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400 terms

Biology Final Pt 1&2 combined

STUDY
PLAY
Protostomes have ________ and __________ cleavage
spiral
determinate cleavage
Internal organs, including gonads, and reproductive organs develop in the _________
coelom
The coelom transports _________ and __________ internal organs
materials
protects
What type of mesoderm lines the coelom?
peritoeanitum
The coelom serves as a __________ by contracting muscles to push against the tube of fluid
hydrostatic skeleton
Two examples of Ecdysozoa
nematodes
arthropods
Platy means ________ and helminthes means _________
flat
worm
True coelom is a __________-__________ body cavity completely lined by ___________
fluid-filled
mesoderm
Tube with in a tube bodyplan:
___________- outer tube
___________- inner tube
body wall
digestive tube
Two branches f Protostomes
Lophotrochozoa
Ecdysozoa
Three examples of Lophotrochozoa
Platyhelminthes
mollusks
annelids
Platyhelminthes are what type of coelom
acoelomate
Platyhelminthes are ____________ meaning they have both male and female parts
hermaphrodites
How do platyhelminthes get nutrients by
diffusion
Are platyhelminthes free-living organism>
yes
Example of asexual reproduction down by platyhelminthes?
binary fisson
Binary fission is when it
splits down the middle and each side makes a new side
What type of nervous system do platyhelminthes have
ladder-type nervous sustem
Platyhelminthes' brain is composed of two
ganglia
Ganglia are
a collection of nerves
What is the flame cell and what does it do?
Protonephridia
function in osmoregulation and disposal of metabolic waste
also first kidney like organ
An auricle is
Do platyhelminthes have them?
an ear or 1st figure into sensor organ
yes
The mouth leads into the
pharynx
Larva always live in an
intermediate host
3 classes of Platyhelminthes
Turbellaria
Trematoda
Cestoida
Example of Cestoida
parasitic tapeworms
Schistosoma is a
What type of disease do they cause
Where do they live
blood fluke
schistosomiasis
freshwater
Where do the class Turbellaria live
marine/fresh water
What has a ventral foot used for locomotion
mollusca
Examples if Trematoda
parasitic fluke , blood luke, and endoprasite
Parasitic flukes infect the
liver
Taenia solium is what
tapeworms in pork
Blood flukes have a ___________ which is a tough layer on the endoparasite
tegument
The tegument resists what?
immune system of the host
Examples of Turbellaria
free-living flatworms
planarians
Taenia saginatus is what
tape worms in beef
The blood fluke turns into a _________ larva then grows into a ___________larva
ciliated
fork-tailed
What is cephalization
evolution of the head
Tapeworms have _________ or _________ for holdig on to their host
suckers
hooks
In a tapeworm there is a head called ___________ where the hooks and suckers are
scolex
The scolex bury into the
gut
The tapeworm is a segmented organism made of
proglottids
Mollusca is usually a _____________ animal covered by a ________.
soft-bodied
shell
The formation of the head increases the effectiveness of the animal to
actively find food, shelter, and mates
detect enemies
Proglottids are added
behind the neck
Each proglottid has both
eggs and sperm
What do you take to kill tapeworms
Methyl trexate (mustard gas)
What is the mantle
layer over visceral mass that secretes shell
Mollusca has a ______ gut
1-way
What is the visceral mass
reproductive organs under the shell
Mollusca has ____________ fertilization, ______ circulatory system, and ______ ________ on the mouth
internal
open
sharp razors
Cephalopods have a _____________ circulatory system
closed
Most marine mollusks have free-swimming, ciliated ______________ larva.
trochophore
Bivalves are ______________ feeders
suspension
Bivalves ingest their food by slicing off bites with their __________________.
rasplike tongue
Clams are ____________________ feeders.
suspension
Clams have an _____________ muscle that hold thee two shells together
abductor
H₂O goes in through the clam by an __________________ and out by ____________________
incurrent siphon
excurrent siphon
Trochophore larva undergo
torsion
3 classes of Mollusks
gastropoda
bivalvia
cephalopoda
What is the largest class of mulluks
gastropoda
Examples of gastropoda
snails
slugs
Gastropoda undergoes torsion which means
they twist their visceral mass as a larva making their anul opening behind their head
The phylum Gastropoda is a ________ coelomate, has an _______ circulatory system, and a ________ for locomotion
true
open
foot
Examples of class Bivalvia
clams
scallops
oysters
Bivalvia has a two part shell that is connected by the
abductor muscle
Movement of Bivalvia
Oysters and barnacles-
clams and muscles-
scallops-
fixed
burrow in the sand/mud
snapping motion of shells
Bivalvia have a __________ gut, ________ circulatory system, and __________ ganglion by the foot
1-way
open
pedal ganglion
The pendal ganglia are the
nerves in the foot
Cephalo means ...... poda means
head
foot
Gastro means..... poda means
stomach
foot
Examples of cephalopoda
squids
octopods
Nautilus
Cephalopoda is a class of ___________ swimmers
predatory
Cephalopoda have a _________ circulatory system
closed
Octopods have both ___________, cells for colour, and ______________, which change the texture and colour
Chromatophore
Euridophores
Octopods use chromatophores and euridophores to___________ or learn to copy surroundings
mimicry
3 classes of Annelida
Polychaeta
Oligochaeta
Hirudinea
Annelida are segmented worms. They are segmented both
internally and externally
Annelida has a large _______________ coelom
compartmentalized
Polychaeta are marine worms with _______, appendages for locomotion
parapodia
Oligochaeta are ______worms that are divided into more than _______ segments
earthworms
100
Hirudinea are _______ that have suckers
leeches
Nematoda are roundworms whose body is covered by a tough________ that helps prevent
cuticle
desiccation
What are some parasitic nematodes in humans
Ascaris
hookworms
pinworms
trichina worms
Arthropoda are segmented with jointed appendages and have an armorlike ___________ made of _______
exoskeleton
chitin
Arthropoda ______ to grow
molt
Arthropoda have an _____ circulatory system, and either ________, for gas exchange, or __________/book lungs
open
gills
tracheae
RNA differs from DNA in all the following except
RNA is a larger molecule than DNA
In Figure 12-03, the portion of the molecule labeled 5 is
the attached amino acid
In Figure 12-03, the portion of the molecule in the figure that contains the anti-codon is:
3
Suppose the following DNA sequence was mutated from AGAGAGAGAGAGAGAGAGA to AGAAGAGAGATCGAGAGA. What amino acid sequnce will be generated based on this muated DNA?
ser-ser-leu
Which statement is true?
The Hydrogen bonding of cytosine to guanine is an example of complementary base
The transcript in Figure 12-02 is labeled:
D
The process illustrated in Figure 12-02 is
Transcription
In Figure 12-02 the transcription process begins at the area labeled
E
The component labled B in Figure 12-02 is:
RNA polymerase
Ribose differes from deoxyribose by having:
an extra hydroxyl group
A mutation that replaces one amino acid in a protein with another is called a
missense mutation
Of all the different codons that exist, three of them
do not specify a particular amino acid but provide instruction such as stop
the total number of different three-base combinations of the four nucleic acid bases is:
64
The first event in translation of eukaryotes (staring with methionine) is the
base pairing of tRNA to AUG of the mRNA
In all organisms,the AUG codon codes for
initiation of translation
If the DNA triplets were ATG-CGT, the tRNA anticodons would be
AUGCGU
RNA synthesis is also known as:
transcription
Adenine and guanine are
double-ringed purines
Which point mutation would be mos tlikely to have a catastrophic effect on the functioning of a protein
a base deletion near the start of the codin sequence
During protein synthesis, ribosomes
attach to the mRNA molecule and travel along its length
Following peptide bond formation between the amino acid in the A site on the ribosome and the growing polypeptide chain, the tRNA in the A Site`
moves to the P site of the ribosome
If a human gene mRNA were placed into a cell of yeast, it would be:
translated into the protein that is found in humans
Ribsosomes function as
two-part units
How is the four-letter language of nucleic acids converted into the 20-word language of amino acids
The 4 Nucleic acid bases combine in 3- letter sequences that define different amino acids.
Why is only one strand of DNA transcribed into mRNA
because transcribing both DNA strands would produce different amino acid sequences.
Where is the attachment site for RNA polymerase
promoter region
A particular eukaryotic protein is 300 amino acids long. WHich of the following could be the number of nucleotides in the DNA that codes for this protein
900
One of the mRNA codons specifying the amino acid leucine is CUA. Its corresponding anticodon is
GAU
The tRNA
Must be recognized by ribosomes, must have an anticodon, must have an atttachment site for the amino acid, must be recognized by a specific aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase that adds the correct amino acid
A possible sequence of nucleotides in DNA that would code for the polypeptide sequences Phe- Leu- Ile- Val would be
AA-GAA-TAA-CAA
Initiation of transcription requires:
a promoter sequence
Uracil forms a complementray pair with ____ in RNA and ___ in DNA
Adenine and adenine
Termination of protein translation is due to
a stop or terminator sequence
Interrupted coding sequence include long sequences of base that do not code for amino acids. These noncoding sequences, called ___, are found in __ cells.
introns and eukaryotic
There are how many different kinds of amino acids in proteins?
20
Transfer RNA differes from other types of RNA because it
carries an amino acid at one end
The codon is found in the:
mRNA
A gene can now be defined as:
a DNA sequence that carries info to produce a specific RNA or protein product
Retroviruses or RNA tumor viruses use __ to make DNA:
reverse transcriptase
In DNA molecules
the nucleotides are arranged in a linear, unbranches pattern.
If the triplet UUU codes for the amino acid phenylalanine in bacteria, then in plants UUU should code for
phenylalanine
A gene mutation
is a change in the nucleotide sequence of DNA, may be caused by enviromentral agents, may aruse spontaneously, can occur in all organisms
Substitution of one base pair for another can result in a _____ mutation that results in the conversion of an amino acid specifying codon to a termination codon
nonsense
a polyribosomes is
a complex of many ribosomes and an mRNA
Which of the following is a characteristic of uracil
the ability to bond with adenine
If cytosine makes up 22% of the nucleotides in a sample of DNA from an organism, then adnine would make up waht % of the bases
28
Nucleic acid contains
phosphorus
Frameshift mutation result from:
the insertion or deletion of one or two base pairs
If the DNA triplets were ATG-CGT, the mRNA codons would be
UACGCA
Virulent (lytic) phages
destroy bacteria
A person with AIDS usually dies of a disease that an HIV negative person would have immunity against. This is because.
AIDS patient's white blood cells that fight invaders have been destroyed
VIral proteins can damage host cells by:
overwhelming the host cell with a large number of viruses
Viruses:
are usually species-specific, may have multiple origins, are probably related to mobile genetics elements, may have escaped from cells.
Which of the following identifies a group of DNA viruses?
herpersviruses
Viruses were first identified:
because they caused an infection and were small enough to pass through filters that trapped bacteria
Viruses that attack bacteria are called:
Phages
Retroviruses differ from other RNA viruses by:
having revere transcriptase instead of RNA- dependent RNA polymerase.
Viruses are classified by:
an international committee
A airbine virus carried in the droppings of mice is
Hanta Virus
A symptom of a transmissible spnogiform encephalopathy (TSE) is
degeneration of the brain and central nervrous system
Mad cow disease is an example of an infection cause by a:
prion
Which of the following is not a vector of viral disease?
prions
Which of the following would a physician NOT do to protect against the spread of a viral disease?
prescribe an antibitotic
The five stages of a lytic infection are attachment, penetration, ____, assembly, and release.
Replication
The specificity of viruses to different types of cells is due to ____ sites on the host cell
receptor
Viroids cause a variety of plant disease and are composed only of
strands of RNA
The structure of the virus in Figure 23-01 that is common to all viruses is:
4
In figure 23-01, the function of the structure labeled 3 is:
attachment to a host cell
Temperate viruses
do not always destroy their host
Viruses
cannot independently preform metabolic activities
A propahge:
is phage DNA that is intergrated into bacterial DNA
Tobacco mosaic virus
Is able to be crystallized, cause disease in tobacco plants, is smaller than a bacterium, was discovered in 1835.
The protein coat of a virus is called the:
capsid
Which of the following disease is not caused by a virus
lyme disease
EBOLA is a deadly virus identified first in the country of ZAIRE. The host for this disease is:
unknown
Antibiotics are not effective against viruses becayse
viruses dont have the cellular processes that antibiotics interfere with
All viruses are
hetertrophic, parasitic, non living
The virusthat has taken more humans lives than any other is
influenza
In figure 25-01, the fungus illustrated in FIgure A is
coenocytic
In figure 25-01, the structure labeled 1 is:
a preforated septum
The club fungi typically reproduce asexually by producing
conidia
Yeast produce alcoholic beverages by:
fermentation
In mushrooms, the basidium is found on the
gills
An example of a member of phylum Zygomycota is:
the black bread mold
Which group of fungie have hyphae that are multinucleate and not divided by septa
Coenocytic
Reproduction in the black bread mold occurs between ____ hyphae
+ and -
The sac fungi are characterized by sexual reproductive structures called:
ascospores
Mycorrhizae benefits plants by
increasing absorpitive surface area of roots
The cell walls of fungi are composed of:
chitin
A ___ is a filament that makes up the vegitative body of most fungi
hypha
members of phylum ___ are the most primitive of the fungi and were perviously calssified as protist
chytridiomycota
In a fungus, a complex multicellular reproductive structure is called
a fruiting body
mushrooms that we eat are technically referred to as
basidiocarp
An example of a unicellular fungus is
a yeast
What makes up most of the mall of an individual mushroom
underground mycelium
One ancestral characterisitc remaining in representatives of the chytridiomycetes is:
flagellated cells
Which of the following is not a characteristic of fungi
cell wall of cellulose
the breakdown of dead organisms is assisted by the fungal production of
enzymes
Most fungal spores are ___ reproductive cells that are produced ____.
nonmotile; sexually or asexually
A fungus that forms a __ within th eouter layers of human skin is the cause of athlete's foot.
mycelium
A ___ is a tangled mat of hyphae
mycelium
lichens are most typically formed by the symbiotic assoscation of an alga or cyanobacterium and:
an ascomycete
An example of a member of phylum Ascomycota is:
more than one of the above (not black bread mold)
___ Is a common chytridiomycete, which exhibits alternation of generation.
allomyces
Which one of the following is mismatched
ascomycota- ascospores
Which statement about penicillium is correct
it is the source of an anitbiotic
Which is not a fungal infection in humans
all are fungal infections in humans
fungi can grow under all of the following conditions except
dry enviroment
Mycorrhiza is an example of
mutualism
Gram positive bacteria react to which of the following, whereas gram-negative bacteria do not?
presence of a chemical stain
Endospores are produced by:
bacteria
Peptidoglycan is
composed of polysaccharids crosslinked with proteins
A rod shaped bacterium is called
bacillus
The archaebacteria can be descrived by all but which one of the following
pathogenic
Most parasitic bacteria cause harm by releasing
toxins
All but which one of the following bacterial structures are external to the cell
plasmid
In bacteria, DNA is found
as a single circular thread, in the nucleoid region
Which of the following bacteria are the least related to the others?
chemosynthetic eubacteria
Tuberculosis is a disease of the
respiratory system
Which of the following comparisons is incorrect?
Chloroplasts and mitochondria
Which statement is not characteristic of bacteria
Some may be completely naked
The type of bacterium most likely to be found in a swamp is
methanogens
All of the following are characteristic of at least some of the bacteria except
multicellularity
Which nutrients are scarce, some bacteria
form endospores
Which of the following allow the bacteria to join together to transfer genes?
pili
Which of the following could be called pathogens
viruses, bacteria, and protozoans
Bacteria
that stain gram-positive have thick peptidoglycan cell walls
Which of the following can bacteria use as an energy source?
hydrogen sulfide, nitrites, sunlight, ammonia
Bacteria can obtain their nutrition by
photosynthesis, chemosynthesis and heterotrophy
Spherical bacteria are called
cocci
The strongest poison known to humans is produced by?
clostridium botulinum
The following human disorders can be caused by bacteria except
malaria
In what way does bacterial binary fission resemble eukarytoic mitosis
genetically identical daughter cells
Borrelia burgdorferi is the cause of
lyme disease
The methane-producing bacteria (methanogens) belong to the
achaebacteria
Traditionally, bacteria have been grouped on the basis of all but which one of the following
mode of nutrition, pathogenicity or nonpathogenicity
The reproduction of microorganisms is self-limiting because
the accumulation of waste products can be toxic, the supply of nutrients may run out, and other organsims may prey on them
The most common process by which one bacterial cell transfers DNA to another is
transformation
Plasmids
are self-reproducing circular molecules of DNA, are sites for inserting gene for amplification, may be transferred between different species of bacteria, may confer the ability to donate genetic material when bacteria conjugate
Which terms accurately describe the achaebacteria
present, anaerobic
Some bacteria avoid being phagocytized by a host's immune system by means of:
their capsule
An ___ bacterium would not be able to survive in the presence of oxygen
obligate anaerobic
When a DNA molecule containing a wrong base at one location in one strand is replicated:
The mutation is corrected by the DNA polymerase enzyme
In the experiments of Griffith, the conversion of non-lethal r-strain bacteria to lethal S-strain bacteria:
was an example of the genetic exchange known as transfromation
The information carried by DNA is incorporated in a code specifed by the:
specific nucleotide sequence of the DNA molecule
How is a single strand of DNA able to serve as a template for the synthesis of another strand?
Nucleotides pair with those of the original strand to form a new strand, hydrogen bonds holding the two strands together are ease to break, allowing one strand
In DNA molecules
the nucleotides are arragned in a linear, unbranched pattern
___, the ends of eukaryotic chromosomes, shorten with every cell replication event
telomeres
Which statement is true?
The hydrogen bonding of cytosine to guanine is an example of complementary base?
The portion of the molecule in box 3 of figure 11-01 is:
a purine
The portion of the molecule in box 5 of figure 11-01 is:
a phosphate
In figure 11-01, the portion of the molecule in box ___ is a pyrimidine
1
The ends of eukarytoic chromosomes can be lengthened by:
telomerase
James Watson and Francis Crick
established double stranded nature of DNA, established the principle of base pairing, explaind how DNA's structure permitted it to be replicated, propsed the concept of the double helix
How are the chromosomes of a eukaryote cell replicated
The linear DNA molecules are replicated from multiple origins of replication
DNA plymerase
is an enzyme, adds new nucleotides to a strand, proofreads DNA strands to see that they are correct, derives energy from ATP for synthesis of DNA strands
The bacteriophages used in Alfred Hershey's and Martha Chase's experiments showed that:
DNA was injected into bacteria
Chargaff determined that DNA from any source contains about the same amount of guanine as ____
cytosine
Which of the following statements about DNA is False
DNA is only found in eukarytoic cells
THe Site on replicating DNA molecule at which the old strands are being separated is known as
replication fork
DNA has two functions: it can self-replicate and it can make non-DNA molecules. DNA is capable of thse because
it nucleotides will form base pairs with both ribose and deoxyribose nucleotides
Which of the follwoing adds new nucleotides to a growing DNA chain
DNA polymerase
WHich enzyme catalyzes the elongation of a DNA strand
DNA polyermase
Why is DNA able to store large amounts of information?
its nucleotides can be arranged in a large number of possible sequences
Replication of DNA
produces two molecules, each of which is half new half old DNA joined lengthwise
The first experimenter(s) to use griffth's transfromation experiment to identify the genetic material in bacteria was
oswald avery
Which of the following nucleotide sequences represents the complement to the DNA strand- AGATCCG?
TCTAGGC
X-ray diffraction studies are used to determine
the three dimensional structure of a molecule
A replication fork
is a y-sahped structure where both DNA strands are replicated simulataneously
SNA replecation occurs during the ___ of the cell cycle
S phse
_____ used x-ray diffraction to provide images of DNA
Franklin
The final product of DNA replication is:
two molecules, each of which contains one new and one old DNA strand
The two molecules that alternate to form the backbone of a polynucleotide chain are:
sugar and phosphate
Hyrogen bonds can form between guanine and ____, and between adenine and ____
cytosine; thymine
In DNA, the genetic information
is contained in each strand
Which of the following best describes semiconservative replication?
A DNA molecule consists of one parental strand and one new strand
The significance of Fred Griffith's experiments in which he used two strains of Streptococu pneumoniae is that
it demostranted that harmless cell shad become permanetly transfomed through a change in the bacterial hereditary system
Which of the following is not an enviromental role of protists?
protists are from large amounts of cellulose
The process in which two paramecia come together after meiosis to exchange parts of their genetic material is called
conjugation
A person who comes downwith malaria can infer that he or she contracted it from
the bite of a mosquito carrying Plasmodium
Pseudopodia are used for
movement
The protists that causes malaria reproduces in the
red blood cells of a human
To which group does Plasmodium belong
apicomplexans
Sleeping sickness is pread by
tsetse flies
the protist disease that can be transmitted by an infected cat is
toxoplasmosis
All protists
have a true nucleus
Refer to the illustration above. The structure that stores and expels water is:
5
Which of the following disease spread by the tsetse fly does the protozoan known as Trypanosoma cause?
African sleeping sickness
You have been given an unkown organism to identify. You find that it is unicellular and has mitochondira.
a nucleus
Members of the kingdom protista have complex cells containing
a nucleus
pseudopodia and cilia: locomostion structures:: food and contractile : vacuoles in Paramecia
food and contractile : vacuoles in Paramecia
An amoeba moves and feeds by extending a temporary extenstion of its cytoplasm called a
pseudopodium
giardiasis: contaminated water::
malaria: mosquito
Disease causing protists are transmitted mainly by:
insects and contaminated water
Which of the following are human diseases caused by protists?
amebiasis, giardiasis, malaria
Giardiasis is a disaease that is pread
through water
Which of the following is not used for movement by protists?
exocytosis
One feature that all protists have in common is:
they are all eukaryotic
The symptoms of malaria
include headache and fatigue, follow a cycle, include severe chills and fever
Euglena is an example of a protist that
is both autotrophic and hetertrophic
green algae: chlorophylls a and b
red algae: rhodopsin
Algae are
found in both fresh and sea water
A "mass of cytoplasm that can ooze around obstacles" is most likely a
slime mold
A pseudoplasmosodium is an __- of a __ slime mold
feeding-stage structure; cellular
Which of the following types of algae are most like plants
multicellular algae
the feeding stage of a plasmodial slime mold can be described as
multinucleate
Which of the following is not characteristic of the phylum Chlorophyta
only unicellular forms
The process in which two paramecia come together after meiosis to exchange parts of their genetic material i scalled
conjugation
dinoflagellates: flagella
amoebas: pseudopodia
Algal blooms are caused by
high nutrient concentrations
Green algae and plants
both have photosynthetic pigments, use starch to sore food, have cell walls
In which of the following enviroments would slimemolds most likely exist
on the floor of a forest
Which of the following is not a cahracterist used to classify algae?
habitat
A group of similar cells organized into a functional unit is called
a tissue
Specialized cells
can carry out their tasks more effectively than cells that must do many tasks
Refer to the illustration above. organism 2
exhibits radial symmetry
Refer to the illustration above. Organism 1
is bilaterally symmetrical
If a marine invertebrate were placed into freshwater, it would have difficulty surviving because:
it would have difficulty with osmoregulation
An animal with bi lateral symmetry
has left and right sides and usually displayscephalization
Which of the following is found in vertebrates but not in invertebrates?
a dorsal nerve cord
symmetrical phyla include all of the following except
mollusks
Although corals can capture prey, they also depend on ___ for nutrition
a symbiotic relationship with the photosynthetic zooxanthellae
During which of the following stages of animal development are the germ layers formed?
gastrulation
A major differencebetween the development of invertebrates and that of vertebrates is that
most invertebrates undergo indirect development, while most vertebrates undergo direct development
Which of the following attributes is not used to characterize animals?
none of the above.. all of the attributes are typical of animals
Which statement best supports why animals most likely evolved in the ocean
They did not require a skeleton for support, reproduction was independent of internal fertilization, the effects of gravity were minimal, osmoregulation was not difficult
Which of the following are in the calls Anthozoa
Corals
Sponges are believed to have arisen from the choanoflagellates because they possess
collar cells
From an evolutionary prespective, true nerve cellsa re first see in the phylum
Cnidaria
All of the following are protostosmes excep:
Echinodermata
Major trends in the evolution of animals include - Kingdom Animalia
all of these
Which of the following group of animals is sessile
sponge
All but which of the following statements are true? - Kingdom Animalia
All of these statements are true.
Creeping behavior and a mouth located towaard the head end of the body may have led, in some evolutionary lines, to
concentration of sense organs in the head region
Animals probably evolved from
colonial protists
The head end of an animal is termed its
anterior end
Determinate cleavage takes place in ____ adn is characterized by a pattern of development where the ultimate fate of each cell is
protostomes; fixed early in the developmental process
two deuterostome phyla are
echinoderms and chorddates
Cnidarians and flatworms
are acoelomate
The portuguese-man- of war belongs to the class
hydrozoa
Bilateral symmetry
evolved along with a corresponding trend toward cephalization
Which of the following is found only in animals
muscle tissue and nervous tissue
The larvae of some cnidarians are known as ___ Larvae
planula
A true body cavity lies completely within the germ layer called the
mesoderm
Cephalization
is cahracterized by the concentration of sensory and brain structures in the anterior end
All the members of kingdom animalia
all of the above
In cnidarians, nematocysts are houed in specialized cells called
cnidocytes
Most sponges are __ meaning that one individual can produce both male and female gametes
hermaphrodictic
Which of the following is not a characteristic of the largest phylum of invertebrates, the arthropods
all of the above are characteristics of the arthropods
Unlike most other animals, sponges lack
a digestive tract, a symmetrical body plan, and nerve cells
Members of the phylum ___ are the simplest organisms that have a separate mouth and anus
nematoda
the immature gut during gastrulation is called
archenteron
Cnidarians are ____, meaning they have two tisure layers
diploblastic
Your abdominal cavity, which contains most of your major organs
is a coelom lined by mesoderm
Which of the following words are incorrectly paired- Kingdom animalia
schizocoelous development-deuterostome
Which of the following is not a vertebrate adaptation to life on land
brain
Which of the following groups does not have tissues
flatworms
The primary problem animals faced in adapting to life on land was
the dry atmosphere
which of the following displays radial symmetry
a cnidarian
In Jelly fish, digestion occurs
in a central cavity with a single opening
Which of the following is an incorrect match
endoderm- muscular system
May animals have a head that is located at the _____ end of their body and a tail that is located at the ____ end of their body
anterior; posterior
Which of the following represents the posible genotype(s
) resulting from a cross between two individuals that are heterozygous (Bb)
BB, Bb, and bb
In radishes, red and white are the pure-breeding colors and long and round are the pure- breeding shapes, while the hybrids are purple and oval. The F2 generations of a cross between long and white and red and round will produce
Purple round, purple long, whit oval, and red oval offsprings in equal numbers as wells as other phenotypes
WHat is the probability that two lizards that are heterozygous for tripes on their tails (Ss) will produce an offspring that is homozygous for no stripes (ss)?
1/4
Which of the following represents the possible genotype resulting from a cross between and individual homozygous for black hair (BB) and an individual homozygous for blond hair (bb)?
Bb only
In Chihuahuas, black coat color (b) is dominant over red (b), and solid color (s) is dominant over spotted (s). A cross of Bb Ss with bb ss would produce the phenotypic ratio
1:1:1:1
Two Martians fall in love and marry. One martian is homozygous for red eyes and the other is heterozygous. The recessive eye color is purple. What are the chances that the alian couple will have a child with red eyes?
1
What use the possible phenotypes of the children if their mother has Type A blood and the father has type AB blood?
A, B, AB
An incompletely dominant gene controls the color of chickens so that BB produces black, Bb procues a slate-gray color called blue, annd bb produces splashed white. A second gene controls comb shaped, with the dominant gene R producing a rose comb and r producing a single comb. If a pure- breeding black chicken with a rose comb is mated to a splashed white chicken witha single comb in the F2 generation, What fraction of the offspring will be blue with rose comb?
3/16
Susan, a mother with type B blood has a child with type O blood. She claims that Craig who was type A blood is the father. He claims that he cannot possible be the father. Furhter blood test ordered by the judge reveal that craig is AA. The judge rules that
Craig is right and does not have to pay child support
Two martians fell in love and marry. One martian is homozygous for red eyes and the other is heterozygous. The recessive eye color is purple. What is the probability that hey will have a child with purple eyes.
0
What are the predirected phenotypes of the male children from the union of a woan who is heterozygous for hemophilia and a man who has normal blood clotting characteristics
1 hemophilia: 1 normal
Breeding a yellow dog with a brown dog produced puppies with both yellow and brown hairs intermixed.. this is an example of
codominance
Mating an idicidual expressing a dominant phenotype but whose genotype is unkown, with an individual expressing the corresponding recessive phenotype is an example of
a test cross
In humans, assume that brown eyes id dominant and blue eyes is recessive. If two brown- eyed individuals have a child with blue eyes, that means
both parents are heterozygous for eye color
The proability that two genes will be separated by crossing over is related to
the distance between the two genes on the chromosome
In red (RR) is crossed with white (rr) and produces a pink flower (Rr), and tall D is dominant to dwarf (d), the F2 phenotypic ratio from a cross of RR dd with rr DD would be
9:3:3:1
The physical apperance of an organism for a given trait is termed
phenotype
Which of the following represents the possible genotypes resulting from a cross between and individual homozygous (BB) and one heterozygous (Bb) individual?
BB and Bb
In the second generation of a cross of DD RR and dd rr, the most common genotype would be
Dd Rr
The sex of most mammals, birds, and insects is determine by
sex chromosomes
An incompletely dominant gene controls the color of chickens so that BB produces black, Bb procues a slate-gray color called blue, annd bb produces splashed white. A second gene controls comb shaped, with the dominant gene R producing a rose comb and r producing a single comb. If a pure-bredding black chicken with a rose comb is mated to a splashed white chicken with a single comb in F2 generation, what fraction of the offspring will be blue with single comb
1/8
In radishes, red and white are the pure breeding colors and long and round are the pure bredding shapes while the hybrids are purple and oval. The cross of a red oval with a pruple oval will produce all but which of the following phenotpes
white and long
In Mendel's time, most people believed that
the characteristics of parents were blended in the offspring
Using standard conventions for naming alleles, which of the following pairs is correct
tt- homozygous
A diploid individual has a maximum of ___ different alleles for a particular locus
two
Mendel verified true-bredding pea plants for certain traits before undertaking his experiments. The term "true-breeding" refers to:
genetically pure lines
Short hair (L) is dominant to long hair (l). If a short-haired animal of unknown origin is crossed with a long haired animal and they produce one long-haired and one short-haired offspring, this would indicate that
the short-haired animal was not pure-breeding
Genes that tend to be inherited together are said to be
linked
What are the possible genotypes of a female child from the union of a woman who is heterozygous for hempphilia and a man who was normal blood clotting characteristics
XHXH or XHX
What are the possible phenotypes of the cildren if the mother;s genotype is AO for blood type and the father is BO?
A, B, AB, O
In cocker spaniels, black coat color (B) is dominat over red (b), and solid color (S) is dominat over spotted (s). If a red male was crossed with a black female to produce a red spoted puppy, the genotypes of the parents (with male genotype first) would be
bb Ss X Bb Ss
The height of pea plants from a cross between parent plants heterozygous for height, in which tail is dominan, would be
2 tall : 1 short
The separation of alleles of a gene takes place during
anaphase 1 of meiosis
In radishes, red and white are the pure-breeding colors and long and round are the pure-bredding shapes, while the hybrids are purple and oval. The cross of a red long radish and a white round radish will produce an F2 generation in which
all of these
Two martians fall in love and marry. One martian is homozygous for red eyes and the other is heterozygous. The recessive eye color is purple. What i the probability that the alian coupe will have a child that is heterozygous for eye color?
1/2
In radishes, red and white are the pure-bredding colors and long and round are the pure bredding shapes while the hybrids are purple and oval. The cross of white oval and a purple oval will produce more
purple oval that purple long
In peas, Mendel found that tall plants are yellow peas are dominant. The phenotype for a pea plant with the genotype TtYy would be
tall with yellow peas
When certain medium height hybrid plants were crossed, they produces offspring that were dwarf, medium, and tall in a ration of 1:2:1 this is an example of:
a polygenic trait
The term "dominant" meants that:
the dominant phenotype shows up in 100% of the offsprings in all generations
Mendel' princile of segregation states that
alleles separate from each other before forming gametes
A pear plant with the genotype Aa can produce gamates containg
either A or a
Which of the following represents the possible genotypes resulting from a cross between and individual heterozygous (B) and one that is homozygous (bb)>
Bb, and bb
The physical location of a particular gene on a chromosome is called
a locus
If a child belonged to blood type O, he or she could not have been produced by which set of parents>
Type AB mother type O father
An organism with the genotype of AaXx can produce gametes containing __ if the two genes are unlinked
either AX, Ax, aX, ax
___ are alternative forms of a gene that govern the same feature, such as eye color, and occupy corresponding positions on homologous chromosomes
Alleles
Why is color- blindness more common in males than in females
all of the above
Assume short hair (L) is dominant to long hair (l) and black hair (B) is dominant to brown (b). If you found a black short haird animal, you could determine its genotype by crossing it to an animal with a genotype of
ll bb
the genotype for a pea plant that is omozyguys recessive for both height and pear color would be
ttyy
Mating a true-bredding pink rose plant with a true-breeding pink rose plant will produce:
only plants with pink roses
An example of epistasis is
coat color in labrador retrievers