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895 terms

Chapter 3

Which area of science in voles the study of the organs and systems of the body?
What three basic parts of cells are found in all human cell ?
Neucleus, cytoplasm, cell membrane
The control center of cell activities is called the:
The outer surface of the cell that encloses the protoplasm is known as the :
Cell membrane
Most of the activities or production of the cell take place in the :
Which of the following NOT an example of metabolisms?
Controlling the basic functions and activities of the cell
The process of building up larger moleclules from small ones is:
The release of energy within a cell necessary for the performance of specific body functions is called:
What is the role of epith tissue?
Cover and protect body surfaces and internal organs
Which type of tissue coordinates body functions in addition to carrying messages to and from the brain and spinal cord?
A sparate body structure composed of cells of two or more different tissues is a(n):
A group of body structures that, together, perform one or more vital functions of the body is a (n):
The skin makes up the :
Integumentary system
Which system is the physical foundation of the body?
Skeletal system
The point at which two or more bones are joined together is called a:
Osteology is the area of science that is the study of :
What is the technical term for bones:
Long bones are found in the :
Bones is the hardest structure in the body and is composed of 1/3 organic matter and :
2/3 mineral matter
Which of the following is NOT a function of the skeletal system?
Sending and receiving body messages
Which body system has the function to give the body shape and strength?
Skeletal system
All of the following are bones of the cranium EXCEPT:
Mary is performing a scalp massage on a client. Which of the following bones would be most affected by the massage Mary is offering?
Which system has the function of surrounding and protecting internal organs?
Skeletal system
The parietal bones form the:
Crown and upper sides of the head
The two bones located on either side of the head above the ears and below the parietal bones are the:
Temporal bones
What is the largest bone of the facial skeleton?
The upper cheek and bottom of the eye socket are formed by the malar, also called:
The smallest bones of the facial skeleton that form the front part of the inner, bottom wall of the eye socket are the:
The seven bones that the top part of the spinal column are called:
Cervical vertebrae
The large, flat bone extending from the midle of the back upward to the joint where it attaches to the clavicle is called the :
The bone located on the little finger side of the lower forearm is the:
The eight carpals held together with ligaments make up the :
The five long, thin bones that form the palm of the hand are the :
Myology is the study of the :
One function of the muscular system includes supporting the :
Skeletal system
The muscles that respond to commands regulated by will are referred to as:
Which type of muscle is responsible for permitting a person to change the pace from walking to running?
The non-moving portion of the muscle attached to bone or other fixed muscle is the :
What tissue contracts when stimulated to produce motion?
Muscles affected by massage are generally manipulated from the :
Insertion to origin
The epicranius is formed by two muscles called the frontalis and the :
The muscle that controls the eyebrows by drawing them in and downward is the:
What muscle cirles the eyesocket and closes the eyelid ?
Orbicularis oculi
Which muscle is located between the eyebrows across the bridge of the nose and is responsible for drawing down and wrinkling the area across the bridge of the nose ?
Which muscle circles the mouth and is responsible for puckering and wrinkling the lip ?
Oris orbicularis
Raising the upper lip is accomplished by which of the following muscles ?
Quadratus labii superioris
What muscle pulls the lower lip down or to the side ?
Quadratus labii inferioris
The coordination of which two muscles enables the body to perform chewing (mastication)?
Temporlis and masseter
Which muscles are used when nodding "yes" or "no"?
Sternocleido mastoideus
Drawing the head back, rotating the shoulder blades and controlling the swing of the arm are functions controlled by the latissimus dorsi and the:
The muscle that turns the palm of the hand up is the :
Which muscle bends the wrist and closes the fingers?
Which muscle straightens the fingers and wrist?
When a professional cosmetologist performs a massage manipulation, what system is generally directly influenced and stimulated?
When performing high stress activities such as excercise, which system of the body is responsible for maintaining the oxygen supply to the muscles and cells?
The heart muscle is entirely encased in a membrane called the:
The lower chambers of the heart include the :
Left and right ventricle
What is the sticky, salty fluid that circulates through the body bringing nourishment and oxygen to all parts of the body?
Cells that fight bacteria and other foreign substances are called leukocytes or :
White blood cells
What component of blood gives the body the ability to stop the flow of blood when protective layer of the skin is broken?
The fluid part of the blood is called:
Thick-walled vessels that carry blood away from the heart are:
Which vessels are dark in color because they carry oxygen-poor blood?
Which arteries supply blood to the face, head and neck?
Common carotid arteries
The occipital artery supplies blood to the:
Back of the head
Which artery supplies blood to the lower portion of the face, including the mouth and nose?
External maxillary
Which artery supplies the sides of the nose with blood?
The chin and lower lip are supplied with blood by which artery?
Which artery supplies blood to the lower lip?
Inferior labial
Which smaller branch of the external maxillary artery supplies blood to the upper lip and septum?
Superior labial
Which artery supplies to the crown and sides of the head?
Which artery supplies blood to parts of the forehead and eyes?
The brain, spinal cord, spinal and cranial nerves make up the:
Central nervous system
Which of the following term describes the largest nerve tissue in the human body?
What structure filters out toxic substances, like bacteria, and adds antibodies to he lymph fluid?
Lymph nodes
Which body system may display localized swelling as a result of an infection?
The nervous system is made up of the central nervous system, the peripheral nervous system and the:
Autonomic nervous system
Located at the end of each axon and responsible for sending messages away from the nerve cell in the form of nerve impulses is a:
Nerve terminal
Another name for a nerve cell is :
Which of the following list of components works in harmony to receive and interpret stimuli and sends the resulting impulses to the appropriate tissues, muscles and organs?
Brain, spinal cord and nerves
Which nerves carry messages from the brain to the muscles?
The trifacial nerve is also known as the:
Fifth cranial nerve
The cranial nerve responsible for transmitting facial sensations to the brain is the :
Which of the following terms is the main nerve branch to the top one-third of the face?
The primary motor nerve of the face is the:
Facial nerve
A division of the ophthalmic branch that effects the upper eyelids, eyebrow, forehead and scalp is the :
Which nerve extends to the lower eyelids, side of the noses, upper lip and mouth?
What branch of the facial nerve extends to the upper muscles of the cheek?
Which of the following nerves control the mouth muscles oris orbicularis, quadratus labii superioris and mentalis?
What branch of the facial nerve extends to the muscles of the temple, the side of the forehead, eyebrow, eyelid and upper cheek?
Which branch of the cervical nerve extends into the side and front of the neck to the breastbone?
Cervical cutaneous
Which nerve extends down the little finger side of the arm and into the palm of the hands?
Which nerve extends down the thumb side of the arm into the palm of the hand?
Jane, a skin care client, comments after a facial with massage service that her tight fatigued muscles now feel relaxed and smoothed. Which of the following statements describes what caused this effect?
Stimulation of sensitive nerve tissues
Why is peristalsis important in the overall functioning of the digestive system?
Propels food down the esophagus
The gastrointestinal system includes all of the following EXCEPT:
Lymph nodes
Why is the respiratory system important to the functioning of the body?
Inhalation of oxygen
Breathing through the nose is healthier that breathing through the mouth because the nose:
Contains mucus membranes that filter out dust
Which system is comprised of glands that manufacture chemical substances called hormones?
Light, heat, chemical and magnetic changes are all produced by:
Which of the following materials does NOT allow a current to pass through it?
An ampere is a unit of electric:
How many milliamperes equal one ampere?
A volt is a unit of electric:
A unit of electrical resistance is called a(n):
A measure of how much electric energy is being used is known as a :
A constant electric current flowing in one direction is called a(n):
Direct current
Which of the following devices breaks the flow of current when an overload occurs?
Circuit breaker
Which of the following steps should NOT be followed to break the circuit when a person comes in contact with an electric current?
Touch the person to ground the circuit
The application of special currents (or modalities) that have a variety of effects on the skin is called:
When performing an electrotherapy procedure, what apparatus or current conductor is used to bring the current from the appliance to the client's skin?
The direct current used in electrotherapy treatments is :
The electrode that is negatively charged during and electrotherapy treatment is known as a(n):
What temporary effect will a negative electrode pole produce when applying Galvanic Current during an electrotherapy treatment?
Increase in blood flow
Which of the following is NOT a temporary effect of the positive pole of Galvanic Current?
Softens tissues
Which electrotherapy treatment can cause sebum to be broken down or blackheads to the liquified, as in deep-pore cleansing?
When using Galvanic Current on clients in a salon what precaution must a cosmetologist take in order to prevent injury to the client?
Do not use over an area having broken capillaries
Faradic Current is used chiefly to cause:
Muscle contractions
Tesla, a high frequency current, is known as the :
High frequency and alterning current are characteristic of which type of electrotherapy?
An alternating current that can be adjusted to different voltages to produce heat is :
High frequency
If the client is holding the active electrode while the cosmetologist manually stimulates the are being treated what method of Tesla Current is being used?
Indirect application
Which of the following will produce a mild, stimulating sensation while using high frequency current?
Slightly separating the electrode from the skin
Treatment with light rays is called:
Light therapy
Which of the following has the longest wavelength?
Infrared rays
Which type of light can be broken into its individual wavelengths by a prism?
A salon owner wants to mimic natural sunlight as closely as possible in the salon reception area. Which type of light would most likely be used to accomplish this requirement?
Pure heat rays are produced by:
Infrared rays
Which of the following is a benifit of using infrared light during a facial?
Increases circulation
The average distance an infrared lamp should be placed during a facial is about:
Which of the following are also known
Which of the following benefits is derived from UV light?
Small does tan the skin
Small doses of ultraviolet light may help the body produce:
Vitamin D
Bacteria that cause skin infection can be killed by:
Ultraviolet light
Before using ultraviolet light on a client, the skin or scalp should be:
The term used to identify anything that occupies space is called:
Which of the following is NOT an example of a physical change?
Rusting of a nail
Melting ice changes water from a solid to a liquid. Boiling water changes water from a liquid to gas. These are example of what type of change?
Atoms make up elements. Elements make up matter. Therefore, all matter is comprised of :
All matter that is living or more once was living contains carbon and deals with:
Organic chemistry
Basic substances that cannot be broken down into simpler subtances are called
Two or more of the same atoms joined together by a chemical bond is a(n):
Atoms that are the same form a(n):
When two hydrogen atoms combine with one oxygen atom, the result is water, which is called a(n):
Carbo, nitrogen, oxygen and hydrogen form the basic of :
Amino acids
What is created when amino acids join together in chain?
What make up the primary composition of hair?
Which bonds found in the hair can be easily broken by heat or water?
Hydrogen bonds
The bonds found within hair that help organize protein chains in order ot build hair are called:
Side bonds
What is the side bond that is of the greatest concern to the cosmetologist?
Disulfide bond
Which of the following statements describes how human hair is formed?
Protein chains connect to other protein chains
Substances of acidic or alkaline nature dissoleve in water and/or contain:
A solution that has more positive hydrogen ions than negative hydroxide ions is:
A pH of 5 is how many more times acidic than a pH of 6?
All of the following statement regarding pH are true EXCEPT:
A solution is acidic if it has more negative hydroxide ions
Distilled water with pH of 7 is considered:
In what pH range is skin and hair?
4.5 to 5.5
In the process of making a cup of instant hot chocolate, what would the powdered chocolate represented?
A mixture of two or more kinds of molecules, evenly dispersed would be a(n):
A substance that is able to dissolve another substance is called a(n):
Mixtures of organic subtances and a medicinal agent are:
What is formed when two or more non-mixable substances are united with the help of a binder?
Mixtures of fats and oils converted to fatty acids by heat and then purified, fall under which of the following classifications?
The instruction on a product state to shake well before use, which indicates this product is probably a(n):
Which of the following classifications would identify emulsions that are generally used by cosmetologists?
Oil-in water emulsion
Which of the following cosmetic classifications requires sifting until free of coarse gritty particles?
Which of the following terms means non-mixable?
Cleaning the hair and scalp and removing all foregign matter without adversely affecting either the scalp or hair is called:
The primary ingredient of most shampoos is :
Deionized water
Which of the following statements about surfactants is NOT true?
Prevents shampoo from lathering
If water contains certain salts of calcium, magnesium and other metals it is classified as:
Hard water
What is the name given to purifying water by passing it through a porous substance?
What is the pH of a client's natural hair that has been permed, colored, cut and styled properly within the past few months?
4.5 TO 5.5
Which of the following shampoo types is formulated to have the same pH as the hair and skin?
Acid-balanced shampoo
Which of the following shampoos would NOT be used for chemically treated or damaged hair?
Plain shampoo
Which shampoo would most likely be used to remove product build-up?
Clarifying shampoo
Which shampoo would generally be recommended for an individual who is ill and bedridden?
Powder dry shampoo
Which of the following shampoo types is designed to treat scalp and hair problems or disorders?
Medicated shampoo
Which shampoo contains temporary color molecules that adhere to the hair and deposit color?
Color shampoo
Which conditioner will penetrate into the damaged hair shaft and deposit proteins in to the cortex?
Body-building conditioner
Using a protein conditioner would help achieve all of the following results EXCEPT:
Increase new hair growth
The main ingredients found in most neutralizers are:
Hydrogen peroxide, sodium perborate or sodium bromate
The color molecules in permanent hair color enter the hair with the aid of:
An alkaline substance
What occurs during oxidation?
A substance loses an electron and oxgen is acquired
Oxidants, such as hydrogen peroxide, have the ability to release:
Which of the following components containted within temporary colors?
Certified colors
Which term below identifies the change assigned to an oxidative hair color procedure?
Chemical change
Ammonia, a colorless gass with a strong odor, is composed of hydrogen and:
What would be used to determine if a bottle of hydrogen peroxide is still potent if the purchase date was no longer on the label?
Who is the party responsible for distribution of Material Safety Data Sheets ?
Which of these description is NOT a guideline to be used when creating a resume?
Provide at least eight pages of information
Which of the following interview question is illegal for an employer to ask for the purpose of discrimination?
When were you born?
The least important factor in deciding whether to accept a position is :
The size of the salon
One of the most effective techniques in building a clientele is to :
Give out business cards to potential clients
Making a future appointment with a client while they are still in the salon is an effective tool for building a clientele and is referred to as:
Prebooking the client
An important aspect to remember when managing money is to:
Create a budget
Which of the following terms refers to all money owed?
Net worth is calculated by subtracting liabilities from which of the following?
The type of bussiness ownership in which two or more persons share all costs opening, operating and maintaining the bussiness is a:
Which of the following business types is owned by the shareholders and formed under legal guidelines?
All of the following items should be important requirements in the process of salaon planning EXCEPT:
The distance from the Social Security office
Compliance with all local, state/province and federal rules, regulations and laws is the responsibility of the:
Salon owner
The ideal salon arrangement has an efficient traffic pattern providing:
The least steps for the client and stylist to travel
To be granted future loans, it is improtants to pay loans on time and avoid:
Which type of insurance protects the salon owner from financial loss due to an employee's negligence?
U.S Social Security and Canadian Pension taxes are planned saving/retirement funds, and the money is collected by the:
U.S and Canadian governments
Which of the following items must be reported to the IRS as employee income?
Tips recieved by an employee
The tax based on the profits(earnings) of a business is known as:
Income tax
All payments received from clients for services performed and home care products purchased is known as:
Renting or leasing a styling station from a building owner would represent which of the following situtions:
Independent contractor
Keep all records of daily sales and services for:
5 to 7 years
What percentage of the total salon expenses generally represents compensation for the salon owner and employees?
A stylist earning additional payment over and above the normal paycheck would be receiving what type of compensation?
Salary plus commission
What is generally considered the best form of advertising?
Word of mouth
Which form of advertising involves sending postcards or flyers
Direct mail advertising
Which of the following is vital in order to allow close management of products purchased for retailing in the salon?
Inventory control system
In many cases, the first person to greet a client is the :
The stylist's name, sheduled service, client's name, date and client's phone number should all be included in the :
Appointment brook
The Term given for selling products for client home care is:
To become an asset to any salon staff the stylist should do all of the following EXCEPT:
Make negative comments
Which of the following is NOT one of the main purposes of hair?
The technical term for the study of hair is called:
When looking through a microscope, which portion of the hair would display living cells?
Hair bulb
Hair grows from a tube-like"pocket" called a root sheath or a(n):
The diameter of a hair fiber will be the same as:
The inside diameter of the hair follicle
What is the natural flow of hair determined by?
The angle of the follicle
The two primary parts of hair are the hair fiber and the:
Hair root
What is the protion of hair that extends above the skin's surface?
Hair fiber
Which of the following resembles the shapes of a golf club and covers the follicle at the lower portion of the hair root?
Located at the bottom of the follicle and supplying nourishment to the germinal matrix is the:
The three major layers the hair are the medulla, cortex and which of the following?
The pigment that gives hair its color is found primarily in the:
The hair shaft consisting of unique protein structures that gives hair elasticity is called the :
The outer covering of the hair shaft made up of overlapping layers of transparent scales is called the:
Hair that has been pulled out from the roots can grow back under which of the following circumstance?
The papilla has not been destroyed
Oil glands are attached to the side of the:
Root sheath or follicle
The central core of the hair shaft sometimes missing in fine or very fine hair is called the:
Which of the following items helps protect the hair and skin from becoming too dry?
What is formed when sebum prodiced by the oil glands mixes with the body's perspiration?
Acid mantle
The muscle that causes the hair to stand on end when a person is scared or cold is known as the:
Arrector pili
Hair is made up primarily of :
Which of the following is known as the active growing stage of hair?
Anagen stage
The active growing stage of hair lasts from:
2 to 6 years
Catagen, a brief transitional phase, lasts for what amount of time?
Only a few weeks
The hair growth stage when all cell divison stops is the:
Catagen stage
The resting stage of hair growth when the hair bulb has no attached roots sheath is referred to as the :
Telogen stage
Human hair, on the average, grows about:
1/2" per month
The lips, soles of the feet, palms of the hands and eyelids do not have:
Cilia is the technical term for:
Eyelash hair
The cross-section, or diameter, of the hair shaft is much larger in coarse hair than which of the following?
Fine hair
Which of the following is the hard, resistant layer of protein that protects the hair shaft?
The large variety of hair color is influenced by the amount and distribution of:
Eumelanin and pheomelanin
What is the lack of pigmentation in the hair and skin called?
Gray hair is caused by a(n):
Reduced color pigment, melanin, in the cortex layer of the hair
The Process of hair turning gray is usually caused by:
The natural aging process
The degree of coarseness or fineness of the hair fiber is referred to as:
The number of active hair follicles per square inch on the scalp refers to:
The amount of moisture able to be absorbed by hair is its:
If the layers of the cuticle are very close together the hair has which type of porosity?
Extreme porosity describes hair that has been damaged by the enviroment or :
Which of the following refers to the ability of hair to stretch and return to its original shape without breaking?
Wet hair is able to be strectched to what percent of its length?
40% to 50%
Small cracks starting in the cuticle and spliting the hair entirely are known as brittle hair, fragilitis crinium or:
Lumps or swelling along the hair shaft is known as trichorrhexis nodosa or :
Knotted hair
Which of following is a condition in which alternating bands of gray and dark hair exist?
Ringed hair
A cosmetologist may have to remove excess hair from areas where there is abnormal coverage, a condition known as:
Removal methods for hypertrichosis range from tweezing to electrolysis, depending on all of the following factor EXCEPT:
Cosmetologist's preference
A disorder that refers to an overabundance of epithelial cells that have accmulated on the scalp or fallen to the shoulders is known as dandruff or:
A disorder that refers to thick, crusty patches of red irritated scalp is know as:
Pediculosis capitis simplex
The medical term for greasy or waxy dandruff is :
Pityriasis steatoides
A red, circular patch of small blisters caused by a vegetable parasite is also known as tinea or:
An infestation of head lice on the scalp is called:
Pediculosis capitis
How should a cosmetologist handle a situation when areas of enlarged open follicles surrounded by clusters of red spots, indicating tinea capitis are observed?
Refer the client to a physician
What scalp disease might be present if prior to a service several dry, yellow, encrusted areas on the scalp are noticed along with a peculiar odor?
Tinea favosa
Red, watery vesicles or pus-filled areas caused by an itch mite burrowing under the skin are know as:
Which hair color generally has the highest number of hairs per square inch on the head?
A condition in which beads or nodes form on the hair shaft is called:
Long, thick pigmented hair such as scalp and eyebrow hair is referred to as:
Hair follicles that are predetermined to produce short, fine, non-pigmented hair that cover most of the body are called:
Short, fine, non-pigmented hair replaced with terminal hair around the time of:
What is the average amount of daily hair loss?
40 to 100 strands
Alopecia, or excessive hair loss, may be caused by any one of the following EXCEPT:
Parasitic organism
The most common form of hair loss in both men and women is :
Androgenetic alopecia
In androgenetic alopecia, a combination of heredity, hormones and age causes:
Shrinking or miniaturization of follicles
Which procedural step is generally used to determine if hair loss may be identified as androgenetic alopecia?
Ask questions about family history
There is a gradual conversion from terminal hair follicles to vellus-like follicles in clients with:
androgenetic alopecia
In men, made pattern baldness takes the shape of:
horseshoe-shaped fringe
A smaller diameter ponytail on female clients is a sign of:
androgenetic alopecia
Various hair loss identification systems identify which of the following?
pattern and density of the hair loss
The normal temporary hair loss occuring at the conclusion of pregnancy is:
postpartum alopecia
Sudden hair loss in round or irregular patches without the display of an inflamed scalp is referred tp as:
alopecia areata
The premature shedding of hair in the resting phase which can be the result of childbirth, shock, drug intake or fever is:
telogen effluvium
Hair loss caused by excessive pulling or twisting on the hair or by chemical damage is called:
traumatic alopecia
Brushing the hair prior to a shampoo service accomplishes all of the following EXCEPT:
decreasing blood circulation
Which of the following types of hair is likely to tangle more easily?
chemically treated hair
Scalp massage involes manipulations performed on the scalp to relax the muscles and stimulate:
blood circulation
Avoid giving a scalp massage prior to all of the following service EXCEPT:
shampooping healthy hair
For medical and comfort purposes during a shampoo service, it is often recommended that elderly client:
lean forward into the shampoo bowl
Which of the following steps would occur the latest when performing a wet hair service inclusive of draping, shampooing and conditioning?
applying shampoo
At what point should the condition of the client's hair and scalp be examined when performing a shampoo?
before shampooing the hair
All of the following are considerations in design decisions EXCEPT:
choice of music
When determining body proportion, which of the following descriptions, should be taken into consideration?
existing hairstyle
Which of the following is the standard proportion between the head and body of a woman that most artist use?
1 to 7
When determining facial shape, which of the following is NOT a consideration?
anlysis of the least dominant area
Three-sectioning is an effective way to measure the proportions of the:
When three-sectioning the facial area, the middle or second section includes:
the middle of the eyebrows to the tip of the nose
Which facial shape looks goods with almost any hairstyle, length or texture?
The front hairline and jaw are almost horizontal in which facial shape?
A stylist should NOT accentuate the narrowness at the temples and width at jawline in what type of facial shape?
Which of the following should NOT be considered if the client has a diamond facial shape?
adding width at the cheekbones
Which of the following guidelines is true if the client has a heart facial shape?
leave fullness at the nape
Which of the following describes the term "profile"?
an outline of the face from the side
Straight, convex and concave are terms used in design that refer to which of the following?
Adding volume to the fringe area and will visually shrink the length of the nose in which profile?
A dominant, protruding forehead and chin with a small nose are characteristics of a:
concave profile
Which of the following is true regarding design decision about clients who wear glasses?
select large glasses for a large face
Hair texture refers to the feel of the hair and the hair strand:
Which of the following terms does NOT describe hair texture?
What type of hair texture creates a wide silhouette and generally holds a style for a longer period of time?
curly and coarse
Client with light density generally won't have enough:
fullness for longer designs
A natural hair growth pattern determines the:
angle and direction the hair grows
A hairstyle that does not draw attention might be preferred by which type of clients?
Wearing a coordinated outfit would fall into which of the following style categories?
A casual and comfortable clothing style may also be described as:
low maintenance
It is said that 80% of a hair designer's success is based on the ability to gain rapport and:
communication skills
Which of the following is NOT one of the three major design elements?
The outline or silhouette of an object is know as:
Lines that are at a right angle to the horizon and add the visual illusion of length are called:
vertical lines
Which visual illusion is created by using horizontal lines?
Which line direction leads the eye to a focal points?
Which of the following lines would be used to soften an angular face?
The surface appearance of the hair identified by whether it is curly or straight, smooth or layered is called:
Small texture patterns are an example of which texture speed?
The number of textures within a hairstyle should generally be limited to:
Warm color tend to do which of the following?
attract the eye
Light colors seem to come forward while dark colors seem to :
A design pattern in which an element changes gradually in an ascending or descending scale is referred to as:
Which design principle has a pattern in whicn an element has a relationship of opposites that creat interest, variety and excitement?
Balance in a design is identified by which of the following definitions?
a state of equilibrium between contrasting, opposite or interacting elements in the design
What type of balance is created when the weight is positioned unequally from a center axis?
asymmetrical balance
The foundation of every haircut is considered to be:
Which of the following lines are parallel to the horizon and create a feeling of maximum weight or stability?
The lines used in haircutting that create the illusion of movement and excitement are called:
diagonal lines
The surface feel of each hair strand determines which of the following?
Cutting the hair at 0 degree projection create the effect of a solid form or a(n):
blunt effect
What type of form would result from using 45 degree projection or elevation angle?
A layered cut or 90 degree cut is know as a(n):
uniformly layered form
All of the following are true about the uniformly layered form EXCEPT:
rectangular or oval shape
Which of the following cuttng implements is used to create a clean, blunt edge?
When cutting with a razor all of following results are achieved EXCEPT:
regular alternation of short and long lengths
Which finger should be placed in the finger grip to control the still blade when holding shear?
The moveable blade of the shears is controlled by the:
thumb grip
To hold the comb and shears in the the same hand without jeopardizing the client's safety, release the thumb grip and:
close your palm over the shears
Taper shears, also known as thinning shears, are used on the ends of the hair to:
remove bulk
When using electric clippers, the attachment that allows the hair to be cut to one exact length is the:
A trimmer, also known as an edger, a tool used to:
outline and refine the hairline
As it cuts hair the moveable blade of the clippers moves:
from side to side
Which tool controls short perimeter lengths when cutting against the skin?
barber comb
The area all around the hairline is referred to as the:
The term used to describe deviding the head into workable areas for the purpose of control is called:
The most natural looking result of the line is achieved when cutting the hair in which of the following head positions?
Which head position when cutting hair results in an inclination or a slight graduated effect?
tilted forward
What type of distribution results in a 90 degree angle from its parting?
The apex refers to what part of the head?
What term, also known as elevations, is the angle at which the hair is held in relation to the curve of the head prior to cutting?
Which of the following angles best represents low projection (elevation)?
0 degree to 30 degree
Projecting the hair below 90 degree would:
build weight
Which line is considered to be the artistic guideline while cutting hair?
design line
A stationary design line is a guide to where all length are directed and is:
A weight area in a graduated form could be described as a :
concentration of lengths
Which of the following term identifies the technique used to check the accuracy of a haircut by using the opposite parting pattern?
A design line that is used as a lengh guide for cutting graduated, layered and square form is referred to as:
Cutting shorter lengths within the form to reduce bulk and create support and mobility is called:
Texturizing reduces bulk without:
shortenting the overall length appearance of the hair
A technique performed on the ends of the hair to reduce bulk, allow for mobility, soften the ends and blend weight lines is called:
end texturizing
To maintain control of the hair, which of the following hair types should be texturized the greater distance from the scalp?
coarse hair
To allow for more control and the shrinkage factor, very curly hair should be texturized while it is:
Never thin:
anywhere around the hairline
To accommodate a growth pattern such as a widow's peak, cowlick or whorl when cutting the hair, which of the following statements would apply?
allow additional length in the growth pattern area
Which of the following growth patterns from a point at the front hairline and curves to one side?
widow's peak
When performing a haircut, which of the following determines the size of a parting?
density of the hair
Infection control produres include sweeping and disposing of cut hair:
before performing a blow dry service
Conversion layering is a common cutting technique used to create:
increase-layered forms
The higher the projection or elevation angle, the steeper the line of:
inclination (graduation)
An uneven effect is created when cutting hair that is:
partly wet and partly dry
The combination of the size of the base and the position of the curl in relation to the base is called:
base control
The base control used within a hairstyle affects the amount of closeness in the hairstyle or the amount of lift, which is also called:
The base control that results in the most volume and strongest base strength is called:
on base (full base)
Holding the hair 90 degree from the center of the base and rolling it to sit on the bottom parting results in which of the following base controls:
half off (half base)
What is the term assigned to the base control when the tool being used sits below the bottom parting of the base?
off base
Which base control is being used when the tool sits in the lower portion of the base, but not on or below the parting?
Hair that is held at a 45 degree angle above the center of the base and rolled to sit in the upper portion of the base is described by which of the following term?
Using one or two cushion brushes and brushing all the way to the scalp to integrate the base when finishing the hair is called:
What technique uses a comb to push back the shorter lengths of hair toward the base to create a cushion and add volume to the hairstyle?
back brushing
A comb with closely set teeth that creates a smooth surface as it is being used is a(n):
all purpose styling comb
A tool that is effective for smoothing wavy or curly texture and adding directional emphasis when air forming is called:
7 or 9 row air forming brush
Which of the following haistyling products adds shine and weight to the hair?
Styling lotion supports volume and movement and:
is of liquid consistency
Safety guidelines require the air intake of a blow dryer to be:
free from debris
Use of a hand-held dryer with fingers, brushes, pressing combs and/or a curling iron is called:
thermal styling
Before brushing or combing hair that has been curled with an iron, ensure that the hair is:
completely cool
Rain or humidity may cause thermally styled hair to react in which of the following ways?
hair returns to its original shape
Which of the following is recommended to use for testing the temperature of a stove heated iron?
papper towel
The process of drying the hair and the styling it to create a new form is called air forming or :
blow drying
Loss of hair elasticity or split ends may be caused by:
excessive blow drying
What direction should the blow dryer's air flow point?
up and down the hair strand
To reduce the potential of hair and scalp damage from heat, hold the blow dryer at least:
8" to 10" from the hair
Which of the following is true about the use of a smaller brush when hairstyling?
results in a curlier style
The technique of combining airflow that dries the hair with heat that is retained in the barrel of a lot brush or comb is referred to as:
air waving
If a client requests a temporary hair straightening service which of the following methods should be used?
hair pressing
Which of the following time periods describe how long hair pressing results last?
until the next shampo
The hair condition that is NOT able to be reconditioned is:
How can the temperature of a pressing comb be tested?
place it against a white paper towel and look for a change of color
Pressing combs are constructed using which of the following element?
stainless steel or brass
Which of the following will help determine the temperature used when pressing hair?
During hair pressing, fine hair requires which of the following actions?
apply less heat
A hard press refers to applying the pressing comb:
Twice with more pressure and heat
Who was the frist person to introduce thermal irons?
Marcel Grateau
The curling iron clamp that holds the hair against the barrel is know as the groove or :
Curling iron barrels, in order to retain hea, are usually made of which of the following materials?
stainless steel
To maintain a constant temperature during use, the electric curling iron contains a heating element controlled by a:
The temperature of the iron is determined by which one of the following factors?
client's hair condition and texture
Manipulation of a thermal iron when styling involves all of the following produres EXCEPT:
maintaining a closed clamp
Double-processed hair requires all of the following EXCEPT:
high temperature curling iron
All of the following are true about using a thermal iron on tinted, white or very fine hair EXCEPT:
highest iron temperature is used
The technique used to create a curved-under or flipped up effect by adding curl texture at the ends only referred to as a(n):
ends technique
Which of the following steps would be used when performing the spiral technique?
positioning the curling iron vertically at the base
The hair type that generally requires lower temperatures and less contact time when using an electric curling iron is which of the following?
chemically altered hair
Hair breakage may result from which of the following action?
pressing hair too often
Thermal iron produres are only performed on hair that has been:
The comb used to protect the scalp when performing curling iron techniques should be made of:
hard rubber or nonflammable material
Why should having the ends of the hair protrude overy the iron be avoided?
fishhook ends could be the result
How is the majority of hair straightening accomplished during a pressing service?
pressing the spine of the comb against the hair
What is created by two complete ablong shapes that are joined and connected by a ridges?
a fingerwave
The hollow of the fingerwave may be described by which of the following term?
Over direction of the ridge in fingerwaving may be caused by which of the following improper techniques?
pinching or pushing the ridge
A section of hair that forms a pincurl is commonly described in three part as the base, stem (arc) and:
The area of the strand at the scalp between partings within a shape is called:
Where is the sterm of the pincurl located tha demonstrates the direction of the curl?
between the base and first turn
What determines the width and strength of a wave?
size of the circle
Which of the following results would be achieved by using a pincurl with a closed center?
smaller and stronger wave, for a fluffy effect
A pincurl with an open circle has the ability to produce which of the following effects?
wider wave pattern with uniform curls
Which type of pincurl would be selected to obtain closeness within a hairstyle?
flat pincurls
Cascade pincurls are volume pincurls used to creat which of the following results?
fullness and height
What is the name given to large strand-up pincurls that are able to achieve a similar effect to hair wound around a roller but resulting in less volume?
What type of pincurl is used to achieve a blend or transition from areas of volume to areas of closeness?
The shape of the base within pincurls is used to :
avoid slits in the finished hairstyle
The base shapes of pincurls most often used are triangular, square or rectangular and crescent which is also called the:
pincurls created from a curved shaping are called curvature or:
carved curls
Which type of base control is used to produce lift or strong curl effect?
on base (no stem)
The base control used when an equal degree of predetermined direction and volume are required is:
half-off base (half stem)
which base control is edentified as having the stem and circle positioned below the base and pick-up line?
off base (full stem)
The off-base (full stem) pincurl produces which of the following results?
reduced volume
An oblong shaping followed by a row of pincurls is called a(n):
ridge curl
Which of the following techniques produces a strong wave pattern?
skip wave
Cone-shaped or conical rollers fit into a curvature shape and allow the creation of which of the following results?
a stronger curvature movement
All of the following techniques describes backbrushing EXCEPT:
Which of the following hair type are most often use to construct human hair wigs
Asian and European
The type of human hair wig that is generally the most expensive is:
Generally, hair from India is wavy and hair from Asia is :
The formulation of synthetic wig is based on what type of product?
Human hair strands will produce which of the following results when undergoing a match test?
burn slowly
Why are human hair wigs more expensive?
supply of human hair is limited
Which type of wig is available in serveral size and is most often handmade?
cap wig
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a capless wig?
consists of an elasticized mesh-fiber base
Which of the following wig types simulates natural hair growth and creates a natural look?
Which type of wig is difficult to style because the direction of the hair is determined by the position in which the weft is sewn to the cap?
machine made
Using a combination of hand-tied and machine-made processes results in which of the following wig types?
semi-hand tied
When putting on a wig, cover the client's hair with a fine net or a:
wig cap
Which of the following terms identifies the process of sizing a wig?
Dart alteration of a wig are made vertically to:
remove width in the nape area
How do you shorten a wig from the front to the nape?
make a tuck
How oftern should human hair wigs be cleaned if worn frequently?
every 2 to 4 weeks
After initial preparation with a toothbrush or cotton ball, hand-tied wigs should be cleaned:
on a block
Liquid dry shampoo should be used to clean:
human hair wigs
Coloring produres used on human hair wigs or hairpieces can include all of the following EXCEPT:
high level (lighter) oxidative colors
In addition to chemically treating hair prior to being used for human hair wigs it is often:
decolorized and bleached
What is the purpose of thinning hair near the base of a wig?
decrease bulk
Which of the following techniques would be recommended for use at the front hairline to produce a more natural-looking results?
Which of the following wig types has the advantage of a pre-set curl pattern?
synthetic fiber
Which hair addition is made up of hair fibers six inches or less in lenght attached to a round-shaped, flat base?
What is a hairpiece with a base that covers the crown, occipital and nape area called?
A hairpiece worn by men to cover bald or thinning hair spots, particularly on top of the head is called a :
Which type of hairpiece allows the clients hair to be used for blending purpose?
A hair addition is attached to which portion of the client's own hair?
Which of the following methods describes attaching hair fiber to the clients hair by using a special adhesive?
What is the hair addition method that uses a bonding agent activated by a heating element to affix loose hair fiber to small section of the client's own hair?
When performing an alkaline wave on a client, thioglycolate is joined with what ingredient to create a waving lotion?
The main ingredient found in a acid wave is:
glycerol monthioglycolate
The chemical phase of perms involes all of the following EXCEPT:
wrapping hair around the perm tool
To produce large curls, wave formations or body waves it is neccessary to use:
large diameter rods
Which type of perm rod would be used to achieve uniform curls?
With concave rods the hair on both ends must travel farther than the hair in the center to make one complete turn around the rod, creating a:
wider and more spiraling pattern on the ends
In the perm procedure, proper end paper techniques will eliminate crimps or:
fishhooks on the ends of hair
Which of the following descriptions identifies the end papper placement for the bookend technique used during per wrapping?
one end paper fold in half
When using the double-flat end paper technique, the first end paper is positioned under the strand past the ends of the hair, and the scond paper is placed on top of the strand and:
slightly past the first end paper
Water left in the end papers after rinsing the perm solution will dilute the neutralizer and:
weaken the curl formation
The size of the base and the angle at which the hair is held while wrapping determines the tool position or:
base control
To create more volume, which tool position should be used?
on base
On base control is not recommended for alkaline perms since expansion is limited at the base and:
tension may cause breakage
Which tool position results in no curl at the scalp and a minimal degree of volume?
off base
Partial perms are designed to :
position new texture only where it is desired
In alkaline waves, the perm solution chemically softens and breaks the:
strong disulfide bonds
In addition to tension and perm solution what do acid waves use to perform the processing action?
Skipping rods when applying perm solution could cause:
inconsistent curl formation
Which of the following steps may be required when perming resistant hair?
longer processing time
Which of the following chemicals is NOT one of the main ingredients found in most neutralizers?
A neutralizer rebonds and restores the disulfide bonds in addition to which of the following?
reduces the swelling caused by the alkalinity
To remove all chemicals after the hair been neutralized the hair needs to be:
What is considered to be the range of pH for alkaline waves?
8.0 to 9.5
The high alkalinity of cold waves causes the hair fiber to soften and:
Alkaline perms produce faster processing times and:
stronger curl
Which of the following is NOT true about acid perms?
better for use on resistant hair
The more porous hair is:
the less resistant it is to absorbing perm solution
To equalize the porosity of highly porous hair it may be necessary to use which of the following products?
prewrap produt
Which of the following description does NOT identify the meaning of porosity?
the hair's ability to stretch
The hai's ability to stretch and return to its original shape is called:
Hair is generally referred to as fine, medium or coarse when analyzing which of the following classifications?
Which of the following could describe what determines the processing time and proper perm solution?
the texture, elasticity and porosity of the client's hair
Hair density does not always match which of the following?
What determines the size and shape of the new curl configuration?
perm rod size
Which of the following staments is NOT true?
hair that has been color cannot be permed
Before perming, identify if the hair has been tinted, bleached, highlighted/frosted or:
previously permed
If perm solution comes in contact with the client's eyes or skin which of the following actions should be taken?
rinse thoroughly with cool water
Proper draping procedures for chemical services accomplish all of the following EXCEPT:
place cape between and chair back
What ingredient in color products could cause uneven curls, discoloration and hair breakage?
metallic salt
When performing a metallic test, immerse at least 20 strand of hair in the prepared mixture for:
30 minutes
Prior to performing a preliminary test curl, hair should be shampooed and:
gently towel-dried
After completing a service it is important to update the client's
record card
What is the most likely cause of underprocessed hair?
perm solution not left on the hair long enough
What could be the cause of weak or limp curls?
Overprocessed hair could be indicated by hair that is:
curly when wet and frizzy when dry
What could be the cause of a perm not lasting as long as expected
incomplete neutralization
Hair wound on rods with too much tension may cause which of the following:
breakage or dryness
The most common ingredient found in products that completely straighten the hair is:
sodium hydroxide
Sodium hydroxide relaxers are also know as:
lye relaxers
Super strength relaxer is used for which of the following hair conditions?
tightly curled, coarse textured hair
Which ammonium thioglycolate relaxer strength would be used on healthy, color-treated, fine-textured or porous hair?
A sodium hydroxide relaxer service should not be performed on which of the following hair conditions?
hair that has been bleached
What product should NOT be applied to hair that has been previously permed with ammonium thioglycolate?
sodium hydroxide
Which of the following conditions determine the processing time and proper relaxer strength to use?
texture, elasticity and porosity
When performing a chemical relaxing produre on porous hair, choose a product that has:
a lower alkaline content
A pull test is performed to check for which of the following conditions:
What is the shape of a tightly curled hair follicle?
What is the optimum percent of natural curl pattern to remove when relaxing?
The three methods for applying relaxer are the brush, comb or :
During a chemical relaxer procedure, if the hair is tested with the back of the comb and there is a minimal amount of indentation, or if the curl pattern reverts or beads, what step may be required?
additional smoothing
How far away from the scalp should a virgin relaxer be applied?
3/4 to 1''
An acid-banlanced neutralizing shampoo or stabilizer is used after the hair is free of chemicals or:
reharden the hair
What does thep porosity of the hair affect when working wih a chemical relaxer?
processing time
What is used to protect the scalp and hairline from caustic chemical?
protective cream base
Virgin sodium hydroxide relaxer may be applied midstrand because body heat from the scalp will:
allow it to spread upward toward the scalp
Which of the following is NOT a step taken when performing a virgin sodium hydroxide relaxer service?
pre-shampoo the client's hair
What action should be taken to replace natural oils to the hair that were removed during a chemical process?
apply a conditioning treatment
Virgin thio relaxers may be applied after all of the following EXCEPT:
a light shampoo
Which of the following tests should be performed during a virgin thio relaxer technique to determine if the proper amount of relaxation has occurred?
comb test
To protect previously treated hair from the chemical product when performing a relaxer retouch service, what should be applied?
protective cream
All of the following are terms that describe changing tightly curled hair to curly or wavy hair EXCEPT:
relaxer retouch
rerrangers are used during a curl reformation process to reduce the natural curl. What is the main ingredient found in rearrangers?
ammonium thioglycolate
During a curl reforming service, what size parting should be used?
thinner than normal
When performing a curl reformation service, the rod diameter chosen should be at least how many times larger than the diameter of the natural curl pattern?
All of the following chemical rearrangers are appropriately matched with the recommended hair type EXCEPT:
super for fine hair
Once the hair is completely wrapped during a curl reformation service, what is applied to ensure thorough saturation of the waving lotion?
addittional oil
The function of a curl activator is to provide moisture and:
help retain shape of a new curl configuration
Why should brushing the hair before any chemical service be avoided?
prevents scalp irritations
If curl reforming is desired, cut off all hair previously treated with which of following?
sodium hydroxide
Which of the following are considered the three pure colors?
red, blue and yellow
When mixing two primary colors in varying proportions, the colors produced are:
orange, green and violet
A mixture of blue what color produces green?
Colors made by mixing primary colors with their neigboring secondary color in varying proportions are known as:
Which of the following combination is NOT a tertiary color?
blue and yellow
Tone can be expressed by which of the following descriptions?
warm or cool colors
If a client's skin tone falls into the yellow, red and orange category it would be classified as:
Rachel is planning to use a complementary color scheme for her future salon decor. Which of the choices below would she consider for her complementary scheme?
green and red
An application of which of the following complemenary color categories would help eliminate unwanted brassiness or orange tones from a haircolor?
What refers to the brightness or vividness of a color or the strength of the tone?
Which of the primary colors is considered the darkest?
Which of the following is the lightest hair color level?
level 10
Melanocytes produce small egg-shaped structures called:
After viewing the cortex of hair under a microscope, red hair color would be determined due to a:
predominant amount of pheomelanin
When mixing an oxidative color for hair that is 25-30% gray, apply a color:
one level lighter than the desired shade
If the hair is more resistant to color, the cosmetologist may need to:
pre- lighten or pre-soften the hair
A level of color shows:
the lightness or darkness of hair
The majority of the world population falls into which level of color?
Which factor, along with the natural pigment and color level, might influence's color service?
existing tone
What identifies the warmth or coolness of a color?
Which hair texture may tend to process slightly lighter than the intended levels?
Fine hair, which is less resistant, may appear to process in what maner when depositing color?
Chemical products such as hair colors, lighteners, perms and relaxers affect:
the porosity of the hair
Which type of porosity may take longer to absorb coloring?
The condition in which the cuticle is lifted or missing is referred to as:
extreme porosity
When hair has been identified as having resistant porosity, the cuticle layers are smooth and:
When changing the color of the hair, the stylist must keep in mind that the final hair color is a combination of the existing pigment and:
the artificial pigment applied to the hair
For any color using and aniline derivative ingredient, what is required?
a predisposition or patch test
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of semipermanent colors?
leave a line of demarcation
Why are color molecules able to penetrate the cuticle layer of the hair when using semi-permanent products versus temporary color?
semi-permanent molecules are smaller in size
Semi-permanent colors are alkaline and generally last through serval shampoos depending on the:
porosity of the hair
Demi-permanent color are NOT designed to:
lift or lighten existing color
Which of the following statements identifies what demi-permanent colors use to develop the color molecules and aid in the color processing?
low volume peroxide
Permanent hair color are mixed with:
hydrogen peroxide
Which type of hair color lift the natural pigment and deposit artifical pigment in one process?
Permanent dyes containing para-dyes would fall into which color category?
oxidative colors
Which of the following statements identifies the action performed by oxidative tints after initial application?
the hair strands swells
In a permanent hair color procedure, the small colored molecules enter the hair with the aid of an alkalizing agent such as
Hight lift tints are designed to achieve lighter colors and are generally mixed with a double amount
30 or 40 volume hydrogen peroxide
Cream hair colors are generally mixed with a cream developer and are commonly applied with a:
bowl and brush
In order for a toner to be effective, which of the following steps needs to be performed?
hair needs to be prelightened
Which product would be selected to neutralize a brassy gold effect after prelightening a client's hair?
A patch test is required with permanent colors because they contain which type of derivative?
What base toner would be used to produce a neutral blond on prelightened yellow hair
What product would be used to equalize the porosity and deposit a base color on a client's hair?
Which result from the following choices could generally be expected when using a filler?
replace the hair's missing primary color
What products are used to remove or diffuse melanin?
Lighteners utilize ingredients such as ammonia and peroxide to penetrate the cortex and:
cause the melanin to break
How many stages of lightening or decolorization exist?
Hair should never be lightened or decolorized to:
If the hair is overlightened a toner may cause the hair to appear
ashy or gray
Which of the following factor would affect the processing time when lightening hair?
amount of natural pigmentation of melanin in the hair
Another name for underone is:
contributing pigment
What can be mixed with a cream on the scalp lightener to speed the process?
an activator (booster)
In order to lift one or two levels of color, which of the following products would be selected?
oil lightener
A powder lightener without buffering agents and conditioners could NOT be used for which of the following procedures?
double-process blond
What product comes in powder form and when mixed with hydrogen peroxide becomes a strong lightening agent?
off-the-scalp lightener
On-the -scalp and off-the-scalp lightener have a pH level around:
In order to be active, hydrogen peroxide needs to be mixed with ammonia or:
alkaline compounds
Which of the following items is an oxidizing agent used with demi-permanent and permanent colors, lighteners and toners?
What is the pH level of hydrogen peroxide, a commonly used developer in hair coloring products?
between 2.5 to 4.5
What type of mixing bowls may cause peroxide to weaken?
What is the shelf life of hydrogen peroxide?
3 years
Metallic dyes are known as progressive dyes because the:
darkens hair with each application
Color products that are available, but are no recommended for use are:
metallic, compound dyes and vegetable dyes
Why does the base area lighten fasten when usinga midstrand to ends then base (lighter result) technique?
heat from the scalp accelerates processing
What is used to achieve more levels of lift when working with lighteners?
higher volume of developer
Which application technique is used to brush color or lightener directly on the surface of dry, style hair?
freeform painting
Special effects using color darker than the natural hair color on selected trands is referred to as:
The amount and density of the strands selected during the cap technique in hair coloring will determine?
if the effect will be subtle or dramatic
Which of the following techniques utilizes a piece of foil or thermal strip that folds lightener or color?
weaving and slicing
After an oxidative color has been used, any leftover color product needs to be:
Overlapping lightener during a retouch service could:
result in breakage
If redness and swelling were found around the test area when performing a predisposition test, which of the following steps should NOT be taken?
proceed with the service
A preliminary strand test should be performed:
at the crown
If the hair does not appear light enough during a preliminary strand test, which step should be implemented?
increase processing time
To avoid any false color analysis, be sure the area used for performing the analysis is:
well lit, preferably with windows
Repeating back what a client has said in order to clarify any misunderstanding is called:
reflective listening
When should a cosmetologist ask a client about past color services?
after the greeting, prior to performing the service
During a client consultation prior to the service, which of the following items could be used to better understand the client's specific desires?
hair color swatches
Maintaining ongoing hair color service and consistent chemical results can be achieved by:
keeping accurate records
Temporary colors should be applied to which of the following hair conditions?
clean, towels-blotted hair
Semi-permanent colors that contain an aniline derivative ingredient require a:
predisposition test
Applying color over previously colored hair to refresh the color is referred to as:
color glazing
During a retouch procedure for a lighter result, apply mixture to:
base (regrowth) area only
What type of lightener is generally used when performing a cap hightlighting technique?
What process involves lightening the hair and then recoloring to the desired tone?
double-process blond
What size partings are for a double-process blond procedure?
1/8" (.3cm)
In a double-process blond procedure, after rinsing the lightener and checking for scalp abrasions you should:
mix and apply the toner
Coloring the hair back to its original color is called a:
tint back
Which of the following methods would be used if a hair color service results in a darker color than the client desires?
hair color removal technique
What would provide and even base from which to work during a tint back procedure?
Which of the following responses could be the reasons for a color result that is too light?
color formula was too light
Apply 70% alcohol to the hair strand five to seven minutes to remove which of the following products?
Generally following a color removal procedure, the stylist should:
tint to desired color
The primary purpose of the edge of the nail is to:
protect the tip of the finger and/or toe
The nail bed is attached to the bone by:
Attached at the base of the nail, under the skin and inside the mantle is the:
nail root
What is the skin that touches, overlaps and surrounds the nails?
The lunula is the half-moom shape at the base of the nail that appears white due to a reflection of light at the point where the:
nail matrix and nail bed meet
The active tissue that generatates cells that harden as they move outward from the root to the nail is called the nail:
Which of the following components are considered appendages of the skin?
What is the cuticle that overlaps the lunula at the base of the nail?
What is the deep pocket-like area that holds the root and the matrix of the nail?
The loose and pliable overlapping skin around the nail is the:
The skin under the free edge of the nail is the
The folds of skin on either side of the nail groove are called the?
nail wall
The tracks on either side of the nail that the nail moves on as it grows are called the nail:
nail grooves
Jane accidently closed the car door on her finger. The nail on that finger eventually fell off and one year later had not grow back. What nail structure has possibly been permanetly damaged?
What is the average growth rate of nails in adult?
1/8" per month
Which of the following conditions does NOT indicate a deacreasing rate of nail growth?
Under normal conditions, the growth of a new nail plate take approximately:
4 to 6 months
Which nail structure consists of many nerves and blood vessels for continuous nourishment?
nail bed
Any disease, disorder or condition of the nail is called:
Nail with a sign of disease require:
refferal to a physician
A heathy nail is smooth, curved, translucent, pinkish in color and:
is without hollows or wavy ridges
The technical name for the disease referred to as ringworm (tinea) of the nail is:
All fo the following descriptions identify possible cause of paronychia EXCEPT:
systemic disease
Tinea pedis appears as itching and peeling of the skin on the feet and must be:
reffered to a physician
Which of the following nail diseases is NOT caused by fungus?
Onychia is an inflammation of the:
nail matrix
Vertical lines down the nail plate that may be caused by illness or injury are called:
Systemic or long-term illness or nervous disturbance can cause:
spoon nails
The disorder in which the nail grows into the edge of the nail grooves causing ingrown toenails is called:
Uneven growth of a nail may cause:
wavy ridges
Trimming toenails straight across can help avoid:
ingrown toenails
Small white spots on the nail caused by an injury in which a small separation occurs between the nail and the nail bed is called:
Blood trapped under nails is a condition referred to as:
bruised nails
What condition results when the cuticle becomes overly dry and splits?
Which of the following conditions refers to an excess of living skin attached to the nail plate that disrupts normal nail growth?
What is another name for onychauxis?
A thickening of the nail plate or an abnormal outgrowth of the nail is called:
What would be the correct response if a client arrives for a manicure and exhibits signs of onychophagy?
offer to perform aweekly nail service, including polish
Immproper filling, injuries or harsh chemicals could be causes of:
split nails
Which of the following condition is caused by a nervous habit?
What is the nail condition that can be indicated by a yellow discoloration that turns black and begins to smell bad?
nail fungus
Onychorrhexis is a term indicating:
split or brittle nails
Discoloration of the nail can indicate serious problems in which of the following parts of the nails:
nail bed
Upon discovery of a nail fungus on a client's hands or feet, the cosmetologist needs to:
refer client to a physician
What is the job of the manicurist when determining the shape of the client's nails?
enhance the client's natural nail shape
What product may be used to remove nail stains?
paraffin wax
What is the function of a nail dryer when used during a nail service?
aid in fast drying and protection from being sticky or dull
The finger bowl should contain warm water and:
What is generally the wattage for a bulb found in a lamp used for close detail work?
40 watt
How should implements involved in a blood spill incident be handled?
disinfect implements with a broad spectrum disinfectant
Which of the following steps describes the proper disinfecting procedure for implements following use in a manicure service?
wash implements with soap and water then place in disinfectant
How often should a disinfectant be replaced?
as directed by manufacturer
When removing polish from the nails, work from:
base to tip
When performing a manicure you must remove any trace of oil, lotion or cream:
before applying polish
When is it appropriate to offer a hand massage during a manucure?
prior to polishing the nails
How should nail polish be applied?
using light sweeping strokes
What should you use to remove excess polish at the edge of the nail?
an orangewood stick wrapped in cotton with the tip saturated in polish remover
The manicurist will apply nail polish:
over the base coat
During the massage portion of a pedicure service apply pressure to the muscular tissue on either side of:
the shinbone
Brittle nails or dry aging hands could receive some benifit from:
hot oil or cream manicuring
Following an acrylic nail service, brushes should be cleaned:
in brush cleaner
Because most nail produce vapors are flammable:
smoking should not allowed in the salon
Avoid the use of accetone polish remover on:
plastic nail tip
How much of the nail bed should a nail tip cover?
1/3" to 1/2"
A dehydrant is used to help remove moisture and oil and to prevent the growth of:
When should a dehydrating product be applied to the nail?
before applying a nail form
After applying the primer during a sculptured nail service:
avoid touching the nail
Rebalancing the nail during a fill- in nail service means to file and buff the nail to blend:
remaining acrylic to new growth area
If a nail fungus is found prior to performing a fill-in nail service, which of the following steps should be taken?
remove the artificial nail
Healthy skin requires special care to maintain its health, elasticity, vibrancy and:
The outer protective layer of the skin is called:
What is another name for the stratum germinativium?
basal or stratum basale layer
Where does mitosis (cell division) or replacement of the skin take place
stratum germinativum
Which of the following layers of skin does not contain any blood vessels?
What is the technical name for the study of skin, including its structure, functions and disorders?
The stratum germinativum and what other layer of the skin contain melanin?
stratum spinosum
On the human body, the thickest skin is located on the:
palms and soles
Which layer is the top, or uppermost, layer of the epidermis?
Sudoriferous glands, sebaceous glands, sensory nerve endings, arrector pili muscles and a major portion of each hair follicle are found:
in the dermis
The layer of the epidermis that is shed and replaced constantly is the:
stratum corneum
What quality is notable about the stratum corneum?
it is the toughest layer of the skin
The stratum corneum is composed of:
keratin cells
Which layer of the skin contains collagen protein fibers to help give the skin its elasticity and pliability?
What part of the skin is often referred to as "true skin"?
The deteriation of collagen and elastin fibers during the aging process causes:
What is a major function of the sudoriferous gland?
help to regulate body temperature
The sebaceous gland produces:
sebum (oil)
What is the function of sebum?
give skin elasticity
On what area of the body would you not find any sebaceous glands?
on the palms of the hands and soles of the feet
Sweat or perspiration is excreted by what gland?
The small openings onto the skin from the sudoriferous glands are called:
Sudoriferous and sebaceous glands are referred to as:
duct glands
The excretion of perspiration from the skin is controlled by the:
nervous system
Control and regulation of body temperature by the sudoriferous glands helps maintain the body temperature at:
98.6 degee fahrenheit or 37 Celsius
The greatest concentration of sudoriferous glands are found on the:
palms, soles, scalp and forehead and underarms
The papillary canal take oil (sebum) to the:
surface of the skin
The subcutaneous tissue of the skin is made up of mostly:
fatty cells
What factor would cause a reaction in sensory nerve fibers?
What tans the skin to help protect it from harmful ultraviolet rays from the sun?
Where is the layer of skin called the subcutaneous layer located?
below the dermis
Which layer of the skin contains large blood vessels that transport nourishment to the skin?
Almost 90% of the skin's wrinkles are caused by:
excessive exposure to the sun
On the human body, the thinnest skin is located:
on the eyelids
Light skin and dark skin differ in the:
rate and amount of melanin produced
Heathy skin's pH level of 4.5 to 5.5
slightly acidic
What is the technical NAME for the study of the CAUSES of disease?
Anticipating the most probable course a disease may follow is called:
What is the technical TERM for the study of diseases?
How should a cosmetologist react if the client has a skin disease?
refer client to a physician
Chronic is the term used to identify conditions that are:
frequent and habitual
The term used to identify conditions that are brief and severe is:
A disease influenced by weather is referred to as:
A disease that spreads by personal contact is know as:
An allergic reaction to cosmetics or chemicals that cosmetologists may be susceptible to is called:
dermatitis venenata
An example of a subjective symptom would be:
A papule is an example of a:
primary skin lesion
Vesicle can be produced by which of the following conditions?
poison ivy
What is the technical term for freckles?
Herepes simples is the technical term for:
Abnormal changes in the structure of organs or tissues are called primary, secondary and tertiary:
A cyst is defined by which of following descriptions?
abnormal membranous sac
A secondary lesion appearing as round, dry patches of skin covered with rough, silvery scales is called:
A solid mass in the skin that could be soft or hard, fixed or freely movable and may be elevated or deep is called a:
What may happen to the skin if an area is subject to pressure or friction over a long period of time?
it may become callused
Which of the following skin lesion often occurs when skin loses its flexibility due to exposure to wind, cold, water ect. and cracks in the skin appear?
The lesion found following the healing of an injury is called a(n):
Verruca is a name given to a variety of:
Which of the following terms describes a keratoma?
a callus
What is the technical name for liver spots?
What is another name for a stain in the skin caused by the dilation of the small blood vessels in the skin, also known as a birthmark?
What is the technical term for a decrease in activity of melanocytes?
Melanotic sarcoma is a skin cancer that begins with:
a mole
Comedone is the technical name for:
Accumulations of hardened subum beneath the skin are called whiteheads or:
Acne can be found in two stages, acne simplex and:
acne vulgaris
What is a condition called that is characterized by dry, scaly skin caused by a decreased production of sebum?
Which disorder is caused by excessive secretions of the sebaceous glands?
Acne most often occurs on the:
face, back and chest
Where does a steatoma most often appear?
on the scalp, neck and back
What is the definition of bromidrosis?
foul-smelling perspiration
What is the disorder called that is an over production of perspiration caused by excessive heat or general body weakness?
The lack of perspiration caused by fever or disease is called:
What is the professional action to take when a client with rosacea request a facial service with you?
proceed with the service with approved of the client's physician
Product that work to further cleans the skin and return it to its normal pH include:
astringents and tonic lotions
Persons exposed to excessive heat may develop:
miliaria ruba
A term that is used to describe moisturizing is:
Effeurage is a massage movement that involves a:
light, gentle stroking or circular movement
Applying pressure to motor points will have which of the following effects?
smoothe and stimulate nerves and muscles
The gentle massage movement that often begins and ends a massage treatment is:
If a client suffers from high blood pressure or has suffered a stroke or heart attack, massage movements should:
be avoid since massage increase circulation
The massage manipulation that consists of light or heavy kneading and rolling of the muscles is called:
Which massage movement deeply stimulates the muscles, nerves and skin glands?
Which of the following massage manipulations is a circular deep rubbing movement usually carried out with the fingertips or palms of the hands?
Areas of the skin that are diseased, broken, bruised or scraped:
should not be massaged
The massage movement that should NOT used when the client needs soothing is:
All of the following statements are true about paraffin mask EXCEPT:
made from clay, sand, zinc oxide or mud
Which of the following is NOT generally a contraindication for skin care services?
low blood pressure
Which of the following description identify where wax should NOT be applied?
over sunburn
Why is it not recomended to wax lanugo hair?
skin may lose its softness
How do chemical depilatories remove unwanted hair?
by degrading the protein structure of the hair
Why will many client have the opinion that shaved hair feels thicker following removal?
due to the blunt effect of the razor
What hair removal method is available for clients who cannot tolerate hot wax treatment?
cold wax treatment
How do you test the temperature of hot wax prior to applying it to your client?
test on the back of your hand
In what direction do you pull removal strips during hot wax treatments?
in the opposite direction of the hair growth
What should be applied to the skin following the used of a wax depilatory?
a smoothing lotion or toner
Inserting a single needle into a hair follicle for hair removal is called short-wave electrolysis or :
What hair removal method removes the hair by decomposing the papilla?
Most corrective makeup and contouring is done to help the face appear:
What facial feature would accompany a heart-shaped face?
narrow jaw line
What colors seem to receed or diminish appearance of facial features?
darker colors
What must be done before foundation makeup is applied?
skin must be cleansed, toned and moisturized
What is considered the most important product in makeup?
On what area of the face is a consideration tested for a color match?
jaw line
Unless correction is required, match the foundation to the:
natural skin tone
Why would the cosmetologist apply a lighter shade when performing corrective makeup?
to emphasize a facial area
Full face applications or two-shade applications must be blended to prevent:
a line of dermarcation
One method to make wide-set eyes appear closer together is:
extend the brows past the inside corner of the eyes
What benefit does the wearer receive from mascara?
lengthens, thickens and defines the lashs
Face powder cone in tinted shades to match foundations, and also:
in translucent form to be worn with any shade
What type of bush blends well and is suitable for any skin type?
Facial powders are designed to:
set other makeup products so they last longer
What is involved in the service of eye tabbing?
applying individual lashes
Semi-permanent individual eyelashes are made of:
synthetic fibers
Semi-permanent individual eyelashes last for a period of approximately:
6-8 weeks
Indiviual lashes do not adhere to lower lashes for as long as top ones because of:
the body's natural oils
Where in the course of a makeup application does applying lipstick usually occur?
last cosmetic to be applied
During the draping of your client for a makeup application prepare the client by draping, positioning chair and:
putting a headband on client
Bacteriology is the scientific study of:
Another term that means the same as germ or bacteria is:
Bacterial cell that are harmless and can even be benificial to humans are called:
nonpathogenic bacteria
Nonpathogenic bacteria that live on dead matter are known as:
Bacterial cells that may be harmful to the body are called:
Pathogenic bacteria are responsible for all of the following EXCEPT:
benefiting the enviroment
A communicable disease refers to a disease that is:
spread from one person to another
The common cold, hepatitis and measles are examples of:
communicable diseases
Spherical-shape bacterial cells are known as:
Pus-forming bacterial cells that form in long chains and cause blood poisoning are called:
Rod-shaped bacterial cells are known as:
What bacteria, when viewed throught a microscope, would appear to be coiled, corkscrew--shaped bacterial cells?
Eileen's client has deveploped Lyme disease. Which type of bacteria is the cause of this disease?
Which of the following is NOT a source through which bacteria or viruses enter the body?
heathy skin
As bacteria absorb food, each cell grows in size and divides, resulting in how many new cells?
What is the relationship with bacteria and disinfectants when bacteria are in the spore-forming stage?
bacteria are not harmed by disinfectants
Which of the following conditioning does NOT occur during the inactive stage of bacterial growth?
harm by heat
Hair-like projections used by some bacteria to propel themselves are called cilia or:
The common cold is caused by a(n):
filerable virus
Which of the following condition is NOT a disease caused by a virus?
What is a highly infectious disease that infects the liver?
Human Hepatitis B(HBV)
Human Immunodeficiency Virus(HIV) cause the immune system to:
holding hands
Organism that live on or obtain nutrients from another organism are known as:
external parasites
All of the following are example of contagious EXCEPT:
Another name for head lice is:
Syphilis is an example of a general infection, which means it affects:
the whole body
Which of the following would be considered a universal precaution?
common use of drinking cup
The ability to destroy infectious agents that enter the body is:
Infection control is divided into the following categories:
sanitation, disinfection and sterilization
A product that can be applied to the skin to reduce microbes is called a(n)
Washing your hands is an example of:
Disifectant is acceptable for use on:
tools and styling implements
Chemical products used to destroy or kill bacteria and some viruses (except bacterial spores) are called:
Viricidals are disinfectants used to kill:
The regulation agency under the Department of Labor that enforces safety and health standards in the workplace is:
Key information on a specific product regarding ingredients, associated hazards, combustion levels and storage requirements is provided by:
Which of the following (Occupational Safety and Health Administration) Bloodborne Pathogens Standard requires the use of:
EPA registraion number
The 2001 OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health Administration) Bloodborne Pathogens Stand requires the use of:
an EPA-registered disinfectant with an efficacy against HIV and HBV or tuberculocidal
All implements must be thoroughly cleaned before:
Which of the following steps should be taken after removing all hair from a brush during a disinfection procedure?
wash brush with soap and water
Which of the following services normally requires the use of sterilization procedures?
Tools and instruments used to puncture or invade the skin must be sterilized or designed to be:
Sterilization standards require the use of a liquid sterlant and/or moist or:
dry heat
Sanitation is the lowest level of:
infection control
When performing first aid for bleeding wounds, what is the next step after bleeding stop?
apply bandage
Which of the following steps should be taken FIRST when is believed a person may be choking?
determine if the victim can speak or cough