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CLIN PATH I LAB FINAL--MONDAY, MAY 7 (WKBK B)

all wkbk ?s combined just seperated into part a and b
STUDY
PLAY
For proper calibration what solution should be used to calibrate a refractometer?
distilled water
To separate serum, whole blood should be spun down in a centrifuge at
3500 rpm for 10 minutes
Prolonged exposure of serum to the blood cells before the serum is removed from the clot can result in
increased serum phosphorus
A toxic neutrophil can be identified by all of the following characteristics, except
hypersegmentation
A Dohle body is identified with the Diff-Quik stain (modified Wright=Giemsa stain) as
a small, bluish-gray inclusion in a neutrophil cytoplasm
A blast cell is not a characteristic of
an old, degenerative cell
A target cell is also called a/an
codocyte
A crenated cell is also called a/an
echinocyte
Spherocytes may be seen on a blood smear from a dog suffering from
IMHA
Acanthocytes are
poikilocytes
A canine RBC is
a biconcave disk-shaped ceell
DIC is commonly represented by schistocytosis. The schistocytes are made when
fibrin strands cut the erythrocytes apart
Pyknosis is a term used to describe a
small, condensed, dark, fragmented nucleus
Basophilic stippling is often associated with
lead poisoning
A common finding on a stained blood smear from an animal with autoimmune hemolytic anemia is
spherocytosis
Denatured hemoglobin found in erythrocytes is
a Heinz body
What appears as a blue spheric nuclear remnant seen in some Wright-stained erythrocytes?
Howell-Jolly body
A variation in erythrocyte size is known as
anisocytosis
What is a non-nucleated, immature erythrocyte found in small numbers in the peripheral blood of dogs called?
reticulocyte
What part of the CBC is the most accurate procedure?
hematocrit
What part of the CBC cannot be done manually with adequate accuracy?
erythrocyte count
Four purple-top tubes with blood samples from four different animals are left standing the laboratory. In what sample will the RBCs settle the fastest?
horse sample
What would you expect to see on a Diff-Quik stained blood smear from an animal with regerative anemia?
polychromasia
What cell is described as a central rounded area of hemoglobin surrounded by a clear zone, with a dense ring of hemoglobin around the periphery?
target cells
What causes plasma to appear red?
hemolysis
Reticulocytes are never found in the peripheral blood of
horses
What cell is produced by megakaryocytes?
thrombocyte
What species normally has the smallest erythrocytes?
goats
What is the term used to describe the situation in which many of the erythrocytes stain varying shades of lavender?
polychromasia
Reticulocytes are reported as
%
Which of the following is a breakdown product of hemoglobin?
bilirubin
What measurement determines the average size of an erythrocyte?
mean corpuscular volume
What parasite resembles Howell-Jolly bodies?
Mycoplasma haemofelis (Haemobartonella sp.)
Basophilic stippling is seen in
erythrocyte cytoplasm
A canine erythrocyte that is smaller than normal, with no pale area in the center, is a
spherocyte
Rouleaux formation is most commonly seen on blood smears from
horses
What animal has oval erythrocytes?
normal llama
What causes dark granules called Dohle bodies in the cytoplasm of canine neutrophils?
toxemia
Which of these is an artifact?
crenation
Certain oxidant drugs can denature hemoglobin and cause production of round structures in erythrocytes called
Heinz bodies
What is the primary function of fibrinogen?
hemostasis
What nucleated erythrocyte is the first one you'll see in peripheral blood if an animal has used all of its reserves of mature erythrocytes in the bone marrow?
metarubricyte
Which of these cells is the most immature?
prorubricyte
Hemagglutination is
clumping of erythrocytes
If an erythrocyte loses part of its membrane but still remains intact, it will appear as a _____ on a stained peripheral blood smear.
spherocyte
An erythrocyte that does not contain its full amount of hemoglobin will appear as _____ on a stained peripheral blood smear.
hypochromasia
Spherocytes are _____ when viewed on a peripheral blood smear.
microcytic erythrocytes
What kind of problem may cause you to find cellular casts containing WBCs in the urine sediment of a dog?
pyelonephritis (kidney infection)
Glycosuria exists
when blood glucose levels exceed the renal threshold for absorption of glucose
Urine that is a false positive for glucose may result from
acetaminophen
When performing urinalysis testing, the sample should be analyzed within ____ minutes or refrigeration is required.
30
For cytologic evaluation of urine, which of the following conditions must be observed?
the specimen should be centrifuged as soon as possible
Brown urine likely contains
myoglobin
Normal voided urine is clear except in which of the following species?
horses
The average urine specific gravity for a normal dog is
1.025
The average urine specific gravity for a normal cat is
1.030
Urine crystals are estimated as the average per
low power field
Epithelial cells in urine are estimated as the average number per
high power field
Hyaline casts
are clear and colorless
Calcium oxalate crystals
are seen in ethylene glycol toxicity
In a healthy animal, diminished water intake or loss of water would result in ____ urine specific gravity.
increased
Which of the following urine sediments would be most significant? (sperm, fat droplets, squamous epithelial cells, blood cells)
blood cells
Struvites is another name for
calcium carbonate crystals
Crystals in urine sediment indicate
often nothing
Which of the following would not be on a urine dipstick? (glucose, blood, total protein, BUN)
BUN
WBCs in urine sediment may be confused with
renal epithelial cells
A drop of ____ added to the urine sediment lyses RBCs but not fat droplets.
dilute acetic acid
Bacteria in urine sediment may be confused with
amorphous phosphates or urates
Casts seen in urine sediment are
formed in the renal tubules
The presence of protein in the urine may indicate
kidney disease
Which of the following would not be associated with ketones in the urine? (diabetes mellitus, lactating cows, starvation, hemolysis)
hemolysis
Mucus is often seen in _____ urine.
horse
Calcium oxalate crystals are
small squares containing an X
The best urine sample for culture is
cystocentesis
Fat droplets are most commonly seen in
cats
Normal numbers of erythrocytes and leukocytes in urine sediment should not exceed
3 to 5 per high power field
The largest of the epithelial cells found in urine are the
squamous epithelial cells
The most common uroliths of cats and dogs are
struvite
The best method of urine collection to assess the patency of the urethra is
catherization
Which of the following statements is false regarding casts?
casts dissolve while in acidic urine
Changes that occur in the urine sample over time include all of the following except (bacterial overgrowth, decrease in pH, cellular degeneration, cast degeneration)
decrease in pH
Puddin, a 2yr old M/C DSH, was missing for 5 days before coming home. His owners were very concerned that he appeared weak and tired, so brought him to the clinic. You find on initial PE that he is significantly dehydrated so that you are not at all surprised when you find that his urine specific gravity is
1.060
Lipuria is seen most commonly in which of the following species?
cats
Bilirubinuria is considered a normal finding in which of the following species?
dogs
Sadie, a 17yr old F/S DSH, is in the final stages of chronic renal failure. On presentation, you find her urine specific gravity to be
1.012
Which of the following test is considered accurate when using colorimetric dip sticks fo rbiochemical testing? (leukocytes, specific gravity, pH, nitrates)
pH
All of the following methods of urine sample collection may be associated with traumatic hematuria, except (catheterization, manuel expression, free catch, cystocentesis)
free catch
Casts that are smooth and refractile with squared ends, indicating chronic, severe degeneration of the renal tubules are
waxy
A horse would mose likely have a urine pH of
7.5
Sasha, an 11yr old F/S DSH, was hospitalized for IV fluids following an infection. The vet tech on duty not paying attention to her fluids and she was significantly over hydrated. You would most likely expect her urine specific gravity to be
1.002
Ketonuria is most commonly associate with which of the following conditions? (liver disease, urinary tract infection, renal failure, diabetes mellitus)
diabetes mellitus
Hoover was diagnosed with a urinary tract infection 2wks ago and was put on a course of amoxicillin. The vet has asked that he return for a recheck to ascertain that the infection has resolved. The collection method of choice in this pt would be? (catheterization, free catch, cystocentesis, manual expression)
cystocentesis
The leukocyts and nitrate pads on urinary colorimetric stips give presumptive evidence that the pt may have
bacterial infection
Aged urine samples left at room temp and exposure to UV light may cause a false-negative result in which of the following biochemical tests? (ketones, protein, glucose, bilirubin)
bilirubin
The best sample to examine for specific gravity of urine is the
first a.m. sample
Mr. Downing has brough in a urine sample from Cleo, his 6yr old cocker spaniel. The color of urine appears red. On centrifugation of the sample, you find that the supernatant is now clear. You know that the original red color was due to
hemoglobinuria
Struvite crystals are composed of
oxalates
All of the following statements are true regarding collection of a urine sample via catheterization except
this is often better tolerated that cystocentesis
Urinary pH is not affected by the
presence of crystals in the urine
Squamous epithelial cells are not normally seen in urine samples obtained by
cystocentesis
For determining specific gravity values, which is the order from most reliable to least reliable method?
refreactometer, urinometer, reagent test strip
Which of the following crystals is most likely to be found in the urine of an animal with ethylene glycol toxicity?
calcium oxalate
Pollakiuria is
urinating frequently, small volume voided
A cast is
glycoprotein mold of the renal tubules
The stain of choice for urine specimens is
Wright-Giemsa
Which of the following is a typical specific gravity for dilute canine urine? (0.010, 3.055, 1.035, 1.010)
1.011
In which species is ketonuria most commonly found?
bovine
Which is the smallest epithelial cell seen on a urine sediment examination?
renal cell
In order for a cast to form, what must be present in the filtrate?
protein
Which is the most common crystal found in canine urinary sediment?
oxalate
In order for glycosuria to occur which of the following must also be present? (uremia, hyperglycemia, ketonemia, azoturia)
hyperglycemia
Urine specific gravity is actually a measure of which of the following? (liver function, glomerular function, tubular function, bladder function)
tubular function
Which is becoming a common type of uroliths in cats?
oxalate
Which test on the urine dipstick is the least useful in animals?
urobilinogen
Which substance increases in the urine in glomerular disease?
protein
Which breed of dog has the most problems with uric acid stones?
dalmation
What uroliths has multiple points remembling a jack?
silica
What is the main constituent of stuvite?
magnesium phosphate
Substances observed in casts originated in which part of the urinary tract?
renal glomerulus
Urine often has a sweet odor if which of the following is present?
ketones
Which type of cast is the most common one found in urine?
granular
Fresh urine appears which color when myoglobinuria is present?
brown
Which urinalysis finding is consistent with bacterial cystitis in the dog and cat?
alkaline pH
Isosthenuric urine would read ____ on a refractometer.
1.010
The correct medical term for a urinary bladder stone is
urolith
Urine specific gravity reading indicate
dissolved solids
Which of the following is an acceptable urine pH for a cat? (6.2, 6.0, 7.0, 7.5)
6.2
The presence of predominantly anuclear cornified epithelial cells indicates
estrus
Cells that line the pleural, peritoneal, and visceral surfaces are
mesothelial cells
A cytology sample containing 90% neutrophils is described as
granulomatous inflammation
A deformation of nuclei by other nuclei within the same cells or adjacent cells is referred to as
nuclear molding
Cattle and swine display what type of estrous cycle?
polyestrous
Dogs demonstate hwat type of esterous cycle?
diestrous
What species is an induced ovulator?
fline
In what stage of the estrous cycle does the corpus luteum develop?
metestrus
The hormone produced by a developing ovarian follicle is
estrogen
What hormone contracts the female reproductive tract to help move spermatozoa into the oviducts?
oxytocin
To achieve a normal pregnancy, the blastocyst attaches ot what structure?
endometrium
Giving birth is known as
parturition
From the estrous cycle to parturition, in what order are the following hormones released
estrogen, progesterone, oxytocin
Which animal has a cotyledonary placenta?
sheep
In cotyledonary placentation the mother's side of the attachment is called the
caruncle
A pregnant mare has what kind of placentation?
diffuse
A pregnant bitch has what kind of placentation?
zonary
A pregnant rodent has what kind fo placentation?
discoid
A pregnant queen has what kind fo placentation?
zonary
The canine uterus is shaped like the letter
Y
How many mammary gland are typically found on a bitch?
8-12
Ruminants have what type fo placentation?
cotyledonary
All of the following are induced ovulators except? (rabbit, rat, cat, ferret)
rat
The time period from the beginning of one heat cycle to the beginning of the next is called
estrous
When does ovulation occur in the cow?
12 hours after standing heat
The condition known as pseudopregnancy can result from an exaggerated
diestrus
What is the normal average gestation period of horses?
336 days
The correct order for the stages of the estrous cycle is
proestrus, estrus, metestrus, anestrus
How often does estrus occur in normal, nonpregnant cows?
every 19 to 23 days
What is the normal average gestation period of guinea pigs?
63 days
Which is a response to estrogen?
inducing estrus via action on the brain
What is the main hormonal influence during proestrus?
follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
What term best describes the estrous cycle of cows?
polyestrous
During, or shortly after, what stage of the estrous cycle does ovulation occur?
estrus
What is the relatively short period of quiescence (estrous inactivity) between estrous cycles in polyestrous animals?
diestrus
The luteal phase of the estrous cycle includes
metestrus and diestrus
What is the major hormonal influence during metestrus?
progesterone
During what part of the estrous cycle is the female most receptive to the male?
estrus
When is the usual breeding season for ewes?
fall
What is the normal average length of gestation in a sow?
114 days
What does the term multiparous mean?
having given birth to viable offspring in more than one gestation
In ruminants, the cotyledon of the placenta attaches to what structure on the uterus to form the placentome?
caruncle
What female is an induced or reflex ovulator?
queen
What is the normal average length of gestation in goats?
150 days
Enlargement of what structure is responsible for prolonged retention of the penis within the vagina during coitus in canines?
bulbus glandis
What is a photoperiod?
length of daylight and darkness
Cornified epithelial cells are synonymous with ______ epithelial cells.
superficial
What type of epithelial cell is most prominent during estrus in a bitch?
superficial
A cytologic sample collected with a cotton swab should be applied to a microscope slide with a ______ action.
rolling
The period of time when a bitch is receptive to the male is classified as
estrus
The average esterous cycle of the dog lasts _____ days.
9
When do most bitches normally ovulate?
early in estrus
When does pseydocyesis occur in the bitch's cycle?
diestrus
Noncornified epithelial cells and erythrocytess are most commonly seen on a vaginal smear during what phase of the bitchs's cycle?
proestrus
What is an example of a cornified vaginal epithelial cell?
superficial cell
If a milk progesterone test from a cow is positive, it indicates
she in not in heat
What animal has a very short estrus with ovulation occurring in metestrus?
cow
What is considered the minimal percentage of motile sperm in a normal canine ejaculate?
80%
Which statement concerning queens and their reproductive behavior is most accurate?
queens are seasonally polyestruous, and coitus in necessary for ovulation
The correct classification of vaginal epithelial cells from the deepest layer near the basement membrane, progressing superficially to the layer near the vaginal lumen, is
basal, parabasal, intermediate, superficial
The largest cells seen in vaginal smears is
superficial
Name the stages of estrus that exhibits the following changes on the vaginal smear: epithelial cells type changes quickly to the noncornified cell, RBCs disappear completely, and WBCs appear in great numbers.
diestrus
Which statement concerning vaginal cytology is false?
parabasal cells are larger than superficial cells
What is the average length of gestation for a dog?
63 days
The brain is the initator of the reproductive cycle? TRUE OR FALSE
TRUE
The fetus has twoe fluid-filled sacs surrounding it? TRUE OR FALSE
TRUE
During proestrus the bitch is attractive to male dogs and will allow mating? TRUE OR FALSE
FALSE
A vaginal cytology shows 100% cornified cells during estrus in the bitch? TRUE OR FALSE
TRUE
The bitch ovulates mature oocytes that require 2 to 3 more days for maturation? TRUE OR FALSE
FALSE
The fertile period is best identified using hormone assays for LH or progesterone? TRUE OR FALSE
TRUE
Although false negatives are common with in-house BRUCELLA canis screening, false positives are rare? TRUE OR FALSE
FALSE
The queen is not an induced ovulator?TRUE OR FALSE
False
The normal postpartum discharge is a red-black,nonodorous fluid that can be seen for a long as 3 weeks after queening? TRUE OR FALSE
TRUE
Queens with pyometra tend to be older, whereas bitches can be any age? TRUE OR FALSE
FALSE
Estrus, or the period of receptivity, is shown by teasing "in"? TRUE OR FALSE
TRUE
All vaginal procedures in mares should be performed aseptically? TRUE OR FALSE
TRUE
Endometrial cytology should always be performed in conjuction with an endometrial culture to aid in interpretation of results? TRUE OR FALSE
TRUE
Pregnancy examination in the mare is usually performed 21 days after ovulation with the aid of ultrasonography? TRUE OR FALSE
FALSE
Parturition is a slow process in the mare? TRUE OR FALSE
FALSE
A retained placenta for more than 6 hours in duration requires veterinary attention?TRUE OR FALSE
TRUE
The most common reason for failure of a cow to show estrus is pregnancy? TRUE OR FALSE
TRUE
Dystocia is much more common in mares than in cattle? TRUE OR FALSE
FALSE
Artificial insemination with fresh of cooled semen is commonly performed in the swine industry? TRUE OR FALSE
TRUE
Metritis and mastitis are the main dseases of the postpartum period in cows, and consequently lead to a disturbance in milk production? TRUE OR FALSE
FALSE