Safety alerts, traffic advisories and limited vectoring to VFR aircraft.
If Air Traffic Control advises that radar service is terminated when the pilot is departing Class C airspace, the transponder should be set to code...
When making routine transponder code changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which codes?
7500, 7600, & 7700.
When operating VFR below 18,000 feet MSL, unless otherwise authorized what transponder code should be selected
Mode3/A, Code 1200.
When flying HAWK N666CB, the proper phraseology for initial contact with McAlester AFSS is...
"MC ALESTER RADIO, HAWK SIX SIX SIX CHARLIE BRAVO, RECEIVING ARDMORE VORTAC, OVER."
The correct method of stating 4,500 feet MSL to ATC is...
"FOUR THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED."
The correct method of stating 10,500 feet MSL to ATC is...
"ONE ZERO THOUSAND, FIVE HUNDRED."
When an air traffic controller issues radar traffic information in relation to the 12-hour clock, the reference the controller uses is the aircraft's...
An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying on a heading of 090*: "TRAFFIC 3 O'CLOCK, 2 MILES, WESTBOUND..." Where should the pilot look for this traffic?
An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying on a heading of 360*: "TRAFFIC 10 O'CLOCK, 2 MILES, SOUTHBOUND..." Where should the pilot look for this traffic?
An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot during a local flight: "TRAFFIC 2 O'CLOCK, 5 MILES, NORTHBOUND..." Where should the pilot look for this traffic?
Between directly ahead and 90º to the right.
While on final approach for landing, an alternating green and red followed by a flashing red light is received from the control tower. Under these circumstances the pilot should...
Exercise extreme caution and abandon the approach, realizing the airport is unsafe for landing.
A steady green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal that the pilot...
Is clear to land.
A flashing white light from the control tower to a taxiing aircraft is an indication to
Return to the starting point on the airport.
If the control tower uses a light signal to direct a pilot to give way to other aircraft and continue circling the light will be...
An alternating red and green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal to...
Exercise extreme caution.
If the aircraft's radio fails, what is the recommended procedure when landing at a controlled airport?
Observe the traffic flow, enter the pattern, and look for a light signal from the tower.
When activated, an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) transmits on...
121.5 &243 MHz.
Which procedure is the recommended to ensure that the emergency locator transmitter (ELT) has not been activated?
Monitor 121.5 before engine shutdown.
The letters VHF/DF appearing in the Airport/Facility Directory for a certain airport indicate that...
The Flight Service Station has equipment with which to determine your direction from the station.
To use VHF/DF facilities for assistance in locating an aircraft's position, an aircraft must have a...
VHF transmitter and receiver.
Who should not participate in the Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) program?
Who has final authority to accept or decline any land and hold short clearance?
Pilot in command.
When should pilots decline a land and hold short clearance?
When it will compromise safety.
Where is the "Available Landing Distance" (ADL) data published for an airport that utilizes Land and Hold Short Operations
Special Notices section of the Airport/Facility Directory (AF/D).
What is the minimum visibility for a pilot to receive a land and hold short clearance?
With respect to the certification of airmen, which is a category of aircraft? A. Gyroplane, helicopter, airship, free balloon B. Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air C. Single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and see
B. Airplane rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air.
With respect to the certification of airmen, which is a class of aircraft? A. Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air B. Single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea C. Lighter-than-air, airship, hot air balloon, gas balloon.
B. Single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea
The definition of night time is...
The time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight.
With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a category of aircraft? A. Normal, utility, acrobatic B. Airplane, rotorcraft, glider C. Landplane, seaplane
A. Normal, utility, acrobatic.
With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a class of aircraft? A. Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, balloon B.Normal, utility, acrobatic, limited C. Transport, restricted, provisional
A. Airplane, rotocraft, glider, balloon.
An ATC clearance provides...
Authorization to proceed under specified traffic conditions in controlled airspace.
Which V-speed represents maximum flap extended speed?
Which V-speed represents maximum landing gear extended speed?
Vno is defined as the...
Maximum structural cruising speed.
Which V-speed represents maneuvering speed?
Vs0 is defined as the...
Stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration.
Which would(speed) provide the greatest gain in altitude in the shortest distance during climb after takeoff?
After takeoff, which airspeed would the pilot use to gain the most altitude in a given period of time?
How long does the Airworthiness Certificate of an aircraft remain valid?
As long as the aircraft is maintained and operated as required by the Federal Aviation Regulations.
What should an owner or operator know about Airworthiness Directives (AD's)
They are mandatory.
May a pilot operate an aircraft that is not in compliance with an AD?
Yes, if allowed by the AD.
What regulation allows a private pilot to perform preventive maintenance?
14 CFR Part 43.3.
Who may perform preventive maintenance on an aircraft and approve it for return to service?
Private or Commercial pilot.
Preventive maintenance has been performed on an aircraft. What paperwork is required?
The signature, certificate number, and kind of certificate held by the person approving the work and a description of the work must be entered in the aircraft maintenance records.
Which operation would be described as preventive maintenance? A. Servicing landing gear wheel bearings. B. Alteration of main seat support brackets C. Engine adjustments to allow automotive gas to be used
A. Servicing landing gear wheel bearings.
When must a current pilot certificate be in the pilot's personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft?
Anytime when acting as pilot in command or as a required crew member.
A recreational or private pilot acting as pilot in command, or in any other capacity as a required pilot flight crew member, must have in his or her personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft a current...
An appropriate pilot certificate and a n appropriate current medical certificate if required.
Each person who holds a pilot certificate or a medical certificate shall present it for inspection upon the request of the Administrator, the National Transportation Safety Board, or...
Federal, state, or local law enforcement officer.
How soon after the conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported to the FAA, Civil Aviation Security Division?
No later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action.
How soon after the conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported to the FAA, and which division should this be reported to?
Within 60 days to the Civil Aviation Security Division.
A third class medical certificate is issued to a 36 year old pilot on August 10, this year. To exercise the privileges of a Private Pilot Certificate, the medical certificate will be valid until midnight on...
August 31, 5 years later.
A third class medical certificate is issued t a 51 year old pilot on May 3, this year. To exercise the privileges of a private pilot certificate, the medical certificate will be valid until midnight on...
May 31, 2 years later.
For private pilot operations a second class medical certificate issued to a 42 year old pilot on July 15, this year will expire at midnight on...
July 31, 2 years later.
For private pilot operations, a first class medical certificate issued to a 23 year old pilot on October 21, this year will expire at midnight on...
October 31, 5 years later.
A third class medical certificate was issued to a 19 year old pilot August 10, this year. To exercise the privileges of a recreational or private pilot certificate, the medical certificate will expire at midnight on...
August 31, 5 years later
Before a person holding a private pilot certificate may act as pilot in command of a high performance airplane, that person must have...
Received ground and flight instruction from an authorized flight instructor who then endorses that person's logbook.
What is the definition of a high performance airplane?
An airplane with an engine of more than 200 horsepower.
The pilot in command is required to hold a type rating in which aircraft? A. Aircraft operated under an authorization issued by the Administrator B. Aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12,500 pounds C. Aircraft involved in ferry flights, training flights, or test flights.
B. Aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12,500 pounds.
In orfer to act as pilot in command of a high performance airplane, a pilot must have...
Received and logged ground and flight instruction in an airplane that has more than 200 horsepower.
To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, a pilot must show by logbook endorsement the satisfactory completion of a flight review or completion of a pilot proficiency within the preceding...
24 calendar months.
If a recreational or private pilot had a flight review on August 8, this year, when is the next flight review required?
August 31, 2 years later.
Each recreational or private pilot is required to have...
A semiannual flight review.
To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, the pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and landing in an aircraft of the same category, class, and if a type rating is required, of the same type, within the last...
If recency of experience requirements for night flight are not met and official sunset is 1830, the latest time passengers may be carried is...
To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, the pilot must have made three takeoffs and three landings within the preceding 90 days in an aircraft of the same...
Category, class, and type, if a type rating is required.
The three takeoffs and landings that are required to act as pilot in command at night must be done during the time period from...
1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise.
The takeoffs and landings required to meet the recency of experience requirements for carrying passengers in a tailwheel airplane...
Must be to a full stop.
If a certificated pilot changes permanent mailing address and fails to notify the FAA Airmen Certification Branch of the new address, the pilot is entitled to exercise the privileges of the pilot certificate for a period of only...
30 days after the date of the move.
A certificated private pilot may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider unless there is entered in the pilot's logbook a minimum of...
100 hours of pilot in command time in the aircraft category, class and type, if required, that the pilot is using to tow a glider.
To act as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider, a pilot is required to have made within the preceding 12 months...
At least three actual or simulated glider tows while accompanied by a qualified pilot.
In regard to privileges and limitation, a private pilot may...
Not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees.
What exception, if any, permits a private pilot to act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers who pay for the flight?
If a donation is made to a charitable organization for the flight.
The width of a Federal Airway from either side of the center line is....
Unless otherwise specified, Federal Airways include that class E airspace extending upward from...
1,200 feed above the surface, up to and including 17,999 feet MSL.
The final authority as to the operation of an aircraft is the...
Pilot in command.
Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in condition for safe flight?
The pilot in command.
Where may an aircraft's operating limitations be found?
In the current, FAA approved flight manual, approved manual material, markings, and placards, or any combination thereof.
Where may an aircraft's operating limitations be found if the aircraft has an experimental or special light-sport airworthiness certificate?
In the current, FAA approved flight manual.
Under what conditions may objects be dropped from an aircraft?
If precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property on the surface.
No person may attempt to act as a crew member of a civil aircraft with...
.04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.
Under what conditions, if any, may a pilot allow a person who is obviously under the influence of drugs to be carried aboard an aircraft?
In an emergency or if the person is a medical patient under proper care.
A person may not act as a crew member of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding...
Preflight action, as required for all flights away from the vicinity of an airport, shall include...
An alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned.
In addition to other preflight actions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport, regulations specifically require the pilot in command to...
Determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft's takeoff and landing distance data.
Which preflight actions is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight?
Become familiar with all available information concerning the flight.
Flight crew members are required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened during...
Takeoffs and landings.
Which best describes the flight conditions under which flight crew members are specifically required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened?
Safety belts during takeoff and landing and while en route; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing.
With respect to passengers, what obligation, if any, does a pilot in command have concerning the use of safety belts?
The pilot in command must brief the passengers on the use of safety belts and notify them to fasten their safety belts during taxi, takeoff, and landing.
Safety belts are required to be properly secured about which persons in an aircraft and when?
Passengers during taxi, takeoffs, and landings only.
No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight...
Except by prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft.
An airplane and an airship are converging. If the airship is to the left of the airplane's position, which aircraft has the right of way?
When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the right of way belongs to the aircraft...
At the lower altitude, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake another.
Which aircraft has the right of way over the other aircraft listed? A. Glider B. Airship C. Aircraft refueling other aircraft
What action should the pilots of a glider and an airplane take if on a head-on collision course?
Both pilots should give way to the right.
What actions is required when two aircraft of the same category converge, but not head-on?
The aircraft on the left shall give way.
Which aircraft has the right of way over the other aircraft listed? A. Airship B. Aircraft towing other aircraft C. Gyroplane
B. Aircraft towing other aircraft.
Which aircraft has the right of way over all other traffic?
An aircraft in distress
A seaplane and a motorboat are on crossing courses. If the motor boat is to the left of the seaplane, which has the right of way?
When flying in a VFR corridor designated through Class B airspace, the maximum speed is ...
Unless otherwise authorized, what is the maximum indicated airspeed at which a person my operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL?
When flying in the airspace underlying Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is...
Unless otherwise authorized, the maximum indicated airspeed at which aircraft my be flow when at or below 2,500 feet AGL and within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of Class C airspace is...
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum save altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft anywhere?
An altitude allowing, if a power units fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over congested areas?
An altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft.
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude requried for a pilot to operate an aircraft over other than a congested area?
An altitude of 500 feet AGL, except over open water or sparsely populated area, which requires 500 feet from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, an aircraft may not be operated closer than what distance from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure?
Prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be set to which altitude or altimeter setting?
The current local altimeter setting, if available, or the departure airport elevation.
At what altitude shall the altimeter be set to 29.92 when climbing to cruising flight level?
18,000 feet MSL.
When must a pilot who deviates from a regulation during an emergency send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator?
When would a pilot be required to submit a detailed report of an emergency which caused the pilot to deviate from ATC clearance?
Within 48 hours if requested by ATC.
If an in flight emergency requires immediate action, the pilot in command may...
Deviate from any rule of 14 CFR part 91 to the extent required to meet that emergency.
As pilot in command of an aircraft, under which situation can you deviate from an ATC clearance?
In response to a traffic alert and collision avoidance system resolution advisory.
When an ATC clearance has been obtained, no pilot in command my deviate from that clearance unless that pilot obtains an amended clearance. The one exception to the regulation is...
What action, if any, is appropriate if the pilot deviates from an ATC instruction during an emergency and is given priority?
File a detailed report within 48 hours to the chief of the appropriate ATC facility, if requested.
Two way radio communication must be extablished with the ATC facility having jurisdiction over the aira prior to entering which class airspace?
Class C (Also B & D if tower is operational)
With certain exceptions, all aircraft within 30 miles of a Class B primary airport from the surface upward to 10,000 feed MSL must be equipped with...
An operable transponder having either Mode S or 4096 code capability with Mode C automatic altitude reporting capability.
What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace?
Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements.
What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace?
Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements.
Under what condition, if any, my pilots fly through a restricted area?
With the controlling agency's authorization.
In which type of airspace are VFR flights prohibited?
What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR at night in an airplane?
Enough to fly to the first opint of intended landing and to fly after that for 45 minutes at normal crusing speed.
What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR during daylight hours in an airplane?
Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.
The basic VFR weather minimums for operating an aircraft within Class D airspace are...
1,000 foot ceiling and 1 mile visibility.
The minimum flight visibility required for VFR flights above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL in controlled airspace is...
VFR flight in controlled airspace above 1,200 feet AGL and Below 10,000 feet MSL requires a minimum visibility and vertical cloud clearance of...
3 miles, and 500 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds in controlled airspace.
For VFR flight operations above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds required is...
The minimum distance from clouds requeired for VFR operations on an airway below 10,000 feed MSL is...
500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontally.
What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for VFR operations in Class G airspace at 700 feet AGL or bleow during daylight hours?
1 mile visibility and clear of clouds.
What minimum flight visibility is required for VFR flight operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL?
During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for VFR flight at night is...
During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, bu less than 10,000 feet MSL the minimum distance above clouds required for VFR flight is...
No person may take off or land an aircraft under basic VFR at an airport that lies within Class D airspace unless the...
Ground visibility at that airport is at least 3 miles.
During operations at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL and at or above 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is...
Outside controlled airspace, the minimum flight visibility requirement or VFR flight above 1,200 Feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL during daylight house is...
During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance below clouds requirement for VFR flight at night is...
During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of less than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds requirement for VFR flight is...
Normal VFR operations in Class D airspace with an operating control tower require the visibility and celing to be at least...
1,000 feet and 3 miles.
What ATC facility should the pilot contact to receive a special VFR departure clearance in Class D airspace?
Air Traffic Control Tower
A special VFR clearance authorizes the pilot of an aircraft to operate VFR while within Class D airspace when the visibility is...
At least 1 mile and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds.
No person may operate an airplane within Class D airspace at night under special VFR unless the...
Airplane is equipped for instrument flight.
What are the minimum requirements for airplane operations under special VFR in Class D airspace at night?
The pilot must be instrument rated, and the airplane must be IFR equipped.
What is the minimum weather condition required for airplanes operating under special VFR in Class D airspace?
1 mile flight visibility.
Which VFR cruising altitude is acceptable for a flight on a Victor Airway with a magnetic course of 175*? The terrain is less than 1,000 feet. A. 4,500 feet B. 5,000 feet C. 5,500 feet
C. 5,500 feet.
Which crusing altitude is appropriate for a VFR flight on a magnetic course of 135*?
Odd thousand plus 500 feet.
Which VFR crusing altitude is appropriate when flying above 3,000 feet AGL on a magnetic course of 185*? A. 4,000 feet B. 4,500 feet C. 5,000 feet
B. 4,500 feet.
Each person operating an aircraft at a VFR crusing altitude shall maintain an odd-thousand plus 500 foot altitude while on a...
magnetic course of 0º through 179º.
In addition to a valid Airworthiness Certificate, what documents or records must be aboard an aircraft during flight?
Operating limitations and Registration Certificate.
When must batteries in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be replaced or recharged, if rechargeable?
When the ELT has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour.
When may an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be tested.
During the first 5 minutes after the hour.
When are non-rechargeable batteries of an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) required to be replaced?
When 50 percent of their useful life expires.
Except in Alaska, during what time period should lighted position lights be displayed on an aircraft?
Sunrise to sunset.
Unless each occupant is provided with supplemental oxygen, no person may operate a civil aircraft of US registry above a maximum cabin pressure altitude of...
15,000 feet MSL.
When operating an aircraft at cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL, supplemental oxygen shall be used during...
That flight time in excess of 30 minutes at those altitudes.
An operable 4096 code transponder with an encoding altimeter is required in which airspace?
Class A, Class B, (and within 30 miles of the class B primary airport), and Class C.
In which class of airspace is acrobatic flight prohibited?
Class E airspace below 1,500 feet AGL.
No person my operate an aircraft in acrobatic flight when the flight visibility is less than...
What is the lowest altitude permitted for acrobatic flight?
1,500 feet AGL.
With certain exceptions, when must each occupant of an aircraft wear an approved parachute?
When intentionally pitching the nose of the aircraft up or down 30º or more.
A parachute composed of nylon, rayon, or other synthetic fibers must have been packed by a certificated and appropriately rated parachute rugger within the preceding...
An approved parachute constructed of natural fiber may be carried in an aircraft for emergency use if it has been packed by an appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding...
Which is normally prohibited when operating a restricted category civil aircraft?
Flights over a densely populated area.
Unless otherwise specifically authorized, no person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental certificate...
Over a densely populated area or in a congested airway.
The responsibility for ensuring that an aircraft is maintained in an airworthy condition is primarily that of the ...
Owner or operator.
Who is responsible for ensuring Airworthiness Directives (AD's) are complied with?
Owner or operator.
The responsibility for ensuring that maintenance personnel make the appropriate entries in the aircraft maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service lies with the...
Owner or operator.
Who is responsible for ensuring appropriate entries are made in maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service?
Owner or operator.
If an alteration or repair substantially affects an aircraft's operation in flight, that aircraft must be test flown by an appropriately rated pilot and approved for return to service prior to being operated...
With passengers aboard.
Before passengers can be carried in an aircraft that has been altered in a manner than may have appreciably changed its flight characteristics, it must be flight tested by an appropriately rated pilot who holds at least a...
Private pilot certificate.
A 100 hour inspection was due at 3302.5 hours. The 100 hour inspection was actually done at 3309.5 hours. When is the next 100 hour inspection due?
An aircraft's annual condition inspection was performed on July 12, this year. The next annual inspection will be due no later than...
July 21, next year.
What aircraft inspections are required for rental aircraft that are also used for flight instruction?
Annual condition and 100 hour inspections.
No person may use an ATC transponder unless it has been tested and inspected within at least the preceding...
24 calendar months.
Maintenance records show the last transponder inspection was performed on September 1, 2006. The next inspection will be due no later than...
September 30, 2008.
Completion of an annual condition inspection and the return of the aircraft to service should always be indicated by...
An appropriate notation in the aircraft maintenance rocords.
To determine the expiration date of the last annual aircraft inspection, a person should refer to the...
Aircraft maintenance records.
Which records or documents shall the owner or operator of an aircraft keep to show compliance with an applicable AD?
Aircraft maintenance records.
The airworthiness of an aircraft can be determined by a preflight inspection and a...
Review of the maintenance records.
The party directly responsible for the pre-takeoff briefing of passengers is the...
Pilot in command.
If an aircraft is involved in an accident which results in substantial damage to the aircraft, the nearest NTSB field office should be notified...
Which incident would necessitate an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office? A. An in-flight generator/alternator failure. B. An in-flight fire C. An in-flight lose of VOR receiver capability
B. An in-flight fire.
Which incident requries an immediate notification be made to the nearest NTSB field office? A. An overdue aircraft that is believed to be involved in an accident B. An in-flight radio communications failure C. An in-flight generator or alternator failure
A. An overdue aircraft that is believed to be involved in an accident.
Which incident requires notification to the nearest NTSB field office? A. A forced landing due to engine failure B. Landing gear damage, due to a hard landing C. Flight control system malfunction or failure
C. Flight control system malfunction or failure.
May aircraft wreckage be moved prior to the time the NTSB takes custody?
Yes, but only to protect the wreckage from further damage.
The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an accident is required to file an accident report within how many days?
The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an incident is required to submit a report to the nearest field office of the NTSB...
Within 10 days.
What are the standard temperature and pressure values for sea level?
15ºC and 29.92" Hg.
What effect, if any, does high humidity have on aircraft performance?
It decreases performance.
Which factor would tend to increase the density altitude at a given airport?
An increase in ambient temperature.
What effect does high density altitude, as compared to low density altitude, have on propeller efficiency and why?
Efficiency is reduced because the propeller exerts less force at high density altitudes than at low density altitudes.
What effect does high density altitude have on aircraft performance?
It reduces climb performance.
Which combination of atmospheric conditions will reduce aircraft takeoff and climb performance?
High temperature, high relative humidity, and high density.
If the outside air temperature (OAT) at a given altitude is warmer than standard, the density altitude is...
High than pressure altitude.
You have planned a cross country flight on a warm spring morning. Your course includes a mountain pass, which is at 11,500 feet MSL. The service ceiling of your airplane is 14,000 feet MSL. After checking the local weather report, you are able to calculate the density altitude of the mountain pass as 14,800 feet MSL. Which of the following is the correct action to take? A. Re-plan your journey to avoid the mountain pass B. Continue as planned since density altitude is only a factor for takeoff C. Continue as planned because mountain thermals will assist your climb.
A. Re-plan your journey to avoid the mountain pass.
If an emergency situation requires a downwind landing, pilots should expect a faster...
Ground speed at touchdown, a longer ground roll, and the likelihood of overshooting the desired touchdown point.
Which items are included in the empty weight of an aircraft?
Unusable fuel and undrainable oil.
An aircraft is loaded 110 pounds over maximum certificated gross weight. If fuel (gasoline) is drained to bring the aircraft weight within limits, how much fuel should be drained?
If an aircraft is loaded 90 pounds over maximum certificated gross weight and fuel (gasoline) is drained to bring the aircraft weight within limits, how much fuel should be drained?
Which statement best defines hopoxia?
A state of oxygen deficiency in the body.
Which is not a type of hypoxia? A. Histotoxic B. Hypoxic C. Hypertoxic
Which of the following is a correct response to counteract the feeling of hypoxia in flight? A. Promptly descend altitude B. Increase cabin air flow C. Avoid sudden inhalations
A. Promptly descended altitude.
Rapid or extra deep breathing while using oxygen can cause a conditions known as...
When a stressful situation is encountered in flight, an abnormal increase in the volume of air breathed in and out can cause a condition know as...
Which would most like result in hyperventilation?
Emotional tension, anxiety, or fear.
A pilot should be able to overcome the symptoms or avoid future occurrences of hyperventilation by...
Slowing the breathing rate, breathing into a bag, or talking aloud.
Pilots are more subject to spatial disorientation if...
Visual cues are taken away, as they are in instrument meteorological conditions (IMC).
Pilots are more subject to spatial disorientation if...
Body signals are used to interpret flight attitude.
If a pilot experiences spatial disorientation during flight in a restricted visibility condition, the best way to overcome the effect is to...
Rely upon the aircraft instruments indications.
A state of temporary confusion resulting from misleading information being sent to the brain by various sensory organs is defined as....
The danger of spatial disorientation during flight in poor visual conditions may be reduced by...
Having faith in the instruments rather than taking a chance on the sensory organs.
Which technique should a pilot use to scan for traffic to the right and left during straight and level flight?
Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals.
What effect does hazy have on the ability to see traffic or terrain features during flight?
All traffic or terrain features appear to be farther away than their actual distance.
What preparation should a pilot make to adapt the eyes for night flying?
Avoid bright white lights at least 30 minutes before the flight.
What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight?
Scan slowly to permit off center viewing.
The best method to use when looking for other traffic at night is to...
Look to the side of the object and scan slowly.
Large accumulations of carbon monoxide in the human body result in...
Loss of muscular power.
Susceptibility to carbon monoxide poisoning increases as...
What is a correct response if an exhaust leak were to be detected while in flight?
Open air vents or windows.
Effects of carbon monoxide poisoning include...
Dizziness, blurred vision, and loss of muscle power.
Risk management, as part of the aeronautical decision making (ADM) process, relies on which features to risk associated with each flight?
Situational awareness, problem recognition, and good judgment.
What is it often called when a pilot pushes his or her capabilities and the aircraft's limits by trying to maintain visual contact with the terrain in low visibility and ceiling?
What often leads to spatial disorientation or collision with ground/obstacles when flying under Visual Flight Rules (VFR)?
Continual flight into instrument conditions.
What is one of the neglected items when a pilot relies on short and long term memory for repetitive task?
Hazardous attitudes occur to every pilot to some degree at some time. What are some of these hazardous attitudes?
Antiauthority, impulsivvity, macho, resignation, and invulnerability.
In the aeronautical decision making(ADM) process, what is the first stem in neutralizing a hazardous attitude?
Recognizing hazardous thoughts.
What is the antidote when a pilot has a hazardous attitude, such as antiauthority?
Follow the rules.
What is the antidote when a pilot has a hazardous attitude, such as impulsivity?
Not so fast, think first.
What is the antidote when a pilot has a hazardous attitude, such as invulnerability?
It could happen to me.
What is the antidote when a pilot has a hazardous attitude, such as macho?
Taking chances is foolish.
What is the antidote when a pilot has a hazardous attitude, such as resignation?
I am not helpless.
Who is responsible for determining whether a pilot is fit to fly for a particular flight, even though he or she holds a current medical certificate?
What is one common factor which affects most preventable accidents?
Every physical process of weather is accompanied by, or is the result of, a...
What causes variations in altimeter settings between weather reporting points?
Unequal heating of the Earth's surface.
The wind at 5,000 feet AGL is southwesterly while the surface wind is southerly. This difference in directional is primarily due to...
Friction between the wind and the surface.
Convective circulation patterns associated with sea breezes are caused by...
Cool, dense air moving inland from over the water.
The development of thermals depends upon...
The boundary between two different air masses is referred to as a...
One weather phenomenon which will always occur when flying across a front is a change in the...
One of the most easily recognized discontinuities across a front is...
A change in temperature.
If there is thunderstorm activity in the vicinity of an airport at which you plan to land, which hazardous atmospheric phenomenon might be expected on landing approach?
Wind shear turbulence.
A non frontal, narrow band of active thunderstorms that often develop ahead of a cold front is know as a...
What conditions are necessary for the formation of thunderstorms?
High humidity, lifting forces, and unstable conditions.
During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts?
Thunderstorms reach their greatest intensity during the...
What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm?
Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm?
Precipitation beginning to fall.
Thunderstorms which generally produce the most intense hazard to aircraft are...
Squall line thunderstorms.
Which weather phenomenon is always associated with a thunderstorm?
One in flight condition necessary for structural icing to from is...
In which environmental is aircraft structural ice most likely to have the highest accumulation rat?
The presence of ice pellets at the surface is evidence that there...
Is a temperature inversion with freezing rain at a higher altitude.
An almond or lens shaped cloud which appears stationary, but which may contain winds of 50 knots or more, is referred to as...
A lenticular cloud
Crest of standing mountain waves may be marked by stationary, lens shaped cloud known as...
Standing lenticular clouds.
Possible mountain wave turbulence could be anticipated when winds of 40 knots or greater blow...
Across a mountain ridge, and the air is stable.
Where does wind shear occur?
At all altitudes, in all directions.
A pilot can expect a wind shear zone in a temperature inversion whenever the windspeed at 2,000 4,000 feet above the surface is at least...
When may hazardous wind shear be expected?
In areas of low level temperature inversion, frontal zones, and clear air turbulence.
If the temperature/dewpoint spread is small and decreasing, and the temperature is 62ºF, what type weather is most likely to develop?
Fog or low clouds.
What is meant by the term "dewpoint"?
The temperature to which air must be cooled to become saturated.
The amount of water vapor which air can hold depends on the...
What are the processes by which moisture is added to unsaturated air?
Evaporating and sublimation.
Which conditions result in the formation of frost?
The temperature of the collecting surface is at or below the dewpoint of the adjacent air and the dewpoint is below freezing.
Clouds, fog, or dew will always from when...
Water vapor condenses.
Low level turbulence can occur and icing can become hazardous in which type of fog?
In which situation is advection fog most likely to form?
An air mass moving inland from the coast in winter.
What types of fog depends upon wind in order to exist?
Advection fog and upslope fog.
Clouds are divided into four families according to their...
The suffix "nimbus," used in naming clouds, means...
A rain cloud.
The conditions necessary for the formation of cumulonimbus clouds are a lifting action and...
Unstable, moist air
What cloud have the greatest turbulence?
At approximately what altitude above the surface would the pilot expect the base of cumuliform clouds if the surface air temperature is 82ºF and the dewpoint is 38ºF?
10,000 feet AGL. (82-38=44; 44/4.4=10).
What is the approximate base of the cumulus clouds if the surface air temperature at 1,000 feet MSL is 70ºF and the dewpoint is 48ºF
6,000 feet. (add 5.4ºF for each 1,000 feet).
What is a characteristic of stable air?
Moist, stable air flowing upslope can be expected to...
Produce stratus type clouds.
If an unstable air mass is forced upward, what type clouds can be expected?
Clouds with considerable vertical development and associated turbulence.
What are characteristics of unstable air?
Turbulence and good surface visibility.
A stable air mass is most likely to have which characteristic?
Poor surface visibility.
Stead precipitation preceding a front is an indication of...
Stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence.
What are characteristics of a moist, unstable air mass?
Cumuliform clouds and showery precipitation.
What measurements can be used to determine the stability of the atmosphere?
Actual lapse rate.
What would decrease the stability of an air mass...
Warming from below.
What feature is associated with a temperature inversion?
A stable layer of air.
The most frequent type of ground or surface based temperature inversion is that which is produced by...
Terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively still night.
A temperature inversion would most likely result in which weather condition?
An increase in temperature as altitude is increased.
Which weather conditions should be expected beneath a low level temperature inversion layer when the relative humidity is high?
Smooth air, poor visibility, fog, haze, or low clouds.
To get a complete weather briefing for the planned flight, the pilot should request...
A standard briefing.
Which type weather briefing should a pilot request, when departing within the hour, if no preliminary weather information has been received?
Which type of weather briefing should a pilot request to supplement mass disseminated data?
An abbreviated briefing.
A weather briefing that is provided when the information requested is 6 or more hours in advance of the proposed departure time is...
An outlooking briefing.
What should pilots state initially when telephoning a weather briefing facility for preflight weather information?
Identify themselves as pilots.
When telephoning a weather briefing facility for preflight weather information, pilots should state
The aircraft identification or the pilot's name.
When telephoning a weather briefing facility for preflight weather information, pilots should state...
Whether they intend to fly VFR only.
To update a previous weather briefing, a pilot should request...
An abbreviated briefing.
When requesting weather information for the following morning, a pilot should request...
An outlook briefing.
For aviation purposes, ceiling is defined as the height above the Earth's surface of the...
Lowest broken or overcast layer or vertical visibility into an obscuration.
To best determine general forecast weather conditions over several states, the pilot should refer to...
Aviation Area Forecasts.
To determine the freezing level and areas of probable icing aloft, the pilot should refer to the...
Inflight Aviation Weather Advisories.
The sectional of the Area Forecast entitled "VFR CLDS/WX contains a general description of...
Clouds and weather which cover an area greater than 3,000 square miles and is significant to VFR flight operations.
From which primary source should information be obtained regarding expected weather at the estimated time of arrival if your destination has no Terminal Forecast?
Of what value is the weather Depiction Chart to the pilot?
For determining general weather conditions on which to base flight planning.
What does the heavy dashed line that forms a large rectangular box on a Radar Summary Chart refer to?
Severe weather watch area.
What information is provided by the Radar Summary Chart that is not shown on other weather charts?
Lines and cells of hazardous thunderstorms.
Radar weather reports are of special interest to pilots because they indicate...
Location of precipitation along with type, intensity, and cell movement of precipitation.
How should contact be established with an En Rout Flight Advisory Service (EFAS) station, and what service would be expected?
Call Flight Watch on 122.0 for information regarding actual weather and thunderstorm activity along proposed route.
What flight service should a pilot normally expect from an En Route Flight Advisory Service (EFAS) station?
Actual weather information and thunderstorm activity along the route.
Below FL 180, en route weather advisories should be obtained from an FSS on...
When the term "light and variable" is used in reference to a Winds Aloft Forecast, the coded group and windspeed is...
9900 and less than 5 knots.
What values are used for Winds Aloft Forecasts?
True direction and knots.
SIGMETs are issued as a warning of weather conditions hazardous to which aircraft?
AIRMETs are advisories of significant weather phenomena by of lower intensities than SIGMETs and are intended for dissemination to...
Which in flight advisory would contain information on severe icing not associated with thunderstorms?
What information is contained in a CONVECTIVE SIGMET?
Tornadoes, embedded thunderstorms, and hail 3/4 inch or greater in diameter.
What is indicated when a current CONVECTIVE SIGMET forecasts thunderstorms?
Thunderstorms obscured by massive cloud layers.
Which statement about longitude and latitude is true. A. Lines of longitude are parallel to the Equator B. Lines of longitude cross the Equator at right angles C. The 0º line of latitude passes through Greenwich, England
B. Lines of longitude cross the Equator at right angles.
Which is true concerning the blue and magenta colors used to depict airports on Sectional Aeronautical Charts? A. Airports with control towers underlying Class A, B, and C airspace are shown in blue; Class D and E airspace is magenta B. Airports with control tower underlying Class C, D, and E airspace are shown in magenta C. Airports with control towers underlying Class B, C, D, and E airspace are shown
C. Airports with control towers underlying Class B, C, D, and E airspace are shown.
With certain exceptions, Class E airspace entends upward from either 700 feet or 1,200 feet AGL to, but does not include,
18,000 feet MSL.
What action should a pilot take when operating under VFR in a Military Operations Area (MOA)?
Exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted.
Pilots flying over a national wildlife refuge are requested to fly no lower than...
2,000 feet AGL.
Flight through a restricted area should not be accomplished unless the pilot has...
Received prior authorization from the controlling agency.
Information concerning parachute jumping sites may be found in the...
What minimum radio equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace?
Two way radio communications equipment, a 4096 code transponder, and an encoding altimeter.
What minimum radio equipment is required for VFR operation within Class B airspace?
Two way radio communications equipment, a 4096 code transponder, and an encoding altimeter.
As standard operating practice, all inbound traffic to an airport without a control tower should continuously monitor the appropriate facility from a distance of...
FAA advisory circulars (some free, others at cost) are available to all pilots and are obtained by...
Ordering those desired from the Government Printing Office.
FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Air Traffic Control and General Operations are issued under which subject number?
FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airmen are issued under which subject number?
FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airspace are issued under which subject number?
What information is contained in the Notices to Airmen Publication (NTAP)?
Current NOTAM (D) and FDC NOTAMs.
When NOTAMs are published in the Notices to Airmen Publication (NTAP), they are...
Only available in a standard weather briefing if the pilot request published NOTAMs.
When the course deviation indicator (CDI) needle is centered during an omnireciver check using a VOR test signal (VOT), the omnibearing selector (OBS) and the TO/FROM indicator should read...
0º FROM or 180º TO, regardless of the pilot's position from the VOT.
Where can locations for VOR test facilities be found?
What should the airborne accuracy of a VOR be?
How many satellites make up the Global Positioning System (GPS)?
What is the minimum number of GPS satellites that are observable by a user anywhere on earth?
How many GPS satellites are required to yield a three dimensional position (latitude, longitude, and altitude) and time solution?
The Global Positioning System is...
Which of the following is a true statement concerning the Global Positioning System?
Navigating by GPS must be integrated with other forms of navigation.
How should a VFR flight plan be closed at the completion of the flight at a controlled airport?
The pilot must close the flight plan with the nearest FSS or other FAA facility upon landing.
During the preflight inspection who is responsible for determining the aircraft as safe for flight?
The pilot in command.
Who is primarily responsible for maintaining an aircraft in airworthy condition?
Owner or operator.
How should an aircraft preflight inspection be accomplished for the first flight of the day?
Thorough and systematic means recommended by the manufacturer.
Upon encountering severe turbulence, which flight condition should the pilot attempt to maintain?
Level flight attitude.
The most important rule to remember in the event of a power failure after becoming airborne is to...
Immediately established the proper gliding attitude and airspeed.
When executing an emergency approach to land in a single engine airplane, it is important to maintain a constant glide speed because variations in glide speed...
increase the airplane's rate of descent and decrease gliding distance.
VFR approaches to land at night should be accomplished...
The same as during daytime.
When taxiing with strong quartering tailwinds, which aileron positions should be used?
Aileron down on the side from which the wind is blowing.
Which aileron positions should a pilot generally use when taxiing in strong quartering headwinds.
Aileron up on the side from which the wind is blowing.
Which wind condition would be most critical when taxiing a nosewheel equipped high wing airplane?
When converting from true course to magnetic heading, a pilot should...
Subtract westerly variation and add right wind correction angle.
Select the four flight fundamentals involved in maneuvering the aircraft.
Straight and level flight, turns, climbs, and descents.
To minimize the side loads placed on the landing gear during touchdown, the pilot should keep the...
Longitudinal axis of the aircraft parallel to the direction of its motion.