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53 terms

A/P Set1

1st MidTerm Exam Review
STUDY
PLAY
1. You are caring for an adult patient who weighs 48 kg. What would her approximate blood volume be? Hint: body weight X 7%.
1) 6.6L
2) 6.0L
3) 5.6L
4) 4.8L
5) 3.4L
5) 3.4L
2. Transferrin is an example of which kind of plasma protein?
1) Metalloprotein
2) steroid-binding protein
3) hormone-binding protein
4) apolipoprotein
5) transport albumin
1) Metalloprotein
3. Which organ secretes most of the plasma proteins?
1) pancreas
2) heart
3) kidney
4) brain
5) liver
5) liver
5. Red blood cell production is regulated by the hormone:
1) thymosin
2) angiotensin
3) erythropoietin
4) M-CSF
5) Rennin
3) erythropoietin
6. When a person who lives at sea level vacations in the Rocky Mountains, you would expect:
1) a drop in oxygen levels
2) the release of erythropoietin
3) a rise in hematocrit
4) an increase in red blood cell production
5) all of the answers are correct
5) all of the answers are correct
4. Red blood cell production is regulated by the hormone:
1) thymosin
2) angiotensin
3) erythropoietin
4) M-CSF
5) Rennin
3) erythropoietin
7. Each heme ring in hemoglobin encloses an atom of
1) magnesium
2) calcium
3) iron
4) sodium
5) potassium
3) iron
8. Excess iron is stored in the liver and spleen as:
1) Transferring
2) Hemosiderin
3) Ferritin
4) Hemoglobin
5) hemosiderin and ferritin
5) hemosiderin and ferritin
9. In which of the following situations would you expect the blood level of bilirubin to be elevated?
1) during coagulation
2) an alcoholic with a damaged liver
3) iron-deficient diet
4) low hematocrit
5) low blood volume
2) an alcoholic with a damaged liver
10. The waste product bilirubin is produced from:
1) globin chains of hemoglobin
2) heme molecules plus iron
3) heme molecules lacking iron
4) iron found in hemoglobin molecules
5) abnormal proteins found in red blood cells
3) heme molecules lacking iron
11. The developmental stage at which erythrocytes enter the circulation is as:
1) hemocytoblasts
2) reticulocytes
3) band forms
4) myeloid cells
5) proerythrocytes
2) reticulocytes
12. Anti-D antibodies are present in the blood of:
1) all individuals with type AB blood
2) Rh negative individuals who have been exposed to the D surface antigen
3) all Rh positive individuals
4) Rh positive individuals who have been exposed to the D surface antigen
5) all Rh negative individual
2) Rh negative individuals who have been exposed to the D surface antigen
13. The most numerous white blood cells in peripheral circulation are the:
1) neutrophils
2) eosinophils
3) basophils
4) lymphocytes
5) monocytes
1) neutrophils
14. White blood cells that release histamine at the site of an injury are:
1) neutrophils
2) eosinophils
3) basophils
4) lymphocytes
5) monocytes
3) basophils
15. Which of these descriptions best matches the term colony stimulating factor?
1) adhere to collagen beneath endothelium
2) helper cells are one type
3) hormone that regulates blood cell formation
4) kill bacteria using hydrogen peroxide
5) often elevated in allergic individuals
3) hormone that regulates blood cell formation
16. A hormone that stimulates production of granulocytes and monocytes is:
1) M-CSF
2) G-CSF
3) GM-CSF
4) Multi-CSF
5) Thymosin
2) G-CSF
17. Which of the following is true of eosinophils?
1) kill flukes and parasitic roundworms
2) allergy patients have many
3) have bilobed nucleus
4) constitute about 2 to 4 percent of WBCs
5) all of the answers are correct
5) all of the answers are correct
18. Platelets are pinched off from giant multinucleated cells in the bone marrow called:
1) erythroblasts
2) normoblasts
3) megakaryocytes
4) myeloblasts
5) lymphoblasts
3) megakaryocytes
19. ________ involves a cascade of reactions leading to the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin.
1) Vascular spasm
2) The platelet phase
3) Retraction
4) Coagulation phase
5) Fibrinolysis
4) Coagulation phase
20. The conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin is catalyzed by the enzyme:
1) fibrinogen-converting enzyme
2) plasmin
3) factor VIII
4) thrombin
5) prothrombinase
4) thrombin
21. How many grams of KCl are necessary to make 1L of a 125 mM solution? The molecular weight of KCl is 74 grams/mol.
1) 9.25g
2) 0.0016g
3) 1689g
4) 0.925g
1) 9.25g
22. What is the concentration of KCl after adding 37 grams of KCl to 2 L of distilled water? The molecular weight of K+ and Cl- is 39 grams/mol and 35 grams/mol, respectively.
1) 1369M
2) 1M
3) 18.5M
4) 0.25M
4) 0.25M
23. High hematocrit concentration will cause plasma to become:
1) hypotonic
2) hypertonic
3) hemolytic
4) isotonic
5) hypochromic
2) hypertonic
24. Before becoming RBCs, a cell differentiates into a:
1) hemocytoblasts
2) reticulocytes
3) normoblasts
4) myeloid cells
5) proerythroblasts
5) proerythroblasts
25. Each hemoglobin molecule contains
1) four alpha chains
2) one alpha and one beta chain
3) four iron atoms
4) one heme group
5) a molecule of oxygen and a molecule of carbon dioxide
3) four iron atoms
26. Which of these is not one of the formed elements of blood?
1) RBCs
2) platelets
3) antibodies
4) lymphocytes
5) basophils
3) antibodies
27. Contractions of the papillary muscles:
1) close the atrioventricular valves
2) close the semilunar valves
3) eject blood from the ventricles
4) prevent the atrioventricular valves from reversing into the atria
5) eject blood from the atria into the ventricles
4) prevent the atrioventricular valves from reversing into the atria
28. The pulmonary semilunar valve prevents backward flow into the:
1) aorta
2) pulmonary trunk
3) pulmonary veins
4) right ventricle
5) left atrium
4) right ventricle
29. In cardiac muscle, the fast depolarization phase of the action potential is the result of:
1) increased membrane permeability to sodium ions
2) increased membrane permeability to potassium ions
3) decreased membrane permeability to calcium ions
4) decreased membrane permeability to sodium ions
5) increased membrane permeability to chloride ions
1) increased membrane permeability to sodium ions
30. The long plateau phase of the cardiac muscle action potential is due to:
1) movement of fewer sodium ions across the cell membrane
2) calcium channels remaining open
3) increased membrane permeability to potassium ion
4) decrease in the amount of calcium diffusing across the membrane
5) increased membrane permeability to sodium ions
2) calcium channels remaining open
31. The normal pacemaker of the heart is located in:
1) the Purkinje fibers
2) the sinoatrial node
3) the atrioventricular node
4) the wall of the left ventricle
5) both the left and right ventricles
2) the sinoatrial node
32. If the pacemaker cells in the SA node become more permeable to potassium ions:
1) heart rate will increase
2) heart rate will decrease
3) cells will depolarize
4) cells will hyperpolarize
5) heart rate will decrease and cells will hyperpolarize
5) heart rate will decrease and cells will hyperpolarize
33. The following are structural components of the conducting system of the heart
A. Purkinje fibers
B. AV bundle
C. AV node
D. SA node
E. bundle branches
The sequence in which excitation would move through this system is:
1) A, D, C, B, E
2) C, B, D, E, A
3) C, E, D, B, A
4) D, C, B, E, A
5) D, B, C, E, A
4) D, C, B, E, A
34. Tetanic muscle contractions don't occur in a normal cardiac muscle because:
1) cardiac muscle tissue contracts on its own
2) neural stimulation is lacking
3) the refractory period lasts until the muscle relaxes
4) the refractory period ends before the muscle reaches peak tension
5) potassium channels outnumber sodium channels
3) the refractory period lasts until the muscle relaxes
35. Intercalated discs serve to transfer ________ from cell to cell.
1) ionic currents
2) action potentials
3) the force of contraction
4) electrical signals
5) all of the above
5) all of the above
36. The atrioventricular valves permit blood flow:
1) in one direction only
2) in both directions
3) out through multiple arteries
4) in opposite direction on the right and left
5) from a ventricle to an atrium
1) in one direction only
37. Blood returning to the heart from the pulmonary circuit first enters the:
1) right atrium
2) coronary sinus
3) right ventricle
4) left atrium
5) left ventricle
4) left atrium
38. Depolarization of the ventricles is represented on an electrocardiogram by the:
1) P wave
2) T wave
3) S wave
4) QRS complex
5) PR complex
4) QRS complex
39. On an EKG reading, ____________ is not apparent because it is masked by the ___________.
1) atrial repolarization; QRS complex
2) atrial depolarization; QRS complex
3) ventricular repolarization; QRS complex
4) ventricular depolarization QRS complex
1) atrial repolarization; QRS complex
40. Considering the left ventricle, why does isovolumetric ventricular contraction occur during ventricular systole?
1) The ventricle needs to pressurize the blood to close the aortic valve
2) Ventricular pressure is greater than atrial pressure so the ventricle cannot eject blood
3) The bicuspid valve needs time to shut before the ventricle can eject blood
4) Aortic pressure is higher than ventricular pressure and the ventricle must pressurize the blood to open the aortic valve
5) The ventricle is still filling with blood and therefore cannot eject blood during this time
4) Aortic pressure is higher than ventricular pressure and the ventricle must pressurize the blood to open the aortic valve
41. During ventricular systole, the
1) atria are contracting
2) blood is entering the ventricles
3) AV valves are closed
4) pressure in the ventricles remains constant
5) pressure in the aorta remains constant
3) AV valves are closed
42. The volume of blood ejected from each ventricle during a contraction is called the:
1) end-diastolic volume
2) end-systolic volume
3) stroke volume
4) cardiac output
5) cardiac reserve
3) stroke volume
43. Which of the following would increase heart rate?
1) increased sympathetic stimulation of SA node
2) decreased parasympathetic stimulation of nodal fibers
3) increased levels of epinephrine
4) faster depolarization of the pacemaker potential
5) all of the answers are correct
5) all of the answers are correct
44. The heart is innervated by ________ nerves.
1) parasympathetic
2) somatomotor
3) sympathetic
4) neither parasympathetic nor sympathetic
5) both parasympathetic and sympathetic
5) both parasympathetic and sympathetic
45. Heart rate is controlled by neurons of the cardiovascular center located in the:
1) pons
2) thalamus
3) medulla oblongata
4) hypothalamus
5) higher centers
3) medulla oblongata
46. Cardiac output is increased by:
1) sympathetic stimulation
2) increased end systolic volume
3) decreased end diastolic volume
4) decreased end diastolic volume
5) inhibiting the atrial reflex
1) sympathetic stimulation
47. Activation of which kind of receptor causes heart rate to increase?
1) alpha-one receptor
2) beta-one receptor
3) muscarinic receptor
4) beta-two receptor
5) preganglionic
2) beta-one receptor
GOTO Figure and Questions 48 - 51
.. Nearly there
52. End-systolic volume is defined as the:
1) amount of blood a ventricle ejects per cycle
2) amount of blood which backflows into a ventricle
3) amount of blood remaining in an atrium after atrial systole
4) amount of blood remaining in a ventricle after contraction
5) stroke volume multiplied by the heart rate
4) amount of blood remaining in a ventricle after contraction
53. Which of these would cause stroke volume to increase?
1) when venous return is decreased
2) when ventricular contraction is reduced
3) when diastolic blood pressure is decreased
4) decrease in heart rate
5) all of the answers are correct
3) when diastolic blood pressure is decreased
54. A patient has an end-diastolic volume of 125 ml. A heart attack has weakened her left ventricle so it can pump a stroke volume of only 40 ml. Calculate her end-systolic volume. Hint: EDV - ESV = SV
1) 85 mL
2) 3.1 mL
3) 5000 mL
4) 165 mL
5) 0.32 mL
1) 85 mL
55. Calculate the cardiac output of a patient with a heart rate of 100 beats/minute and a stroke volume of 75 ml. Hint: HR X SV = CO
1) 0.75 mL / min
2) 750 mL / min
3) 7500 mL / min
4) 175 mL / min
5) 25 mL / min
3) 7500 mL / min
56. Stimulation of beta-1 receptors causes an increase in heart rate by:
1) opening K+ ion channels
2) opening Na + ion channels
3) opening Ca2+ ion channels
4) opening Cl- ion channels
2) opening Na + ion channels