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180 terms

FAA written exam

These are some of the questions and answers asked in the FAA private pilot written exam.
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With respect to the certification of airmen, which is a
category of aircraft?
Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air.
With respect to the certification of airmen, which is a
class of aircraft?
Single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and
sea.
With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a
category of aircraft?
Normal, utility, acrobatic.
With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a
class of aircraft?
Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, balloon
The definition of nighttime is
the time between the end of evening civil twilight
and the beginning of morning civil twilight.
Preventive maintenance has been performed on an
aircraft. What paperwork is required?
The signature, certificate number, and kind of
certificate held by the person approving the work and
a description of the work must be entered in the
aircraft maintenance records.
Which operation would be described as preventive
maintenance?
Servicing landing gear wheel bearings
Which operation would be described as preventive
maintenance?
Replenishing hydraulic fluid.
What document(s) must be in your personal
possession or readily accessible in the aircraft while
operating as pilot in command of an aircraft?
An appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate
current medical certificate if required
When must a current pilot certificate be in the pilot's
personal possession
Anytime when acting as pilot in command or as a
required crewmember
Private pilots acting as pilot in command, or in any
other capacity as a required pilot flight crewmember,
must have in their personal possession while aboard
the aircraft a current
medical certificate and an appropriate pilot
certificate
Each person who holds a pilot certificate or a medical
certificate shall present it for inspection upon the
request of the Administrator, the National
Transportation Safety Board, or any
federal, state, or local law enforcement officer.
A Third-Class Medical Certificate is issued to a 36-
year-old pilot on August 10, this year. To exercise the
privileges of a Private Pilot Certificate, the medical
certificate will be valid until midnight on
August 31, 5 years later
A Third-Class Medical Certificate is issued to a 51-
year old pilot on May 3, this year. To exercise the
privileges of a Private Pilot Certificate, the medical
certificate will be valid until midnight on
May 31, 2 years later.
For private pilot operations, a Second-Class Medical
Certificate issued to a 42-year old pilot on July 15, this
year, will expire at midnight on
July 31, 2 years later.
For private pilot operations, a First-Class Medical
Certificate issued to a 23-year old pilot on October 21,
this year, will expire at midnight on
October 31, 5 years later.
For private pilot operations, a First-Class Medical
Certificate issued to a 23-year old pilot on October 21,
this year, will expire at midnight on
October 31, 5 years later.
The pilot in command is required to hold a type rating
in which aircraft?
Aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12,500
pounds.
What is the definition of a high-performance airplane?
An airplane with an engine of more than 200
horsepower
Before a person holding a private pilot certificate may
act as pilot in command of a high-performance
airplane, that person must have
received ground and flight instruction from an
authorized flight instructor who then endorses that
person's logbook.
In order to act as pilot in command of a high
performance airplane, a pilot must have
received and logged ground and flight instruction in
an airplane that has more than 200 horsepower
To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying
passengers, the pilot must have made at least three
takeoffs and three landings in an aircraft of the same
category, class, and if a type rating is required, of the
same type, within the preceding
90 days.
If recency of experience requirements for night flight
are not met and official sunset is 1830, the latest time
passengers may be carried is
1929
To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying
passengers, a pilot must show by logbook
endorsement the satisfactory completion of a flight
review or completion of a pilot proficiency check within the preceding
24 calendar months
To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying
passengers, the pilot must have made three takeoffs
and three landings within •the preceding 90 days in an aircraft of the same
category, class, and type, if a type rating is
required
The takeoffs and landings required to meet the
recency of experience requirements for carrying
passengers in a tail wheel airplane.
must be to a full stop
The three takeoffs and landings that are required to
act as pilot in command at night must be done during
the time period from
hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise
To meet the recency of experience requirements to
act as pilot in command carrying passengers at night,
a pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and
three landings to a full stop within the preceding 90
days in
the same category and class of aircraft to be used
If a certified pilot changes permanent mailing address
and fails to notify the FAA Airmen Certification Branch
of the new address, the pilot is entitled to exercise the
privileges of the pilot certificate for a period of only
30 days after the date of the move
A certified private pilot may not act as pilot in
command of an aircraft towing a glider unless there is
entered in the pilot's logbook a minimum of
100 hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft
category, class, and type, if required, that the pilot is
using to tow a glider
To act as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a
glider, a pilot is required to have made within the
preceding 12 months
at least three actual or simulated glider tows while
accompanied by a qualified pilot
In regard to privileges and limitations, a private
pilot may
not pay less than the pro rats share of the operating
expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or
rental fees.
According to regulations pertaining to privileges and
limitations, a private pilot may
not pay less than the pro rats share of the operating
expenses of a flight with passengers provided the
expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or
rental fees.
What exception, if any, permits a private pilot to act as
pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers
who pay for the flight
If a donation is made to a charitable organization
for the flight
The width of a Federal Airway from either side of the
centerline is
4 nautical miles.
Unless otherwise specified, Federal Airways include
that Class E airspace extending upward from
1,200 feet above the surface up to and including
17,999 feet MSL
Normal VFR operations in Class D airspace with an
operating control tower require the ceiling and visibility
to be at least
1,000 feet and 3 miles
The final authority as to the operation of an aircraft is
the
pilot in command.
If an in-flight emergency requires immediate action,
the pilot in command may
A) deviate from the FAR's to the extent required to
meet the emergency, but must submit a written report
to the Administrator within 24 hours
deviate from the FAR's to the extent required to
meet that emergency
When must a pilot who deviates from a regulation
during an emergency send a written report of that
deviation to the Administrator?
Upon request.
Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in
condition for safe flight
The pilot in command
Where may an aircraft's operating limitations be
found?
In the current, FAA-approved flight manual,
approved manual material, markings, and placards, or
any combination thereof
Under what conditions may objects be dropped from
an aircraft?
If precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage
to persons or property on the surface
A person may not act as a crewmember of a civil
aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed
by that person within the preceding
8 hours
Under what condition, if any, may a pilot allow a
person who is obviously under the influence of drugs
to be carried aboard an aircraft
In an emergency or if the person is a medical
patient under proper care
No person may attempt to act as a crewmember of a
civil aircraft with
.04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.
Which preflight action is specifically required of the
pilot prior to each flight
Become familiar with all available information
concerning the flight
Preflight action, as required for all flights away from
the vicinity of an airport, shall include
an alternate course of action if the flight cannot be
completed as planned
In addition to other preflight actions for a VFR flight
away from the vicinity of the departure airport,
regulations specifically require the pilot in command to
determine runway lengths at airports of intended
use and the aircraft's takeoff and landing distance
data
Flight crewmembers are required to keep their safety
belts and shoulder harnesses fastened during
takeoffs and landings
Which best describes the flight conditions under which
flight crewmembers are specifically required to keep
their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened?
Safety belts during takeoff and landing and while
en route; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and
landing
With respect to passengers, what obligation, if any,
does a pilot in command have concerning the use of
safety belts?
The pilot in command must brief the passengers on
the use of safety belts and notify them to fasten their
safety belts during taxi, takeoff, and landing
With certain exceptions, safety belts are required to
be secured about passengers during
taxi, takeoffs, and landings.
Safety belts are required to be properly secured about
which persons in an aircraft and when?
Passengers, during taxi, takeoffs, and landings
only
No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight
except by prior arrangement with the pilot in
command of each aircraft
Which aircraft has the right-of-way over all other air
traffic?
An aircraft in distress.
What action is required when two aircraft of the same
category converge, but not head-on?
The aircraft on the left shall give way
Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other
aircraft listed?
Glider
An airplane and an airship are converging. If
the airship is left of the airplane's position, which
aircraft has the right-of-way?
The airship.
Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the
other aircraft listed?
Aircraft towing other aircraft
What action should the pilots of a glider and an
airplane take if on a head-on collision course?
Both pilots should give way to the right
When two or more aircraft are approaching an
airport for the purpose of landing, the right-of-way
belongs to the aircraft
at the lower altitude, but it shall not take advantage
of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake another.
A seaplane and a motorboat are on crossing courses.
If the motorboat is to the left of the seaplane, which
has the right-of-way?
The seaplane
Unless otherwise authorized, what is the maximum
indicated airspeed at which a person may operate an
aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL?
250 knots.
Unless otherwise authorized, the maximum indicated
airspeed at which aircraft may be flown at or below
2,500 feet AGL and within 4 nautical miles of the
primary airport of class C airspace is
200 knots.
When flying in the airspace underlying Class B
airspace, the maximum speed authorized is
200 knots.
When flying in a VFR corridor designated through
Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is
200 knots.
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is
the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an
aircraft anywhere
An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an
emergency landing without undue hazard to persons
or property on the surface
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is
the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to
operate an aircraft over congested areas
An altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest
obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the
aircraft.
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is
the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to
operate an aircraft over other than a congested area?
A) An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an
emergency landing without undue hazard to
persons or property on the surface
An altitude of 500 feet AGL, except over open
water or a sparsely populated area, which requires
500 feet from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing,
an aircraft may not be operated closer than what
distance from any person, vessel, vehicle, or
structure
500 feet
If an altimeter setting is not available before flight, to
which altitude should the pilot adjust the altimeter
The elevation of the departure area.
Prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be set to which
altitude or altimeter setting?
The current local altimeter setting, if available, or
the departure airport elevation
At what altitude shall the altimeter be set to
29.92, when climbing to cruising flight level
18,000 feet MSL
When an ATC clearance has been obtained, no pilot in
command may deviate from that clearance, unless
that pilot obtains an amended clearance. The one
exception to this regulation is
an emergency
When would a pilot be required to submit a detailed
report of an emergency which caused the pilot to
deviate from an ATC clearance?
When requested by ATC
What action, if any, is appropriate if the pilot deviates
from an ATC instruction during an emergency and is
given priority
File a detailed report within 48 hours to the chief of
the appropriate ATC facility, if requested
A steady green light signal directed from the control
tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal that the pilot
is cleared to land
Which light signal from the control tower clears a pilot
to taxi
Flashing green
If the control tower uses a light signal to direct a pilot
to give way to other aircraft and continue circling, the
light will be
steady red.
A flashing white light signal from the
control tower to a taxiing aircraft is an indication
to
return to the starting point on the airport
An alternating red and green light signal directed from
the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal to
exercise extreme caution.
While on final approach for landing, an alternating
green and red light followed by a flashing red light is
received from the control tower. Under these
circumstances, the pilot should
exercise extreme caution and abandon the
approach, realizing the airport is unsafe for landing
A blue segmented circle on a Sectional Chart depicts
which class airspace
Class D.
Airspace at an airport with a part-time control tower is
classified as Class D airspace only
when the associated control tower is in operation
Unless otherwise authorized, two-way radio
communications with Air Traffic Control are required
for landings or takeoffs
at all tower controlled airports regardless of
weather conditions
Two-way radio communication must be established
with the Air Traffic Control facility having jurisdiction
over the area prior to entering which class airspace
Class C.
What minimum radio equipment is required for
operation within Class C airspace
Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-
code transponder, and an encoding altimeter
What minimum pilot certification is required for
operation within Class B airspace?
Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certificate
with appropriate logbook endorsements
What minimum pilot certification is required for
operation within Class B airspace?
Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certificate
with appropriate logbook endorsements
What minimum radio equipment is required for VFR
operation within Class B airspace?
Two-way radio communications equipment, a
4096-code transponder, and an encoding altimeter.
An operable 4096-code transponder with an encoding
altimeter is required in which airspace
Class A, Class B (and within 30 miles of the Class
B primary airport), and Class C.
In which type of airspace are VFR flights prohibited
Class A.
What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under
VFR during daylight hours in an airplane
Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing
and to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising
speed
What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under
VFR at night in an airplane
Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing
and to fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising
speed
During operations outside controlled airspace at
altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than
10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance below clouds
requirement for VFR flight at night is
500 feet
What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are
required for VFR operations in Class G airspace at
700 feet AGL or below during daylight hours?
1 mile visibility and clear of clouds
What minimum flight visibility is required for VFR flight
operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL
3 miles
The minimum distance from clouds required for VFR
operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL is
500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet
horizontally
During operations within controlled airspace at
altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than
10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance above clouds
requirement for VFR flight is
1,000 feet.
VFR flight in controlled airspace above 1,200
feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL requires a
minimum visibility and vertical cloud clearance of
3 miles, and 500 feet below or 1,000 feet above the
clouds in controlled airspace
During operations outside controlled airspace at
altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than
10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for VFR
flight at night is
3 miles.
Outside controlled airspace, the minimum
flight visibility requirement for VFR flight above
1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL during
daylight hours is
1 mile.
During operations outside controlled airspace at
altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than
10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance below clouds
requirement for VFR flight at night is
500 feet.
The minimum flight visibility required for
VFR flights above 10,000 feet MSL and more than
1,200 feet AGL in controlled airspace is
5 miles.
For VFR flight operations above 10,000 feet MSL and
more than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal
distance from clouds required is
1 mile.
During operations at altitudes of more than
1,200 feet AGL and at or above 10,000 feet MSL,
the minimum distance above clouds requirement
for VFR flight is
1,000 feet
No person may take off or land an aircraft
under basic VFR at an airport that lies within Class D
airspace unless the
ground visibility at that airport is at least 3 miles
The basic VFR weather minimums for
operating an aircraft within Class D airspace are
1,000-foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility
A special VFR clearance authorizes the pilot of
an aircraft to operate VFR while within Class D
airspace when the visibility is
at least 1 mile and the aircraft and
remain clear of clouds
What is the minimum weather condition required for
airplanes operating under special VFR in Class D
airspace
1 mile flight visibility
What are the minimum requirements for airplane
operations under special VFR in Class D airspace at
night
The pilot must be instrument rated, and the airplane
must be IFR equipped
No person may operate an airplane within Class D
airspace at night under special VFR unless the
airplane is equipped for instrument flight
Which cruising altitude is appropriate for a VFR flight
on a magnetic course of 135°
Odd thousandths plus 500 feet.
Which VFR cruising altitude is acceptable for a flight
on a Victor Airway with a magnetic course of 175°?
The terrain is less than 1,000 feet
5,500 feet.
Which VFR cruising altitude is appropriate when flying
above 3,000 feet AGL on a magnetic course of 185°?
4,500 feet
Each person operating an aircraft at a VFR cruising
altitude shall maintain an odd-thousand plus 500-foot
altitude while on a
magnetic course of 0° through 179
In addition to a valid Airworthiness Certificate, what
documents or records must be aboard an aircraft
during flight
Operating limitations and Registration Certificate
When must batteries in an emergency locator
transmitter (ELT) be replaced or recharged, if
rechargeable?
When the ELT has been in use for more than 1
cumulative hour
When are non-rechargeable batteries of an
emergency locator transmitter (ELT) required to be
replaced
When 50 percent of their useful life expires
Except in Alaska, during what time period should
lighted position lights be displayed on an aircraft
Sunset to sunrise
When operating an aircraft at cabin pressure altitudes
above 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000
feet MSL, supplemental oxygen shall be used during
that flight time in excess of 30 minutes at those
altitudes.
Unless each occupant is provided with supplemental
oxygen, no person may operate a civil aircraft of U.S.
registry above a maximum cabin pressure altitude of
15,000 feet MSL
An operable 4096-code transponder with an encoding
altimeter is required in which airspace?
Class A, Class B (and within 30 miles of the
Class B primary airport), and Class C
With certain exceptions, all aircraft within
30 miles of a Class B primary airport from the
surface upward to 10,000 feet MSL must be
equipped with
an operable transponder having either Mode S or
4096-code capability with Mode C automatic altitude
reporting capability
No person may operate an aircraft in acrobatic flight
when
over any congested area of a city, town, or
settlement
In which controlled airspace is acrobatic flight
prohibited
Class D airspace, Class E airspace designated
for Federal Airways
What is the lowest altitude permitted for acrobatic
flight
1,500 feet AGL
No person may operate an aircraft in acrobatic flight
when the flight visibility is less than
3 miles
A chair-type parachute must have been packed by a
certificated and appropriately rated parachute rigger
within the preceding
180 days
An approved chair-type parachute may be carried in
an aircraft for emergency use if it has been packed by
an appropriately rated parachute rigger within the
preceding
180 days
With certain exceptions, when must each occupant of
an aircraft wear an approved parachute
When intentionally pitching the nose of the
aircraft up or down 30° or more
Which is normally prohibited when operating a
restricted category civil aircraft
Flight over a densely populated area
Unless otherwise specifically authorized, no person
may operate an aircraft that has an experimental
certificate
over a densely populated area or in a congested
airway
The responsibility for ensuring that an aircraft is
maintained in an airworthy condition is primarily that of
the
owner or operator.
The responsibility for ensuring that maintenance
personnel make the appropriate entries in the aircraft
maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been
approved for return to service lies with the
owner or operator
Completion of an annual inspection and the return of
the aircraft to service should always be indicated by
an appropriate notation in the aircraft maintenance
records
If an alteration or repair substantially affects an
aircraft's operation in flight, that aircraft must be test
flown by an appropriately-rated pilot and approved for
return to service prior to being operated
with passengers aboard
Before passengers can be carried in an aircraft that
has been altered in a manner that may have
appreciably changed its flight characteristics, it must
be flight tested by an appropriately-rated pilot who
holds at least a
Private Pilot Certificate
An aircraft's annual inspection was performed on July
12, this year. The next annual inspection will be due
no later than
July 31, next year
To determine the expiration date of the last annual
aircraft inspection, a person should refer to the
aircraft maintenance records
How long does the Airworthiness Certificate of an
aircraft remain valid
As long as the aircraft is maintained and operated
as required by Federal Aviation Regulations
What aircraft inspections are required for rental
aircraft that are also used for flight instruction
Annual and 100-hour inspections
An aircraft had a 100-hour inspection when the
tachometer read 1259.6. When is the next 100-hour
inspection due
1359.6 hours
A 100-hour inspection was due at 3302.5 hours
on the tachometer. The 100-hour inspection was
actually done at 3309.5 hours. When is the next 100-
hour inspection due
3402.5 hours
No person may use an ATC transponder unless it has
been tested and inspected within at least the
preceding
24 calendar months
Maintenance records show the last transponder
inspection was performed on September 1, 1993. The
next inspection will be due no later than
September 30, 1995.
Which records or documents shall the owner or
operator of an aircraft keep to show compliance with
an applicable Airworthiness Directive
Aircraft maintenance records
f an aircraft is involved in an accident which results in
substantial damage to the aircraft, the nearest NTSB
field office should be notified
immediately
Which incident requires an immediate notification to
the nearest NTSB field office
Flight control system malfunction or failure
Which incident would necessitate an immediate
notification to the nearest NTSB field office
An in-flight fire
Which incident requires an immediate notification be
made to the nearest NTSB field office
An overdue aircraft that is believed to be involved
in an accident
May aircraft wreckage be moved prior to the time the
NTSB takes custody
Yes, but only to protect the wreckage from further
damage
The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in
an accident is required to file an accident report within
how many days
10
The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in
an incident is required to submit a report to the
nearest field office of the NTSB
when requested
(Refer to figure 26, area 4.) The floor of Class B
airspace overlying Hicks Airport (T67) north-northwest
of Fort Worth Meacham Field is
4,000 feet MSL
(Refer to figure 26, area 2.) The floor of Class B
airspace at Addison Airport is
3,000 feet MSL
(Refer to figure 23, area 1.) The visibility and cloud
clearance requirements to operate VFR during
daylight hours over Sandpoint Airport at less than 700
feet AGL are
1 mile and clear of clouds
(Refer to figure 27, area 2.) The visibility and cloud
clearance requirements to operate VFR during
daylight hours over the town of Cooperstown between
1,200 feet AGL and 10,000 feet MSL are
3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and
2,000 feet horizontally from clouds
(Refer to figure 27, area 1.) Identify the airspace over
Lowe Airport
Class G airspace - surface up to but not including
1,200 feet AGL, Class E airspace - 1,200 feet AGL up
to but not including 18,000 feet MSL
(Refer to figure 27, area 6.) The airspace overlying
and within 5 miles of Barnes County Airport is
A) Class D airspace from the surface to the floor of the
overlying Class E airspace
Class G airspace from the surface to 700 feet AGL
(Refer to figure 26, area 7.) The airspace overlying
McKinney Muni is controlled from the surface to
2,900 feet MSL
(Refer to figure 26, area 4.) The airspace directly
overlying Fort Worth Meacham is
Class D airspace to 3,200 feet MSL
(Refer to figure 24, area 3.) What is the floor of the
Savannah Class C airspace at the shelf area (outer
circle)
1,300 feet MSL
(Refer to figure 21, area 1.) What minimum radio
equipment is required to land and take off at Norfolk
International
Mode C transponder and two-way radio.
(Refer to figure 26.) At which airports is fixed-wing
Special VFR not authorized?
Dallas-Fort Worth International and Dallas Love
Field
(Refer to figure 23, area 3.) The vertical limits of that
portion of Class E airspace designated as a Federal
Airway over Magee Airport are
1,200 feet AGL to 17,999 feet MSL
FAA advisory circulars (some free, others at cost) are
available to all pilots and are obtained by
ordering those desired from the Government
Printing Office
During a night flight, you observe a steady red light
and a flashing red light ahead and at the same
altitude. What is the general direction of movement of
the other aircraft
The other aircraft is crossing to the left
During a night flight, you observe a steady white light
and a flashing red light ahead and at the same
altitude. What is the general direction of movement of
the other aircraft
The other aircraft is flying away from you
During a night flight, you observe steady red and
green lights ahead and at the same altitude. What is
the general direction of movement of the other
aircraft
The other aircraft is approaching head-on
The vertical limit of Class C airspace above the
primary airport is normally
4,000 feet AGL.
The normal radius of the outer area of Class C
airspace is
20 nautical miles
All operations within Class C airspace must be in
an aircraft equipped with a 4096-code transponder
with Mode C encoding capability
Under what condition may an aircraft operate from a
satellite airport within Class C airspace
The pilot must contact ATC as soon as practicable
after takeoff
The lateral dimensions of Class D airspace are based
on
the instrument procedures for which the controlled
airspace is established
A non-tower satellite airport, within the same Class D
airspace as that designated for the primary airport,
requires radio communications be established and
maintained with the
primary airport's control tower
Which initial action should a pilot take prior to entering
Class C airspace
Contact approach control on the appropriate
frequency
After landing at a tower-controlled airport, when
should the pilot contact ground control
When advised by the tower to do so
If instructed by ground control to taxi to Runway 9, the
pilot may proceed
to the next intersecting runway where further
clearance is required