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Biology Final Flashcards

Took the one that was already posted and flipped it so that one could use learn/test. Credit to Emma/Jessica for actually making the flashcards.
STUDY
PLAY
E
1) The amino acid sequence of cytochrome c is exactly the same in humans and chimpanzees. There is a difference of 13 amino acids between the cytochrome c of humans and dogs, and a difference of 20 amino acids between the cytochrome c of humans and rattle snakes. Which of the following is best supported by these data?
a. Rattlesnakes apparently gave rise evolutionarily to the dog, chimpanzee, and human.
b. Cytochrome c apparently has an entirely different function in rattlesnakes than in mammals, which explains the difference in the number of amino acids.
c. Cytochrome c is not found universally in animals.
d. Cytochrome c from a rattlesnake could function in a dog, but not in a chimpanzee.
e. The human is apparently more closely related to the chimpanzee than to the dog or rattlesnake.
E
2) A parasite may be described as an organism that derives nourishment from another living organism and
a. becomes necessary to the life of the host
b. is neutral in its effect on the host
c. benefits the host nutritionally
d. provides a supportive structure for the host
e. harms the host in the process
D
3) Countercurrent exchange in the gills of fish is an adaptation that accomplishes which of the following?
a. It limits the amount of blood going to the gills.
b. It decreases the thermal gradient between water and blood.
c. It improves the ability of blood to dissolve oxygen.
d. It maximizes oxygen transfer from water to the blood.
e. It maximizes heat retention in the fish.
A
4) The energy required to run the Calvin cycle reactions of photosynthesis comes from which two substances produced during the light-dependent reactions?
a. ATP and NADPH
b. ADP and PO4
c. H+ and O2
d. O2 and CO2
e. H2O and CO2
A
5) The diagram above (slide 1) illustrates which of the following processes?
a. Crossing-over
b. Base pair substitution
c. Duplication
d. Deletion
e. Posttranscriptional processing
C
6) ATP is produced in all of the following EXCEPT
a. glycolysis
b. the Krebs cycle
c. the Calvin cycle
d. cyclic and noncyclic light-reactions
e. the electron transport system with chemiosmosis
E
7) The creeping horizontal and subterranean stems of ferns are referred to as
a. prothalli
b. fronds
c. stipes
d. roots
e. rhizomes
A
8) Level/Population
4/4
3/360
2/780
1/5782
In a simple ecosystem, a census of the populations in four successive trophic levels was taken as shown above. If level 1 is composed of photosynthetic autotrophs, then the trophic level with 780 individuals will most likely represent
a. primary consumers
b. secondary consumers
c. tertiary consumers
d. decomposers
e. producers
D
9) Which of the following is most directly responsible for water's unique properties?
a. It contains oxygen atoms.
b. It contains hydrogen atoms.
c. It is an ionic compound.
d. It forms hydrogen bonds.
e. It is nonpolar.
C
10) Cells that contain only circular chromosomes are most probably which of the following?
a. Protist cells
b. Fungal cells
c. Bacterial cells
d. Plant cells
e. Animal cells
B
11) Which of the following components of the cell membrane is responsible for active transport?
a. Phospholipid
b. Protein
c. Lipid
d. Phosphate
e. Cholesterol
B
12) Evolutionary fitness is measured by
a. physical strength
b. reproductive success
c. length of life
d. resistance to disease
e. competitiveness
B
13) Which of the following is true of mitosis?
a. It is also known as cytokinesis.
b. It maintains the same chromosome number in the daughter cells as in the parent cell.
c. It is the last phase of interphase.
d. It regulates the transfer of genetic information from one daughter cell to another.
e. It moves homologous chromosomes to opposite poles.
B
14) Which of the following methods for the transport of CO2 provides a buffering system for the blood?
a. CO2 is dissolved in the plasma.
b. CO2 combines with H2O to form carbonic acid and then bicarbonate.
c. CO2 combines with hemoglobin to form carboxyhemoglobin.
d. CO2 is carried in small gas bubbles.
e. CO2 is converted to CO for plasma transport.
B
15) The population of the country shown in the figure above (slide 2) will mostly likely
a. stabilize within 20 years
b. increase for many years
c. not change
d. reach zero population growth within 10 years
e. decrease within 20 years
C
16) All of the following are examples of prezygotic genetic isolating mechanisms EXCEPT:
a. Male fireflies of different species have different flash patterns.
b. Three closely related orchid species flower on different days.
c. The progeny of a cross between two different lizard species fail to develop properly.
d. One species of snake lives in water and another is terrestrial.
e. Peeper frogs mate in April, and tree frogs mate in June.
E
17) The movement of the organic products of photosynthesis from the leaf to the roots is the result of what process?
a. Cellular respiration
b. Replication
c. Germination
d. Transcription
e. Translocation
D
18) All of the following are included in the modern concept of a biological species EXCEPT
a. genetic compatibility
b. viable offspring
c. fertile offspring
d. gene flow inhibition
e. reproductive compatibility
E
19) AIDS is caused by the retrovirus HIV, which makes DNA complementary to the viral RNA using
a. RNA polymerase
b. beta-galactosidase
c. RNA synthase
d. ATPase
e. reverse transcriptase
C
20) Which two cellular organelles in eukaryotes have both electron transport systems and chemiosmotic mechanisms?
a. Ribosomes and endoplasmic reticulum
b. Chloroplasts and endoplasmic reticulum
c. Chloroplasts and mitochondria
d. Mitochondria and nuclei
e. Nuclei and Golgi apparatus
E
21) A plant's lateral roots arise from the
a. endodermis
b. epidermis
c. phloem
d. xylem
e. pericycle
A
22) When a substance moves across the plasma membrane along a concentration gradient at a rate faster than would be expected by simple diffusion alone but without the expenditure of metabolic energy, the process is best described as
a. facilitated diffusion
b. osmosis
c. active transport
d. pinocytosis
e. the work of an ion pump
E
23) Which of the following would happen to an individual playing a long game of basketball outdoors on a hot afternoon?
a. The production of thyroxin by the thyroid gland would decrease.
b. The osmotic pressure of the blood would decrease.
c. The volume of urine produced would increase.
d. The concentration of urea in the urine would decrease.
e. The secretion of antidiuretic hormone from the pituitary gland would increase.
E
24) The synthesis of protein or carbohydrate polymers always produces which of the following as a byproduct?
a. ATP
b. Oxygen
c. Carbon dioxide
d. Urea
e. Water
A
25) Most photosynthesis in typical C3 angiosperms takes place in the
a. palisade mesophyll
b. spongy mesophyll
c. epidermis
d. pericycle
e. vascular bundles
B
26) Early spring flowers growing in a deciduous forest are adapted for that habitat in which of the following ways?
a. They carry out their life cycles in dense shade.
b. They take advantage of the greater amount of light available before the full development of tree leaves.
c. The forest litter provides a course of carbohydrates needed for flowering.
d. Early spring flowers and trees in a deciduous forest participate in a mutualistic relationship.
e. The tree canopy shades flowering plants from harmful light intensity.
B
27) Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in an action potential after stimulation of a neuron?
a. K+ move sin; Na+ moves out.
b. Na+ moves in; K+ moves out.
c. Na+ moves in; Ca++ moves out.
d. Na+ moves in; Cl- moves out.
e. K+ moves in; organic anions move out.
D
28) Which of the following is true of intercellular junctions, such as tight junctions, desmosomes, and gap junctions?
a. They are specialized forms of communication among nerve cells.
b. They are of primary importance in the contraction of skeletal muscle fibers.
c. They are equally distributed among all tissue types.
d. They help to integrate cells into a functioning unit.
e. They aid in distributing DNA among cells.
C
29) A person with a systolic blood pressure of 120 mm Hg and a diastolic blood pressure of 80 mm Hg typically has a mean arterial blood pressure of 90 mm Hg. Which of the following offers the best explanation for why the mean arterial blood pressure is 90 mm Hg, and not the average of the two pressures (100 mm Hg)?
a. The systolic blood pressure is higher than the diastolic blood pressure.
b. The quantity of fluid in the person's circulatory system must be greater during the diastole.
c. The diastole of the heart lasts longer than the systole of the heart.
d. The systolic blood pressure is not as high as the diastolic blood pressure.
e. Angiotensin, produced from a blood protein by renin, elevates the diastolic blood pressure.
E
30) The picture above (slide 3) represents some stages in the early development of any embryo. In which of the stages does gastrulation begin?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5
C
31) Which of the following characteristics is shared by echinoderms and chordates?
a. Radial symmetry
b. Dorsal hollow nerve cord
c. Deuterostome development
d. Pharyngeal gill slits
e. Spiral determinate cleavage
B
32) During mitosis, which of the following normally occurs?
a. Homologous chromosomes pair.
b. Replicated chromosomes line up on the equatorial plate.
c. Tetrads form.
d. Unreplicated chromosomes become oriented in the center of the cell.
e. Maternal and paternal chromatids pair.
A
33) Which of the following is a symbiotic relationship that was probably present in the first terrestrial plants and is still important for the mineral nutrition of present-day angiosperms?
a. Mycorrhizae
b. Lichens
c. Insects pollinating flowers
d. Carnivorous plants feeding on insects
e. Epiphytes growing on a tree trunk
C
34) Nine percent of a population is homozygous recessive (aa) at a certain locus. Assuming that the population is in Hardy-Weinburg equilibrium, which of the following is closest to the frequency of the recessive allele (a)?
a. 0.09
b. 0.27
c. 0.30
d. 0.90
e. 0.97
A
35) A characteristic shared by fungi and protists is that both are generally
a. aerobic
b. haploid at all stages
c. composed of mycelia
d. propagated by spores
e. capable of phagocytosis
E
36) Which of the following factors is the most effective in changing the allele frequency in a natural population?
a. Large population size
b. Low rate of mutation
c. Negligible migration
d. Random mating
e. Selection
C
37) In the process of succession, which of the following is true of K-selected plant species?
a. They keep their carrying capacity at a minimum level.
b. They usually reproduce early in life.
c. They are usually found in climax stages of succession.
d. They are the dominant species in early stages of succession.
e. They have a short lifespan.
C
37) Which of the following produces the secondary tissues of trees?
a. Sapwood
b. Cork
c. Vascular cambium
d. Heartwood
e. Cortex
C
39) 1. Appearance of terrestrial plants
2. Appearance of chloroplasts
3. Formation of complex organic compounds
4. Development of photosynthetic organisms
5. Development of anaerobic prokaryotes
From the list above, which is the most likely chronological order of events, from oldest to most recent, in the history of Earth?
a. 1, 2, 4, 5, 3
b. 3, 2, 5, 4, 1
c. 3, 5, 4, 2, 1
d. 5, 2, 3, 1, 4
e. 5, 2, 4, 3, 1
B
40) An airtight, temperature-controlled glass box containing actively growing tomato plants was placed under a light source. Plastic wrapping that only transmits green light was placed over the box, and two days later air samples from inside the box were collected and analyzed. The most likely change in air quality is
a. an increase in nitrogen (N2)
b. an increase in carbon dioxide (CO2)
c. an increase in oxygen (O2)
d. a decrease in nitrogen (N2)
e. a decrease in carbon dioxide (CO2)
E
41) Which of the following parts of the vertebrate brain is most closely associated with motor (muscular) coordination?
a. The hypothalamus
b. The medulla oblongata
c. The pineal body
d. The thalamus
e. The cerebellum
D
42) Which of the following cells or structures in flowering plants is a part of the gametophyte generation and therefore haploid?
a. A flower petal cell
b. A cell from the filament
c. A cell from the style
d. A megaspore
e. The endosperm
B
43) Which of the following accurately describes the sequence of tissues from the pith outward to the cork in a woody stem?
a. Secondary xylem, primary xylem, vascular cambium, cortex, primary phloem, secondary phloem, and cork cambium
b. Primary xylem, secondary xylem, vascular cambium, secondary phloem, primary phloem, cortex, and cork cambium
c. Primary xylem, secondary xylem, secondary phloem, primary phloem, cork cambium, cortex, and vascular cambium
d. Primary xylem, secondary xylem, vascular cambium, primary phloem, secondary phloem, cortex, and cork cambium
e. Cortex, secondary xylem, primary xylem, vascular cambium, primary phloem, secondary phloem, and cork cambium
B
44) Which of the following is the best example of the behavior unit known as a fixed action pattern (FAP)?
a. Imprinting in newborn ducklings.
b. Egg retrieval in nesting geese
c. Echolocation in porpoises
d. Salivation in dogs
e. Celestial navigation in birds
A
45) The first cell of the sporophyte generation in the life cycle of a pine tree is represented by the
a. zygote
b. microspore mother cell
c. microspore
d. pollen grain
e. polar nucleus
D
46) The hypothesis of punctuated equilibrium was proposed by Eldredge and Gould to explain the apparent long-term genetic stability of
a. many species occupying the same niche in an ecosystem
b. organisms that encounter many environmental changes
c. climax communities resulting from ecological succession
d. some species as evidenced by the fossil record
e. certain alleles common to a wide variety of organisms
C
47) The activation of the secondary immune response begins with which of the following?
a. Antibodies
b. Killer T-cells
c. Memory cells
d. Mast cells
e. Suppressor T-cells
B
48) Many animal trainers give rewards to an animal when it performs a behavior correctly. This type of learning is called
a. insight learning
b. operant conditioning
c. imprinting
d. innate learning
e. habituation
B
50) Activated by directly binding to GTP
a. Adenylate cyclase
b. G-protein
c. Carrier protein
d. cAMP
e. Ion channel receptor protein
A
51) Catalyzes the formation of cytosolic second-messenger molecules
a. Adenylate cyclase
b. G-protein
c. Carrier protein
d. cAMP
e. Ion channel receptor protein
C
52) Enhances the transport of lipophilic signals in the blood
a. Adenylate cyclase
b. G-protein
c. Carrier protein
d. cAMP
e. Ion channel receptor protein
D
53) Serves as an intracellular second-messenger molecule
a. Adenylate cyclase
b. G-protein
c. Carrier protein
d. cAMP
e. Ion channel receptor protein
B
54) This protein requires iron as a cofactor.
a. Keratin
b. Hemoglobin
c. Actin
d. Insulin
e. Pepsin
C
55) This protein functions in muscle contraction.
a. Keratin
b. Hemoglobin
c. Actin
d. Insulin
e. Pepsin
A
56) This is the principal protein component of skin.
a. Keratin
b. Hemoglobin
c. Actin
d. Insulin
e. Pepsin
E
57) This protein functions optimally in high H+ concentrations.
a. Keratin
b. Hemoglobin
c. Actin
d. Insulin
e. Pepsin
B
58) Part of a chromosome breaks away and then reattaches to the same chromosome in reverse orientation.
a. Crossing-over
b. Inversion
c. Translocation
d. Nondisjunction
e. Deletion
C
59) Part of a chromosome breaks away and attaches to a nonhomologous chromosome
a. Crossing-over
b. Inversion
c. Translocation
d. Nondisjunction
e. Deletion
E
60) Part of a chromosome lacking a centromere breaks away and does not reattach to another chromosome
a. Crossing-over
b. Inversion
c. Translocation
d. Nondisjunction
e. Deletion
D
61) Tetrads fail to separate correctly during anaphase in this process.
a. Crossing-over
b. Inversion
c. Translocation
d. Nondisjunction
e. Deletion
D
62) Broad, flat, deciduous leaves are fan shaped; ovules develop into naked seeds.
(slide 4)
a. Mosses
b. Ferns
c. Conifers
d. Gingkos
e. Angiosperms
B
63) Heart-shaped gametophytes produce swimming sperm; leaves of sporophytes develop from fiddleheads.
(slide 4)
a. Mosses
b. Ferns
c. Conifers
d. Gingkos
e. Angiosperms
E
64) The embryo sac with seven cells and eight nuclei undergoes double fertilization.
(slide 4)
a. Mosses
b. Ferns
c. Conifers
d. Gingkos
e. Angiosperms
A
65) Associated with inactivated DNA
a. Methylation
b. Enhancer activity
c. RNA capping
d. RNA spliceosome activity
e. Reverse transcription
C
66) Protects RNA from hydrolysis
a. Methylation
b. Enhancer activity
c. RNA capping
d. RNA spliceosome activity
e. Reverse transcription
D
67) Selectively removes RNA segments
a. Methylation
b. Enhancer activity
c. RNA capping
d. RNA spliceosome activity
e. Reverse transcription
B
68) Increases RNA polymerase activity
a. Methylation
b. Enhancer activity
c. RNA capping
d. RNA spliceosome activity
e. Reverse transcription
C
69) (slide 5) The banding patterns of the DNA fragments reveal that
a. child 1 and child 2 cannot be biological siblings
b. child 1 and child 3 probably look like the mother
c. the mother cannot be the biological parent of all three children
d. the mother's DNA has the same DNA sequence as the father's DNA
e. child 2 and child 3 inherited all of their DNA from the father
B
70) (slide 5) All of the following made the separation of these DNA fragments possible EXCEPT
a. the negative charge of the DNA
b. the percentage of G + C bases
c. the porous nature of the gel
d. different fragment sizes
e. positive electrode placement
D
71) (slide 5) Which of the following is the best explanation for the fragment pattern for individual X?
a. She has only one member of this chromosome pair.
b. She has only one living parent.
c. She is homozygous for this particular DNA fragment.
d. She is the mother's child from another marriage.
e. She is not related to any member of the family being tested.
B
72) (slide 5) All of the following are likely steps that would lead to the production of these gel patterns EXCEPT
a. isolating the DNA from each individual
b. using a different restriction enzyme to treat the DNA of each individual
c. loading the DNA into separate wells in an agarose gel
d. separating the fragments in an electrical field
e. probing the DNA with an oligonucleotide specific to the short repeating sequence
D
73) (slide 6) What is the most likely identity of protein X?
a. An enzyme that is involved in transcription
b. An electron transport protein that participates in respiration reactions
c. A protein secreted from liver cells into the blood stream that permits proper capillary function
d. An enzyme that participates in the degradation and recycling of cell components
e. A building block of the microtubules that are part of the cytoskeleton
A
74) (slide 6) Which of the following correctly shows the order in which protein X moves through the cell?
a. Endoplasmic reticulum -> Golgi apparatus -> lysosomes
b. Endoplasmic reticulum -> Golgi apparatus -> nucleus -> cytoplasm -> lysosomes
c. Extracellular space -> mitochondria -> cytoplasm
d. Golgi apparatus -> cytoplasm -> lysosomes
e. Cytoplasm -> mitochondria -> extracellular space
A
75) (slide 6) The same procedure was repeated with a second protein (protein Y). If the function of Y is protein processing and packaging, the most radioactivity would be found in the
a. Golgi apparatus
b. Nucleus
c. Mitochondria
d. Lysosomes
e. Cytoplasm
E
76) (slide 6) In graphing the data from this experiment, the sampling time would be shown on the x-axis because
a. cell components were shown on the y-axis
b. radioactivity level shows the most variation
c. time values are always located on the horizontal axis
d. all quantitative values are represented on the x-axis
e. sampling time is the independent variable
D
77) A survey reveals that 25 percent of a population of 1,000 individuals have attached earlobes (are homozygous recessive for the trait). For the following questions, assume that the population fits the parameters of the Hardy-Weinburg law.
What is the frequency of the recessive allele?
a. √0.75
b. 0.75
c. √0.50
d. √0.25
e. 0.25
A
78) A survey reveals that 25 percent of a population of 1,000 individuals have attached earlobes (are homozygous recessive for the trait). For the following questions, assume that the population fits the parameters of the Hardy-Weinburg law.
Unlike most natural populations, this population is best characterized in which of the following ways?
a. There is genetic equilibrium.
b. There is gene flow.
c. There is genetic drift.
d. Mutations occur.
e. Mating is nonrandom.
D
79) A survey reveals that 25 percent of a population of 1,000 individuals have attached earlobes (are homozygous recessive for the trait). For the following questions, assume that the population fits the parameters of the Hardy-Weinburg law.
If p equals the frequency of the dominant allele and q equals the frequency of the recessive allele, which of the following terms represents the frequency of the individuals who show the dominant phenotype?
a. pxp
b. qxq
c. 2pq
d. pxp +2pq
e. pxp + qxq
A
80) (slide 7) The fluctuation in blood pressure shown in section I is caused by the
a. systole-diastole cycle
b. the atrial contraction-atrial relaxation cycle
c. comparison of pressure in the artery to pressure in the corresponding vein
d. tidal breathing rate of the subject
e. rhythmic contraction of the veins
D
81) (slide 7) The changes in velocity of blood flow seen in section II are most directly influenced by which of the following?
a. The increasing blood pressure within the vessels
b. the distances of the vessels from the heart
c. The volume of blood pumped in one-systole-diastole cycle
d. The cross-sectional area of vessels
e. The thickness of the vessel walls
C
82) (slide 7) Given the very low pressure for the blood's return to the heart shown in section III, which of the following is NOT a mechanism for assisting blood's movement?
a. The presence of one-way valves embedded in the vein's walls
b. A thoracic pump powered by breathing movements
c. A transpirational pull using hydrogen bonding
d. Skeletal muscle assists
e. The reduced pressure in the relaxing heart chambers after the blood is forced out
C
83) (slide 8) Which of the following is the most likely mode of inheritance for the disease?
a. Codominance
b. Autosomal dominant
c. Autosomal recessive
d. Sex-linked dominant
e. Sex-linked recessive
B
84) (slide 8) If Individual 2 were to marry a woman with no family history of the disease, which of the following would most likely be true of their children?
a. All of the children would have the disease.
b. None of the children would have the disease.
c. Only the sons would have the disease.
d. All of the sons would be carriers of the disease.
e. None of the daughters would be carriers of the disease.
C
85) (slide 8) If Individual 6 marries a woman with the disease, what is the probability that their first child will have the disease?
a. 0
b. 25%
c. 50%
d. 75%
e. 100%
B
86) (slide 9) Based on the data shown, changes in the light intensity resulted in changes in the rate of which of the following processes?
a. excretion
b. photosynthesis
c. respiration
d. translation
e. transcription
D
87) (slide 9) The rate of oxygen production equaled the rate of oxygen consumption during which of the following time periods?
a. G to H
b. H to I
c. I to J
d. J to K
e. G to K
A
88) (slide 9) An increase in the rate of oxygen production by algae would be accompanied by a comparable increase in the rate of production of which of the following substances?
a. C6H12O6
b. CO2
c. CH4
d. NH3
e. H2O
C
89) (slide 10) The population density at point Q indicates that
a. exponential population growth is occurring
b. predation is beginning to occur
c. the reproductive rate equals the death rate
d. the average age of individuals is decreasing
e. the reproductive capacity for each individual is increasing
E
90) (slide 10) The population would be most likely to remain at the level shown at Q under which of the following conditions?
a. All predators are eliminated.
b. The population size is well below its carrying capacity.
c. Euglena is a primary producer.
d. Euglena is a primary consumer.
e. Environmental conditions do not fluctuate.
C
91) (slide 11) From the data presented, which of the following can correctly be concluded about crayfish?
a. Their diet contains no fat.
b. Most digestive enzymes are produced in the stomach.
c. Most digestive enzymes are found in the digestive gland.
d. Amylase is produced in the esophagus.
e. The primary function of the intestine is to digest proteins.
C
92) (slide 11) Based on the data presented, which of the following statements regarding crayfish digestion is consistent with the data?
a. Little digestion occurs before food enters the stomach.
b. Most digestion occurs in the stomach.
c. Little digestion occurs in the intestine.
d. Enzymes are used up as they catalyze.
e. Digestion is optimal at 25 degrees C.
D
93) (slide 11) The experiment demonstrates which of the following about the digestive system of crayfish?
a. Amylase is the most active digestive enzyme.
b. Crayfish have only three kinds of digestive enzymes.
c. Most enzyme activity occurs in the intestine.
d. Different regions of the digestive system are specialized for different functions.
e. The esophagus serves no real function.
B
94) (slide 11) Which of the following would be useful as a substrate to measure the activity of amylase in crayfish?
a. Cellulose
b. Starch
c. Glucose
d. An amino acid
e. A nucleic acid
C
95) Researchers applied radioactive phosphorus and radioactive calcium to a freshly cut tree stump. Eight days later, they came back to measure the distribution of the radioisotopes. They found that nineteen different species of shrubs and trees within a seven-meter radius had taken up the radioactive elements. No radioactivity was detected in the air.
Radioactive isotopes were never detected in any samples containing just soil taken during the experiment. The finding implies that the
a. soil does not provide the ecosystem with minerals
b. isotopes were undetectable in very small amounts
c. isotopes were transported via vascular tissues
d. plants quickly return minerals to the soil in which they grow
e. soil speeds up radioactive decay
B
96) Researchers applied radioactive phosphorus and radioactive calcium to a freshly cut tree stump. Eight days later, they came back to measure the distribution of the radioisotopes. They found that nineteen different species of shrubs and trees within a seven-meter radius had taken up the radioactive elements. No radioactivity was detected in the air.
Radioactively labeled starch was later added to the stump; in subsequent observations, no labeled starch molecules were ever detected in neighboring plants. Which of the following is the most logical explanation for the observation?
a. During transport, the radioactive atoms are removed from the starch molecules.
b. Starch molecules are too large to cross cell membranes.
c. The radioactivity caused the starch molecules to break down.
d. Water in the soil dissolved the starch molecules.
e. The radioactive carbon atoms decayed into other atoms that are undetectable.
D
97) (slide 12) Which of the following best describes why the disks rose to the surface faster in the more concentrated hydrogen peroxide solutions?
a. There was more enzyme present in the more concentrated solutions.
b. A greater amount of heat was generated in the more concentrated solutions.
c. The more concentrated solutions lowered the activation energy of the reaction.
d. The higher substrate concentrations in the more concentrated solutions speeded the reaction.
e. The density of the water was lower in the more concentrated solutions.
A
98) (slide 12) Which of the following experimental designs should the students use as a control for the experiment?
a. Place a catalase-soaked disk in a beaker of water.
b. Drop the disks from different heights into the solution.
c. Poke the floating disks back down to the bottom of the beaker and retime the rise of the disks.
d. Shake the beakers during the time the disks are rising.
e. Dip the disks in the 5% solution before putting them in any other solution.
B
99) (slide 12) Which of the following best describes why ice was used during this experiment?
a. To increase the activity of the enzyme
b. To retard the breakdown of the catalase
c. To purge the solution of excess air trapped during blending
d. To slow the catalase molecules to increase the probability of contact with the hydrogen peroxide molecules
e. To increase the size of the active site on the enzyme
E
100) (slide 12) If the potato solution was boiled for 10 minutes and cooled for 10 minutes before being tested, the average time for the disks to float to the surface of the hydrogen peroxide solution would be
a. less than 1 second
b. 5 seconds
c. 10 seconds
d. 30 seconds
e. more than 30 seconds
C
1. In humans, the HIV virus primarily attacks which of the following types of cells?
A. Epidermal cells
B. Red blood cells
C. White blood cells
D. Glial cells
E. Neurans
B
2. In an experiment on birds learning to sing, young male chicks were exposed only to the songs sung by another specie. Later, as they approached maturity, songs of their own species were played to them. When the birds reached maturity, they were able to sing neither the typical song of their species nor the full song of the second species. Which of the following accounts for this result?
A. Birds innately sing the song typical of their species
B. Birds pass through a critical period early in life when learning their species-typical song is possible
C. Birds can learn their typical song if they hear it at any time
D. Birds must be able to practice their song in order to develop it.
E. Birds are capable of imitating any song that they hear
D
3.A biologist counted 2,500 cells from an embryo on a microscope slide and recorded the following data.
Stage/Number of cells
Prophase:125
Metaphase:50
Anaphase:50
Telophase:25
Interphase:2,250
Total:2,500
If these cells had been dividing randomly, it could be reasonably concluded that
A. the duration of anaphase is approximately one-half of telophase
B. Prophase is approximately three times as long as telophase
C. Metaphase is the shortest stage of the cell cycle
D. Interphase is the longest stage of the cell cycle
E. The chromosomes can first be seen in prophase
D
4.The different species of finches on the Galapagos Islands are believed to have arisen as a result of natural selection acting on populations of finches that had experienced
A. Convergent evolution
B. Gene flow
C. The bottleneck effect
D. Geographic isolation
E. hybrid sterility
C
5.Which of the following describes the mechanism by which a plant stem grows toward light?
A. The plant seeks light in order to maximize photosynthesis
B. nerve like impulses stimulate contractile cells on the lighted side of the stem
C.cells on the dark side of he stem elongate more than those on the lighted side
D. THe plant grows into an open area where its leaves will not be shaded by competing plants
E. the greater energy supply on the lighted side of the stem stimulates metabolism and growth on that side
C
6. The LEAST effective means of controlling pest species such as rats or roaches over a long period of time is generally to
A. limit food supplies
B. Reduce the number of potential habitats
C. Distribute pesticides throughout the habitat
D. Introduce predators of the pest
E. Introduce a disease which affects only the pest
B
7. Which of the following levels of organization includes all of the others?
A. Population
B. Ecosystem
C. Community
D. Organism
E. Habitat
E
8.All of the following statements concerning characteristics of predator prey relationships are correct EXCEPT
A. A rise in the population of prey is often followed by a rise in population of predators
B. A rise in the population of predators is followed by a decrease in the population of prey
C. Camouflage is an adaptation that protects prey
D. The production of large numbers of offspring within very short periods of time ensures the survival of some prey populations
E. The population of predators most often eliminates the population of prey
B
9.The function of which of the following organelles directly requires oxygen?
A. Ribosome
B. Mitochondrion
C. Nucleus
D. Centriole
E. Golgi apparatus
B
10. Flowering plants are capable of fertilization in the absence of water because the
A. processes of pollination and fertilization occur in the soil
B. pollen tubes deliver the sperm to the eggs
C. eggs develop without sperm by parthenogenesis
D. Eggs have a structure that aids in their dispersal by wind
E. sperm contain large amounts of cytoplasm
D
11.
Adaptations that have enabled vertebrates to survive on land include all of the following EXCEPT
A. a water-resistant epidermis
B. development of a bony skeleton
C. development of longs
D. external fertilization
E. embryos enclosed within membranes
B
12.An animal that has a high surface-area-to-volume-ratio of the body, and takes in all the oxygen it needs through its outer epithelium is most likely which of the following?
A. a fish
B. an earthworm
C. a mammal
D. an insect
E. a snake
B
13.Toads in a particular population vary in size. A scientist observes that in this population, large males mate with females significantly more often than small males do. All the following are plausible hypotheses to explain this observation EXCEPT:
A. Females select large males more often than they select small males as mates
B. Small females are more likely to mate with small males and large females are more likely to mate with large males
C. Large males are successful in competing for mates more often than small males are
D. Large males occupy more breeding territory than small males do
E. The calls produced by large males are more attractive to females than the calls made by small males
D
14.In the development of a seedling, which of the following will be the last to occur?
A. initiation of the breakdown of the food reserve
B. Initiation of cell division in the root meristem
C. Emergence of the root
D. Expansion and greening of the first true foliage leaves
E. Imbibition of water by the seed
B
15.Which of the following behaviors involves the LEAST learning?
A. A lion capturing its prey
B. A newborn human grasping something placed in its hand
C. A mouse finding food in the kitchen of a house
D. A mockingbird singing the song of a different species
E. A chimpanzee finding its way through a forest
C
16.In most vertebrates, the sperm cell normally contributes which of the following to the new organism?
A. Many mitochondria
B. Significant amounts of RNA
C. A haploid complement of chromosomes
D. Most of the cytoplasm of the zygote
E. Two sex chromosomes
A
17.Most cells that have become transformed into cancer cells have which of the following characteristics when compared to normal, healthy cells?
A. shorter cell cycle
B. More carefully regulated rates of cell devision
C. Lower rates of mitosis
D. Higher rates of protein translation
E. Identical DNA
E
18.If organisms A, B, and C belong to the same order but to different families and if organisms D, E, and F belong to the same family but to different genera, which of the following pairs of organisms would be expected to show the greatest degree of structural homology?
A. A and B
B. A and C
C. B and D
D. C and F
E. E and F
A
19.A prokaryotic cell has which of the following?
A. centrioles
B. lysosomes
C. Plasma membrane
D. mitochondria
E. Endoplasmic reticulum
B
20.Which of the following statements regarding coenzymes is true?
A. they are essential for metabolic reactions in animals but not in plants
B. They can facilitate metabolic reactions by combining with enzymes at their active sites
C. They are minerals that alter the pH of cells and thus increase the probability of chemical reactions
D. They are synthesized in the rough endoplasmic reticulum of eukaryotic cells.
E. They typically work best at temperatures below 37C
E
21.An animal with anterior , posterior, dorsal and ventral surfaces on its body must exhibit
A. protostomic development
B. Coelomate development
C. segmentation
D. radial symmetry
E. bilateral symmetry
B
22.The fruit produced by angiosperms is an evolutionary adaptation that most often
A. nourishes the seeds within the fruit on ripening
B. aids in seed dispersal
C. attracts pollinators
D. inhibits seed germination until favorable environmental conditions occur
E. provides an energy source for the plant egg cell prior to fertilization
B
23.Which of the following types of chemicals released into the air by female gypsy moths and female silk moths attract males of their respective moth species?
A. Ecdysones
B. Pheromones
C. Auxins
D. Phytotoxins
E. Neurotransimtters
A
24.Which of the following best describes opportunistic or r-strategy, organisms?
A . They reach sexual maturity rapidly
B. They reach their adult size slowly
C. They attain a large body size
D. They live for a long time
E. The size of their population remains fairly constant
D
25.Which of the following terms refers to both the movement of a ribosome along a piece of mRNA and the movement of a piece of one chromosome to another chromosome
A. Transduction
B. Transgenesis
C. Transformation
D. Translocation
E. Transplantation
C
26.Which of the following hormones is directly responsible for the maintenance of the uterine lining during pregnancy in mammals?
A. Melatonin
B. Oxytocin
C. Progesterone
D. Prolactin
E. FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone)
D
27.THe fact that tracheophytes can survive on land is due to which of the following?
A. alternation of generations
B. A dominant gametophyte stage
C. Adaptation to damp habitats
D. Water transport through vascular tissues
E. Mechanisms other than photosynthesis for carbohydrate production
D
28.As the initial cleavage divisions proceed in a frog embryo, which of the following results?
A. the embryo increases in size
B. The cytoplasmic content of the individual cells increase
C. The yolk mass increases in size.
D. Individual cells become smaller
E. Individual cells become haploid
E
29.Which of the following provides he weakest evidence that mitochondria were once free living prokaryotes
A. Mitochondrial ribosomes resemble those of prokaryotes
B. Mitochondria have DNA that is circular and does not have associated protein
C. Enzyme pathways on mitochondrial membranes resemble those found on modern prokaryotes membranes
D. Mitochondria reproduce by a process similar to binary fission
E. Mitochondria and prokaryotes both are found in a variety of sizes
A
30.Which of the following is an actively dividing tissue in plants?
A. Cambium
B. Xylem
C. Endodermis
D. Phloem
E. Pith
A
31. Analysis of DNA sequences from two individuals of the same species results in a greater estimate of genetic variability than does analysis of amino acid sequences from the same individuals because
A. different DNA sequences can code for the same amino acid
B. Some amino acid variations cannot be detected b protein electrophoresis
C. DNA sequencing is more reliable technique than protein electrophoresis
D. proteins are more easily damaged than is DNA
E. DNA is more heat-sensitive and therefore varies more
A
32.Which of the following is correct concerning development of embryos in animals but not in plants?
A. Gastrulation occurs within the embryo
B. fertilization produces a diploid embryo
C. Embryonic cell division are mitotic
D. Fusion of gametes results in a zygote
E. Cell differentiation occurs
B
33.Which of the following physiological effects would likely occur first in a volunteer who was breathing air from which the CO2 was removed?
A. decreased blood pH
B. Decreased respirator rate
C. Increased respiratory rate
D. increase pulse rate
E. increase blood pressure
C
34.Which of the following best describes why the polymerase chain reaction is a standard technique used in molecular biology research?
A. It uses inexpensive materials and produces perfect results
B. It can purify specific section of a DNA molecule
C. It can produce large amounts of specific DNA sequences
D. It can duplicate the entire human genome
E. It can produce large amounts of mRNA
C
35.Double fertilization in an ovule of a flowering plant results in which of the following?
A. Two embryos
B. Two seeds in a fruit
C. One embryo and one endosperm
D. Two fruits joined together
E. One endosperm and one cotyledon
C
36.Which of the following best describe the cells that result from the process of meiosis in mammals?
A. They are diploid
B. They can be used to repair injuries
C. They are genetically different from the parent cell
D. They are genetically identical to all the other cells in the body
E. They are idenctical to each other
A
37.The function of which of the following structures is NOT directly related to diffusion or active transport across its membranes?
(A) Aorta
(B) Small intestine
(C) Nephron tubule
(D) Capillary
(E) Alveolus
B
38.A part of the brain used in the transfer of information from one cerebral hemisphere to
the other is the
(A) medulla oblongata
(B) corpus callosum
(C) cerebellum
(D) hypothalamus
(E) pituitary
E
39.Fruits often ripen faster when placed in closed paper bags because of the effect of
(A) cytokinin
(B) abscisic acid
(C) CO2
(D) gibberellin
(E) ethylene
B
40.Simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion are related in that both
(A) require protein carriers
(B) depend on a concentration gradient
(C) occur via contractions of cytoskeletal elements attached to membrane proteins
(D) are endergonic processes and thus require the hydrolysis of ATP
(E) occur in eukaryotic cells but not in prokaryotic cells
E
41.Which of the following statements about mitochondrial chemiosmosis is NOT true?
(A) A proton gradient is established across the inner membrane of the mitochondrion.
(B) The potential energy released from the mitochondrial proton gradient is used to
produce ATP.
(C) The mitochondrial proton gradient provides energy for muscle contraction.
(D) Proteins embedded in the inner mitochondrial membrane play an important role in
ATP synthesis.
(E) Heat energy is required to establish the electron transport chain.
C
42.ATP serves as a common energy source for organisms because
(A) it is the smallest energy molecule
(B) it stores the least energy of any energy source
(C) its energy can be easily transferred to do cellular work
(D) it is extremely stable and can be stored in the cell for long periods of time
(E) traces of it have been found in fossils of ancient organisms dating back to the
beginning of life on Earth
D
43.A spermatocyte produces the following four sperm cells.
n +1 n+1 n-1 n-1
These cells are the result of nondisjunction during which of the following phases?
(A) Interphase (G1 or G2)
(B) Interphase (S)
(C) Mitosis
(D) Meiosis I
(E) Meiosis II
B
44. Which metabolic process is common to both aerobic cellular respiration and alcoholic
fermentation?
(A) Krebs cycle
(B) Glycolysis
(C) Electron transport chain
(D) Conversion of pyruvic acid to acetyl CoA
(E) Production of a proton gradient
C
45. Which of the following is responsible for the cohesive property of water?
(A) Hydrogen bonds between the oxygen atoms of two adjacent water molecules
(B) Covalent bonds between the hydrogen atoms of two adjacent water molecules
(C) Hydrogen bonds between the oxygen atom of one water molecule and a hydrogen
atom of another water molecule
(D) Covalent bonds between the oxygen atom of one water molecule and a hydrogen
atom of another water molecule
(E) Hydrogen bonds between water molecules and other types of molecules
C
46.. All of the following correctly describe the fate of the embryonic layers of a vertebrate
EXCEPT
(A) neural tube and epidermis develop from ectoderm
(B) linings of digestive organs and lungs develop from endoderm
(C) notochord and kidneys develop from endoderm
(D) skeletal muscles and heart develop from mesoderm
(E) reproductive organs and blood vessels develop from mesoderm
D
47.Which of the following processes is associated with some prokaryotic cells but not with
eukaryotic cells?
(A) Photosynthesis
(B) Aerobic respiration
(C) Meiosis
(D) Nitrogen fixation
(E) Endocytosis
D
48.The control of breathing is centered in which of the following areas of the brain?
(A) Anterior pituitary
(B) Corpus callosum
(C) Cerebellum
(D) Medulla Oblongata
(E) Cerebrum
D
49.Certain metabolic pathways are affected by the buildup of a product which interacts with
an enzyme catalyzing one of the initial steps of the pathway; this can be an example of
(A) transcriptional regulation
(B) thermodynamic regulation
(C) translational regulation
(D) feedback inhibition
(E) posttranslational modification
D
50.All of the following statements about neurotransmitters are generally true EXCEPT:
(A) They may cause depolarization or hyperpolarization of the postsynaptic
membrane.
(B) They are actively transported across the synaptic cleft.
(C) They are released from membrane-bound packets called vesicles.
(D) They may be enzymatically degraded at the postsynaptic membrane.
(E) They bind to specific receptors on the postsynaptic membrane.
E
51.A customer observed that a particular potted plant in a restaurant was bigger and greener
than other plants in the room. When asked, the owner said that he poured leftover club
soda (carbonated water) into that plant's pot every day. Which of the following best
explains how the club soda affected that plant's growth?
(A) The basic pH of the club soda caused the plant to grow rapidly.
(B) The temperature of the club soda promoted faster growth.
(C) Oxygen bubbles from the club soda oxygenated the soil.
(D) The roots absorbed the CO2 necessary for photosynthesis.
(E) The roots received more moisture, and the leaves were exposed to more CO2.
C
52.A major function of the Casparian strip of the endodermal cells of a root is to
(A) protect the meristem as the root tip grows through the abrasive soil particles
(B) allow for expansion of the vascular cambium as the root grows laterally
(C) control the movement of materials into the vascular cylinder of the root
(D) initiate lateral root growth
(E) serve as a site for the storage of excess sugars in the form of starch
C
53.Which of the following is correct concerning a spherical cell?
(A) As the diameter decreases, the surface area remains the same.
(B) As the diameter decreases, the surface area increases.
(C) As the diameter decreases, the surface-to-volume ratio increases.
(D) As the diameter increases, the volume decreases.
(E) The surface-to-volume ratio is independent of the diameter.
B
54.Which of the following directly produces the most ATP per mole of glucose during
aerobic cellular respiration?
(A) Which of the following directly produces the most ATP per mole of glucose
during aerobic cellular respiration?
(B) Electron transport chain and hemiosmosis
(C) Substrate-level phosphorylation
(D) Kreb's cycle
(E) Alcoholic fermentation
D
55.All of the following could reduce the yield of photosynthetic products EXCEPT
(A) lower concentrations of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
(B) Increased photorespiration
(C) reduced carbon dioxide concentrations in the air spaces of the leaf
(D) increased frequency of stomatal openings
(E) fewer Calvin cycle enzymes
B
56.Which of the following is true about the production of polar bodies in humans?
(A) It increases genetic variability.
(B) It provides the maximum amount of cytoplasm and resources to the ovum.
(C) It occurs in male and female vertebrates during meiosis I.
(D) It is completed prior to fertilization.
(E) It results in nondisjunction.
E
57.Coat color in mice is determined by genes at two loci. When black mice from a particular population mate, they produce offspring in the following ratios: 9 black : 3
brown : 4 white. These results suggest that white coat color is expressed as a result of
(A) dominance
(B) incomplete dominance
(C) codominance
(D) a sex-linked trait
(E) epistasis
C
58.Which of the following can be diagnosed by examining a karyotype of an individual's
white blood cells?
(A) Sickle cell anemia
(B) Alzheimer disease
(C) Down syndrome
(D) Cystic fibrosis
(E) Duchenne muscular dystrophy
B
59.All of the following are common to C3 and C4 photosynthesis EXCEPT

(A) Photolysis
(B) Initial step of CO2 fixation
(C) Cyclic photophosphorylation
(D) Noncyclic photophosphorylation
(E) Chemiosmotic phosphorylation
B
60.In mammals, a decrease in body temperature results in which of the following responses?
(A) Release of thyroxine decreases the rate of metabolism.
(B) Blood vessels close to the surface of the skin constrict.
(C) vessels in deep muscles constrict so Increased secretion of epinephrine restricts
the amount of sugar released into the circulatory system.
(D) The adrenal glands increase the release of acetylcholine into the circulatory
system.
(E) Blood that heat is conserved
C
62.(A) DNA ligase
(B) DNA polymerase
(C) RNA polymerase
(D) Restriction enzyme
(E) Reverse transcriptase
Enzyme used in the synthesis of mRNA
A
63.(A) DNA ligase
(B) DNA polymerase
(C) RNA polymerase
(D) Restriction enzyme
(E) Reverse transcriptase
Enzyme used during replication to attach Okazaki fragments to each other
E
64.(A) DNA ligase
(B) DNA polymerase
(C) RNA polymerase
(D) Restriction enzyme
(E) Reverse transcriptase
Enzyme found in retroviruses that produce DNA from an RNA template
B
65.(A) DNA ligase
(B) DNA polymerase
(C) RNA polymerase
(D) Restriction enzyme
(E) Reverse transcriptase
Enzyme used to position nucleotides during DNA replication
D
66.Assume that the alleles referred to all assort independently.
(A) 0
(B) 1/16
(C) 1/4
(D) 1/2
(E) 3/4
Probability that the genotype Aa will be produced by the parents Aa x Aa
B
67.Assume that the alleles referred to all assort independently.
(A) 0
(B) 1/16
(C) 1/4
(D) 1/2
(E) 3/4
Probability that the genotype ccdd will be produced by the parents CcDd x CcDd
C
68.Assume that the alleles referred to all assort independently.
(A) 0
(B) 1/16
(C) 1/4
(D) 1/2
(E) 3/4
Probability that the genotype Rr will be produced by the parents Rr x rr
C
69.Assume that the alleles referred to all assort independently.
(A) 0
(B) 1/16
(C) 1/4
(D) 1/2
(E) 3/4
Probability that the genotype TTSs will be produced by the parents TTSs x TtSS
A
70.(A) Proteins
(B) Carbohydrates
(C) Nucleic acids
(D) Lipids
(E) Steroids
Synthesized at the ribosome
B
71.(A) Proteins
(B) Carbohydrates
(C) Nucleic acids
(D) Lipids
(E) Steroids
Includes glycogen, chitin, cellulose, and glucose
D
72.(A) Proteins
(B) Carbohydrates
(C) Nucleic acids
(D) Lipids
(E) Steroids
Used for insulation and buoyancy in marine Arctic animals
C
73.(A) Proteins
(B) Carbohydrates
(C) Nucleic acids
(D) Lipids
(E) Steroids
Used to carry the genetic code
D
74.(A) Echinoderms
(B) Annelids
(C) Arthropods
(D) Cnidarians (coelenterates)
(E) Chordates
These organisms often have both a polyp form and a medusa form in their life cycle.
E
75.(A) Echinoderms
(B) Annelids
(C) Arthropods
(D) Cnidarians (coelenterates)
(E) Chordates
These organisms have pharyngeal gill slits and a dorsal hollow nerve cord at some time
in their development.
A
76.(A) Echinoderms
(B) Annelids
(C) Arthropods
(D) Cnidarians (coelenterates)
(E) Chordates
These organisms have radial symmetry and a water vascular system and are generally
bottom-dwellers.
C
77.(A) Echinoderms
(B) Annelids
(C) Arthropods
(D) Cnidarians (coelenterates)
(E) Chordates
These organisms have a chitinous exoskeleton and jointed appendages.
A
78.(A) Cytochrome
(B) FADH2
(C) NAD+
(D) NADP+
(E) Oxygen (O2)
A membrane-bound electron carrier found in the electron transport systems of both
aerobic respiration and photosynthesis
B
79.(A) Cytochrome
(B) FADH2
(C) NAD+
(D) NADP+
(E) Oxygen (O2)
Coenzyme that transfers electrons from the Krebs cycle to the mitochondrial electrontransport chain at a lower energy level than that of electrons entering at the beginning of
the chain
C
80.(A) Cytochrome
(B) FADH2
(C) NAD+
(D) NADP+
(E) Oxygen (O2)
An intermediate electron acceptor for oxidations that occur in both glycolysis and in
Krebs cycle reactions
E
81.(A) Cytochrome
(B) FADH2
(C) NAD+
(D) NADP+
(E) Oxygen (O2)
The final electron acceptor for cellular respiration
B
82.( There is an image of a cell, You will have to look at your test #82-86) 2002 test
Site of glucose synthesis
A
83.( There is an image of a cell, You will have to look at your test #82-86) 2002 test
Site of conversion of chemical energy of glucose to ATP
C
84.( There is an image of a cell, You will have to look at your test #82-86) 2002 test
Site of modification and packaging of proteins and lipids prior to export from the cell
D
85.( There is an image of a cell, You will have to look at your test #82-86) 2002 test
Site of transport of materials into and out of the cell
B
86.( There is an image of a cell, You will have to look at your test #82-86) 2002 test
Evolved from a photoautotrophic prokaryote
A
87.(There is an image in your packet #87-89)2002 test
Centipedes and millipedes should NOT be placed in group B because they
(A) have an exoskeleton
(B) display radial symmetry
(C) lack a coelom
(D) are unsegmented
(E) have an endoskeleton
C
88.(There is an image in your packet #87-89)
Which of the following phyla is represented by group E ?
(A) Mollusca
(B) Cnidaria (Coelenerata)
(C) Porifera
(D) Chordata
(E) Annelida
C
89.(There is an image in your packet #87-89)2002 test
Clam, octopus, and oyster and classified in which group.
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
(E) E
A
90.In the 1940's, Avery, MacCleod, and McCarty transformed nonencapsulated bacteria into
encapsulated forms by growing the nonencapsulated cells in a culture containing an
extract made from dead encapsulated cells. The transformed cells produced colonies of
encapsulated bacteria. Three different procedures and their results are outlined below.
Procedure I:
Exact made from dead encapsulated cells added to culture medium.
Nonencapsulated bacteria added to culture medium.
Results: Both nonencapsulated and encapsulated bacteria grow.
Procedure II:
Extract made from dead encapsulated cells treated with protein-degrading enzymes
before adding exact to culture medium.
Nonencapsulated bacteria added to culture medium.
Results: Both nonencapsulated and encapsulated bacteria grow.
Procedure III:
Extract made from dead encapsulated cells treated with DNAse (an enzyme that
selectively destroys DNA) before adding extract to culture medium.
Nonencapsulated bacteria added to culture medium.
Results: Only nonencapsulated bacteria grow.
A reasonable conclusion to draw from the results of the experiment is that
(A) DNA is the genetic material
(B) DNA replication is semiconservative
(C) DNA is a double helix
(D) DNA is translated into protein
(E) Mutation is a change in the genetic material
B
91.In the 1940's, Avery, MacCleod, and McCarty transformed nonencapsulated bacteria into
encapsulated forms by growing the nonencapsulated cells in a culture containing an
extract made from dead encapsulated cells. The transformed cells produced colonies of
encapsulated bacteria. Three different procedures and their results are outlined below.
Procedure I:
Exact made from dead encapsulated cells added to culture medium.
Nonencapsulated bacteria added to culture medium.
Results: Both nonencapsulated and encapsulated bacteria grow.
Procedure II:
Extract made from dead encapsulated cells treated with protein-degrading enzymes
before adding exact to culture medium.
Nonencapsulated bacteria added to culture medium.
Results: Both nonencapsulated and encapsulated bacteria grow.
Procedure III:
Extract made from dead encapsulated cells treated with DNAse (an enzyme that
selectively destroys DNA) before adding extract to culture medium.
Nonencapsulated bacteria added to culture medium.
Results: Only nonencapsulated bacteria grow.
What was the purpose of treating the extract with protein-degrading enzymes in
Procedure II ?
(A) To demonstrate that the transforming factor is an enzyme
(B) To demonstrate that the transforming factor is not a protein
(C) To destroy nucleic acids in the exact
(D) To destroy any capsules in the exact
(E) To prevent the extract from being contaminated by nonencapsulated bacteria
C
92.In the 1940's, Avery, MacCleod, and McCarty transformed nonencapsulated bacteria into
encapsulated forms by growing the nonencapsulated cells in a culture containing an
extract made from dead encapsulated cells. The transformed cells produced colonies of
encapsulated bacteria. Three different procedures and their results are outlined below.
Procedure I:
Exact made from dead encapsulated cells added to culture medium.
Nonencapsulated bacteria added to culture medium.
Results: Both nonencapsulated and encapsulated bacteria grow.
Procedure II:
Extract made from dead encapsulated cells treated with protein-degrading enzymes
before adding exact to culture medium.
Nonencapsulated bacteria added to culture medium.
Results: Both nonencapsulated and encapsulated bacteria grow.
Procedure III:
Extract made from dead encapsulated cells treated with DNAse (an enzyme that
selectively destroys DNA) before adding extract to culture medium.
Nonencapsulated bacteria added to culture medium.
Results: Only nonencapsulated bacteria grow.
What was the purpose of treating the extract with DNAse in Procedure III ?
(A) To remove the encapsulated bacteria from the extract
(B) To serve as a positive control by demonstrating that a protein in the extract is the
transforming factor
(C) To serve as a negative control by demonstrating that transformation does not
occur without DNA
(D) To destroy any enzymes in the extract
(E) To destroy any capsules that might be in the extract
B
93.A scientist determined the rate of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction by measuring the amount
of product formed over time. The following curve was generated from the data collected. (There is an image in your packet #93-96) 2002 test
Based solely on the curve, what can be said concerning the calculated reaction rates at 1
minute and at 2 minutes?
(A) The rate after 2 minutes is greater than the rate after 1 minute.
(B) The rates are the same at 1 minute and at 2 minutes.
(C) The rates are affected by high concentrations of inhibitors.
(D) The rates are both zero.
(E) The greater the rate, the faster the enzyme is denatured
B
94.A scientist determined the rate of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction by measuring the amount
of product formed over time. The following curve was generated from the data collected. (There is an image in your packet #93-96) 2002 test
The rate of the reaction could also be determined by
(A) measuring the change in the amount of enzyme
(B) measuring the change in the amount of substrate
(C) measuring the change in salt concentration
(D) adding more substrate
(E) adding more enzyme
C
95.A scientist determined the rate of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction by measuring the amount
of product formed over time. The following curve was generated from the data collected. (There is an image in your packet #93-96) 2002 test
What is the most likely explanation for the change in the slope of the line between 3 and
5 minutes?
(A) The enzyme had denatured.
(B) The enzyme had achieved its maximum velocity.
(C) A large amount of the substrate had been consumed.
(D) An allosteric inhibitor appeared.
(E) There was a dramatic change in the pH.
E
96.A scientist determined the rate of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction by measuring the amount
of product formed over time. The following curve was generated from the data collected. (There is an image in your packet #93-96) 2002 test
During which time interval is the reaction rate lowest?
(A) 0-1minute
(B) 1-2 minutes
(C) 2-3 minutes
(D) 3-4 minutes
(E) 4-5 minutes
A
97.The rate of transpiration, the flow of water through the stem, and leaf water potential are
measured in a tree during a 24-hour period under normal environmental conditions. The
results from these measurements are shown in the graphs below. (There is an image in your packet #97-100) 2002 test
Based on graphs I and II, which of the following is the best conclusion that can be
reached?
(A) Decreases in leaf water potential are caused by increased transpiration.
(B) The increased rate of transpiration increase leaf water potential.
(C) The flow of water through the stem has no effect on leaf water potential.
(D) Leaf stomata are closed at 10 A.M.
(E) Water is most likely to flow into the leaf at 4 A.M.
B
98.The rate of transpiration, the flow of water through the stem, and leaf water potential are
measured in a tree during a 24-hour period under normal environmental conditions. The
results from these measurements are shown in the graphs below. (There is an image in your packet #97-100) 2002 test
In this experiment, water flow up the stem could be measured in which of the following
structures?
(A) Phloem
(B) Xylem
(C) Lenticels
(D) Stomata
(E) Casparian strip
C
99.The rate of transpiration, the flow of water through the stem, and leaf water potential are
measured in a tree during a 24-hour period under normal environmental conditions. The
results from these measurements are shown in the graphs below. (There is an image in your packet #97-100) 2002 test
What can be deduced from Graph I?
(A) The rate of transpiration is constant throughout this 24-hour period.
(B) There is no correlation between the rate of transpiration and the flow of water
through the stem.
(C) The maximal flow of water through the stem lags behind the maximal rate of
transpiration.
(D) The r\ate of transpiration never reaches zero.
(E) At noon, the rate of transpiration exceeds the rate of water flow through a stem.
D
100.The rate of transpiration, the flow of water through the stem, and leaf water potential are
measured in a tree during a 24-hour period under normal environmental conditions. The
results from these measurements are shown in the graphs below. (There is an image in your packet #97-100) 2002 test
All of the following changes would be likely to decrease the rate of transpiration at 8
A.M. EXCEPT
(A) causing the stomata to close
(B) increasing the humidity of the atmosphere
(C) increasing the water potential of the atmosphere
(D) increasing the water potential of the soil
(E) placing the plant in total darkness
D
101.In an experiment on the effects of deforestation of a portion of a northern temperate
deciduous forest, all the trees were removed from a small mountainside watershed area
and herbicides were applied for three years to prevent regrowth. Measurements of the
concentration of calcium (an important nutrient) in runoff water were taken both before
and after the deforestation. Monthly measurements also were made in a similar
watershed in another part of the same forest that had been left undisturbed. The findings
are displayed in the graph below. (There is an image in your packet #101-105) 2002 test
Which of the following factors affecting the hydrologic cycle would have the LEAST
impact on calcium loss from the disturbed watershed?
(A) Total precipitation
(B) Surface runoff
(C) Evaporation
(D) Transpiration
(E) Porosity of soil
C
102.In an experiment on the effects of deforestation of a portion of a northern temperate
deciduous forest, all the trees were removed from a small mountainside watershed area
and herbicides were applied for three years to prevent regrowth. Measurements of the
concentration of calcium (an important nutrient) in runoff water were taken both before
and after the deforestation. Monthly measurements also were made in a similar
watershed in another part of the same forest that had been left undisturbed. The findings
are displayed in the graph below. (There is an image in your packet #101-105) 2002 test
Based on the graph, which of the following best describes why losses of calcium did
not occur immediately in the deforested watershed?
(A) It takes months to leach calcium from the soil.
(B) Other minerals were more soluble and were leached out first.
(C) The deforestation occurred during the winter when runoff was low.
(D) Calcium is hard to detect in small amounts.
(E) Leaves do not appear on deciduous trees until the spring.
C
103.In an experiment on the effects of deforestation of a portion of a northern temperate
deciduous forest, all the trees were removed from a small mountainside watershed area
and herbicides were applied for three years to prevent regrowth. Measurements of the
concentration of calcium (an important nutrient) in runoff water were taken both before
and after the deforestation. Monthly measurements also were made in a similar
watershed in another part of the same forest that had been left undisturbed. The findings
are displayed in the graph below. (There is an image in your packet #101-105) 2002 test
(A) Average daily temperature in each watershed
(B) Daily precipitation falling on each watershed
(C) Volume of water flowing out of each watershed each day
(D) Concentration of other ions in the soil of each watershed before and after
deforestation
(E) Amount of calcium present in the precipitation falling on each watershed
D
104.In an experiment on the effects of deforestation of a portion of a northern temperate
deciduous forest, all the trees were removed from a small mountainside watershed area
and herbicides were applied for three years to prevent regrowth. Measurements of the
concentration of calcium (an important nutrient) in runoff water were taken both before
and after the deforestation. Monthly measurements also were made in a similar
watershed in another part of the same forest that had been left undisturbed. The findings
are displayed in the graph below. (There is an image in your packet #101-105) 2002 test
To estimate the total amount of calcium lost annually by each of the two watersheds,
it would be most useful to measure which of the following variables?
(A) It occurs in no predictable pattern.
(B) It increases with time.
(C) It is at a peak when temperatures are highest.
(D) It appears to be correlated with the seasons.
(E) It increases after each application of herbicide
E
105.In an experiment on the effects of deforestation of a portion of a northern temperate
deciduous forest, all the trees were removed from a small mountainside watershed area
and herbicides were applied for three years to prevent regrowth. Measurements of the
concentration of calcium (an important nutrient) in runoff water were taken both before
and after the deforestation. Monthly measurements also were made in a similar
watershed in another part of the same forest that had been left undisturbed. The findings
are displayed in the graph below. (There is an image in your packet #101-105) 2002 test
What can be inferred from the data in the graph about the loss of calcium in the
deforested watershed?
Which of the following is best supported by the data?
(A) Deforestation does not change the amount of water flowing through a watershed.
(B) The time of year during which deforestation occurs has no impact on the negative
effects related to it.
(C) The loss of calcium affects several other variables in the forest ecosystem.
(D) Calcium loss can be rated as the most damaging aspect of mountainside
deforestation.
(E) The presence or absence of plants greatly affects the loss of calcium from the soil
D
106.A moth's color is controlled by two alleles, G and g, at a single locus. G (gray) is
dominant to g (white). A large population of moths was studied, and the frequency of
the G allele in the population over time was documented, as shown in the figure below.
In 1980 a random sample of 2,000 pupae was collected and moths were allowed to
emerge. (There is an image in your packet #106-110) 2002 test
During which of the following time periods could the population have been in HardyWeinberg equilibrium for the G locus?
I. 1960-1964
II. 1965-1972
III. 1973-1980
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) I and III only
(E) I, II, and III
B
107.A moth's color is controlled by two alleles, G and g, at a single locus. G (gray) is
dominant to g (white). A large population of moths was studied, and the frequency of
the G allele in the population over time was documented, as shown in the figure below.
In 1980 a random sample of 2,000
pupae was collected and moths were allowed to
emerge. (There is an image in your packet #106-110) 2002 test
Assuming that the population was in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium for the G locus,
what percentage of moths in the natural population was white in 1962?
(A) 2%
(B) 4%
(C) 8%
(D) 20%
(E) 64%
D
108.A moth's color is controlled by two alleles, G and g, at a single locus. G (gray) is
dominant to g (white). A large population of moths was studied, and the frequency of
the G allele in the population over time was documented, as shown in the figure below.
In 1980 a random sample of 2,000 pupae was collected and moths were allowed to
emerge. (There is an image in your packet #106-110) 2002 test
Assuming that the population was in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium for the G locus,
what percentage of the gray moths that emerged in 1980 was heterozygous?
(A) 0%
(B) 25%
(C) 33%
(D) 67%
(E) 100%
B
109.A moth's color is controlled by two alleles, G and g, at a single locus. G (gray) is
dominant to g (white). A large population of moths was studied, and the frequency of
the G allele in the population over time was documented, as shown in the figure below.
In 1980 a random sample of 2,000 pupae was collected and moths were allowed to
emerge. (There is an image in your packet #106-110) 2002 test
Assuming that the population was in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium for the G locus,
what was the frequency of allele G in the gray moths that emerged in 1980?
(A) 0.33
(B) 0.50
(C) 0.67
(D) 0.75
(E) 1.00
C
110.A moth's color is controlled by two alleles, G and g, at a single locus. G (gray) is
dominant to g (white). A large population of moths was studied, and the frequency of
the G allele in the population over time was documented, as shown in the figure below.
In 1980 a random sample of 2,000 pupae was collected and moths were allowed to
emerge. (There is an image in your packet #106-110) 2002 test
Which of the following is the most likely reason for the observed differences in the
frequency of the G allele between 1965 and 1972?
(A) Emigration of white moths from the population
(B) Chance
(C) Selection against gray phenotypes
(D) Speciation
(E) Mutation
D
111.A student uses restriction enzymes to cut a DNA molecule into fragments. The digested
DNA is loaded into the wells of an agarose gel and the gel is subjected to an electric
current. Upon completion of the run, the gel is stained.
The rate of migration of the DNA fragments through the agarose gel is determined by
the
(A) ratio of adenine to cytosine in the fragment
(B) presence of hydrogen bonds between base pairs
(C) length of time the electrophoresis unit is allowed to operate
(D) number of nucleotides in the fragment
(E) volume of the starting sample
A
112.A student uses restriction enzymes to cut a DNA molecule into fragments. The digested
DNA is loaded into the wells of an agarose gel and the gel is subjected to an electric
current. Upon completion of the run, the gel is stained.
Which of the following is true of the dye used to stain the fragments? (A) It increases the contrast between the agar and the DNA fragments.
(B) It must be accounted for when calculating the molecular weight of the fragments.
(C) Its charged areas interfere with the migration of the DNA.
(D) It is bonded only to the sticky ends of the fragments and can directly determine
the sequence of the DNA fragments.
(E) It gives a three-dimensional view of the structure of the DNA fragments.
A
113.A student uses restriction enzymes to cut a DNA molecule into fragments. The digested
DNA is loaded into the wells of an agarose gel and the gel is subjected to an electric
current. Upon completion of the run, the gel is stained.
The type and density of the gel are important because
(A) they influence the rate of migration of the fragments
(B) they may cause some DNA molecules to replicate
(C) some DNA nucleotides may be lost due to chemical reactions with the gel
(D) some DNA molecules may sink to the bottom and not migrate
(E) some DNA molecules may cross-link
B
114.A student uses restriction enzymes to cut a DNA molecule into fragments. The digested
DNA is loaded into the wells of an agarose gel and the gel is subjected to an electric
current. Upon completion of the run, the gel is stained.
The procedures described can be used to do all of the following EXCEPT
(A) isolate and purify certain DNA fragments
(B) synthesize novel DNA molecules
(C) study the activity of restriction enzymes
(D) calculate the size of DNA fragments
(E) identify the source of DNA material
C
115.There is an image in your packet # 115-117 2002 test
Which of the following occurs in the tissue that is placed in 0.6 M sucrose? A) The cells become turgid.
(B) The cells burst.
(C) The volume of the vacuoles decreases.
(D) The volume of the cytoplasm increases.
(E) The cells remain the same as before.
C
116.There is an image in your packet # 115-117 2002 test
The approximate molarity of the solution in which the mass of the plant pieces would
not change is
(A) 0.01 M
(B) 0.1 M
(C) 0.3 M
(D) 0.5 M
(E) 0.7 M
C
117.There is an image in your packet # 115-117 2002 test
Water enters and leaves the plant cells primarily by
(A) endocytosis
(B) phagocytosis
(C) osmosis
(D) active transport
(E) facilitated diffusion
C
118.There is a table in your packet #118-120 2002 test
A culture of white-eyed fruit flies (Drosophila melanogaster) was maintained for many
generations. Females from the stock white-eyed culture were crossed with red-eyed
(wild-type) males. The F1 females were crossed with the white-eyed males from the
original culture. The resulting phenotypes of the progeny are summarized below.
The best explanation for the red-eyed F1 females is A) mutation
(B) culture contamination
(C) dominance
(D) multiple loci
(E) sex-influenced traits
D
119.There is a table in your packet #118-120 2002 test
A culture of white-eyed fruit flies (Drosophila melanogaster) was maintained for many
generations. Females from the stock white-eyed culture were crossed with red-eyed
(wild-type) males. The F1 females were crossed with the white-eyed males from the
original culture. The resulting phenotypes of the progeny are summarized below.
There are white-eyed females in the F2
generation because
(A) white is a dominant allele
(B) the white allele is autosomal
(C) a mutation has occurred
(D) these F2
females have two white alleles
(E) the white allele is located on the Y chromosome
D
120.There is a table in your packet #118-120 2002 test
A culture of white-eyed fruit flies (Drosophila melanogaster) was maintained for many
generations. Females from the stock white-eyed culture were crossed with red-eyed
(wild-type) males. The F1 females were crossed with the white-eyed males from the
original culture. The resulting phenotypes of the progeny are summarized below.
Which of the following best describes the mode of inheritance of eye color in the
white culture?
(A) Autosomal
(B) Dominant
(C) Located on the Y chromosome
(D) Sex-linked
(E) Lethal
E
1.See a graph #1 1999 test
Which point on the curve in the diagram above best represents the carrying capacity of the environment for the population shown?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
A
2.Assume that genes A and B are not linked. If the probability of allele A in a gamete is 1/2 and the probability of allele B in a gamete is 1/2, then the probability that both A and B are in the same gamete is
A. 1/2 X 1/2
B. 1/2 + 1/2
C. 1/2 divided by 1/2
D. The square root of 1/2
E. | 1/2 - 1/2 |
B
3.A couple has 5 children, all sons. If the women gives birth to a sixth child, what is the probability that the sixth child will be a son?
A. 5/6
B. 1/2
C. 1/5
D. 1/6
E. 1/64
C
4.All of the following are true about Earth's ozone layer EXCEPT:
A. It shields Earth from most ultraviolet radiation
B. It is composed of O3
C. Its thickness has remained constant over time.
D. CFC molecules can destroy ozone molecules
E. It is predicted that a reduction of this layer will result in an increase in human skin cancer
B
5.Which of the following organelles modifies and packages for secretion the materials produced by the ribosomes?
A. The chloroplast
B. The golgi apparatus
C. the nucleus
D. the nucleolus
E. The mitochondrion
E
6.Which of the following types of behavior describes the way that mice find their way through mazes?
A. Habituation
B. Imprinting
C. Reasoning
D instinct
E. Trial and error
D
7.A student using a light microscope observes a cell and correctly decides that it is a plant cell because
A. ribosomes are visible
B. An endoplasmic reticulum can be seen
C. A cell membrane is present
D. it has a large central vacuole
E. centrioles are present
E
8.The condition in which there are barries to successful interbreeding between individuals of different species in the same community is referred to as
A. latent variations
B. Sterility
C. structural differences
D. Geographic isolation
E. reproductive isolation
A
9.Which of the following best describes the parents in a testcross?
A. one individual has the dominant phenotype and the other has the recessive phenotype
B. Both individuals are heterozygous
C. Both individuals have the dominant phenotype
D. Both individuals have the recessive phenotype
E. Both individuals have an unknown phenotype
E
10.Members of which of the following are the major primary producers in the marine ecosystem?
A. yeasts
B. sponges
C. sporozoans
D. Fishes
E. Diatoms
B
11.In sheep, eye color is controlled by a single gene with two alleles. When a homozygous brown-eyed sheep is crossed with a homozygous green-eyed sheep, blue eyes offspring are produced. If the blue eyed sheep are mated with each other, what percent of their offspring will most likely have brown eyes?
A. 0%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 75%
E. 100%
D
12.Gas exchange in all living organisms requires
A. gills
B. lungs
C. tracheoles
D. moist membranes
E. blood
A
13.Which of the following best supports the statement that mitochondria are descendants of endosymbiotic bacteria-like cells?
A. Mitochondria and bacteria possess similar ribosomes and DNA
B. Mitochondria and bacteria possess similar nuclei.
C. Glycolysis occurs in both mitochondria and bacteria
D. Both mitochondria and bacteria have microtubules
E. Neither mitochondria nor bacteria possess chloroplasts
E
14.A + B + energy -----> AB
Which of the following best characterizes the reaction represented above?
A. Hydrolysis
B. Catabolism
C. Oxidation-reduction
D. Exergonic reaction
E. Endergonic reaction
B
15.Which of the following occurs during mitosis but not during meiosis 1?
A. The chromosomes are pulled to opposite poles of the spindle apparatus
B. The chromatids of each chromosome are separated
C. The nuclear envelope breaks down
D. Both synapsis and crossing over take place
E. The diploid number of chromosomes is reduced to the haploid number
A
16.Oxygen consumption can be used as a measure of metabolic rate because oxygen is
A. necessary for ATP synthesis by oxidative phosphorylation
B. necessary to replenish glycogen levels
C. necessary for fermentation to take place
D. required by all living organisms
E. required to break down the ethanol that is produced in muscles
A
17.Membranes are components of all of the following EXCEPT a
A. microtubule
B. nucleus
C. golgi apparatus
D. mitochondrion
E. lysosome
D
18.In a mesophyll cell of a leaf, the synthesis of ATP occurs in which of the following:
1. Ribosomes
2. Mitochondria
3. Chloroplasts
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3
B
19.Which of the following paris of functional groups characterizes the structure of an amino acid? (These DO NOT look right see question 19 1999 test)
A. -N-H-H and -C=O-R
B. -C=O-Oh and -N-H-H
C. -C=O-OH and -C=O-R
D. -OH and -N-H-H
E. -C-O-O-H and -N-H-H
D
20.Which of the following statements best expresses the concept of punctuated equilibrium
A. Small variations gradually accumulate in evolving lineages over periods of millions of years
B. Random mating ensures that the proportions of genotypes in a population remain unchanged from generation to generation
C. Stability is achieved when selection favors the heterozygote, while both types of homozygotes are at a relative disadvantage
D. Evolutionary changes consist of rapid bursts of speciation alternating with long periods which species remain essentially unmodified
E. Under competition for identical resources, one of the two competing species will be eliminated or excluded
C
21.In animals, all of the following are associated with embryonic development except
A. Migration of cells to specific areas
B. formation of germ layers
C. Activation of all the genes in each
cell
D. Inductive tissue interactions
E. cell division at a relatively rapid rate
A
22.Which of the following exist as RNA surrounded by a protein coat?
A. Retrovirus
B. prion
C. Prokaryote
D. Spirochete
E. streptococcus
C
23.Prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells
generally have which of the following features in common?
A. A membrane bound nucleus
B. a cell wall made of cellulose
C. Ribosomes
D. Flagella or Cilia that contain microtubules
E. linear chromosomes made of DNA and protein
C
24.Which of the following is primarily responsible for cell elongation, gravitropism, and apical dominance implants?
A. Auxin
B. gibberellin
C. Cytokinin
D. Phytochrome
E. ethylene
C
25.A large stand of aspen trees may be a group of genetically identical individuals produced by vegetative reproduction. Such a collection of individuals is called a
A. Family
B. hybrid
C. Clone
D. genus
E. Community
B
26.Which of the following groups contains prokaryotic organisms capable of surviving the greatest extremes in temperature or salt concentration?
A. Protista
B. Archaebacteria
C. Plantae
D. Fungi
E. viruses
C
27.Which of the following is least likely to result in a release of epinephrine (adrenaline) from the adrenal glands?
A. Competing in an athletic event
B. going out on a first date
C. Falling asleep during a lecture
D. Swimming in a very cold pool
E. taking a test while unprepared
D
28.In peas the trait for tall plants is dominant (T) and the trait for short plants is recessive (t). The trait for yellow seed color is dominant (Y) and the trait for the green seed color is recessive (y). A cross between two plants results in 296 tall yellow plants and 104 tall green plants. Which of the following are most likely to be the genotypes of the parents?
A. TTYY x TTYY
B. TTyy x TTYy
C. TtYy x TtYy
D. TtYy x TTYy
E. TtYY x Ttyy
A
29.Which of the following is best observed by using a compound light microscope?
A. A eukaryotic cell
B. a virus
C. A DNA sequence
D. The inner structure of a mitochondrion
E. A nuclear pore
E
30.Plant stems then toward a light source as a result of increased
A. Chlorophyll synthesis on the side of the stem near the light source
B. Cell division on the side of the stem near the light source
C. Cell division on the side of the stem away from the light source
D. Cell elongation on the side of the stem near the light source
E. Cell elongation on the side of the stem away from the light source
B
31.All of the following are typical components of the plasma membrane of a eukaryotic cell except
A. Glycoproteins
B. Cytochromes
C. Cholesterol
D. Phospholipids
E. Integral proteins
D
32.The rate of division of most vertebrate cells is least likely to be influenced by which of the following?
A. Contact with other cells
B. The availability of nutrients
C. Compounds that inhibit protein synthesis
D. The cell's photoperiod
E. The temperature of the organism
E
33.The gametophyte is the dominant generation in which of the following plant?
A. Dicot
B. Monocots
C. Gymnosperms
D. Ferns
E. Mosses
A
34.Nuclear division in which the chromosome number is reduced from 2n to n is part of the lifecycle of all of the following organisms except
A. Molds
B. Ferns
C. Insects
D. Bacteria
E. Protozoans
B
35.The driving force for the movement of materials in the phloem of plants it
A. gravity
B. a difference in osmotic potential between the source and the sink
C. root pressure
D. transpiration of water through the stomates
E. adhesion of water to vessel elements
D
36.In plants, the initiation of flowering in response to photoperiod is triggered by changes in
A. ethylene
B. auxin
C. gibberellic acid
D. phytochrome
E. cytokinin
B
37.Carbon dioxide is transported in human blood primary in which of the following ways?
A. As oxyhemoglobin
B. As bicarbonate ions
C. Attached to plasma proteins
D. Attached to the amino groups of hemoglobin
E. Attached to the heme groups of hemoglobin
D
38.A tabacco plant can be made to express a gene from fireflies, resulting in the emission of light. Which of the following is the basis for this phenomenon?
A. Chloroplasts can be made to produce light if firefly proteins are injected into plant cells
B. Fireflies and tobacco plants share a recent common ancestor
C. Fireflies and tabacco plants are infected by the same kinds of bacteria
D. Transcription and translation are fundamentally similar in both fireflies and tobacco plants
E. Most enzymes in fireflies have the same amino acid sequence as the enzymes in tabacco plants
E
39.All of the following were likely present on the primitive Earth during the evolution of self replicating molecules EXCEPT
A. amino acids and nucleotides
B. nitrogen
C. simple carbohydrates
D. freestanding liquid water
E. an O2 rich atmosphere
B
40.Which of the following characterizes glomerular filtrate, the fluid that passes from the blood in the glomerulus into the tubule of the nephron?
A. It is clear in appearance and contains no glucose
B. It is a concentrated solution of waste produces
C. It is identical to blood plasma
D. It is blood plasma that lacks most proteins
E. It is whole blood
B
41.During respiration most ATP is formed as a direct result of the net movement of
A. Potassium against a concentration gradient
B. protons down a concentration gradient
C. electrons against a concentration gradient
D. electrons through a channel
E. sodium ions into the cells
C
42.Which of the following groups is best characterized as being eukaryotic and heterotrophic and having chitinous cell walls?
A. Plantae
B. Animalia
C. fungi
D. Virus
E. Monera
E
43.In humans red-green color blindness is a sex-linked recessive trait. If a man and a women produce a color-blind son, which of the following must be true?
A. The father is color-blind
B. Both parents carry the allele for color blindness
C. Neither parent carries the allele for color blindness
D. The father carries the allele for color blindness
E. The mother carries the allele for color blindness
B
44.In a small group of people living in a remote area, there is a high incidence of blue skin, a condition that results from a variation in the structure of hemoglobin. All of the blue skinned residents can trace their ancestry to one couple, who were among the original settlers of this region. The unusually high frequency of blue skin in the area is an example of
A. mutation
B. genetic drift
C. natural selection
D. sexual selection
E. heterozygote advantage
D
45.Which of the following processess is carried out more efficiently by a C4 plant than by a C3 plant?
A. Light absorption
B. Chemiosomtic coupling
C. Photolysis
D. Fixation of CO2
E. transport of sugars
B
46.A number of different phylogenies (evolutionary tress) have been proposed by scientists. These phylogenies are useful because they can be used to
A. determine when two similar populations of a species evolved into two separate species
B. Evaluate which groups of organisms may be most closely related
C. demonstrate that all photosynthetic organisms are members of the Kingdom Plantae
D. demonstrate that natural selection is the prevailing force in evolution
E. demonstrate which taxa (groups of organisms) contain the most highly evolved species
B
47.Which of the following characteristics is common to all vascular plants that exhibit an alternation of generations in their life cycle?
A. large, independent gametophytes
B. multicellular sporophytes
C. Fertilization in water
D. diploid spores
E. Seed production
B
48.The rate of flow of water through the xylem is regulated by
A. passive transport by the pith
B. The force of transpirational pull
C. the number of companion cells in the phloem
D. active transport by the sieve tube members
E. active transport by tracheid and vessel cells
E
49.Which of the following pathways for the transformation of cellular energy most likely evolved first?
A. Cyclic photophosphorylation
B. Citric acid cycle
C. Calvin cycle
D. C4 photosynthesis
E. Glycolysis
A
50.Gibberellic acid stimulates the cells of germinating grass seeds to produce mRNA molecules that code for hydrolytic enzymes. In this case the role of gibberellic acid can best be described as that of
A. a regulator of gene activity
B. a stimulator of hydrolase secretion
C. a stimulator of DNA replication
D. an allosteric activator of hydrolase
E. an activator of translation
A
51.Which of the following is the most likely explanation for a high rate of crossing-over between two genes?
A. The two genes are far apart on the same chromosome.
B. The two genes are both located near the centromere
C. The two genes are sex-linked
D. The two genes code for the same protein
E. The two genes are on different chromosomes
A
52.On a sunny day, the closing of stomata in plant leaves results in
A. a decrease in CO2 intake
B. a shift from C3 photosynthesis to C4
C. an increase in transpiration
D. an increase in the concentration of CO2 in mesophyll cells
E. an increase in the rate of production of starch
C
53.Which of the following principles is NOT part of Darwin's theory of evolution by natural selection?
A. Evolution is a gradual process that occurs over long periods of time
B. Variation occurs among individuals in a population
C. Mutations are the ultimate source of genetic variation
D. More individuals are born than will survive
E. Individuals that possess the most favorable variations have the best chance of reproducing
E
54.In certain Native American groups, albinism due to a homozygous recessive condition in the biochemical pathway for melanin is sometimes seen. If the frequency of the allele for this condition is 0.06, which of the following is closest to the frequency of the dominant allele in this population?
A. 0.04
B. 0.06
C. 0.16
D. 0.36
E. 0.94
D
55.A biologist isolates numerous tiny, green pigment cells from a sample of lake water. The cells are covered with a mucilaginous sheath. They contain relatively large amounts of chlorophyll a and phycobilin pigments and lack a compact, organized nucleus. Electron microscopy will reveal that these cells are also contain which of the following pairs of subcellular structures?
A. Ribosomes and chloroplasts
B. Ribosomes and mitochondria
C. Golgi bodies and a cell wall
D. Thylakoids and a cell wall
E. Chloroplasts and mitochondria
D
56.See diagram question 56 1999 test
In the pedigree above, squares represent males and circles represent females. Individuals who express a particular trait are represented by shaded figures. Which of the following patterns of inhertiance best explains the transmission of the trait?
A. Sex-linked dominant
B. Sex-linked recessive
C. Autosomal recessive
D. Autosomal dominant
E. Incompletely dominant
E
57.Which of the following is an example of active transport across a membrane?
A. The movement of water from a nephron into the collecting duct of the kidney
B. The movement of glucose by facilitated diffusion into a liver cell
C. The movement of water from the inside of a cell into a surrounding hypertonic medium
D. The movement of Na+ into a neuron as a nerve impulse is generated
E. The movement of H+ into a thylakoid disc during photosynthesis
D
58.Which of the following is the most direct result of the presence of acid chyme in the smalle intestine?
A. the liver produces insulin
B. The pancreas produces hydrolytic enzymes
C. the stomach produces pepsin
D. The intestinal lining produces the hormone secretin
E. The gall bladder releases bile
B
59.Many parasitic flatworms have an intermediate host. This indicates that the
A. flatworms cannot infect human
B. larval flatworms infect one species, where as adults infect another species
C. larval flatworms infect only juveniles of a species
D. flatworm adults are microscopic
E. flatworm larvae are parasitic on their parents
C
60.Red algae can grow at greater ocean depths than most other algae can because red algae are
A. specialized for absorbing red wavelengths of light for photosynthesis
B. specialized for absorbing ultraviolet wavelengths of light for photosynthesis
C. specialized for absorbing blue wavelengths of light for photosynthesis
D. unable to use chlorophyll for photosynthesis
E. adapted for chemosynthesis, rather than photosynthesis
B
61.Which of the following cellular processes is coupled with the hydrolysis of ATP?
A. Facilitated diffusion
B. Active transport
C. Chemiosmosis
D. Osmosis
E. Na+ influx into a nerve cell
C
63.Which of the following cells would most likely hav the greatest concentration of densely packed rough endoplasmic reticulum?
A. An amoeba engulfing small ciliates
B. A bioluminescent bacterial cell
C. A pancreatic cell engaged in the production of digestive enzymes
D. A functional phloem cell at maturity
E. An epithelial cell whose DNA is replicating before mitosis
B
64.In which of the following pairs are the organisms most closely related taxonomically?
A. mushroom...oak tree
B. spider...crayfish
C. Bacterium ... paramecium
D. Sea star..clam
E. rosebush..diatom
B
65.Questions 65-67 refer to you graph in the 1999 test. The solid curve and the sashed curve represent alternate pathways for the same reaction. One pathway is enzyme catalyzed.
Represents the activation energy of the enzyme-catalyzed reaction
D
66.Questions 65-67 refer to you graph in the 1999 test. The solid curve and the sashed curve represent alternate pathways for the same reaction. One pathway is enzyme catalyzed.
Represents the net energy change of the reaction
E
67.Questions 65-67 refer to you graph in the 1999 test. The solid curve and the sashed curve represent alternate pathways for the same reaction. One pathway is enzyme catalyzed.
Represents the energy state of the products of the enzyme-catalyzed pathway
E
68.Questions 65-67 refer to you graph in the 1999 test. The solid curve and the sashed curve represent alternate pathways for the same reaction. One pathway is enzyme catalyzed.
Represents the energy state of the products of the pathway that is not enzyme-catalyzed
D
69.Question 69-73 refer to the image in your packet of the 1999 test of angiosperm reproduction.
Root meristem
A
70.Question 69-73 refer to the image in your packet of the 1999 test of angiosperm reproduction.
Male gametophyte
E
71.Question 69-73 refer to the image in your packet of the 1999 test of angiosperm reproduction.
Triploid nutritive tissue
B
72.Question 69-73 refer to the image in your packet of the 1999 test of angiosperm reproduction.
Seed coat
C
73.Question 69-73 refer to the image in your packet of the 1999 test of angiosperm reproduction.
Apical meristem of the shoot
E
74.(A) testis
(B) Lining of small intestine
(C) Anterior pituitary
(D) thyroid
(E) pancreas
Releases hormones that control blood sugar levels by stimulating glycogen formation or breakdown
A
75.(A) testis
(B) Lining of small intestine
(C) Anterior pituitary
(D) thyroid
(E) pancreas
Secretes steroid hormones that affect secondary sex characteristics
D
76.(A) testis
(B) Lining of small intestine
(C) Anterior pituitary
(D) thyroid
(E) pancreas
Releases hormones that increase the rate of cellular respiration throughout the body
C
77.(A) testis
(B) Lining of small intestine
(C) Anterior pituitary
(D) thyroid
(E) pancreas
Secretes the hormones FSH and LH, which control ovulation
E
78.(A) deciduous forest
(B) Tropical rain forest
(C) Desert
(D) Tundra
(E) Taiga
Long, cold, moist winters and short summers are typical of this biome dominated by gymnosperms
A
79.(A) deciduous forest
(B) Tropical rain forest
(C) Desert
(D) Tundra
(E) Taiga
A prolonged, relatively mild period with ample precipitation alternates with a cold period when plants become dormant
B
80.(A) deciduous forest
(B) Tropical rain forest
(C) Desert
(D) Tundra
(E) Taiga
This biome has the greatest diversity of species
D
81.(A) deciduous forest
(B) Tropical rain forest
(C) Desert
(D) Tundra
(E) Taiga
This biome is dominated by dwarf shrubs, grasses, and sedes that can tolerate long dark winters
D
82.A. Glycolysis
B. Krebs cycle
C. Calvin cycle
D. Light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis
E. Chemiosmosis
Process in which O2 is released as a by-product of oxidation-reduction reactions
B
83.A. Glycolysis
B. Krebs cycle
C. Calvin cycle
D. Light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis
E. Chemiosmosis
Process in which CO2 is released as a by product of oxidation-reduction reactions
C
84.A. Glycolysis
B. Krebs cycle
C. Calvin cycle
D. Light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis
E. Chemiosmosis
Process in which carbon from CO2 is incorporated into organic molecules
E
85.A. Glycolysis
B. Krebs cycle
C. Calvin cycle
D. Light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis
E. Chemiosmosis
Process found in both photosynthesis and cellular respiration
A
86.A. Glycolysis
B. Krebs cycle
C. Calvin cycle
D. Light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis
E. Chemiosmosis
Process in which sugar is oxidized to pyruvic acid
E
87.A. Annelida
B. Mollusca
C. Arthropoda
D. Echinodermata
E. Chordata
Bilaterally symmetrical; deuterostome; dorsal hollow nerve cord
C
88.A. Annelida
B. Mollusca
C. Arthropoda
D. Echinodermata
E. Chordata
Coelomate; exoskeleton; jointed appendages
E
89.A. Annelida
B. Mollusca
C. Arthropoda
D. Echinodermata
E. Chordata
Pharyngeal slits; endoskeleton derived from mesoderm; ventral heat
D
90.A. Annelida
B. Mollusca
C. Arthropoda
D. Echinodermata
E. Chordata
Internal calcareous skeleton; deuterostome; water-vascular system
A
91.A. Annelida
B. Mollusca
C. Arthropoda
D. Echinodermata
E. Chordata
Closed circulatory system; protostome; many body segments
B
92.A. transcription
B. Translation
C. Transformation
D. Replication
E. Reverse transcription
Process in which a protein is assembled at a ribosome
C
93.A. transcription
B. Translation
C. Transformation
D. Replication
E. Reverse transcription
Process in which naked DNA is taken up by a bacterial or yeast Cell
E
94.A. transcription
B. Translation
C. Transformation
D. Replication
E. Reverse transcription
Process that results in the prodcution of cDNA from an RNA molecule
A
95.A. transcription
B. Translation
C. Transformation
D. Replication
E. Reverse transcription
Process in which RNA is produced by using a DNA
E
96.Questions 96-99 there is an image in your packet please view the 1999 test.
If no new mutations occur, it would be most reasonable to expect bacterial growth on which of the following plates?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 and 4 only
C. 5 and 6 only
D. 4, 5 and 6 only
E. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
B
97.Questions 96-99 there is an image in your packet please view the 1999 test.
The scientist used restriction enzymes for what purpose in the experiment?
A. To make the plasmid small enough to transform cells
B. To make cuts in the plasmid DNA
C. To make the plasmid enter the cells
D. To enable the fragments of DNA to form covalent bonds
E. To enable the plasmid to recognize the bacterial cells
B
98.Questions 96-99 there is an image in your packet please view the 1999 test.
If the scientist had forgotten to use DNA ligase during the preparation of the recombinant plasmid, bacterial growth would most likely have occurred on which of the following?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 4 and 5 only
D. 1, 2 and 3 only
E. 4,5 and 6 only
A
100.Tissue/Stain
Brain/Red
Notochord/Yellow
Liver/ Green
Lens of the eye/ Blue
Lining of the digestive tract / Purple
Ectoderm would eventually give rise to tissues containing which of the following colors?
A. red and blue
B. Yellow and purple
C. Green and red
D. Green and yellow
E. Purple and green
C
101.Tissue/Stain
Brain/Red
Notochord/Yellow
Liver/ Green
Lens of the eye/ Blue
Lining of the digestive tract / Purple
Tissues stained with the purple dye were probably derived from
A. the ectoderm only
B. The mesoderm only
C. The endoderm only
D. both the ectoderm and the mesoderm
E. Both the endoderm and the mesoderm
D
102.refer to the birth of a child with blood type A to a mother with blood type B
The father must have which of the following blood types?
A. AB only
B. Either AB or B
C. Either AB or O
D. Either AB or A
E. AB or A or O
B
103.refer to the birth of a child with blood type A to a mother with blood type B
If the father has blood type AB, which of the following statements is correct about the mother?
A. She contributes an IB allele, which is recessive to the father's IA allele
B. She contributes an i allele, which is recessive to the father's IA allele
C. She contributes an IB allele, which is codominant to the father's IA allele
D. She contributes an i allele, which is codominant to the father's IB allele
E. She is homozygous for the IB allele.
A
104.Please refer to questions 104-106 in the 1999 test
The most accurate conclusion to be drawn solely from the graphs is that
A. adult fish of this species are found more frequently in water at 22C than are juveniles
B. fish of this species are found most frequently in water at 20C
C. the optimum water temperature for fish of this species is 25C
D. the oxygen content of cool water is higher than that of warm water
E. The oxygen content of warm water is higher than that of cool water
C
105.Please refer to questions 104-106 in the 1999 test
A. They are invalid, because the data show too much variation
B. They are invalid, because part of the experiment was not done in the laboratory
C. They are inconclusive, because too few fish were used.
D. They are inaccurate, because tanks with temperature gradients were used
E. They are improperly graphed, because the dependent variable is on the horizontal axis
E
106.Please refer to questions 104-106 in the 1999 test
The purpose of the study is most likely to
A. determine the water temperature at which fish of this species spawn
B. determine the role of fish of this species in the ecosystem
C. show the juveniles occur in smaller numbers than do adults of this species
D. demonstrate the effects of adult fish of this species on water temperature
E. Study the relationship between water temperature and habitat selection in fish of this species
B
107.Please refer to the table for question 107-110 in the 1999 test
Which of the following can be correctly concluded about the relationship between intestinal length and body size for the organisms in the table?
A. Carnivores have greater intestinal length relative to body size than do herbivores
B. Herbivores have greater intestinal length relative to body size than do carnivores
C. Omnivores have greater intestinal length relative to body size, the more nutrients are absorbed.
D. THe smaller the intestinal length relative to body size, the more nutrients are absorbed
E. No relationship exists between intestinal length and mode of nutrition
D
108.Please refer to the table for question 107-110 in the 1999 test
Which of the animals is most likely to have living in specialized areas of its digestive tract, abundant symbiotic bacteria that break down foods that the animal normally could not digest on its own?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
A
109.Please refer to the table for question 107-110 in the 1999 test
Which animals has a gastrovascular cavity?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
D
110.Please refer to the table for question 107-110 in the 1999 test
Which animal is most efficient in absorbing the food it consumes?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
C
111.Please refer to diagram for question 111-113 1999 test
The electrophoretic separation of the pieces of DNA in each of the four samples was achieved because of differential migration of the DNA fragments in an electric field. This differential migration was caused by the
A. relative amounts of radioactivity in the DNA
B. number of cleavage points per fragment
C. size of each fragment
D. overall positive charge of each fragment
E. solubility of each fragment
D
112.Please refer to diagram for question 111-113 1999 test
The DNA was labeled with 32P in order to
A. stimulate DNA replication
B. inhibit the uptake of unlabeled ATP
C. show which fragments included the 5' end and which fragments included the 3' end
D. visualize the fragments
E. speed up the rate of separation by electrophoresis
B
113.Please refer to diagram for question 111-113 1999 test
Which of the following is an additional use of the gel electrophoresis technique?
A. To express a gene
B. to separate proteins in a mixture
C. to ligate DNA fragments
D. to transform E. coli
E. To amplify genes
B
114.Please refer to image for questions 114-116 1999 test
From the initial conditions and results described, which of the following is a logical conclusion?
A. The initial concentration of glucose in the bag is higher than the initial concentration of starch in the bag
B. The pores of the bag are larger than the glucose molecules but smaller than the starch molecules
C. The bag is not selectively permeable
D. A net movement of water into the beaker has occurred
E. The molarity of the solution in the bag and the molarity of the solution in the surrounding beaker are the same
A
115.Please refer to image for questions 114-116 1999 test
Which of the following best describes the condition expected after 24 hours?
A. the bag will contain more water than it did in the original condition
B. The contents of the bag will have the same osmotic concentration as the surrounding solution
C. Water potential in the bag will be greater than water potential in the surrounding solution
D. Starch molecules will continue to pass through the bag
E. A glucose test on the solution in the bag will be negative
A
116.Please refer to image for questions 114-116 1999 test
If, instead of the bag a potato slice were placed in the beaker of distilled water, which of the following would be true of the potato slice?
A. it would gain mass
B. it would neither gain nor lose mass
C. It would absorb solutes from the surrounding liquid
D. It would lose water until water potential inside the cells is equal to zero
E. The cells of the potato would increase their metabolic activity
B
117.Question 117-120 refer to the graph in the 1999 test
The type of population growth represented by the portion of the graph line enclosed in the bracket is most accurately termed
A. stable
B. exponential
C. Density-dependent
D. arithmetic
E. decelerating
E
118.Question 117-120 refer to the graph in the 1999 test
The graph indicates that the sheep population most likely is
A. growing in excess of its carrying capacity since fluctuations in population size occurred after 1850
B. Headed for extinction because of the population explosion about 1930
C. regulated by density-independent factors, because there appears to be about a 10-year cycle of sharp declines in size
D. Shifting from a K-selected strategy to an r-selected strategy
E. stable after 1850 under the effects of density-dependent regulating factors
D
119.Question 117-120 refer to the graph in the 1999 test
The dashed line on the graph represents the
A. maximum population size
B. average birth rate
C. biotic potential of the population
D. carrying capacity of the environment
E. point of maximum effect for density independent factors
A
120.Question 117-120 refer to the graph in the 1999 test
In the graphs below, the solid line represents the original population. The dotted line on which graph vest represent the sheep population that would have resulted from a sustained increase in the primary productivity of the environment?
A. graph 1
B. graph 2
C. graph 3
D. graph 4
E. graph 5
B
99.Questions 96-99 there is an image in your packet please view the 1999 test.
If the scientist used the cultures to perform another experiment as shown above, using medium that contained lactose as the only energy source, growth would most likely occur on which of the following plates?
A. 10 only
B. 7 and 8 only
C. 7 and 9 only
D. 8 and 10 only
E. 9 and 10 only