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Terms in this set (32)
What is a live fire prerequisite that must be completed prior to exectuing and live fire event, including zeroing procedures or Table IV, basic.
Table 1/ GST
Table III, proficiency, is a single vehicle course that is designed to what?
Evaluate the crews ability to engage stationary and/or moving targets placed in a tactical array, during day and limited visibility conditions.
Table IV is designed to evaluate the crew on engaging ___________ and __________ targets placed in a tactical array using vehicle weapon systems while in the _____________ or ____________ postures.
Stationary/moving and offense/ defense
Table VI falls under the _________ _______________ ______________ to be qualified.
Multiple qualification criteria
The first step in developing a live fire scenario for mounted platform systems is to what?
Identify the range or facility that supports the unit training objectives
What manual provides detailed information on the Army's family of maneuver ranges and their capabilities?
TC 25-8 training ranges
What do the acronyms BES and HFS stand for?
BES- battlefield effects simulators
HFS- hostile fire simulator
For offensive engagements, all targets must be ___-__________ ___________ to the firing crew a minimum of _________- percent of the length of the maneuver/firing box.
90-percent visible / 90
All targets will be exposed for how long?
Crews must be able to effectively demonstrate their ability to employ their weapon (s) through what?
Training and qualification
MMG platforms May fire from the _____________ _____________ when deemed safe and appropriate
Main gun refers to the _________, ____________, or ____________ armament on stabilized platforms, respectively.
25mm, 105mm, or 120mm
ATGM-equipped platforms _____________ ATGM, ____________, and _____________ ATGM- have six attributes across the 10 tasks fired per table.
Stryker, ITAS, Scout
Retrograde engagements, if used, should be conducted from where?
Furthest point down range
After the on-paper scenario is approved by the commander and installation range support, it must be proofed on the facility using what?
On the platform that will be fired
What is the constant for determining a maneuver box?
What is the standard for table III?
The crew must:
- score a minimum of 700 of 1000 points overall.
- score 70 points or more on all targets presented on seven (7) out of ten (10) engagements
- qualify at least one night engagement.
- successfully pass using the evaluation standards between T-6 and T-week.
Table II is a ____________ _____________ __________ that must be completed prior to any event using live ammunition.
Live fire prerequisite
The end state for each crew after completing table VI is a what?
Is a crew that is confident and competent to a standard that best prepares them for combat
If a crew fails to qualify, it refires for ______________. The highest rating that a crew can earn when retiring is ___________.
What do the acronyms MAT and SIT stand for?
MAT- moving armored target
SIT- stationary infantry target
What is the standard track length in meters for a moving armored target?
Maximum target dispersion is _______ mils.
MMG and degraded more maximum target dispersion is ________ mils.
The ______ and ________ use the caliber .50 machine gun as their primary weapon during all engagements unless specifically stated otherwise
ASV and AAV
Which task are degraded for MMG tables?
Task 4 and 5
What is the ammunition allocation for table VI MMG platforms
. 50 cal- 750
For main gun tables which tasks are change of weapon system
Task 5 and 6
What is the main gun ammunition allocated for tanks on table six?
What are the range bands for ATGM?
Short range =< 800m
Long range =>2500m
How many call for requirements are there and what are they?
Call-for-fire, task 061-C01-1801
Call for MEDEVAC/CASEVAC, task 081-COM-0101
Call for Close Combat Attack (CCA)
Proofing should be accomplished by making sure targets can be viewed through the ___________ ____________ throughout the entire exposure time
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