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Radiographic Procedures - Radiology Exam Review [ARRT] -[Appelton & Lange Review] - Radiographic Procedures

Appleton & Lange Review For The Radiography Exam ARRT Section 2.) Radiographic Procedures
STUDY
PLAY
Which of the following positions would be obtained with the patient lying prone recumbent on the radiographic table, and the central ray directed horizontally to the iliac crest?
(A) Ventral decubitus position
(B) Dorsal decubitus position
(C) Left lateral decubitus position
(D) Right lateral decubitus position
Ventral Decubitus Position.
Which of the following is (are) effective in reducing breast exposure during scoliosis examinations?
1. Use of a high-speed imaging system
2. Use of breast shields
3. Use of compensating filtration
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
Use Of High-Speed Imaging System.

Use Of Breast Shields.

Use Of Compensating Filtration
Which of the following projections of the ankle would best demonstrate the distal tibiofibular joint?
(A) Medial oblique 15 to 20º
(B) Lateral oblique 15 to 20º
(C) Medial oblique 45º
(D) Lateral oblique 45º
Medial Oblique 45º.
Which of the following is a functional study used to demonstrate the degree of AP motion present in the cervical spine?
(A) Open-mouth projection
(B) Moving mandible AP
(C) Flexion and extension laterals
(D) Right and left bending AP
Flexion and Extension Laterals.
The two palpable bony landmarks that are generally used for accurate localization of the hip are the
(A) anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) and symphysis pubis.
(B) iliac crest and greater trochanter.
(C) symphysis pubis and greater trochanter.
(D) iliac crest and symphysis pubis.
Anterior Superior iliac Spine (ASIS) and Symphysis Pubis.
Which of the following structures is (are) most likely to be demonstrated in a right lateral decubitus position of a double-contrast BE?
1. Lateral wall of the descending colon
2. Medial wall of the ascending colon
3. Lateral wall of the ascending colon
(A) 1 only
(B) 3 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 2 and 3 only
Lateral Wall of the Descending Colon.

Medial Wall of the Ascending Colon.
To demonstrate esophageal varices, the patient must be examined in
(A) the recumbent position.
(B) the erect position.
(C) the anatomic position.
(D) Fowler's position.
The Recumbent Position.

(The recumbent position affords more complete filling of the veins, as blood flows against gravity.)
In order to demonstrate the first two cervical vertebrae in the AP projection, the patient is positioned so that
(A) the glabellomeatal line is vertical.
(B) the acanthiomeatal line is vertical.
(C) a line between the mentum and the mastoid tip is vertical.
(D) a line between the maxillary occlusal plane and the mastoid tip is vertical.
A Line Between The Maxillary Occlusal Plane and The Mastoid Tip Is Vertical.
The left sacroiliac joint is positioned perpendicular to the film when the patient is positioned in a
(A) left lateral position.
(B) 25 to 30º LAO position.
(C) 25 to 30º LPO position.
(D) 30 to 40º LPO position.
25 to 30º LAO Position.
Which of the following is (are) located on the posterior aspect of the femur?
1. Intercondyloid fossa
2. Intertrochanteric crest
3. Intertubercular groove
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 only
1) Intercondyloid Fossa
2) Interrochanteric Crest
(1 and 2 only)
Which of the following is proximal to the carpal bones?
(A) Distal interphalangeal joints
(B) Proximal interphalangeal joints
(C) Metacarpals
(D) Radial styloid process
Radial Styloid Process
The scapula pictured in Figure 2-27 demonstrates
1. its posterior aspect.
2. its costal surface.
3. its sternal articular surface.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(Tortora & Grabowski, p 221)
Its Posterior Aspect.
(1 only)
Which projection(s) of the abdomen would be used to demonstrate pneumoperitoneum?
1. Right lateral decubitus
2. Left lateral decubitus
3. Upright
(A) 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
2) Left Lateral Decubitus.
3) Upright.
(2 and 3 only)
The sternoclavicular joints are best demonstrated with the patient PA and
(A) in a slight oblique position, affected side adjacent to the image recorder.
(B) in a slight oblique position, affected side away from the image recorder.
(C) erect and weight-bearing.
(D) erect, with and without weights.
In a Slight Oblique Position, Affected Side Adjacent To The Image Recorder.
When the patient is recumbent and the central ray is directed horizontally, the patient is said to be in the
(A) Trendelenburg position.
(B) Fowler's position.
(C) decubitus position.
(D) Sims position.
Decubitus Position.
Which of the following correctly identifies the position illustrated in Figure 2-14?
(A) AP axial mastoids (Towne / Grashey)
(B) Axiolateral TMJ (open mouth)
(C) Axiolateral mastoids (Laws)
(D) Posterior profile mastoids (Stenvers)
(Saia, pp 158-159)
Axiolateral Mastoids (Laws)

(The pictured radiograph shows an axiolateral projection (Laws method) of the right mastoid)

(The mastoid air cells are easily recognized in the temporal region just posterior to the auditory canal)
Which of the following positions would best demonstrate the left apophyseal articulations of the lumbar vertebrae?
(A) LPO
(B) RPO
(C) Left lateral
(D) PA
LPO
Which of the following would best evaluate the structure labeled 4 in Figure 2-12?
(A) PA axial projection (Caldwell method)
(B) Parietoacanthial projection (Waters' method)
(C) Lateral projection
(D) Submentovertical projection
[Figure 2-12 illustrates an anatomic lateral view of the paranasal sinuses.]
(Bontrager, pp 416-418)
Parietoacanthial Projection (Waters' method)

# 4 is the maxillary sinuses,
which are best demonstrated using the parietoacanthial projection (Waters' method).
Which of the following positions / projections of the skull will result in the most shape distortion? (A) 0º PA
(B) 23º Caldwell
(C) 37º Towne / Grashey
(D) 25º Haas
37º Towne / Grashey.
The pedicle is represented by what part of the "scotty dog" seen in a correctly positioned oblique lumbar spine?
(A) Eye
(B) Front foot
(C) Body
(D) Neck
(Fig. 2-49). (Saia, p 131)
Eye.
Which of the following sinus groups is demonstrated with the patient positioned as for a parietoacanthial projection (Waters' method) and the central ray directed through the patient's open mouth?
(A) Frontal
(B) Ethmoidal
(C) Maxillary
(D) Sphenoidal
Sphenoidal.

(The central ray is directed through the sphenoidal sinuses and exits the open mouth.)
During a gastrointestinal examination, the AP recumbent projection of a stomach of average shape will usually demonstrate
1. anterior and posterior aspects of the stomach.
2. barium-filled fundus.
3. double-contrast body and antral portions.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
2) Barium Filled Fundus
3) Double-Contrast Body and Antral Portions
(2 and 3 only)
What instructions might a patient be given following an upper GI examination?
1. Drink plenty of fluids.
2. Take a mild laxative.
3. Increase dietary fiber.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
1) Drink Plenty Of Liquids.
2) Take A Mild Laxative.
3) Increase Dietary Fiber.
(1, 2, and 3)
What is the structure indicated by the number 7 in Figure 2-16?
(A) Common hepatic duct
(B) Common bile duct
(C) Cystic duct
(D) Pancreatic duct
[Figure 2-16 illustrates the biliary system. ]
(Tortora & Grabowski, p 875)
Cystic Duct.

(Bile enters the gallbladder through the cystic duct - # 7).
The structure labeled 2 in Figure 2-12 is the
(A) maxillary sinus.
(B) sphenoidal sinus.
(C) ethmoidal sinus.
(D) frontal sinus.
[Figure 2-12 illustrates an anatomic lateral view of the paranasal sinuses.]
(Bontrager, pp 416-418)
Ethmoidal Sinus.

# 2 the ethmoidal sinuses; can be visualized using the PA axial projection (Caldwell method).
The PA chest radiograph seen in Figure 2-11 demonstrates
1. rotation.
2. scapulae removed from lung fields.
3. excessively high contrast.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(Cornuelle & Gronefeld, p 46)
1) Rotation
2) Scapulae Removed From Lung Fields.

(1 and 2 only)

(Rotation of the chest is demonstrated by unequal distance between the sternum and medial extremities of the clavicles.)
Which of the localization lines seen in Figure 2-35 are separated by 7º?
(A) Lines 1 and 3
(B) Lines 2 and 3
(C) Lines 1 and 4
(D) Lines 3 and 4
(Saia, p 142)
(B) Lines 2 and 3

(The OML (line 2) and the IOML (line 3) are usually separated by 7º.)
Which of the following articulates with the base of the first metatarsal?
(A) First cuneiform
(B) Third cuneiform
(C) Navicular
(D) Cuboid
First Cuneiform.

(The base of the first metatarsal articulates with the first (medial) cuneiform.)
The sigmoid colon is located in the
(A) left upper quadrant (LUQ).
(B) left lower quadrant (LLQ).
(C) right upper quadrant (RUQ).
(D) right lower quadrant (RLQ).
Left Lower Quadrant (LLQ).
(B)
At what level do the carotid arteries bifurcate?
(A) Foramen magnum
(B) Trachea
(C) Pharynx
(D) C4
C4

(The carotid arteries bifurcate into internal and external carotid arteries at the level of C4.)
All of the following statements regarding pediatric positioning are true, except
(A) For radiography of the kidneys, the central ray should be directed midway between the diaphragm and the symphysis pubis.
(B) If a pediatric patient is in respiratory distress, a chest radiograph should be obtained in the AP projection rather than the standard PA projection.
(C) Chest radiography on a neonate should be performed in the supine position.
(D) Radiography of pediatric patients with a myelomeningocele defect should be performed in the supine position.
Radiography of Pediatric Patients With a Myelomeningocele Defect Should Be Performed in The Supine Position.

[Radiography of Pediatric Patients With a Myelomeningocele Defect Should Be Performed in the Prone Position, Rather Than The Routine Supine Position. ]
What should be done if the patient is unable to extend his or her head sufficiently for the acanthioparietal projection (reverse Waters' method)?
1. Place a support behind the patient's shoulders.
2. Angle cephalad.
3. Angle caudad.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 1 and 3 only
1) Place a Support Behind The Patient's Shoulders.
2) Angle Cephalid

(1 and 2 only)

[The reverse Waters' method is used when the patient is unable to assume the prone position)

--If the patient is unable to assume this position, the CR is angled cephalad so as to be parallel to the mentomeatal line.
Myelography is a diagnostic examination used to demonstrate
1. extrinsic spinal cord compression resulting from disk herniation.
2. post-traumatic swelling of the spinal cord.
3. internal disk lesions.
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1 and 3 only
1) Extrinsic Spinal Cord Compression Resulting From Disk Herniation.
2) Post-Tramatic Swelling Of The Spinal Cord.

(1 and 2 only)
Angulation of the central ray may be required
1. to avoid superimposition of overlying structures.
2. to avoid foreshortening or self-superimposition.
3. in order to project through certain articulations.
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
1) To Avoid Superimposition of Overlying Structures.
2) To Avoid Foreshortening or Self-Superimposition.
3) In Order To Project Through Certain Articulations.
(1, 2, and 3)
During a double-contrast BE, which of the following positions would afford the best double-contrast visualization of both colic flexures?
(A) LAO and RPO
(B) Lateral
(C) Left lateral decubitus
(D) AP or PA erect
AP or PA Erect.

[With the patient in the erect position, barium moves inferiorly and air rises to provide double-contrast visualization of the hepatic and splenic flexures. ]
In the lateral projection of the foot, the
1. plantar surface should be perpendicular to the film.
2. metatarsals are superimposed.
3. talofibular joint should be visualized.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
1) Plantar Surface Should Be Perpendicular To The Film.
2) Metatarsals Are Superimposed.
(1 and 2 only)
Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding the radiograph in Figure 2-10 [A right "scapular Y" is illustrated]?
1. The patient is placed in an RAO position.
2. The midcoronal plane is about 60º to the film.
3. The acromion process is free of superimposition.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(Ballinger & Frank, vol 1, pp 179-181)
1) The Patient Is Placed In an RAO Position.
2) The Mid coronal Plane is about 60 degrees to The Film.
3) The Acromion Process Is Free of Superimposition.

(1, 2, and 3)
With the patient's head in a PA position and the central ray directed 20º cephalad, which part of the mandible will be best visualized?
(A) Symphysis
(B) Rami
(C) Body
(D) Angle
Rami

[With the patient in the PA position, the rami are well visualized with a perpendicular ray or with 20 to 25º cephalad angulation. A portion of the mandibular body is demonstrated, but most of it is superimposed over the cervical spine. ]
Which of the following statements regarding the male pelvis is (are) true?
1. The angle formed by the pubic arch is less than that of the female.
2. The pelvic outlet is wider than that of the female.
3. The ischial tuberosities are further apart.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
1) The Angle Formed By The Pubic Arch is Less Than That of a Female.

(1 only)
An intrathecal injection is associated with which of the following examinations?
(A) IVP
(B) Retrograde pyelogram
(C) Myelogram
(D) Arthrogram
Myelogram

[An intrathecal injection is one made within the meninges.]
[ A myelogram requires an intrathecal injection in order to introduce contrast medium into the subarachnoid space.]
In which of the following positions was the radiograph in Figure 2-23 probably made?
(A) AP recumbent
(B) PA recumbent
(C) PA upright
(D) AP Trendelenburg
(Ballinger & Frank, vol 2, p 102)
PA Recumbent

[X-ray is a PA Recumbent Projection]

[The barium-filled stomach tends to spread more horizontally in the PA position]
When modifying the PA axial projection of the skull to demonstrate superior orbital fissures, the central ray is directed
(A) 20 to 25º caudad.
(B) 20 to 25º cephalad.
(C) 30 to 35º caudad.
(D) 30 to 35º cephalad.
20 to 25º Caudad.
The ileocecal valve is normally located in which of the following body regions?
(A) Right iliac
(B) Left iliac
(C) Right lumbar
(D) Hypogastric
(Saia, p 77)
Right Iliac.
With which of the following does the trapezium articulate?
(A) Fifth metacarpal
(B) First metacarpal
(C) Distal radius
(D) Distal ulna
First Metacarpal.

[The first metacarpal, on the lateral side of the hand, articulates with the most lateral carpal of the distal carpal row]
The number 4 in the radiograph in Figure 2-4 [is one of a series of IVP] represents which of the following renal structures?
(A) Vesicoureteral junction
(B) Renal pelvis
(C) Minor calyx
(D) Major calyx
(Bontrager, pp 543-544)
Vesicoureteral Junction.

[The vesicoureteral junction (# 4) is located at the distal end of the ureter, where it unites with the urinary bladder.
Which of the following articulate(s) with the bases of the metatarsals?
1. The heads of the first row of phalanges
2. The cuboid
3. The cuneiforms
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
2) The Cuboid
3) The Cuneiforms

(2 and 3 only)
All of the following statements regarding respiratory structures are true except
(A) The right lung has two lobes.
(B) The uppermost portion of the lung is the apex.
(C) Each lung is enclosed in pleura.
(D) The trachea bifurcates into mainstem bronchi. (Bontrager, pp 69-70)
The Right Lung Has Two Lobes.
Indications for a myelographic cervical puncture include
1. demonstration of the upper level of a spinal block.
2. suspected mass lesion in the upper cervical canal.
3. failure of lumbar puncture.
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
1) Demonstration Of The Upper Level of a Spinal Block.
3) Failure of Lumbar Puncture.

(1 and 3 only)
The term that refers to parts closer to the source or beginning is
(A) cephalad.
(B) caudad.
(C) proximal.
(D) medial.
Proximal.
Which of the following will best demonstrate acromioclavicular separation?
(A) AP recumbent, affected shoulder
(B) AP recumbent, both shoulders
(C) AP erect, affected shoulder
(D) AP erect, both shoulders
AP Erect, Both Shoulders.
Which of the following is an important consideration in order to avoid excessive metacarpophalangeal joint overlap in the oblique projection of the hand?
(A) Oblique the hand no more than 45º.
(B) Use a support sponge for the phalanges.
(C) Clench the fist to bring the carpals closer to the film.
(D) Utilize ulnar flexion.
Oblique The Hand No More Than 45º.
When performing tomography, it is of paramount importance that the radiographer
1. properly apply immobilization.
2. provide adequate radiation protection whenever possible.
3. obtain and check a scout film.
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
1) Properly Apply Immobilization.
2) Provide Adequate Radiation Projection Whenever Possible.
3) Obtain and Check a Scout Film.

(1, 2, and 3)
In the lateral projection of the ankle, the
1. talotibial joint is visualized.
2. talofibular joint is visualized.
3. tibia and fibula are superimposed.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
1) Talotibial Joint Is Visualized.
2) Talofibular Joint Is Visualized.
3) Tibia and Tibia are Superimposed.
(1 and 3 only)
When evaluating a PA axial projection of the skull with a 15º caudal angle, the radiographer should see
1. petrous pyramids in the lower third of the orbits.
2. equal distance from the lateral border of the skull to the lateral rim of the orbit bilaterally.
3. symmetrical petrous pyramids.

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
1) Petrous Pyramids In The Lower Third of The Orbits.
2) Equal Distance From The Lateral Border of the Skull to the Lateral Rim of the Orbit Bilaterally.
3) Symmetrical Pertrous Pyramids.
( 1, 2, and 3)
The apophyseal articulations of the thoracic spine are demonstrated with the
(A) coronal plane 45º to the film.
(B) midsagittal plane 45º to the film.
(C) coronal plane 70º to the film.
(D) midsagittal plane 70º to the film.
Coronal Plane 70º to the Film.

[The thoracic apophyseal joints are demonstrated by placing the patient in an oblique position with the coronal plane 70º to the film (MSP 20º to the film). This may be accomplished by first placing the patient lateral, then obliquing the patient 20º "off lateral."]
The contraction and expansion of arterial walls in accordance with forceful contraction and relaxation of the heart is called
(A) hypertension.
(B) elasticity.
(C) pulse.
(D) pressure.
Pulse.
Which of the following skull positions will demonstrate the cranial base, sphenoidal sinuses, atlas, and odontoid process?
(A) AP axial
(B) Lateral
(C) Parietoacanthial
(D) Submentovertical (SMV)
Submentovertical (SMV).
Which of the following may be used to evaluate the glenohumeral joint?
1. Scapular Y projection
2. Inferosuperior axial
3. Transthoracic lateral
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
1) Scapular Y Projection
2) Inferosuperior Axil
3) Transthoracic Lateral
(1, 2, and 3)
Which of the following bony landmarks is in the same transverse plane as the symphysis pubis?
(A) Ischial tuberosity
(B) Most prominent part of the greater trochanter
(C) Anterior superior iliac spine
(D) Anterior inferior iliac spine
Most Prominent Part of the Greater Trochanter
Which of the following is (are) accurate criticism(s) of the open-mouth projection of C1-2 seen in Figure 2-22?
1. The MSP is not centered and perpendicular to the midline of the table.
2. The neck should be flexed more.
3. The neck should be extended more.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 1 and 3 only
[xray shows the odontoid process superimposed on the base of the skull]
(Ballinger & Frank, vol 1, pp 388-389)
1) The MSP is not centered and Perpendicular To The Middline of the Table.
2) The Neck Should Be Flexed More.

(1 and 2 only)
During lower-limb venography, tourniquets are applied above the knee and ankle to
1. suppress filling of the superficial veins.
2. coerce filling of the deep veins.
3. outline the anterior tibial vein.
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
1) suppress Filling Of The Superficial Veins.
2) Coerce Filling OfvThe Deep Veins.
(1 and 2 only)
The manubrial notch is at approximately the same level as the
(A) fifth thoracic vertebra.
(B) T2-3 interspace.
(C) T4-5 interspace.
(D) costal margin.
T2-3 Interspace.
The tissue that occupies the central cavity within the shaft of a long bone in an adult is
(A) red marrow.
(B) yellow marrow.
(C) cortical tissue.
(D) cancellous tissue.
Yellow Marrow.
Which projection of the foot will best demonstrate the longitudinal arch?
(A) Mediolateral
(B) Lateromedial
(C) Lateral weight-bearing
(D) 30º medial oblique
Lateral Weight-Bearing.
Which of the following projections will best demonstrate the tarsal navicular free of superimposition?
(A) AP oblique, medial rotation
(B) AP oblique, lateral rotation
(C) Mediolateral
(D) Lateral weight-bearing
AP Oblique, Medial Rotation
The plane that passes vertically through the body, dividing it into anterior and posterior halves, is termed the
(A) median sagittal plane.
(B) midcoronal plane.
(C) sagittal plane.
(D) transverse plane.
(Fig. 2-52). (Saia, p 75)
Midcoronal Plane.
In what position was the radiograph in Figure 2-30 made?
(A) Flexion
(B) Extension
(C) Left bending
(D) Right bending
(Ballinger & Frank, vol 1, pp 398, 399)
Flexion
Which of the following is (are) valid criteria for a lateral projection of the forearm?
1. The radius and ulna should be superimposed proximally and distally.
2. The coronoid process and radial head should be superimposed.
3. The radial tuberosity should face anteriorly.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
2) The Coronoid Process and Radial Head Should Be Superimposed.
3) The Radial Tuberosity Should Face Anteriorly.
In the lateral projection of the knee, the central ray is angled 5º cephalad in order to prevent superimposition of which of the following structures on the joint space?
(A) Lateral femoral condyle
(B) Medial femoral condyle
(C) Patella
(D) Tibial eminence
Medial Femoral Condyle

[This places the lateral femoral condyle closest to the film and the medial femoral condyle remote from the film.]
In the posterior oblique position of the cervical spine, the central ray should be directed
(A) parallel to C4.
(B) perpendicular to C4.
(C) 15º cephalad to C4.
(D) 15º caudad to C4.
15º Cephalad to C4.
Which of the following would be obtained with the position illustrated in Figure 2-17 [An RPO position is illustrated]?
1. Splenic flexure and descending colon
2. Hepatic flexure and ascending colon
3. Hepatic flexure and descending colon
(A) 1 only
(B) 3 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1 and 3 only
(Ballinger & Frank, vol 2, p 141)
Splenic Flexure and Descending Colon.
Mammography of the augmented breast is best accomplished using
(A) the Cleopatra method.
(B) the Eklund method.
(C) magnification films.
(D) the cleavage view.
The Eklund Method.
Which of the following are characteristics of the hypersthenic body type?
1. Short, wide, transverse heart
2. High and peripheral large bowel
3. Diaphragm positioned low
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(Ballinger & Frank, vol 1, p 41)
1) Short, Wide, Transverse Heart.
2) High and Peripheal Large Bowel.
Which of the following structures is illustrated by the number 4 in Figure 2-19?
(A) Maxillary sinus
(B) Coronoid process
(C) Zygomatic arch
(D) Coracoid process
(Bontrager, p 430)
Maxillary Sinus
Which of the following is represented by the number 3 in Figure 2-34?
(A) Inferior vena cava
(B) Aorta
(C) Gallbladder
(D) Psoas muscle
[A cross-sectional image of the abdomen is pictured] (Bontrager, p 100)
Aorta
A lateral projection of the hand in extension is often recommended to evaluate
1. a fracture.
2. a foreign body.
3. soft tissue.
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1 and 3 only
A Foreign Body
A Soft Tissue
The scapular Y projection of the shoulder demonstrates
1. an oblique projection of the shoulder.
2. anterior or posterior dislocation.
3. a lateral projection of the shoulder.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 2 only

[The scapular Y projection requires that the coronal plane be about 60º to the film, thus resulting in an oblique projection of the shoulder.]
When examining a patient whose elbow is in partial flexion, how should the AP projection be obtained?
1. With humerus parallel to film, central ray perpendicular
2. With forearm parallel to film, central ray perpendicular
3. Through the partially flexed elbow, resting on the olecranon process, central ray perpendicular
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(B) 1 and 2 only
Posterior displacement of a tibial fracture would be best demonstrated in the
(A) AP projection.
(B) lateral projection.
(C) medial oblique projection.
(D) lateral oblique projection.
(B) lateral projection.
Which of the following positions will demonstrate the right axillary ribs?
1. RAO
2. LAO
3. RPO
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(C) 2 and 3 only

[The axillary portion of the ribs is best demonstrated in a 45º oblique position.]
All of the following statements regarding an exact PA projection of the skull, with the central ray perpendicular to the film, are true except
(A) The orbitomeatal line is perpendicular to the film.
(B) The petrous pyramids fill the orbits.
(C) The midsagittal plane (MSP) is parallel to the film.
(D) The central ray exits at the nasion.
(Ballinger & Frank, vol 2, p 242)
(C) The midsagittal plane (MSP) is parallel to the film.
Which of the following positions will best demonstrate the left axillary portion of the ribs?
(A) Left lateral
(B) PA
(C) LPO
(D) RPO
(C) LPO
Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding the PA axial projection of the paranasal sinuses?
1. The central ray is directed caudally to the OML.
2. The petrous pyramids are projected into the lower third of the orbits.
3. The frontal sinuses are visualized.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(D) 1, 2, and 3
To demonstrate the entire circumference of the radial head, exposure(s) must be made with the
1. epicondyles perpendicular to the cassette.
2. hand pronated and supinated as much as possible.
3. hand lateral and in internal rotation.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(D) 1, 2, and 3
Which of the following is most likely to be the correct routine for a radiographic examination of the forearm?
(A) PA and medial oblique
(B) AP and lateral oblique
(C) PA and lateral
(D) AP and lateral
(D) AP and lateral
In order to demonstrate the pulmonary apices with the patient in the AP position, the
(A) central ray is directed 15 to 20º cephalad.
(B) central ray is directed 15 to 20º caudad.
(C) exposure is made on full exhalation.
(D) patient's shoulders are rolled forward.
(A) central ray is directed 15 to 20º cephalad.
Which of the following projections of the calcaneus is obtained with the leg extended, the plantar surface of the foot vertical and perpendicular to the film, and the central ray directed 40º caudad?
(A) Axial plantodorsal projection
(B) Axial dorsoplantar projection
(C) Lateral projection
(D) Weight-bearing lateral projection
(B) Axial dorsoplantar projection
Which of the following examinations require(s) ureteral catheterization?
1. Retrograde pyelogram
2. Cystourethrogram
3. Cystoscopy
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(A) 1 only
In the lateral projection of the knee, the
1. femoral condyles are superimposed.
2. patellofemoral joint is visualized.
3. knee is flexed about 20 to 30º.
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(D) 1, 2, and 3
Arthrography requires the use of
1. general anesthesia.
2. sterile technique.
3. fluoroscopy.
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(C) 2 and 3 only
The true lateral position of the skull uses which of the following principles?
1. Interpupillary line perpendicular to the film
2. MSP perpendicular to the film
3. Infraorbitomeatal line (IOML) parallel to the transverse axis of the film
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(C) 1 and 3 only
The stomach of an asthenic patient is most likely to be located
(A) high, transverse, and lateral.
(B) low, transverse, and lateral.
(C) high, vertical, and toward the midline.
(D) low, vertical, and toward the midline.
(D) low, vertical, and toward the midline.
Place the following anatomic structures in order from anterior to posterior:
1. Trachea
2. Apex of heart
3. Esophagus
(A) Trachea, esophagus, apex of heart
(B) Esophagus, trachea, apex of heart
(C) Apex of heart, trachea, esophagus
(D) Apex of heart, esophagus, trachea
(Fig. 2-41).
(Ballinger & Frank, vol 1, p 458)
(C) Apex of heart, trachea, esophagus
All the following positions may be used to demonstrate the sternoclavicular articulations except
(A) weight-bearing.
(B) RAO.
(C) LAO.
(D) PA.
(A) weight-bearing.
Which of the following statements is (are) true with respect to the radiograph in Figure 2-24?
1. The coracoid process is seen partially superimposed on the third rib.
2. This projection is performed to evaluate the acromioclavicular articulation.
3. This projection is performed to evaluate possible shoulder dislocation.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 only
(Ballinger & Frank, vol 1, p 166)
(A) 1 only
That portion of a long bone where cartilage has been replaced by bone is known as the
(A) diaphysis.
(B) epiphysis.
(C) metaphysis.
(D) apophysis.
(C) metaphysis.
Which of the following projections will best demonstrate the carpal scaphoid?
(A) Lateral wrist
(B) Ulnar flexion
(C) Radial flexion
(D) Carpal tunnel
(B) Ulnar flexion
All of the following statements regarding large-bowel radiography are true except
(A) The large bowel must be completely empty prior to examination.
(B) Retained fecal material can simulate pathology.
(C) Single-contrast studies help to demonstrate polyps.
(D) Double-contrast studies help to demonstrate intraluminal lesions.
(Saia, p 186)
(C) Single-contrast studies help to demonstrate polyps.
In order to evaluate the interphalangeal joints in the oblique and lateral positions, the fingers
(A) rest on the cassette for immobilization.
(B) must be supported parallel to the film.
(C) are radiographed in natural flexion.
(D) are radiographed in palmar flexion.
(B) must be supported parallel to the film.
What is the position of the gallbladder in an asthenic patient?
(A) Superior and medial
(B) Superior and lateral
(C) Inferior and medial
(D) Inferior and lateral
(C) Inferior and medial
When the patient is unable to assume the upright body position, how should a lateral projection of the sinuses be obtained?
(A) Horizontal beam lateral
(B) Transthoracic lateral
(C) Recumbent RAO or LAO
(D) Recumbent RPO or LPO
(A) Horizontal beam lateral
The pars interarticularis is represented by what part of the "scotty dog" seen in a correctly positioned oblique lumbar spine?
(A) Eye
(B) Front foot
(C) Body
(D) Neck
[Fig. 2-45] (Saia, p 131)
(D) Neck
Which of the following is (are) recommended when positioning the patient for a lateral projection of the chest?
1. The patient should be examined upright.
2. The shoulders should be depressed.
3. The shoulders should be rolled forward.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(A) 1 only
In order to demonstrate a profile view of the glenoid fossa, the patient is AP recumbent and obliqued 45º
(A) toward the affected side.
(B) away from the affected side.
(C) with the arm at the side in the anatomic position.
(D) with the arm in external rotation.
(A) toward the affected side.
In Figure 2-35, which of the localization lines is used for the lateral projection of the skull?
(A) Line 1
(B) Line 2
(C) Line 3
(D) Line 4
(Saia, p 144)
(C) Line 3 [Interpupillary Line]

[The lateral projection of the skull requires that the patient be in the prone oblique position with the MSP parallel to the film and the interpupillary line perpendicular to the film.]
Following the ingestion of a fatty meal, what hormone is secreted by the duodenal mucosa to stimulate contraction of the gallbladder?
(A) Insulin
(B) Cholecystokinin
(C) Adrenocorticotropic hormone
(D) Gastrin
(B) Cholecystokinin
Which of the following tube angle and direction combinations is correct for an axial projection of the clavicle, with the patient in the AP recumbent position on the x-ray table?
(A) 10 to 15º caudad
(B) 10 to 15º cephalad
(C) 25 to 30º cephalad
(D) 25 to 30º caudad
(C) 25 to 30º cephalad
Which of the positions illustrated in Figure 2-21 will best demonstrate the lumbar intervertebral foramina?
(A) Number 1
(B) Number 2
(C) Number 3
(D) Number 4
(Bontrager & Frank, vol 1, pp 431, 434-435)
(D) Number 4

[# 4 is the lateral position]
which provides the best demonstration of the lumbar bodies, intervertebral disk spaces, spinous processes, pedicles, and intervertebral foramina.
With the patient positioned as illustrated in Figure 2-18 [The PA axial projection], which of the following structures is best demonstrated?
(A) Patella
(B) Patellofemoral articulation
(C) Intercondyloid fossa
(D) Tibial tuberosity
("tunnel view") (Saia, pp 112-113)
(C) Intercondyloid fossa
Which of the following positions will provide an AP projection of the L5-S1 interspace?
(A) Patient AP with 30 to 35º angle cephalad
(B) Patient AP with 30 to 35º angle caudad
(C) Patient AP with 0º angle
(D) Patient lateral, coned to L5
(A) Patient AP with 30 to 35º angle cephalad
Which of the following anatomic structures is indicated by the number 2 in Figure 2-7?
(A) Talus
(B) Medial malleolus
(C) Lateral malleolus
(D) Lateral tibial condyle
(Cornuelle & Gronefeld, pp 193-195)
(B) Medial malleolus
The four major arteries supplying the brain include the
1. brachiocephalic artery.
2. common carotid arteries.
3. vertebral arteries.
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(C) 2 and 3 only
What process is best seen using a perpendicular CR with the elbow in acute flexion and with the posterior aspect of the humerus adjacent to the image recorder?
(A) Coracoid
(B) Coronoid
(C) Olecranon
(D) Glenoid
(C) Olecranon
What are the positions most commonly employed for a radiographic examination of the sternum?
1. Lateral
2. RAO
3. LAO
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(A) 1 and 2 only
Which of the positions illustrated in Figure 2-1 should be used to demonstrate the cervical apophyseal articulations?
1. A
2. B
3. C
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 only
(Ballinger & Frank, pp 400-403)
(B) 2 only
When the erect position is requested as part of an IVP, it is used to demonstrate
(A) the adrenal glands.
(B) the renal surfaces.
(C) kidney mobility.
(D) the bladder neck.
(C) kidney mobility.
For which of the following conditions is operative cholangiography a useful tool?
1. Biliary tract calculi
2. Patency of the biliary ducts
3. Function of the sphincter of Oddi
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(D) 1, 2, and 3
During chest radiography, the act of inspiration
1. elevates the diaphragm.
2. raises the ribs.
3. depresses the abdominal viscera.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(C) 2 and 3 only
Standard radiographic protocols may be reduced to include two views, at right angles to each other, in which of the following situations?
(A) Barium examinations
(B) Spine radiography
(C) Skull radiography
(D) Emergency and trauma radiography
(D) Emergency and trauma radiography
Which of the localization lines seen in Figure 2-35 is used for the SMV (Schüller method) projection of the skull?
(A) Line 1
(B) Line 2
(C) Line 3
(D) Line 4
(Saia, p 144)
(C) Line 3

#3 is the infraorbitomeatal line (IOML)
Which of the following projections of the abdomen may be used to demonstrate air or fluid levels?
1. Dorsal decubitus
2. Lateral decubitus
3. AP Trendelenburg
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(B) 1 and 2 only
Blowout fractures of the orbit are best demonstrated using the
(A) lateral projection of the facial bones.
(B) parietoacanthial projection (Waters' method).
(C) posteroanterior projection with a 15º caudal angle.
(D) Sweet's localization method.
(B) parietoacanthial projection (Waters' method).
Which of the following positions demonstrates all the paranasal sinuses?
(A) Parietoacanthial
(B) PA axial
(C) Lateral
(D) True PA
(C) Lateral
Which of the following is (are) true regarding radiographic examination of the acromioclavicular joints?
1. The procedure is performed in the erect position.
2. Use of weights can improve demonstration of the joints.
3. The procedure should be avoided if dislocation or separation is suspected.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 2
The structure labeled 1 in Figure 2-30 is the
(A) intervertebral disk space.
(B) apophyseal joint.
(C) intervertebral foramen.
(D) spinous process.

[shown is a lateral projection of the cervical spine taken in flexion]
(Ballinger & Frank, vol 1, pp 398, 399)
(B) apophyseal joint.
Shoulder arthrography may be performed to evaluate
(A) humeral dislocation.
(B) complete or incomplete rotator cuff tears.
(C) osteoarthritis.
(D) acromioclavicular joint separation.
(Fig. 2-59)
(Ballinger & Frank, vol 1, p 496)
(B) complete or incomplete rotator cuff tears.
The position illustrated in the radiograph in Figure 2-26 may be obtained with the patient
1. supine and the central ray angled 30º caudad.
2. supine and the central ray angled 30º cephalad.
3. prone and the central ray angled 30º cephalad.
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 only
(Ballinger & Frank, vol 2, pp 134, 139)
(B) 2 only
Which of the following is demonstrated in a 25º RPO position with the central ray entering 1 in medial to the elevated ASIS?
(A) Left sacroiliac joint
(B) Right sacroiliac joint
(C) Left ilium
(D) Right ilium
(A) Left sacroiliac joint
In the posterior oblique position of the cervical spine, the intervertebral foramina that are best seen are those
(A) nearest the film.
(B) furthest from the film.
(C) seen medially.
(D) seen inferiorly.
(B) furthest from the film.
The junction of the transverse colon and the descending colon forms the
(A) hepatic flexure.
(B) splenic flexure.
(C) transverse flexure.
(D) sigmoid flexure.
(Ballinger & Frank, vol 2, p 89)
(B) splenic flexure.
In order to better demonstrate the mandibular rami in the PA position, the
(A) skull is obliqued toward the affected side.
(B) skull is obliqued away from the affected side.
(C) central ray is angled cephalad.
(D) central ray is angled caudad.
(C) central ray is angled cephalad.
Inspiration and expiration projections of the chest may be performed to demonstrate
1. pneumothorax.
2. foreign body.
3. atelectasis.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(D) 1, 2, and 3
Which of the following will separate the radial head, neck, and tuberosity from superimposition on the ulna?
(A) AP
(B) Lateral
(C) Medial oblique
(D) Lateral oblique
(D) Lateral oblique
The short, thick processes that project posteriorly from the vertebral body are the
(A) transverse processes.
(B) vertebral arches.
(C) laminae.
(D) pedicles.
(D) pedicles.
The contrast media of choice for use in myelography are
(A) ionic non-water-soluble.
(B) ionic water-soluble.
(C) nonionic water-soluble.
(D) gas.
(C) nonionic water-soluble.
The axiolateral position (Law method) of examining the mastoids uses which of the following?
1. OML
2. MSP parallel to the tabletop
3. 15º caudad angulation
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 2 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 only
Which of the following can be used to demonstrate the intercondyloid fossa?
1. Patient PA, knee flexed 40º, central ray directed caudad 40º to the popliteal fossa
2. Patient AP, cassette under flexed knee, central ray directed cephalad to knee, perpendicular to tibia
3. Patient PA, patella parallel to film, heel rotated 5 to 10º lateral, central ray perpendicular to knee joint

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(B) 1 and 2 only
Knee arthrography may be performed to demonstrate a
1. torn meniscus.
2. Baker's cyst.
3. torn rotator cuff.
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(A) 1 and 2 only
Which of the following articulations may be described as diarthrotic?
1. Knee
2. Intervertebral joints
3. Temporomandibular joint (TMJ)
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(C) 1 and 3 only
Which of the following statements are true regarding Figure 2-28?
1. The radiograph was made in the RAO position.
2. The central ray should enter more inferiorly.
3. The sternum should be projected onto the right side of the thorax.
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(Ballinger & Frank, vol 1, pp 274-277)
(A) 1 and 2 only
Which of the following would be the best choice for a right shoulder exam to rule out fracture?
(A) Internal and external rotation
(B) AP and tangential
(C) AP and AP axial
(D) AP and scapular Y
(D) AP and scapular Y
Which of the following statements regarding the radiograph in Figure 2-3 is (are) true?
1. The tibial eminences are well visualized.
2. The intercondyloid fossa is demonstrated between the femoral condyles.
3. The femorotibial articulation is well demonstrated.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 only
(Ballinger & Frank, vol 1, p 290)
(C) 1 and 3 only
The structure(s) best demonstrated on an AP axial projection of the skull with the central ray directed 40 to 60º caudally is (are) the
(A) entire foramen magnum and the jugular foramina.
(B) petrous pyramids.
(C) occipital bone.
(D) rotundum foramina.
(A) entire foramen magnum and the jugular foramina.
AP stress studies of the ankle may be performed
1. to demonstrate fractures of the distal tibia and fibula.
2. following inversion or eversion injuries.
3. to demonstrate a ligament tear.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(C) 2 and 3 only
In the AP axial projection (Towne method) of the skull, with the central ray directed 30º caudad to the orbitomeatal line (OML) and passing midway between the external auditory meatus, which of the following is best demonstrated?
(A) Occipital bone
(B) Frontal bone
(C) Facial bones
(D) Basal foramina
(Fig. 2-40)
(Ballinger & Frank, vol 2, p 270)
(A) Occipital bone
Lateral deviation of the nasal septum may be best demonstrated in the
(A) lateral projection.
(B) PA axial (Caldwell method) projection.
(C) parietoacanthial (Waters' method) projection.
(D) AP axial (Grashey / Towne method) projection.
(C) parietoacanthial (Waters' method) projection.
Which of the following structures is (are) located in the LUQ?
1. Stomach
2. Spleen
3. Cecum
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(C) 1 and 2 only
Which of the following equipment is necessary for ERCP?
1. A fluoroscopic unit with spot film and tilt table capabilities
2. A fiberoptic endoscope
3. Polyethylene catheters
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(D) 1, 2, and 3
Which of the following criteria is (are) required for visualization of the greater tubercle in profile?
1. Epicondyles parallel to the film
2. Arm in external rotation
3. Humerus in AP position
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(D) 1, 2, and 3
During intravenous (IV) urography, the prone position is generally recommended to demonstrate
1. filling of obstructed ureters.
2. the renal pelvis.
3. the superior calyces.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(B) 1 and 2 only
Which of the following positions is required in order to demonstrate small amounts of fluid in the pleural cavity?
(A) Lateral decubitus, affected side up
(B) Lateral decubitus, affected side down
(C) AP Trendelenburg
(D) AP supine
(B) Lateral decubitus, affected side down
All of the following positions are likely to be employed for both single-contrast and double-contrast examinations of the large bowel except
(A) lateral rectum.
(B) AP axial rectosigmoid.
(C) right and left lateral decubitus abdomen.
(D) RAO and LAO abdomen.
(C) right and left lateral decubitus abdomen.
Which of the following are demonstrated in the oblique position of the cervical spine?
1. Intervertebral foramina
2. Apophyseal joints
3. Intervertebral joints
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(A) 1 only
The AP axial projection, or "frog leg" position, of the femoral neck places the patient in a supine position with the affected thigh
(A) adducted 25º from the horizontal.
(B) abducted 25º from the vertical.
(C) adducted 40º from the horizontal.
(D) abducted 40º from the vertical.
(D) abducted 40º from the vertical.
The AP Trendelenburg position is often used during an upper GI examination to demonstrate
(A) the duodenal loop.
(B) filling of the duodenal bulb.
(C) hiatal hernia.
(D) hypertrophic pyloric stenosis.
(C) hiatal hernia.
The advantages of digital subtraction angiography over film angiography include
1. greater contrast medium sensitivity.
2. immediately available images.
3. increased resolution.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(B) 1 and 2 only
Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding lower-extremity venography?
1. The patient is often examined in the semierect position.
2. Contrast medium is injected through a vein in the foot.
3. Filming begins at the hip and proceeds inferiorly.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(B) 1 and 2 only
Which of the following vertebral groups form(s) lordotic curve(s)?
1. Cervical
2. Thoracic
3. Lumbar
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1 and 3 only
Which of the following devices should not be removed before positioning for a radiograph?
1. A ring when performing hand radiography
2. An antishock garment
3. A pneumatic splint
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(C) 2 and 3
Which of the following articulations participate(s) in formation of the ankle mortise?
1. Talotibial
2. Talocalcaneal
3. Talofibular
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 3 only
(Fig. 2-55) (Ballinger & Frank, vol 1, p 228)
(B) 1 and 3 only
To better visualize the knee joint space in the radiograph in Figure 2-29, the radiographer should
(A) flex the knee more acutely.
(B) flex the knee less acutely.
(C) angle the CR 5 to 7º cephalad.
(D) angle the CR 5 to 7º caudad.
(Ballinger & Frank, vol 1, p 293)
(C) angle the CR 5 to 7º cephalad.
Which of the following examinations require(s) special identification markers in addition to the usual patient name and number, date, and side marker?
1. IVP
2. Tomography
3. Abdominal survey
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(D) 1, 2, and 3
Which of the following is a condition in which an occluded blood vessel stops blood flow to a portion of the lungs?
(A) Pneumothorax
(B) Atelectasis
(C) Pulmonary embolism
(D) Hypoxia
(C) Pulmonary embolism
In which projection of the foot are the sinus tarsi, cuboid, and tuberosity of the fifth metatarsal best demonstrated?
(A) Lateral oblique foot
(B) Medial oblique foot
(C) Lateral foot
(D) Weight-bearing foot
(B) Medial oblique foot
Which of the following are part of the bony thorax?
1. 12 thoracic vertebrae
2. Scapulae
3. 24 ribs
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(Bontrager, p 336)
(C) 1 and 3 only
In which of the following positions was the radiograph in Figure 2-9 taken?
(A) LPO
(B) RPO
(C) AP axial
(D) Right lateral decubitus
(Ballinger & Frank, vol 2, p 146)
(A) LPO
Which of the following barium-filled anatomic structures is best demonstrated in the LAO position?
(A) Hepatic flexure
(B) Splenic flexure
(C) Sigmoid colon
(D) Ileocecal valve
(B) Splenic flexure
With which of the following is zonography associated?
1. Thick tomographic cuts
2. Long exposure amplitude
3. Less blurring than with pluridirectional tomography because a narrow exposure angle is used

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
Which of the following is located at the interspace between the fourth and fifth thoracic vertebrae?
(A) Manubrium
(B) Jugular notch
(C) Sternal angle
(D) Xiphoid process
(Saia, p 77)
(C) Sternal angle
Which of the following positions will demonstrate the lumbosacral apophyseal articulation?
(A) AP
(B) Lateral
(C) 30º RPO
(D) 45º LPO
(C) 30º RPO
Which of the following describe(s) the correct placement of mammographic markers?
1. In the mediolateral projection, they are placed along the upper border of the breast.
2. In the craniocaudal projection, they are placed along the lateral aspect of the breast.
3. In the oblique projection, they are placed along the lateral aspect of the breast.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(B) 1 and 2 only
Which of the following is (are) associated with a Colles' fracture?
1. Transverse fracture of the radial head
2. Chip fracture of the ulnar styloid
3. Posterior or backward displacement
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(C) 2 and 3 only
Which of the following fracture classifications describes a small bony fragment pulled from a bony process?
(A) Avulsion fracture
(B) Torus fracture
(C) Comminuted fracture
(D) Compound fracture
(A) Avulsion fracture
Which of the following is (are) demonstrated in the lumbar spine pictured in Figure 2-8?
1. Intervertebral joints
2. Pedicles
3. Apophyseal joints
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(Ballinger & Frank, vol 1, pp 230-231)
(B) 1 and 2 only
What angle is formed by the median sagittal plane and the film in the parietoorbital projection (Rhese method) of the optic canal?
(A) 90º
(B) 37º
(C) 53º
(D) 45º
(C) 53º
Which of the following would best demonstrate arthritic changes in the knees?
(A) AP recumbent
(B) Lateral recumbent
(C) AP erect
(D) Medial oblique
(C) AP erect
Which of the following interventional procedures can be used to increase the diameter of a stenosed vessel?
1. percutaneous transluminal angioplasty (PTA)
2. stent placement
3. peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC line)
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(B) 1 and 2 only
Figure 2-5 illustrates which of the following positions?
(A) AP
(B) Medial oblique
(C) Lateral oblique
(D) Partial flexion
Ballinger & Frank, vol 1, p 135)
(C) Lateral oblique
The medial oblique projection of the elbow demonstrates the
1. olecranon process within the olecranon fossa.
2. radial head free of superimposition.
3. coronoid process free of superimposition.
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(C) 1 and 3 only
What portion of the humerus articulates with the ulna to help form the elbow joint?
(A) Semilunar / trochlear notch
(B) Radial head
(C) Capitulum
(D) Trochlea
(D) Trochlea
Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding the images seen in Figure 2-31?
1. Image A is positioned in internal rotation.
2. Image B is positioned in internal rotation.
3. The greater tubercle is better demonstrated in image A.
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 only
(Saia, p 96)
(C) 1 and 3 only
In Figure 2-25, which of the following is represented by the number 1?
(A) Pedicle
(B) Lamina
(C) Spinous process
(D) Superior articular process
(Saia, p 123)
(B) Lamina
If the patient's zygomatic arch has been traumatically depressed or the patient has flat cheekbones, the arch may be demonstrated by modifying the SMV projection and rotating the patient's head
(A) 15º toward the side being examined.
(B) 15º away from the side being examined.
(C) 30º toward the side being examined.
(D) 30º away from the side being examined.
(A) 15º toward the side being examined.
AP erect left and right bending films of the thoracic and lumbar vertebrae, to include 1 in of the iliac crest, are performed to demonstrate
(A) spondylolisthesis.
(B) subluxation.
(C) scoliosis.
(D) arthritis.
(C) scoliosis.
Aspirated foreign bodies in older children and adults are most likely to lodge in the
(A) right main bronchus.
(B) left main bronchus.
(C) esophagus.
(D) proximal stomach.
(A) right main bronchus.
Examination of the pars petrosae in the posterior profile position (Stenvers method) requires
1. the use of the IOML.
2. the MSP to be rotated 45º.
3. that the head rest on the forehead, nose, and chin.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(B) 1 and 2 only
A patient is usually required to drink barium sulfate suspension in order to demonstrate which of the following structures?
1. Esophagus
2. Pylorus
3. Ilium
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(B) 1 and 2 only
T-tube cholangiography is performed
(A) preoperatively.
(B) during surgery.
(C) postoperatively.
(D) with a Chiba needle.
(C) postoperatively.
In which of the following positions was the radiograph in Figure 2-7 made?
(A) AP with perpendicular plantar surface
(B) 45º lateral oblique
(C) 20º medial oblique
(D) 45º medial oblique
(Ballinger and Frank, vol 1, p 279)
(D) 45º medial oblique
In Figure 2-27, which of the following is represented by the number 12?
(A) Vertebral border
(B) Axillary border
(C) Inferior angle
(D) Superior angle
(Tortora & Grabowski, p 221)
(D) Superior angle
Which of the following are appropriate techniques for imaging a patient with a possible traumatic spine injury?
1. Instruct the patient to turn slowly and stop if anything hurts.
2. Maneuver the x-ray tube head instead of moving the patient.
3. Call for help and use the log-rolling method to turn the patient.
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(C) 2 and 3 only
In which of the following projections is the talofibular joint best demonstrated?
(A) AP
(B) Lateral oblique
(C) Medial oblique
(D) Lateral
(C) Medial oblique
The radiograph shown in Figure 2-13 demonstrates the articulation between the
1. talus and the calcaneus.
2. calcaneus and the cuboid.
3. talus and the navicular.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(Ballinger & Frank, vol 1, pp 244-245)
(C) 2 and 3 only
During GI radiography, the position of the stomach may vary depending on
1. respiratory phase.
2. body habitus.
3. patient position.
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(D) 1, 2, and 3
Which of the following is the correct sequence of events when performing a double-contrast upper GI series?
(A) Patient is given gas-producing substance, then given a small amount of high-density barium, then placed recumbent.
(B) Patient is placed recumbent, given a small amount of high-density barium, then given a gas-producing substance.
(C) Patient is given a gas-producing substance, placed recumbent, then given a small amount of high-density barium.
(D) Patient is given a small amount of high-density barium, placed recumbent, then given a gas-producing substance.
(A) Patient is given gas-producing substance, then given a small amount of high-density barium, then placed recumbent.
In which of the following positions / projections will the talocalcaneal joint be visualized?
(A) Dorsoplantar projection of the foot
(B) Plantodorsal projection of the os calcis
(C) Medial oblique position of the foot
(D) Lateral foot
(Fig. 2-36)(Ballinger & Frank, vol 1, p 215)
(B) Plantodorsal projection of the os calcis
With the patient PA, MSP centered to the grid, the OML forming a 37º angle with the film, and the central ray perpendicular and exiting the acanthion, which of the following is best demonstrated?
(A) Occipital bone
(B) Frontal bone
(C) Facial bones
(D) Basal foramina
(C) Facial bones
Which of the following procedures will best demonstrate the cephalic, basilic, and subclavian veins?
(A) Aortofemoral arteriogram
(B) Upper-limb venogram
(C) Lower-limb venogram
(D) Renal venogram
(B) Upper-limb venogram
The coronoid process should be visualized in profile in which of the following positions?
(A) Scapular Y
(B) AP scapula
(C) Medial oblique elbow
(D) Lateral oblique elbow
(C) Medial oblique elbow
In a lateral projection of the nasal bones, the central ray is directed
(A) 1/2 in posterior to the anterior nasal spine.
(B) 3/4 in posterior to the glabella.
(C) 3/4 in distal to the nasion.
(D) 1/2 in anterior to the EAM.
(C) 3/4 in distal to the nasion.
Deoxygenated blood from the head and thorax is returned to the heart by the
(A) pulmonary artery.
(B) pulmonary veins.
(C) superior vena cava.
(D) thoracic aorta.
(C) superior vena cava.
All of the following are palpable bony landmarks used in radiography of the pelvis except the
(A) femoral neck.
(B) pubic symphysis.
(C) greater trochanter.
(D) iliac crest.
(A) femoral neck.
Which of the following structures should be visualized through the foramen magnum in the AP axial projection (Grashey method) of the skull for occipital bone?
1. Posterior clinoid processes
2. Dorsum sella
3. Posterior arch of C1
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
Which of the following projection(s) require(s) that the shoulder be placed in internal rotation?
1. AP humerus
2. Lateral forearm
3. Lateral humerus
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(C) 3 only
The inhalation of liquid or solid particles into the nose, throat, or lungs is referred to as
(A) asphyxia
(B) aspiration
(C) atelectasis
(D) asystole
(B) aspiration
Which of the following positions is essential in radiography of the paranasal sinuses?
(A) Erect
(B) Recumbent
(C) Oblique
(D) Trendelenburg
(A) Erect
The cross-table or axiolateral projection of the hip requires the cassette to be placed
1. in contact with the lateral surface of the body, with the top edge slightly above the iliac crest.
2. in a vertical position and exactly perpendicular to the long axis of the femoral neck.
3. just above the iliac crest and adjacent to the lateral surface of the affected hip.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(C) 1 and 3 only
What should the patient be instructed to remove prior to x-ray examination of the chest?
1. Dentures
2. Earrings
3. Necklaces
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(C) 3 only
The letter C in Figure 2-11 indicates
(A) the left cardiophrenic angle.
(B) the right cardiophrenic angle.
(C) the left costophrenic angle.
(D) the right costophrenic angle.
(Ballinger & Frank, vol 1, pp 525-526)
(D) the right costophrenic angle.
Involuntary motion can be caused by
1. peristalsis.
2. severe pain.
3. heart muscle contraction.
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(D) 1, 2, and 3
Which type of articulation is evaluated in arthrography?
(A) Synarthrodial
(B) Diarthrodial
(C) Amphiarthrodial
(D) Cartilaginous
(B) Diarthrodial
Which of the following radiologic examinations can demonstrate ureteral reflux?
(A) Intravenous urogram
(B) Retrograde pyelogram
(C) Voiding cystourethrogram
(D) Nephrotomogram
(C) Voiding cystourethrogram
Which of the following criteria are used to evaluate a PA projection of the chest?
1. Ten posterior ribs should be visualized.
2. Sternoclavicular joints should be symmetrical.
3. The scapulae should be lateral to the lung fields.
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(D) 1, 2, and 3
Which of the following statements regarding myelography is (are) correct?
1. Spinal puncture may be performed in the prone or flexed lateral position.
2. Contrast medium distribution is regulated through x-ray tube angulation.
3. The patient's neck must be in extension during Trendelenburg positions.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(C) 1 and 3 only
Which of the following are well demonstrated in the lumbar spine pictured in Figure 2-33?
1. Apophyseal articulations
2. Intervertebral foramina
3. Inferior articular processes
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
[An oblique projection of the lumbar spine is illustrated] (Bontrager, p 320)
(C) 1 and 3 only
In Figure 2-27, which of the following is represented by the number 2?
(A) Acromion process
(B) Scapular spine
(C) Coracoid process
(D) Acromioclavicular joint
[depicts a posterior view of the right scapula and its articulation with the humerus ] (Tortora & Grabowski, p 221)
(C) Coracoid process
Which of the following is a radiologic procedure that functions to dilate a stenotic vessel?
(A) Percutaneous nephrolithotomy
(B) Percutaneous angioplasty
(C) Renal arteriography
(D) Surgical nephrostomy
(B) Percutaneous angioplasty
A flat and upright abdomen is requested on an acutely ill patient, to demonstrate the presence of air-fluid levels. Because of the patient's condition, the x-ray table can be tilted upright only 70º (rather than the desired 90º). How should the central ray be directed?
(A) Perpendicular to the film
(B) Parallel to the floor
(C) 20º caudad
(D) 20º cephalad
(B) Parallel to the floor
Which of the following bones participates in the formation of the knee joint?
1. Femur
2. Tibia
3. Patella
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(A) 1 and 2 only
Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) usually involves
1. cannulation of the hepatopancreatic ampulla.
2. introduction of contrast medium into the common bile duct.
3. introduction of barium directly into the duodenum.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(B) 1 and 2 only
With the patient and the x-ray tube positioned as illustrated in Figure 2-2, which of the following will be obtained?
1. Intercondyloid fossa
2. Patellofemoral articulation
3. Tangential patella
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
"Tunnel View" (Ballinger & Frank, vol 1, p 311)
(B) 1 and 2 only
Which of the following positions will most effectively move the gallbladder away from the vertebrae in the asthenic patient?
(A) LAO
(B) RAO
(C) LPO
(D) Erect
(A) LAO
The fifth metacarpal is located on which aspect of the hand?
(A) Medial
(B) Lateral
(C) Ulnar
(D) Volar
(A) Medial
For the average patient, the central ray for a lateral projection of a barium-filled stomach should enter
(A) midway between the midcoronal line and the anterior abdominal surface.
(B) midway between the vertebral column and the lateral border of the abdomen.
(C) at the midcoronal line at the level of the iliac crest.
(D) perpendicular to the level of L2.
(Ballinger & Frank, vol 2, pp 114-115)
(A) midway between the midcoronal line and the anterior abdominal surface.
"Flattening" of the hemidiaphragms is characteristic of which of the following conditions?
(A) Pneumothorax
(B) Emphysema
(C) Pleural effusion
(D) Pneumonia
(B) Emphysema
With the patient in the PA position and the OML and central ray perpendicular to the film, the resulting radiograph will demonstrate the petrous pyramids
(A) below the orbits.
(B) in the lower one-third of the orbits.
(C) completely within the orbits.
(D) above the orbits.
(C) completely within the orbits.
Which of the following radiologic procedures requires that a contrast medium be injected into the renal pelvis via a catheter placed within the ureter?
(A) Nephrotomography
(B) Retrograde urography
(C) Cystourethrography
(D) IV urography
(B) Retrograde urography
Which of the following techniques would provide a PA projection of the gastroduodenal surfaces of the barium-filled, high and transverse stomach?
(A) Place the patient in a 35 to 40º RAO position.
(B) Place the patient in a lateral position.
(C) Angle the central ray 35 to 45º cephalad.
(D) Angle the central ray 35 to 45º caudad.
(C) Angle the central ray 35 to 45º cephalad.
Which of the following projections is most likely to demonstrate the carpal pisiform free of superimposition?
(A) Radial flexion
(B) Ulnar flexion
(C) AP oblique
(D) AP 6.
(C) AP oblique
The usual patient preparation for an upper GI series is
(A) clear fluids 8 h prior to exam.
(B) NPO after midnight.
(C) enemas until clear before exam.
(D) light breakfast the day of the exam.
(B) NPO after midnight.
Tracheostomy and intubation are effective techniques used to restore breathing when there is (are)
(A) respiratory pathway obstruction above the larynx.
(B) crushed tracheal rings due to trauma.
(C) lower respiratory pathway closure due to inflammation and swelling.
(D) respiratory pathway obstruction below the larynx.
(A) respiratory pathway obstruction above the larynx.
The letter A in Figure 2-11 indicates
(A) a left anterior rib.
(B) a right posterior rib.
(C) a left posterior rib.
(D) a right anterior rib.
(Ballinger & Frank, vol 1, pp 525-526)
(C) a left posterior rib.
What should you do if you discover while taking the patient history that a patient scheduled for an intravenous pyelogram (IVP) takes Glucophage (metformin hydrochloride) daily?
1. Proceed with the exam.
2. Reschedule the exam until the patient has been off Glucophage for 48 h.
3. Instruct the patient to withhold the Glucophage for 48 h after the exam.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(C) 1 and 3 only
The best way to control voluntary motion is
(A) immobilization of the part.
(B) careful explanation of the procedure.
(C) short exposure time.
(D) physical restraint.
(B) careful explanation of the procedure.
Which of the following statements is (are) correct with respect to evaluation criteria for a PA projection of the chest for lungs?
1. The sternoclavicular joints should be symmetrical.
2. The sternum is seen lateral without rotation.
3. Ten anterior ribs are demonstrated above the diaphragm.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(A) 1 only
To obtain an exact axial projection of the clavicle, place the patient
(A) supine and angle the central ray 30º caudally.
(B) prone and angle the central ray 30º cephalad.
(C) supine and angle the central ray 15º cephalad.
(D) in a lordotic position and direct the central ray at right angles to the coronal plane of the clavicle.
(D) in a lordotic position and direct the central ray at right angles to the coronal plane of the clavicle.
Which of the following statements regarding the radiograph in Figure 2-6 is (are) true?
1. The position is used to demonstrate the frontal and ethmoidal sinuses.
2. The sphenoidal sinuses are seen near the medial aspect of the orbits.
3. The chin should be elevated more to bring the petrous ridges below the maxillary sinuses.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(Ballinger & Frank, vol 2, pp 366-367)
(A) 1 only
Which of the following is (are) demonstrated in the AP projection of the cervical spine?
1. Intervertebral disk spaces
2. C3-7 cervical bodies
3. Apophyseal joints
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(B) 1 and 2 only
The ridge that marks the bifurcation of the trachea into the right and left primary bronchi is the (A) root.
(B) hilus.
(C) carina.
(D) epiglottis.
(C) carina.
The position shown in Figure 2-15 is known as
(A) ventral decubitus.
(B) dorsal decubitus.
(C) left lateral decubitus.
(D) right lateral decubitus.
(Bontager, p 20)
(C) left lateral decubitus.
Examples of synovial pivot articulations include the
1. atlantoaxial joint
2. radioulnar joint
3. temporomandibulon joint
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
Which of the following bones participate in the formation of the acetabulum?
1. Ilium
2. Ischium
3. Pubis
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(D) 1, 2, and 3
In which of the following ways was the image seen in Figure 2-6 obtained?
(A) PA, chin extended, OML forming 37º to table
(B) PA, OML and central ray (CR) perpendicular to table
(C) PA, OML perpendicular to table, CR 25º caudad
(D) PA, OML perpendicular to table, CR 25º cephalad

[illustrated radiograph is a PA axial projection (Caldwell Method) of the frontal and anterior ethmoidal sinuses. ]
(Ballinger & Frank, vol 2, pp 366-367)
(C) PA, OML perpendicular to table, CR 25º caudad
For the AP projection of the scapula, the
1. patient's arm is abducted at right angles to the body.
2. patient's elbow is flexed with the hand supinated.
3. exposure is made during quiet breathing.
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(D) 1, 2, and 3
The radiograph seen in Figure 2-20 was made in what position?
(A) PA
(B) RAO
(C) LPO
(D) Right lateral
(Saia, p 177)
(C) LPO

[The LPO position of the stomach is shown.]
The AP projection of the sacrum requires that the central ray be directed
1. 15º cephalad.
2. 2 in superior to the pubic symphysis.
3. midline at the level of the lesser trochanter.
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1 and 3 only
(A) 1 only
Which of the following are demonstrated in the lateral projection of the thoracic spine?
1. Intervertebral spaces
2. Apophyseal joints
3. Intervertebral foramina
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(C) 1 and 3 only
Peripheral lymphatic vessels are located using
(A) ethiodized oil.
(B) blue dye.
(C) a tiny scalpel.
(D) water-soluble iodinated media.
(B) blue dye.
Which of the following structures is (are) located in the right lower quadrant (RLQ)?
1. Gallbladder
2. Hepatic flexure
3. Cecum
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(C) 3 only
Which of the following sequences correctly describes the path of blood flow as it leaves the left ventricle?
(A) Arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, veins
(B) Arterioles, arteries, capillaries, veins, venules
(C) Veins, venules, capillaries, arteries, arterioles
(D) Venules, veins, capillaries, arterioles, arteries
(A) Arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, veins
The radiograph pictured in Figure 2-32 may be used to evaluate
1. polypoid lesions.
2. the lateral wall of the descending colon.
3. the posterior wall of the rectum.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
[radiograph was made in the right lateral decubitus position.] (Ballinger & Frank, vol 2, pp 149-151)
(B) 1 and 2 only
Patients are instructed to remove all jewelry, hair clips, metal prostheses, coins, and credit cards before entering the room for an examination in
(A) sonography.
(B) computed axial tomography (CAT).
(C) magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).
(D) nuclear medicine.
(C) magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).
All of the following bones are associated with condyles except the
(A) femur.
(B) tibia.
(C) fibula.
(D) mandible.
(Fig. 2-42)(Tortora & Grabowski, p 234)
(C) fibula.
Which of the following examinations involves the introduction of a radiopaque contrast medium through a uterine cannula?
(A) Retrograde pyelogram
(B) Voiding cystourethrogram
(C) Hysterosalpingogram
(D) Myelogram
(C) Hysterosalpingogram
Hysterosalpingography may be performed for demonstration of
1. uterine tubal patency.
2. mass lesions in the uterine cavity.
3. uterine position.
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(D) 1, 2, and 3
Which of the following precaution(s) should be observed when radiographing a patient who has sustained a traumatic injury to the hip?
1. When a fracture is suspected, manipulation of the affected extremity should be performed by a physician.
2. The AP axiolateral projection should be avoided.
3. To evaluate the entire region, the pelvis is typically included in the initial examination.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(B) 1 and 3 only
A "blowout" fracture is usually related to which of the following structures?
(A) Foot
(B) Elbow
(C) Orbit
(D) Pelvis
(C) Orbit
The patient positioned for an operative cholangiography is in a
(A) 15 to 20º LPO.
(B) 15 to 20º RPO.
(C) 45º LPO.
(D) 45º RPO.
(B) 15 to 20º RPO.
To make the patient as comfortable as possible during a single-contrast barium enema (BE), the radiographer should
1. instruct the patient to relax the abdominal muscles to prevent intraabdominal pressure.
2. instruct the patient to concentrate on breathing deeply to reduce colonic spasm.
3. prepare a warm barium suspension (98 to 105ºF) to aid in retention.
(A) 2 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(B) 1 and 2 only
All of the following are mediastinal structures except the
(A) esophagus.
(B) thymus.
(C) heart.
(D) terminal bronchiole.
(D) terminal bronchiole.
What is the structure indicated by the number 6 in Figure 2-16?
(A) Common hepatic duct
(B) Common bile duct
(C) Cystic duct
(D) Pancreatic duct
(Tortora & Grabowski, p 875)
(A) Common hepatic duct
Which of the following is recommended to demonstrate small amounts of air within the peritoneal cavity?
(A) Lateral decubitus, affected side up
(B) Lateral decubitus, affected side down
(C) AP Trendelenburg
(D) AP supine
(A) Lateral decubitus, affected side up

Air or fluid levels will be clearly delineated only if the central ray is directed parallel to them.

Therefore, the erect or decubitus position should be used.
To best visualize the lower ribs, the exposure should be made
(A) on normal inspiration.
(B) on inspiration, second breath.
(C) on expiration.
(D) during shallow breathing.
(C) on expiration.
In the lateral projection of the scapula, the
1. vertebral and axillary borders are superimposed.
2. acromion and coracoid processes are superimposed.
3. patient may be examined in the erect position.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(C) 1 and 3 only
All of the following may be determined by oral cholecystography except
(A) liver function.
(B) ability of the gallbladder to concentrate bile.
(C) emptying power of the gallbladder.
(D) pancreatic function.
(D) pancreatic function.
During myelography, contrast medium is introduced into the
(A) subdural space.
(B) subarachnoid space.
(C) epidural space.
(D) epidermal space.
(Saia, pp 197-198)
(B) subarachnoid space.

(Fig. 2-44). The subdural space is located between the arachnoid and dura mater.
Which of the following positions is used to demonstrate vertical patellar fractures and the patellofemoral articulation?
(A) AP knee
(B) Lateral knee
(C) Tangential patella
(D) "Tunnel" view
(C) Tangential patella
Operative cholangiography may be performed to
1. visualize biliary stones or a neoplasm.
2. determine function of the hepatopancreatic ampulla.
3. examine the patency of the biliary tract.
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(D) 1, 2, and 3
Which of the following will best demonstrate the size and shape of the liver and kidneys?
(A) Lateral abdomen
(B) AP abdomen
(C) Dorsal decubitus abdomen
(D) Ventral decubitus abdomen
(B) AP abdomen
Ingestion of barium sulfate is contraindicated in which of the following situations?
1. Suspected perforation of a hollow viscus
2. Suspected large-bowel obstruction
3. Presurgical patients
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(D) 1, 2, and 3
To better demonstrate the ribs below the diaphragm,
1. suspend respiration at the end of full exhalation.
2. suspend respiration at the end of deep inhalation.
3. perform the exam in the recumbent position.
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
The uppermost portion of the iliac crest is at approximately the same level as the
(A) costal margin.
(B) umbilicus.
(C) xiphoid tip.
(D) fourth lumbar vertebra.
(D) fourth lumbar vertebra.
Which of the following should be performed to rule out subluxation or fracture of the cervical spine?
(A) Oblique cervical spine, seated
(B) AP cervical spine, recumbent
(C) Horizontal beam lateral
(D) Laterals in flexion and extension
(C) Horizontal beam lateral
Which of the following is recommended in order to better demonstrate the tarso-metatarsal joints in the dorsoplantar projection of the foot?
(A) Invert the foot
(B) Evert the foot
(C) Angle the central ray 10º posteriorly
(D) Angle the central ray 10º anteriorly
(C) Angle the central ray 10º posteriorly
Which of the following statements is (are) correct regarding the parietoacanthial projection (Waters' method) of the skull?
1. The head is rested on the extended chin.
2. The OML is perpendicular to the film.
3. The maxillary antra should be projected above the petrosa.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(C) 1 and 3 only
Which of the following positions would best demonstrate the proximal tibiofibular articulation?
(A) AP
(B) 90º mediolateral
(C) 45º internal rotation
(D) 45º external rotation
(C) 45º internal rotation
Movement of a part toward the midline of the body is termed
(A) eversion.
(B) inversion.
(C) abduction.
(D) adduction.
(D) adduction.
In which type of fracture are the splintered ends of bone forced through the skin?
(A) Closed
(B) Compound
(C) Compression
(D) DepressedAnswers and Explanations
(B) Compound
Which of the following projections or positions will best demonstrate subacromial or subcoracoid dislocation?
(A) Tangential
(B) AP axial
(C) Transthoracic lateral
(D) PA oblique scapular Y
(D) PA oblique scapular Y
To obtain an AP projection of the right ilium, the patient's
(A) left side is elevated 40º.
(B) right side is elevated 40º.
(C) left side is elevated 15º.
(D) right side is elevated 15º.
(A) left side is elevated 40º.
Double-contrast examinations of the stomach or large bowel are performed to better visualize the
(A) position of the organ.
(B) size and shape of the organ.
(C) diverticula.
(D) gastric or bowel mucosa.
(D) gastric or bowel mucosa.
Which of the following projections of the elbow should demonstrate the coronoid process free of superimposition and the olecranon process within the olecranon fossa?
(A) AP
(B) Lateral
(C) Medial oblique
(D) Lateral oblique
(C) Medial oblique
Which of the following is (are) required for a lateral projection of the skull?
1. The IOML is parallel to the film.
2. The MSP is perpendicular to the film.
3. The central ray enters 2 in superior to the external auditory meatus (EAM).
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(B) 1 and 3 only
Which of the positions illustrated in Figure 2-21 will best demonstrate the lumbar apophyseal joints closest to the film?
(A) Number 1
(B) Number 2
(C) Number 3
(D) Number 4
(Bontrager & Frank, vol 1, pp 431, 434-435)
(A) Number 1
[Four positions for the lumbar spine are illustrated -# 1 is an RPO]
Fluoroscopic imaging of the ileocecal valve is generally part of a(n)
(A) esophagram.
(B) upper GI series.
(C) small-bowel series.
(D) ERCP.
(C) small-bowel series.
In the posterior profile projection (Stenvers method) of the petrous pyramids, the
1. central ray is directed 12º cephalad.
2. MSP is 45º to the film.
3. head rests on the zygoma, nose, and chin.
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(A) 1 and 2 only
In the AP projection of the ankle, the
1. plantar surface of the foot is vertical.
2. fibula projects more distally than the tibia.
3. calcaneus is well visualized.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(B) 1 and 2 only
Which of the following women is likely to have the most homogeneous, glandular breast tissue?
(A) A postpubertal adolescent
(B) A 20 year old with one previous pregnancy
(C) A menopausal woman
(D) A postmenopausal 65 year old
(A) A postpubertal adolescent
To better demonstrate contrast-filled distal ureters during IV urography, it is helpful to
1. use a 15º AP Trendelenburg position.
2. apply compression to the proximal ureters.
3. apply compression to the distal ureters.
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1 and 3 only
(A) 1 only
The radiograph seen in Figure 2-9 best demonstrates the
(A) descending colon.
(B) rectosigmoid region.
(C) splenic flexure.
(D) hepatic flexure.
[ radiograph is an oblique position of the large bowel,]
Ballinger & Frank, vol 2, p 146)
(D) hepatic flexure.
What is the name of the condition that results in the forward slipping of one vertebra on the one below it?
(A) Spondylitis
(B) Spondylolysis
(C) Spondylolisthesis
(D) Spondylosis
(C) Spondylolisthesis
In myelography, the contrast medium is generally injected into the
(A) cisterna magna.
(B) individual intervertebral disks.
(C) subarachnoid space between the first and second lumbar vertebrae.
(D) subarachnoid space between the third and fourth lumbar vertebrae.
(Fig. 2-57) (Saia, pp 197-198)
(D) subarachnoid space between the third and fourth lumbar vertebrae.
With a patient in the PA position and the OML perpendicular to the table, a 15 to 20º caudal angulation would place the petrous ridges in the lower third of the orbit. In order to achieve the same result in a baby or a small child, it is necessary for the radiographer to modify the angulation to
(A) 10 to 15º caudal.
(B) 25 to 30º caudal.
(C) 15 to 20º cephalic.
(D) No change in angulation is necessary.
(A) 10 to 15º caudal.
Which of the following are components of a trimalleolar fracture?
1. Fractured lateral malleolus
2. Fractured medial malleolus
3. Fractured posterior tibia
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(D) 1, 2, and 3
Prior to the start of an IV urogram, which of the following procedures should be carried out?
1. Have patient empty the bladder.
2. Review the patient's allergy history.
3. Check the patient's creatinine level.
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(D) 1, 2, and 3
During atrial systole, blood flows into the right ventricle by way of what valve?
(A) Pulmonary semilunar
(B) Aortic
(C) Mitral
(D) Tricuspid
(Fig. 2-48)
(Tortora & Grabowski, pp 669-670)
(D) Tricuspid
Which of the following conditions is often the result of ureteral obstruction or stricture?
(A) Pyelonephrosis
(B) Nephroptosis
(C) Hydronephrosis
(D) Cystourethritis
(C) Hydronephrosis
Which of the following describes correct centering for the lateral position of a barium-filled stomach?
(A) Midway between the vertebrae and the left lateral margin of the abdomen
(B) Midway between the midcoronal plane and the anterior surface of the abdomen
(C) Midway between the midsagittal plane and the right lateral margin of the abdomen
(D) Midway between the midcoronal plane and the posterior surface of the abdomen
(Ballinger & Frank, vol 2, p 114)
(B) Midway between the midcoronal plane and the anterior surface of the abdomen
The body habitus characterized by a long and narrow thoracic cavity and low, midline stomach and gallbladder is the
(A) asthenic.
(B) hyposthenic.
(C) sthenic.
(D) hypersthenic.
(Saia, p 76)
(A) asthenic.
Which of the following is a major cause of bowel obstruction in children?
(A) Appendicitis
(B) Intussusception
(C) Regional enteritis
(D) Ulcerative colitis
(B) Intussusception