329 terms

Multiple Choice Questions

STUDY
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Which question no longer concerns the modern software engineer?
Why does computer hardware cost so much?
Today the increased power of the personal computer has brought about an abandonment of the practice of team development of software
False
Software is a product and can be manufactured using the same technologies used for other engineering artefacts.
False
Software deteriorates rather than wears out because
Multiple change requests introduce errors in component interactions
Most software continues to be custom built because
Off‐the‐shelf software components are unavailable in many application domains.
The nature of software applications can be characterized by their information
content and determinacy
Modern software applications are so complex that it is hard to develop mutually exclusive category names.
True
The so called "new economy" that gripped commerce and finance during the 1990s died and no longer influences decisions made by businesses and software engineers.
False
The functionality of most computer systems does not need to be enhanced the lifetime of the system.
False
Change cannot be easily accommodated in most software systems, unless the system was designed with change in mind
True
Most software development projects are initiated to try to meet some business need.
True
In general software only succeeds if its behavior is consistent with the objectives of its designers.
False
Which of the items listed below is not one of the software engineering layers?
(a) Process
(b) Manufacturing
(c) Methods
(d) Tools
Manufacturing
Software engineering umbrella activities are only applied during the initial phases of software development projects.
False
Which of these are the 5 generic software engineering framework activities?
communication, planning, modeling, construction, deployment
Process models are described as agile because they
emphasize maneuverability and adaptability
Which of these terms are level names in the Capability Maturity Model?
(a) Performed
(b) Repeated
(c) Reused
(d) Optimized
Performed and Optimized
Software processes can be constructed out of pre‐existing software patterns to best meet the needs of a software project.
True
Which of these are standards for assessing software processes?
SPICE and ISO 9001
The best software process model is one that has been created by the people who will actually be doing the work.
True
Which of these is not a characteristic of Personal Software Process?
Practitioner requires careful supervision by the project manager
Which of these are objectives of Team Software Process?
Allow better time management by highly trained professionals & Build self‐directed software teams
Process technology tools allow software organizations to compress schedules by skipping unimportant activities.
False
It is generally accepted that one cannot have weak software processes and create high quality end products.
True
The linear sequential model of software development is
A reasonable approach when requirements are well defined.
The linear sequential model of software development is also known as the
Classical life cycle model and Waterfall model
The incremental model of software development is
A good approach when a working core product is required quickly.
The rapid application development model is
A high speed adaptation of the linear sequential model.
Evolutionary software process models
(a) Are iterative in nature
(b) Can easily accommodate product requirements changes
(c) Do not generally produce throwaway systems
The prototyping model of software development is
A useful approach when a customer cannot define requirements clearly.
The spiral model of software development
Includes project risks evaluation during each iteration
The concurrent development model is
Often used for the development of client/server applications.
The component‐based development model is
Works best when object technologies are available for support.
The formal methods model of software development makes use of mathematical methods to
(a) Define the specification for computer‐based systems
(b) Develop defect free computer‐based systems and
(c) Verify the correctness of computer‐based systems
Which of these is not one of the phase names defined by the Unified Process model for software development?
(a) Inception phase
(b) Elaboration phase
(c) Construction phase or
(d) Validation phase
Validation phase
In the Unified Process model requirements are determined iteratively and may span more than one phase of the process.
True
Agility is nothing more than the ability of a project team to respond rapidly to change.
False
Which of the following is not necessary to apply agility to a software process?
Eliminate the use of project planning and testing
Which of the following is necessary to apply agility to a software process?
(a) Only essential work products are produced
(b) Process allows team to streamline tasks
(c) Uses incremental product delivery strategy
How do you create agile processes to manage unpredictability?
(a) Software increments must be delivered in short time periods
(b) Software processes must adapt to changes
In agile software processes the highest priority is to satisfy the customer through early and continuous delivery of valuable software.
True
It is not possible to build software that meets the customers' needs today and exhibits the quality characteristics that will enable it to be extended tomorrow.
False
Which of the following traits need to exist among the members of an agile software team?
(a) Competence
(b) Decision-making ability
(c) Mutual trust and respect
All agile process models conform to a greater or lesser degree to the principles stated in the "Manifesto for Agile Software Development".
True
What are the four framework activities found in the Extreme Programming (XP) process model?
planning, design, coding, testing
What are the three framework activities for the Adaptive Software Development (ASD) process model?
speculation, collaboration, learning
The Dynamic Systems Development Method (DSDM) suggests a philosophy that is based on the Pareto principle (80% of the application can be delivered in 20% of the time required to build the complete application).
True
Which is not one of the key questions that is answered by each team member at each daily Scrum meeting?
(a) What did you do since the last meeting?
(b) What obstacles are you encountering?
(c) What is the cause of the problems you are encountering?
(d) What do you plan to accomplish at the next team meeting?
(c) What is the cause of the problems you are encountering?
In Feature Driven Development (FDD) a "feature" is a client-valued function that can be delivered in two months or less.
False
Agile Modeling (AM) provides guidance to practitioner during which of these software tasks?
(a) Analysis
(b) Design
(c) Coding
(d) Testing
a and b, that is,
(a) Analysis and
(b) Design
The essence of software engineering practice might be described as
(i) understand the problem
(ii) plan a solution
(iii) carry out the plan
(iv) and examine the result for accuracy.
True
Which of the following is not one of Hooker's core principles of software engineering practice?
A) All design should be as simple as possible but no simpler
B) A software system exists only to provide value to its users.
C) Pareto principle - 20% of any product requires 80% of the effort
D) Remember that you produce others will consume
C) Pareto principle - 20% of any product requires 80% of the effort
Every communication activity should have a facilitator to make sure that the customer is not allowed to dominate the proceedings.
False
The agile view of iterative customer communication and collaboration is applicable to all software engineering practice.
True
Software engineers collaborate with customers to define which of the following?
A) Customer visible usage scenarios
B) Important software features
C) System inputs and outputs
D) All of the above
D) All of the above, that is:
Customer visible usage scenarios
Important software features
System inputs and outputs
Everyone on the software team should be involved in the planning activity so that we can
A) reduce the granularity of the plan
B) analyze requirements in depth
C) get all team members to "sign up" to the plan
D) begin design
C) get all team members to "sign up" to the plan
What role(s) do user stories play in agile planning?
A) Define useful software features and functions delivered to end-users
B) Determine a schedule used to deliver each software increment
C) Provide a substitute to performing detailed scheduling of activities
D) Used to estimate the effort required build the current increment
E) both a and d
D) Used to estimate the effort required build the current increment
Which of the following activities is not one of the four things that need to be accomplished by the generic planning task set?
A) Develop overall project strategy
B) Identify the functionality to deliver in each software increment
C) Create a detailed schedule for the complete software project
D) Devise a means of tracking progress on a regular basis
C) Create a detailed schedule for the complete software project
Analysis models depict software in which three representations?
A) architecture interface component
B) cost risk schedule
C) information function behavior
D) None of the above
C) information function behavior
The customer can directly observe both the difference between the internal quality of a design and its external quality?
False
Teams using agile software practices never create models.
False
Many of the tasks from the generic task sets for analysis modeling and design can be conducted in parallel with one another.
True
Which of the following is not one of the principles of good coding?
A) Create unit tests before you begin coding
B) Create a visual layout that aids understanding
C) Keep variable names short so that code is compact
D) Write self-documenting code not program documentation
C) Keep variable names short so that code is compact
A successful test is one that discovers at least one as-yet undiscovered error.
True
Which of the following are tasks in the generic task set for construction?
A) Build a software component
B) Create a user interface
C) Unit test the component
D) Assess the quality of the component
E) both a and c
E) both a and c, that is
A) Build a software component and
C) Unit test the component
Which of the following are valid reasons for collecting customer feedback concerning delivered software?
A) Allows developers to make changes to the delivered increment
B) Delivery schedule can be revised to reflect changes
C) Developers can identify changes to incorporate into next increment
D) All of the above
D) All of the above, that is:
It allows developers to make changes to the delivered increment.
The delivery schedule can be revised to reflect changes
The developers can identify changes to incorporate into next increment
Software engineers do not need to consider hardware when designing a computer-based system.
False
Which of the following can be elements of computer-based systems?
A) documentation
B) software
C) people
D) hardware
E) all of the above
E) all of the above, that is, documentation, software, people
and hardware
The system engineering process usually begins with the
A) detailed view
B) domain view
C) element view
D) world view
D) world view
To construct a system model the engineer should consider which of the following restraining factors?
A) assumptions
B) budget
C) constraints
D) schedule
E) both a and c
E) both a and c, that is, assumptions and constraints
By following modern system engineering practices simulation of reactive systems is no longer necessary.
False
During business process engineering three different architectures are examined.
A) applications, data, technology, infrastructure
B) communications, organization, financial, infrastructure
C) network, database, reporting, structure
D) systems, requirements, data, structure
A) applications, data, technology, infrastructure
Which elements of business processing engineering are the responsibilities of the software engineer?
A) business area analysis
B) business system design
C) construction and integration
D) information strategy planning
E) both b and c
E) both b and c, that is, business system design as well as construction and integration
The goal of product engineering is to translate the customer's desire for a set of defined capabilities into a working product.
True
The architecture components for product engineering are
A) data, hardware, software, people
B) data, documentation, hardware, software
C) data, hardware, software, procedures
D) documentation, hardware, people procedures
A) data, hardware, software, people
The top level of the hierarchical model of a system is known as the
A) AFD
B) DFD
C) SCD
D) SFD
C) SCD
The system model template contains which of the following elements
A) input
B) output
C) user interface
D) all of the above
D) all of the above, that is input, output and user interface
UML notations that can be used to model the hardware and software elements of a system are
A) Activity diagrams
B) Class diagrams
C) Deployment diagrams
D) Use-case diagrams
E) a, b and c
E) a, b and c, that is, Activity diagrams, Class diagrams and
Deployment diagrams
Requirements engineering is a generic process that does not vary from one software project to another.
True
During project inception the intent of the of the tasks are to determine
A) basic problem understanding
B) nature of the solution needed
C) people who want a solution
D) none of the above
E) a, b and c
E) a, b and c, that is, basic problem understanding, nature of the solution needed and the people who want a solution
Three things that make requirements elicitation difficult are problems of
A) budgeting
B) scope
C) understanding
D) volatility
E) b, c and d
E) b, c and d, that is, scope, understanding and volatility
The result of the requirements engineering elaboration task is an analysis model that defines which of the following problem domain(s)?
A) information
B) functional
C) behavioral
D) all of the above
D) all of the above, that is, information, functional and behavioral
It is relatively common for different customers to propose conflicting requirements, each arguing that his or her version is the right one.
True
The system specification describes the
A) function, performance and constraints of a computer‐based system
B) implementation of each allocated system
C) element software architecture
D) time required for system simulation
A) function, performance and constraints of a computer‐based system
The best way to conduct a requirements validation review is to
A) examine the system model for errors
B) have the customer look over the requirements
C) send them to the design team and see if they have any concerns
D) use a checklist of questions to examine each requirement
D) use a checklist of questions to examine each requirement
The best way to conduct a requirements validation review is to
D) use a checklist of questions to examine each requirement
The use of traceability tables helps to
A) debug programs following the detection of run‐time errors
B) determine the performance of algorithm implementations
C) identify, control, and track requirements changes
D) none of the above
C) identify, control, and track requirements changes
A stakeholder is anyone who will purchase the completed software system under development.
False
The job of the requirements engineer is to categorize all stakeholder information in a way that allows decision makers to choose an internally consistent set of requirements.
True
The nature of collaboration is such that all system requirements are defined by consensus of a committee of customers and developers.
False
Which of the following is not one of the context-free questions that would be used during project inception?
A) What will be the economic benefit from a good solution?
B) Who is against this project?
C) Who will pay for the work?
D) Who will use the solution?
B) Who is against this project?
In collaborative requirements gathering, the facilitator
A) cannot be a member of the software team
B) cannot be a customer
C) controls and facilitates the process
D) must be an outsider
C) controls and facilitates the process
Which of the following is not one of the requirement classifications used in Quality Function Deployment (QFD)?
A) exciting
B) expected
C) mandatory
D) normal
C) mandatory
Developers and customers create use-cases to help the software team understand how different classes of end-users will use functions.
True
The work products produced during requirement elicitation will vary depending on the
A) size of the budget
B) size of the product being built
C) software process being used
D) stakeholders needs
B) size of the product being built
Use-case actors are always people, never system devices.
False
Which of the following is not a UML diagram used to create a system analysis model?
A) activity diagram
B) class diagram
C) data-flow diagram
D) state diagram
C) dataflow diagram
Analysis patterns facilitate the transformation of the analysis model into a design model by suggesting reliable solutions to common problems.
False
In win-win negotiation, the customer's needs are met even though the developer's need may not be.
False
In requirements validation the requirements model is reviewed to ensure its technical feasibility.
False
During business process engineering three different architectures are examined.
applications, data, technology, infrastructure
Which of the following is not one of the context-free questions that would be used during project inception?
Who is against this project?
Which is not one of the key questions that is answered by each team member at each daily Scrum meeting?
What is the cause of the problems you are encountering?
Which of the following are valid reasons for collecting customer feedback concerning delivered software?
A) Allows developers to make changes to the delivered increment
B) Delivery schedule can be revised to reflect changes
C) Developers can identify changes to incorporate into next increment
Which of the following is not one of Hooker's core principles of software engineering practice?
C) Pareto principle - 20% of any product requires 80% of the effort
What role(s) do user stories play in agile planning?
D) Used to estimate the effort required to build the current increment
Which of the following activities is not one of the four things that need to be accomplished by the generic planning task set?
C) Create a detailed schedule for the complete software project
Which key questions are answered by each team member at each daily Scrum meeting?
A) What did you do since the last meeting?
B) What obstacles are you encountering?
C) What do you plan to accomplish at the next team meeting?
Which of the following are Hooker's core principles of software engineering practice?
A) All design should be as simple as possible, but no simpler
B) A software system exists only to provide value to its users.
C) Remember that what you produce others will consume
Which of the following is not an objective for building an analysis model?
A) define set of software requirements that can be validated
B) describe customer requirements
C) develop an abbreviated solution for the problem
D) establish basis for software design
C) develop an abbreviated solution for the problem
Object-oriented domain analysis is concerned with the identification and specification of reusable classes within an application domain.
True
Which of these is not an element of an object-oriented analysis model?
A) Behavioral elements
B) Class-based elements
C) Data elements
D) Scenario-based elements
C) Data elements are not an element of an object-oriented analysis model
Which of these are elements of an object-oriented analysis model?
A) Behavioral elements
B) Class-based elements
C) Scenario-based elements
In analysis models the only data objects that need representation are those that will be implemented using software classes.
False
The values that are assigned to an object's attributes make that object unique.
True
The relationships shown in a data model must be classified to show their
A) cardinality
B) directionality
C) modality
D) probability
E) both a and c
E) both a and c, that is, the relationships shown in a data model must be classified to show their
A) cardinality
C) modality
The entity relationship diagram or ERD
?A)depicts relationships between data objects
B) depicts functions that transform the data flow
C) indicates how data are transformed by the system
D) indicates system reactions to external events
A) the ERD depicts relationships between data objects
A generalized description of a collection of similar objects is a
A) class
B) instance
C) subclass
D) super class
A) a class is a generalized description of a collection of similar objects
Operations are object procedures that are invoked when an object receives a message.
True
In many cases there is no need to create a graphical representation of a usage scenario.
True
UML activity diagrams are useful in representing which analysis model elements?
A) Behavioral elements
B) Class-based elements
C) Flow-based elements
D) Scenario-based elements
D) Scenario-based elements
The data flow diagram
A) depicts relationships between data objects
B) depicts functions that transform the data flow
C) indicates how data are transformed by the system
D) indicates system reactions to external events
E) both b and c
E) both b and c, that is, the data flow diagram
B) depicts functions that transform the data flow and
C) indicates how data are transformed by the system
Control flow diagrams are
A) needed to model event driven systems.
B) required for all systems.
C) used in place of data flow diagrams.
D) useful for modeling real-time systems.
E) both a and d
E) both a and d, that is, control flow diagrams are
A) needed to model event driven systems and
D) useful for modeling real-time systems.
The data flow diagram must be augmented by descriptive text in order to describe the functional requirements for a software product.
True
Which of the following should be considered as candidate objects in a problem space?
A) events
B) people
C) structures
D) all of the above
D) all of the above, that is, events, people and structures are considered as candidate objects in a problem space.
Attributes cannot be defined for a class until design has been completed.
False
Which of the following is not one of the broad categories used to classify operations?
A) computation
B) data manipulation
C) event monitors
D) transformers
D) transformers is not one of the broad categories used to classify operations
Which of the following are broad categories used to classify operations?
A) computation
B) data manipulation
C) event monitors
Which of the following items does not appear on a CRC card?
A) class collaborators
B) class name
C) class reliability
D) class responsibilities
C) class reliability does not appear on a CRC card
Which of the following items appear on a CRC card?
A) class collaborators
B) class name
C) class responsibilities, all appear on a CRC card.
Class responsibilities are defined by
A) its attributes only
B) its collaborators
C) its operations only
D) both its attributes and operations
D) both its attributes and operations are used to define class responsibilities
An analysis package involves the categorization of analysis model elements into useful groupings.;True
Events occur whenever a(n)
A) actor and the OO system exchange information
B) class operation is invoked
C) messages are passed between objects
D) all of the above
A) Events occur whenever an actor and the OO system exchange information
The state diagram
A) depicts relationships between data objects
B) depicts functions that transform the data flow
C) indicates how data are transformed by the system
D) indicates system reactions to external events
D) The state diagram indicates system reactions to external events
For purposes of behavior modeling a state is any
A) consumer or producer of data.
B) data object hierarchy.
C) observable mode of behavior.
D) well defined process.
C) For purposes of behavior modeling a state is any observable mode of behavior.
An analysis package involves the categorization of analysis model elements into useful groupings.
True
The data dictionary contains descriptions of each software
A) control item
B) data object
C) diagram
D) notation
E) both a and b
E) both a and b, that is, the data dictionary contains descriptions of each software
A) control item
B) data object
Which of the following is not an objective for building an analysis model?
C) develop an abbreviated solution for the problem
List three of the four activities that need to be accomplished by the generic planning task set.
A) Develop overall project strategy
B) Identify the functionality to deliver in each software increment
C) Devise a means of tracking progress on a regular basis
Which of the following are areas of concern in the design model?
A) architecture
B) data
C) interfaces
D) project scope
E) a, b and c
E) a, b and c, that is:
A) architecture
B) data and
C) interfaces are areas of concern in the design model
The importance of software design can be summarized in a single word
A) accuracy
B) complexity
C) efficiency
D) quality
D) quality is the one word that summarizes the importance of software design.
Which of these are characteristics of a good design?
A) exhibits strong coupling between its modules
B) implements all requirements in the analysis model
C) includes test cases for all components
D) provides a complete picture of the software
E) both b and d
E) both b and d, that is
B) implements all requirements in the analysis model and
D) provides a complete picture of the software, are characteristics of good design.
Which of the following is not a characteristic common to all design methods?
A) configuration management
B) functional component
C) notation quality assessment
D) guidelines refinement heuristics
A) configuration management is not a characteristic common to all design methods
The following are characteristic common to all design methods
A) functional component
B) notation quality assessment
C) guidelines refinement heuristics
Software design is an iterative generic process that may be applied without modification to any software project.
False
What types of abstraction are used in software design?
A) control
B) data
C) environmental
D) procedural
E) a, b and d
E) a, b and d, that is
A) control
B) data and
D) procedural, are type of abstractions used in software design.
Which of the following models can be used to represent the architectural design of a piece of software.
A) Dynamic models
B) Functional models
C) Structural models
D) All of the above
D) All of the above, that is,
A) Dynamic models
B) Functional models and
C) Structural models are models that can be used to represent the architectural design of a piece of software.
Design patterns are not applicable to the design of object-oriented software?
False
Since modularity is an important design goal it is not possible to have too many modules in a proposed design.
False
Information hiding makes program maintenance easier by hiding data and procedure from unaffected parts of the program.
True
Cohesion is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module
A) can be written more compactly.
B) focuses on just one thing.
C) is able to complete its function in a timely manner.
D) is connected to other modules and the outside world.
B) Cohesion is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module focuses on just one thing.
Coupling is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module
A) can be written more compactly.
B) focuses on just one thing.
C) is able to complete its function in a timely manner.
D) is connected to other modules and the outside world.
D) Coupling is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module is connected to other modules and the outside world.
When using structured design methodologies the process of stepwise refinement is unnecessary.
False
Software designs are refactored to allow the creation of software that is easier to integrate, easier to test, and easier to maintain.
True
Inheritance provides a mechanism by which changes to lower level classes can be propagated to all super classes quickly.
False
Which of the following is not one of the five design class types?
A) Business domain classes
B) Entity classes
C) Process classes
D) User interface classes
B) Entity classes is not one of the five design class types
The following are part of the five design class types
A) Business domain classes
B) Process classes
Which design model elements are used to depict a model of information represented from the user's view?
A) Architectural design elements
B) Component-level design elements
C) Data design elements
D) Interface design elements
C) Data design elements are used to depict a model of information represented from the user's view
Which design is analogous to the floor plan of a house?
A) Architectural design
B) Component-level design
C) Data design
D) Interface design
A) Architectural design is analogous to the floor plan of a house.
Which design model is analogous to the detailed drawings of the access points and external utilities for a house?
A) Architectural design
B) Component-level design
C) Data design
D) Interface design
D) Interface design is analogous to the detailed drawings of the access points and external utilities for a house.
Which design model is analogous to a set of detailed drawings for each room in a house?
A) Architectural design
B) Component-level design
C) Data design
D) Interface design
B) Component-level design is analogous to a set of detailed drawings for each room in a house.
The deployment design elements specify the build order for the software components.
False
One of the key problems in software reuse is the inability to find existing reusable design patterns when hundreds of candidates exist.
True
Design patterns are best thought of as coding patterns.
False
Frameworks and design patterns are the same thing as far as designers are concerned.
False
Polymorphism reduces the effort required to extend an object system by
A) coupling objects together more tightly.
B) enabling a number of different operations to share the same name.
C) making objects more dependent on one another.
D) removing the barriers imposed by encapsulation.
B) Polymorphism reduces the effort required to extend an object system by enabling a number of different operations to share
Which of these are characteristics of a good design?
The characteristics of good design are
A) implements all requirements in the analysis model and
B) provides a complete picture of the software
How does polymorphism reduce the effort required to extend an object system?
Polymorphism reduces the effort required to extend an object system by enabling a number of different operations to share the same name.
The best representation of system architecture is an operational software
prototype.
False
The architectural representations can be an enabler for communication among project stakeholders.
True
Which of these characteristics are true of a data warehouse, but not a typical data base?
A) business level orientation
B) currency of information
C) integration
D) non-volatility
E) both c and d
E) both c and d, that is:
C) integration and
D) non-volatility are characteristics are true of a data warehouse, but not a typical data base.
Data design actually begins during the creation of the analysis model, not the architectural model.
True
An architectural style encompasses which of the following elements?
A) constraints
B) set of components
C) semantic models
D) syntactic models
E) a, b and c
E) a, b and c, that is, an architectural style encompasses the following elements:
A) constraints
B) set of components and
C) semantic models
To determine the architectural style or combination of styles that best fits the proposed system, requirements engineering is used to uncover
A) algorithmic complexity
B) characteristics and constraints
C) control and data
D) design patterns
B) requirements engineering is used to uncover characteristics and constraints that best fits the proposed system
Before an architectural pattern can be chosen for use in a specific system it must have a code implementation to facilitate its reuse.
False
The criteria used to assess the quality of an architectural design should be based on system
A) accessibility
B) control
C) data
D) implementation
E) both b and c
E) both b and c, that is, the criteria used to assess the quality of an architectural design should be based on system
B) control and
C) data
During the process of modeling the system in context, systems that interact with the target system are represented as
A) Peer-level systems
B) Subordinate systems
C) Super-ordinate systems
D) Working systems
E) a, b and c
E) a, b and c, that is, during the process of modeling the system in context, systems that interact with the target system are represented as:
A) Peer-level systems
B) Subordinate systems
C) Super-ordinate systems
Once selected, archetypes always need to be refined further as architectural design proceeds.
True
Which of the following is not an example of infrastructure components that may need to be integrated into the software architecture?
A) Communications components
B) Database components
C) Interface components
D) Memory management components
C) Interface components is not an example of infrastructure components that may need to be integrated into the software architecture
The following are examples of infrastructure components that may need to be integrated into the software architecture:
A) Communications components
B) Database components
C) Memory management components
In the architecture trade-off analysis method the architectural style should be described using the
A) data flow view
B) module view
C) process view
D) user view
E) a, b and c
E) a, b and c, that is, in the architecture trade-off analysis method the architectural style should be described using the:
A) data flow view
B) module view and
C) process view
Quantitative methods for assessing the quality of proposed architectural designs are readily available.
False
A useful technique for evaluating the overall complexity of a proposed architecture is to look at the component
A) cohesion flow
B) dependencies
C) sharing dependencies
D) size
E) both b and c
E) both b and c, that is, a useful technique for evaluating the overall complexity of a proposed architecture is to look at the component:
B) dependencies and
C) sharing dependencies
When the overall flow in a segment of a data flow diagram is largely sequential and follows straight-line paths, _______________ is present.
A) low coupling
B) good modularity
C) transaction flow
D) transform flow
D) transform flow, that is, when the overall flow in a segment of a data flow diagram is largely sequential and follows straight-line paths, transform flow is present.
When a single item that triggers other data flow along one of many paths of a data flow diagram, _______________ characterizes the information flow.
A) high coupling
B) poor modularity
C) transaction flow
D) transform flow
C) transaction flow, that is, when a single item that triggers other data flow along one of many paths of a data flow diagram, transaction flow characterizes the information flow.
When you encounter both transform flow and transaction flow in the same DFD the flow is partitioned and the appropriate mapping technique is used on each part of the DFD.
True
In transaction mapping the first level factoring results in the
A) creation of a CFD
B) derivation of the control hierarchy
C) distribution of worker modules
D) refinement of the module view
B) derivation of the control hierarchy, that is, in transaction mapping the first level factoring results in the derivation of the control hierarchy.
A successful application of transform or transaction mapping to create an architectural design is supplemented by
A) entity relationship diagrams
B) module interface descriptions
C) processing narratives for each module
D) test cases for each module
E) both b and c
E) both b and c, that is, a successful application of transform or transaction mapping to create an architectural design is supplemented by:
B) module interface descriptions and
C) processing narratives for each module.
A successful application of transform or transaction mapping to create an architectural design is supplemented by
A) module interface descriptions and
B) processing narratives for each module
Which of the following interface design principles does not allow the user to remain in control of the interaction with a computer?
A) allow interaction to interruptible
B) allow interaction to be undoable
C) hide technical internals from casual users
D) only provide one defined method for accomplishing a task
D) only provide one defined method for accomplishing a task is an interface design principles that does not allow the user to remain in control of the interaction with a computer.
Which of the following interface design principles reduces the user's memory load?
A) define intuitive shortcuts
B) disclose information in a progressive fashion
C) establish meaningful defaults
D) provide an on-line tutorial
E) answers a, b and c
E) answers a, b and c, that is, the following interface design principles reduces the user's memory load:
A) define intuitive shortcuts
B) disclose information in a progressive fashion and
C) establish meaningful defaults
The reason for reducing the user's memory load is make his or her interaction with the computer quicker to complete.
False
Interface consistency implies that
A) each application should have its own distinctive look and feel
B) input mechanisms remain the same throughout the application
C) navigational methods are context sensitive
D) visual information is organized according to a design standard
E) both b and d
E) both b and d, that is, interface consistency implies that:
B) input mechanisms remain the same throughout the application
D) visual information is organized according to a design standard
If past interactive models have created certain user expectations it is not generally good to make changes to the model.
True
Which model depicts the profile of the end users of a computer system?
A) design model
B) implementation model
C) user model
D) user's model
C) user model, that is, the user model depicts the profile of the end users of a computer system.
Which model depicts the image of a system that an end user creates in his or her head?
A) design model
B) user model
C) system model
D) system perception
D) system perception, that is, the system perception model depicts the image of a system that an end user creates in his or her head.
Which model depicts the look and feel of the user interface along with all supporting information?
A) Implementation model
B) user model
C) user's model
D) system perception
A) Implementation model, that is, the implementation model depicts the look and feel of the user interface along with all supporting information.
Which of these framework activities is not normally associated with the user interface design processes?
A) cost estimation
B) interface construction
C) interface validation
D) user and task analysis
A) cost estimation, that is, cost estimation framework activity is not normally associated with the user interface design processes.
Which approaches to user task analysis can be useful in user interface design?
A) have users indicate their preferences on questionnaires
B) rely on the judgement of experienced programmers
C) study existing computer-based solutions
D) observe users performing tasks manually
E) both c and d
E) both c and d, that is, the following approaches to user task analysis can be useful in user interface design:
C) study existing computer-based solutions and
D) observe users performing tasks manually
Object-oriented analysis techniques can be used to identify and refine user task objects and actions without any need to refer to the user voice.
False
The computer's display capabilities are the primary determinant of the order in which user interface design activities are completed.
False
It is sometimes possible that the interface designer is constrained by environmental factors that mitigate against ease of use for many users.
True
One means of defining user interface objects and actions is to conduct a grammatical parse of the user scenario.
True
Interface design patterns typically include a complete component-level design including design classes, attributes, operations, and interfaces.
True
Several common design issues surface for almost every user interface including
A) adaptive user profiles
B) error handling resolution of graphics
C) displays system
D) response time
E) both b and d
E) both b and d, that is, several common design issues surface for almost every user interface including:
B) error handling resolution of graphics and
D) response time
Add-on help facilities are almost always better received by users than integrated help facilities.
False
User interface development systems typically provide several mechanisms for building interface prototypes including
A) code generation
B) drawing tools
C) input validation
D) windows handlers
E) both c and d
E) both c and d, that is, user interface development systems typically provide several mechanisms for building interface prototypes including:
C) input validation and
D) windows handlers
Usability questionnaires are most meaningful to the interface designers when completed by
A) customers
B) experienced programmers
C) product users
D) project managers
C) product users, that is usability questionnaires are most meaningful to the interface designers when completed by product users.
Several usability measures can be collected while observing users interacting with a computer system including
A) down time for the application
B) number of user errors
C) software reliability
D) time spent looking at help materials
E) both b and d
E) both b and d, that is, several usability measures can be collected while observing users interacting with a computer system including:
B) number of user errors and
D) time spent looking at help materials
The following interface design principles does not allow the user to remain in control of the interaction with a computer?
only provide one defined method for accomplishing a task
The following approaches to user task analysis can be useful in user interface design?
A) study existing computer-based solutions and
B) observe users performing tasks manually
Interface consistency implies that
A) input mechanisms remain the same throughout the application and
B) visual information is organized according to a design standard
In software quality assurance work there is no difference between software verification and software validation.
False
The best reason for using Independent software test teams is that
A) software developers do not need to do any testing
B) a test team will test the software more thoroughly
C) testers do not get involved with the project until testing begins
D) arguments between developers and testers are reduced
B) a test team will test the software more thoroughly, that is, the best reason for using Independent software test teams is that a test team will test the software more thoroughly.
What is the normal order of activities in which traditional software testing is organized?
a. integration testing
b. system testing
c. unit testing
d. validation testing
A) a, d, c, b
B) b, d, a, c
C) c, a, d, b
D) d, b, c, a
C) c, a, d, b, that is the normal order of activities in which traditional software testing is as follows: unit testing, integration testing, validation testing and finally, system testing.
Class testing of object-oriented software is equivalent to unit testing for traditional software.
True
By collecting software metrics and making use of existing software reliability models it is possible to develop meaningful guidelines for determining when software testing is finished.
True
Which of the following strategic issues needs to be addressed in a successful software testing process?
A) conduct formal technical reviews prior to testing
B) specify requirements in a quantifiable manner
C) use independent test teams
D) wait till code is written prior to writing the test plan
E) both a and b
E) both a and b, that is, the following strategic issues needs to be addressed in a successful software testing process:
A) conduct formal technical reviews prior to testing and
B) specify requirements in a quantifiable manner
Which of the following need to be assessed during unit testing?
A) algorithmic performance
B) code stability
C) error handling
D) execution paths
E) both c and d
E) both c and d, that is, the following need to be assessed during unit testing:
C) error handling and
D) execution paths
Drivers and stubs are not needed for unit testing because the modules are tested independently of one another.
False
Top-down integration testing has as it's major advantage(s) that
A) low level modules never need testing
B) major decision points are tested early
C) no drivers need to be written
D) no stubs need to be written
E) both b and c
E) both b and c, that is, top-down integration testing has as it's major advantages that:
B) major decision points are tested early and
C) no drivers need to be written
Bottom-up integration testing has as it's major advantage(s) that
A) major decision points are tested early
B) no drivers need to be written
C) no stubs need to be written
D) regression testing is not required
C) no stubs need to be written, that is, bottom-up integration testing has as it's major advantage that no stubs need to be written.
Regression testing should be a normal part of integration testing because as a new module is added to the system new
A) control logic is invoked
B) data flow paths are established
C) drivers require testing
D) all of the above
E) both a and b
E) both a and b, that is, regression testing should be a normal part of integration testing because as a new module is added to the system new:
A) control logic is invoked and
B) data flow paths are established
Smoke testing might best be described as
A) bulletproofing shrink-wrapped software
B) rolling integration testing
C) testing that hides implementation errors
D) unit testing for small programs
B) rolling integration testing, that is, smoke testing might best be described as rolling integration testing.
When testing object-oriented software it is important to test each class operation separately as part of the unit testing process.
False
The OO testing integration strategy involves testing
A) groups of classes that collaborate or communicate in some way
B) single operations as they are added to the evolving class implementation
C) operator programs derived from use-case scenarios
D) none of the above
A) groups of classes that collaborate or communicate in some way, that is, the OO testing integration strategy involves testing groups of classes that collaborate or communicate in some way.
The focus of validation testing is to uncover places that a user will be able to observe failure of the software to conform to its requirements.
True
Software validation is achieved through a series of tests performed by the user once the software is deployed in his or her work environment.
False
Configuration reviews are not needed if regression testing has been rigorously applied during software integration.
False
Acceptance tests are normally conducted by the
A) developer
B) end users
C) test team
D) systems engineers
B) end users, that is, acceptance tests are normally conducted by the end users
Recovery testing is a system test that forces the software to fail in a variety of ways and verifies that software is able to continue execution without interruption.
False
Security testing attempts to verify that protection mechanisms built into a system protect it from improper penetration.
True
Stress testing examines the pressures placed on the user during system use in extreme environments.
False
Performance testing is only important for real-time or embedded systems.
False
Debugging is not testing, but always occurs as a consequence of testing.
True
Which of the following is an approach to debugging?
A) backtracking
B) brute force
C) cause elimination
D) code restructuring
E) a, b, and c
E) a, b, and c, that is, the following are an approach to debugging:
A) backtracking
B) brute force
C) cause elimination
The best reason for using Independent software test teams is that
a test team will test the software more thoroughly
The OO testing integration strategy involves testing
groups of classes that collaborate or communicate in some way
The following strategic issues needs to be addressed in a successful software testing process
A) conduct formal technical reviews prior to testing and
B) specify requirements in a quantifiable manner
With thorough testing it is possible to remove all defects from a program prior to delivery to the customer.
False
Which of the following are characteristics of testable software?
A) observability
B) simplicity
C) stability
D) all of the above
D) all of the above, that is, the following are characteristics of testable software:
A) observability
B) simplicity
C) stability
The testing technique that requires devising test cases to demonstrate that each program function is operational is called
A) black-box testing
B) glass-box testing
C) grey-box testing
D) white-box testing
A) black-box testing, that is, the testing technique that requires devising test cases to demonstrate that each program function is operational is called black-box testing
The testing technique that requires devising test cases to exercise the internal logic of a software module is called
A) behavioral testing
B) black-box testing
C) grey-box testing
D) white-box testing
D) white-box testing, that is, the testing technique that requires devising test cases to exercise the internal logic of a software module is called white-box testing
What types of errors are missed by black-box testing and can be uncovered by white-box testing?
A) behavioral errors
B) logic errors
C) performance errors
D) typographical errors
E) both b and d
?E) both b and d, that is, the types of errors missed by black-box testing and can be uncovered by white-box testing are:
B) logic errors and
D) typographical errors
Program flow graphs are identical to program flowcharts.
False
The cyclomatic complexity metric provides the designer with information regarding the number of
A) cycles in the program
B) errors in the program
C) independent logic paths in the program
D) statements in the program
C) independent logic paths in the program, that is, the cyclomatic complexity metric provides the designer with information regarding the number of independent logic paths in the program.
The cyclomatic complexity of a program can be computed directly from a PDL
representation of an algorithm without drawing a program flow graph.
True
Condition testing is a control structure testing technique where the criteria used to design test cases is that they
A) rely on basis path testing
B) exercise the logical conditions in a program module
C) select test paths based on the locations and uses of variables
D) focus on testing the validity of loop constructs
B) exercise the logical conditions in a program module, that is, condition testing is a control structure testing technique where the criteria used to design test cases is that they exercise the logical conditions in a program module.
Data flow testing is a control structure testing technique where the criteria used to design test cases is that they
A) rely on basis path testing
B) exercise the logical conditions in a program module
C) select test paths based on the locations and uses of variables
D) focus on testing the validity of loop constructs
C) select test paths based on the locations and uses of variables, that is, data flow testing is a control structure
testing technique where the criteria used to design test cases is that they select test paths based on the locations and uses of variables.
Loop testing is a control structure testing technique where the criteria used to design test cases is that they
A) rely basis path testing
B) exercise the logical conditions in a program module
C) select test paths based on the locations and uses of variables
D) focus on testing the validity of loop constructs
D) focus on testing the validity of loop constructs, that is, loop testing is a control structure testing technique where the criteria used to design test cases is that they focus on testing the validity of loop constructs.
Black-box testing attempts to find errors in which of the following categories
A) incorrect or missing functions
B) interface errors
C) performance errors
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
D) all of the above, that is, black-box testing attempts to find errors in which of the following categories:
A) incorrect or missing functions
B) interface errors and
C) performance errors
Graph-based testing methods can only be used for object-oriented systems
False
Equivalence testing divides the input domain into classes of data from which test cases can be derived to reduce the total number of test cases that must be developed.
True
Boundary value analysis can only be used to do white-box testing.
False
Comparison testing is typically done to test two competing products as part of customer market analysis prior to product release.
False
Orthogonal array testing enables the test designer to maximize the coverage of the test cases devised for relatively small input domains.
True
Test case design "in the small" for OO software is driven by the algorithmic detail of the individual operations.
True
Encapsulation of attributes and operations inside objects makes it easy to obtain object state information during testing.
False
Use-cases can provide useful input into the design of black-box and state-based tests of OO software.
True
Fault-based testing is best reserved for
A) conventional software testing
B) operations and classes that are critical or suspect
C) use-case validation
D) white-box testing of operator algorithms
B) operations and classes that are critical or suspect, that is, fault-based testing is best reserved for operations and classes that are critical or suspect.
Testing OO class operations is made more difficult by
A) encapsulation
B) inheritance
C) polymorphism
D) both b and c
D) both b and c, that is, testing OO class operations is made more difficult by:
B) inheritance and
C) polymorphism
Scenario-based testing
A) concentrates on actor and software interaction
B) misses errors in specifications
C) misses errors in subsystem interactions
D) both a and b
A) concentrates on actor and software interaction, that is, scenario-based testing concentrates on actor and software interaction.
Deep structure testing is not designed to
A) examine object behaviors
B) exercise communication mechanisms
C) exercise object dependencies
D) exercise structure observable by the user
D) exercise structure observable by the user, that is, deep structure testing is not designed to exercise structure observable by the user.
Random order tests are conducted to exercise different class instance life histories.
True
Which of these techniques is not useful for partition testing at the class level
A) attribute-based partitioning
B) category-based partitioning
C) equivalence class partitioning
D) state-based partitioning
C) equivalence class partitioning, that is, equivalence class partitioning is not useful for partition testing at the class level.
Multiple class testing is too complex to be tested using random test cases.
False
Tests derived from behavioral class models should be based on the
A) data flow diagram
B) object-relation diagram
C) state diagram
D) use-case diagram
C) state diagram, that is, tests derived from behavioral class models should be based on the state diagram.
Client/server architectures cannot be properly tested because network load is highly variable.
False
Real-time applications add a new and potentially difficult element to the testing mix
A) performance
B) reliability
C) security
D) time
D) time, that is, real-time applications add a new and potentially difficult element to the testing mix time.
Condition testing is a control structure testing technique where the criteria used to design test cases is that they
exercise the logical conditions in a program module
Data flow testing is a control structure testing technique where the criteria used to design test cases is that they
select test paths based on the locations and uses of variables
Loop testing is a control structure testing technique where the criteria used to design test cases is that they
focus on testing the validity of loop constructs
The formal methods model of software development makes use of mathematical methods to
A) Define the specification for computer-based systems
B) Develop defect free computer-based systems
C) Verify the correctness of computer-based systems
D) All of the above
D) All of the above, that is, the formal methods model of software development makes use of mathematical methods to:
A) Define the specification for computer-based systems
B) Develop defect free computer-based systems
C) Verify the correctness of computer-based systems
Which of these are objectives of Team Software Process?
A) Accelerate software process improvement and allow better time management by highly trained professionals
B) Allow better time management by highly trained professionals and build self directed software teams
C) Build self-directed software teams and show managers how to reduce costs and sustain quality
D) Show managers how to reduce costs and sustain quality
B) Allow better time management by highly trained professionals and build self directed software teams, that is, the objectives of Team Software Process are: Allow better time management by highly trained professionals and build self directed software teams
It is generally accepted that one cannot have weak software processes and create high quality end products.
True
Agile Modelling (AM) provides guidance to practitioner during which of these software tasks?
A) Analysis and design
B) Design and testing
C) Coding and testing
D) Analysis and testing
A) Analysis and design, that is, Agile Modelling (AM) provides guidance to practitioner during analysis and design.
Which is not one of the key questions that is answered by each team member at each daily Scrum meeting?
A) What did you do since the last meeting?
B) What obstacles are you encountering?
C) What is the cause of the problems you are encountering?
D) What do you plan to accomplish be the next team meeting?
C) What is the cause of the problems you are encountering? That is, What is the cause of the problems you are encountering? is not a key question that is answered by each team member at each daily Scrum meeting
Key questions that are answered by each team member at each daily Scrum meeting are as follows:
A) What did you do since the last meeting?
B) What obstacles are you encountering?
C) What do you plan to accomplish be the next team meeting?
What are the four framework activities found in the Extreme Programming (XP) process model?
A) analysis, design, coding, testing
B) planning, analysis, design, coding
C) planning, analysis, coding, testing
D) planning, design, coding, testing
D) planning, design, coding, testing, that is, the four framework activities found in the Extreme Programming (XP) process model are planning, design, coding, testing.
All agile process models conform to a greater or lesser degree to the principles stated in the "Manifesto for Agile Software Development".
True
What are the three framework activities for the Adaptive Software Development (ASD) process model?
A) analysis, design, coding
B) feasibility study, functional model iteration, implementation
C) requirements gathering, adaptive cycle planning, iterative development
D) speculation, collaboration, learning
D) speculation, collaboration, learning, that is the the three framework activities for the Adaptive Software Development (ASD) process model are speculation, collaboration, learning.
Which of the following is not one of core principles of software engineering practice?
A) All design should be as simple as possible, but no simpler
B) A software system exists only to provide value to its users.
C) Pareto principle - 20% of any product requires 80% of the effort
D) Remember that what you produce others will consume
C) Pareto principle - 20% of any product requires 80% of the effort, that is the Pareto principle is not one of core principles of software engineering practice.
The following are core principles of software engineering practice:
A) All design should be as simple as possible, but no simpler
B) A software system exists only to provide value to its users.
C) Remember that what you produce others will consume
One reason to involve everyone on the software team in the planning activity is to
A) adjust the granularity of the plan
B) control feature creep
C) get all team members to "sign up" to the plan
D) understand the problem scope
C) get all team members to "sign up" to the plan, that is, one reason to involve everyone on the software team in the planning activity is to get all team members to "sign up" to the plan.
Requirements models depict software in which three domains?
A) architecture, interface, component
B) cost, risk, schedule
C) information, function, behaviour
D) None of the above
C) information, function, behaviour, that is, the requirements models depict software in these three domains, namely, information, function and behaviour.
The design model should be traceable to the requirements model?
True
Teams using agile software practices do not generally create models.
False
A successful test is one that discovers at least one as-yet undiscovered error.
True
The work products produced during requirement elicitation will vary depending on the
A) size of the budget
B) size of the product being built
C) software process being used
D) stakeholders needs
B) size of the product being built, that is, the work products produced during requirement elicitation will vary depending on the size of the product being built.
The result of the requirements engineering task is an analysis model that defines which of the following problem domains?
A) information
B) functional
C) behavioural
D) all of the above
D) all of the above, that is, the result of the requirements engineering task is an analysis model that defines the following problem domains:
A) information
B) functional and
C) behavioural
Which of the following is not one of the context-free questions that would be used during project inception?
A) What will be the economic benefit from a good solution?
B) Who is behind the request for work?
C) Who will pay for the work?
D) Who will use the solution?
C) Who will pay for the work? That is, who will pay for the work? is not one of the context-free questions that would be asked during project inception.
Typical context-free questions that would be used during project inception are:
A) What will be the economic benefit from a good solution?
B) Who is behind the request for work?
C) Who will use the solution?
Requirements engineering is a generic process that does not vary from one software project to another.
True
In win-win negotiation, the customer's needs are met even though the developer's need may not be.
False
In requirements validation the requirements model is reviewed to ensure its technical feasibility.
False
Which of these are characteristics of a good design?
A) exhibits strong coupling between its modules and implements all requirements in the analysis model
B) implements all requirements in the analysis model and provides a complete picture of the software
C) includes test cases for all components and implements all requirements in the analysis model
D) provides a complete picture of the software and includes test cases for all components
B) implements all requirements in the analysis model and provides a complete picture of the software, that is, the characteristics of a good design implements all requirements in the analysis model and provides a complete picture of the software.
Which of the following can be used to represent the architectural design of a piece of software?
A) Dynamic models
B) Functional models
C) Structural models
D) All of the above
D) All of the above, that is Dynamic, Functional and Structural models can be used to represent the architectural design of a piece of software.
Software designs are refactored to allow the creation of software that is easier to integrate, easier to test, and easier to maintain.
True
Which of the following is not one of the five design class types
A) Business domain classes
B) Entity classes
C) Process classes
D) User interface classes
B) Entity classes, that is, entity classes is not one of the five design class types.
Which design model elements are used to depict a model of information represented from the user's view?
A) Architectural design elements
B) Component-level design elements
C) Data design elements
D) Interface design elements
C) Data design elements, that is, data design elements are used to depict a model of information represented from the user's view.
Which design is equivalent to the floor plan of a house?
A) Architectural design
B) Component-level design
C) Data design
D) Interface design
A) Architectural design, that is, the architectural design model is equivalent to the floor plan of a house.
Which design model is equivalent to the detailed drawings of the access points and external utilities for a house?
A) Architectural design
B) Component-level design
C) Data design
D) Interface design
D) Interface design, that is, the interface design model is equivalent to the detailed drawings of the access points and external utilities for a
house.
Which design model is equivalent to a set of detailed drawings for each room in a house?
A) Architectural design
B) Component-level design
C) Data design
D) Interface design
B) Component-level design, the component-level design model is equivalent to a set of detailed drawings for each room in a house.
In traditional software engineering modules must serve in which of the following roles?
A) Control component
B) Infrastructure component
C) Problem domain component
D) All of the above
D) All of the above, that is, in traditional software engineering modules must serve in the following roles:
A) Control component
B) Infrastructure component and
C) Problem domain component
In component design elaboration requires which of the following elements to be described in detail?
a. Algorithms
b. Attributes
c. Interfaces
d. Operations

A) a.and b
B) b and c
C) b,c,and d
D) all of the above
C) b,c,and d, that is, component design elaboration requires the following elements to be described in detail:
b. Attributes
c. Interfaces and
d. Operations
Which of the following is not one of the major activities of domain engineering?
A) analysis
B) construction
C) dissemination
D) validation
D) validation, that is, validation is not one of the major activities of domain engineering.
Major activities of domain engineering include:
A) analysis
B) construction and
C) dissemination
A program design language (PDL) is often a
A) combination of programming constructs and narrative text
B) legitimate programming language in its own right
C) machine readable software development language
D) useful way to represent software architecture
A) combination of programming constructs and narrative text, that is, a program design language (PDL) is often a combination of programming constructs and narrative text.
In component-based software engineering, the development team examines the requirements to see which are amenable to composition, rather than construction, before beginning detailed design tasks.
True
Which of the following factors would not be considered during component qualification?
A) application programming interface (API)
B) development and integration tools required
C) exception handling
D) testing equipment required
D) testing equipment required, that is, testing equipment required is a factor that would not be considered during component qualification.
Factors to be considered during component qualification are:
A) application programming interface (API)
B) development and integration tools required
C) exception handling
Which of the following is a technique NOT used for component wrapping?
A) black-box wrapping
B) clear-box wrapping
C) gray-box wrapping
D) white-box wrapping
B) clear-box wrapping, that is, clear-box wrapping is NOT a technique used for component wrapping.
Techniques used for component wrapping include:
A) black-box wrapping
B) gray-box wrapping
C) white-box wrapping
The best reason for using Independent software test teams is that
A) software developers do not need to do any testing
B) strangers will test the software mercilessly
C) testers do not get involved with the project until testing begins
D) the conflicts of interest between developers and testers is reduced
D) the conflicts of interest between developers and testers is reduced, that is, the best reason for using independent software test teams is that the conflicts of interest between developers and testers is reduced.
Top-down integration testing has as it's major advantage(s) that
a. low level modules never need testing
b. major decision points are tested early
c. no drivers need to be written
d. no stubs need to be written

A) a and b
B) b and c
C) c and d
D) d and a
B) b and c, that is top-down integration testing has as it's major advantages that:
b. major decision points are tested early and
c. no drivers need to be written
Smoke testing might best be described as
A) bullet proofing shrink-wrapped software
B) rolling integration testing
C) testing that hides implementation errors
D) unit testing for small programs
B) rolling integration testing, that is smoke testing might best be described as rolling integration testing.
Acceptance tests are normally conducted by the
A) developer
B) end users
C) test team
D) systems engineers
B) end users, that is, acceptance tests are normally conducted by the end users.
Condition testing is a control structure testing technique where the criteria used to design test cases is that they
A) rely on basis path testing
B) exercise the logical conditions in a program module
C) select test paths based on the locations and uses of variables
D) focus on testing the validity of loop constructs
B) exercise the logical conditions in a program module, that is, condition testing is a control structure testing technique where the criteria used to design test cases is that they exercise the logical conditions in a program module.
Data flow testing is a control structure testing technique where the criteria used to design test cases is that they
A) rely on basis path testing
B) exercise the logical conditions in a program module
C) select test paths based on the locations and uses of variables
D) focus on testing the validity of loop constructs
C) select test paths based on the locations and uses of variables, that is, data flow testing is a control structure testing technique where the criteria used to design test cases is that they select test paths based on the locations and uses of variables.
Test derived from behavioural class models should be based on the
A) data flow diagram
B) object-relation diagram
C) state transition diagram
D) use-case diagram
C) state transition diagram, that is, test derived from behavioural class models should be based on the state transition diagram.
Loop testing is a control structure testing technique where the criteria used to design test cases is that they
A) rely basis path testing
B) exercise the logical conditions in a program module
C) select test paths based on the locations and uses of variables
D) focus on testing the validity of loop constructs
D) focus on testing the validity of loop constructs, that is, loop testing is a control structure testing technique where the criteria used to design test cases is that they focus on testing the validity of loop constructs.
What types of errors are missed by black-box testing and can be uncovered by white-box testing?
a. behavioural errors
b. logic errors
c. performance errors
d. typographical errors

A) a and b
B) b and c
C) b and d
D) all of the above
C) b and d, that is, the types of errors are missed by black-box testing and can be uncovered by white-box testing are:
b. logic errors and
d. typographical errors
Orthogonal array testing enables the test designer to maximize coverage of the test cases devised for relatively small input domains.
True
Deep structure testing is not designed to
A) object behaviours
B) communication mechanisms
C) exercise object dependencies
D) exercise structure observable by the user
D) exercise structure observable by the user, that is, deep structure testing is not designed to exercise structure observable by the user.
Random order tests are conducted to exercise different class instance life histories.
True
Which of these techniques is not useful for partition testing at the class level
A) attribute-based partitioning
B) category-based partitioning
C) equivalence class partitioning
D) state-based partitioning
C) equivalence class partitioning, that is equivalence class partitioning is not useful for partition testing at the class level.
Techniques useful for partition testing at the class level are:
A) attribute-based partitioning
B) category-based partitioning and
C) state-based partitioning
Fault-based testing is best reserved for
A) conventional software testing
B) operations and classes that are critical or suspect
C) use-case validation
D) white-box testing of operator algorithms
B) operations and classes that are critical or suspect, that is, fault-based testing is best reserved for operations and classes that are critical or suspect.
The testing technique that requires devising test cases to exercise the internal logic of a software module is called
A) behavioural testing
B) black-box testing
C) grey-box testing
D) white-box testing
D) white-box testing, that is, white-box testing is a testing technique that requires devising test cases to exercise the internal logic of a software module.
A strategy for software testing must accommodate and provide:

i) low-level tests,
ii) high-level tests,
iii) quidance for the practitioner
iv) a set of milestones for the manager

1. i, iii, iv
2. i, ii, iv
3. i, ii, iii
4. i, ii, iii, iv
The answer is 4, that is, a strategy for software testing must accommodate and provide:

i) low-level tests,
ii) high-level tests,
iii) quidance for the practitioner
iv) a set of milestones for the manager
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