100 terms

Psych 203 - Exam 3

People who are often overweight and regularly binge eat without compensatory behaviors are experiencing:
A) anorexia-bulimia disorder.
B) binge-eating disorder.
C) noncompensatory binge disorder.
D) binge-purge disorder.
A modern explanation of why many anorexic people continually have food-related thoughts and dreams is that:
A) fantasy about food fulfills basic needs of the id.
B) such thoughts and dreams are the cause of food deprivation.
C) such thoughts and dreams are the result of food deprivation.
D) thoughts of food occur in order to avoid eating.
How successful are compensatory behaviors in controlling weight?
A) Repeated vomiting affects one's ability to feel satiated.
B) Using diuretics almost completely undoes the caloric effects of bingeing.
C) Vomiting prevents the absorption of 90% of calories consumed.
D) Using laxatives almost completely undoes the caloric effects of bingeing.
Most people with bulimia nervosa ______ compared to people with anorexia nervosa.
A) are of more normal weight
B) have less education
C) are younger
D) have obsessive thoughts about food
A young woman who is very concerned about being attractive to others, is more sexually experienced, and has relatively few obsessive qualities is:
A) more likely to be experiencing anorexia than bulimia.
B) more likely to be experiencing bulimia than anorexia.
C) equally likely to be experiencing bulimia or anorexia.
D) showing no symptoms that have been found to be related to eating disorders.
Similarities between bulimia and anorexia include:
A) both tend to begin after a period of dieting among people afraid of becoming obese.
B) both tend to be related to personality disorders.
C) both involve an underestimation of one's weight and body size.
D) both involve a reluctance to think about food, weight, or appearance.
Which of the following would be at most risk of developing an eating disorder:
A) someone who is a habitual dieter with no success.
B) someone who is morbidly obese.
C) someone who had successfully completed a diet.
D) a yo-yo dieter (lots of losses and gains.)
The medical problem that is about twice as frequent in anorexic women as it is in bulimic women is:
A) amenorrhea.
B) hair loss.
C) hypokalemia.
D) esophageal bleeding.
Which of the following problems is a possible medical complication of anorexia nervosa?
A) decreased heart rate
B) high blood pressure
C) increased bone mineral density
D) elevated body temperature
If an anorexic woman has lanugo, what has happened?
A) She has lost body hair.
B) Her menstrual cycle has become irregular.
C) She has developed double vision.
D) She has grown fine silky hair on her body.
What is the most likely explanation for the different explanations of eating disorders in men and women?
A) Eating disorders may be overdiagnosed in women.
B) Men restrict their caloric intake more severely when dieting.
C) Men are judged by a harsher cultural standard of attractiveness.
D) Male eating disorders are more likely to be tied to work or sports.
People trying to control their weight often smoke. What is the true relationship between smoking and weight?
A) When people quit smoking, they usually gain weight.
B) Smoking decreases one's metabolic rate.
C) Nicotine is a stimulant, but it suppresses appetite.
D) Paradoxically, smokers weigh more than nonsmokers.
Of the following, the most appropriate diagnosis for GI Joe is:
A) bulimia nervosa.
B) anorexia nervosa.
C) muscle dysmorphobia.
D) reverse Barbie syndrome.
Which individual has the worst prognosis for recovering from an eating disorder?
A) people who have lost less weight
B) people who enter therapy late in their disorder
C) a young man
D) a young women
Lasting improvement for one with anorexia nervosa depends on:
A) recognizing the need to give up control.
B) addressing underlying psychological problems.
C) drug therapy over several years.
D) continuing medical treatment.
The treatment that has been the most popular for restoring weight among anorexic persons is:
A) supportive psychotherapy.
B) supportive nursing care and a high-calorie diet.
C) intravenous feedings.
D) drug therapy.
The medication most helpful in the treatment of bulimia is an:
A) antipsychotic drug.
B) antiemetic drug (to eliminate vomiting.)
C) antidepressant drug.
D) antianxiety drug.
Tanya is a behavioral therapist who exposes bulimic patients to situations that usually cause binge episodes and then prevents them from binge eating. The technique that she is using is called:
A) skillful frustration.
B) temptation-restriction.
C) willpower reinforcement.
D) exposure and response prevention.
All the treatment methods for bulimia nervosa share the immediate goal of:
A) changing distorted self-perceptions.
B) assisting the clients to eliminate their binge-purge patterns.
C) addressing the underlying causes of the bulimic patterns.
D) forcing the patient to accept the responsibility for his or her actions.
The prognosis for recovery from bulimia nervosa is worse as a function of:
A) age at which treatment is implemented.
B) length of time in treatment.
C) age at onset of the disorder.
D) development of a pattern of frequent vomiting.
Melanie has taken a lot of the drug that she was offered and in spite of being obviously uncoordinated and under the influence she wants to drive her car. Her condition is an example of:
A) addiction.
B) physical dependence.
C) hallucinosis.
D) intoxication.
The long-term pattern of maladaptive behavior caused by the regular use of some chemical or drug is called:
A) intoxication.
B) hallucinosis.
C) tolerance.
D) substance abuse.
A person who experiences vomiting and shaking when he tries to stop drinking alcohol has developed:
A) withdrawal symptoms.
B) hallucinosis.
C) increased tolerance.
D) intoxication.
Mendon began by taking one amphetamine a day to control his appetite. After a month or so it did not work as well but two pills did. This is an example of:
A) dependence.
B) resistance.
C) withdrawal.
D) tolerance.
A frequent drug user finds that more and more drug is necessary to produce the same "high" that much lower doses once produced. That drug user is developing:
A) hallucinosis.
B) withdrawal symptoms.
C) intoxication.
D) tolerance.
A person you know has just started experiencing delirium tremens. Probably they will last:
A) two or three days, with no significant health risk.
B) two or three days, with a significant risk of problems like seizure or stroke.
C) about a week, with no significant health risk.
D) about a week, with a significant risk of problems like seizure or stroke.
A person has ingested enough ethyl alcohol to lose consciousness, but not enough to produce death. The most probable alcohol concentration in that person, expressed as a percent of blood volume is:
A) .09.
B) .40.
C) .03.
D) .70.
Nan took the drug she was handed and in a few minutes felt calm and drowsy, and then went to sleep. She probably took:
A) heroin.
B) cocaine.
C) a barbiturate.
D) cannabis.
Barbiturates were first prescribed to help people:
A) deal with pain.
B) deal with the stresses of war.
C) sleep.
D) diet.
Because of the likelihood of convulsions, withdrawal from ______ is especially dangerous.
A) cocaine
B) amphetamine
C) heroin
D) barbiturates
After the accident, Kendra was taken to the hospital with broken legs and arms. They almost immediately gave her a shot that reduced her pain. The shot was probably:
A) a barbiturate.
B) morphine.
C) a sedative.
D) an amphetamine.
A person who has injected a narcotic feels relaxed, happy, and unconcerned about food, sex, or other bodily needs. This person is experiencing what is known as:
A) free-basing.
B) a rush.
C) a high.
D) endorphin release.
The pleasant feeling called a "high" produced by using narcotics is due to:
A) the drug flooding neurotransmitter synapses with dopamine.
B) an increase in the release of the neurotransmitter serotonin.
C) the drug attaching to sites normally receptive to endorphins.
D) the opponent process caused by IV injection.
Which of the following literary figures is most closely associated with the use of cocaine?
A) Ernest Hemmingway
B) Sherlock Holmes
C) Mark Twain
D) Harry Potter
This drug is known as a "party drug," used by more women than men, and is associated with hypersexuality. What is it?
A) caffeine
B) tobacco
C) methamphetamine
D) crack
While under the influence of LSD, Matilda believes that she can feel the sounds around her. This effect is known as:
A) the psychedelic effect.
B) synesthesia.
C) intoxication.
D) hallucination.
What is the risk of tolerance and physical addiction to hallucinogens as compared to other addictive drugs?
A) minimal
B) about the same as the depressants
C) about the same as the stimulants
D) more than most
Opponents of the medical use of THC in the U.S. include:
A) the federal government and the New England Journal of Medicine.
B) neither the federal government nor the New England Journal of Medicine.
C) the New England Journal of Medicine, but not the federal government.
D) the federal government, but not the New England Journal of Medicine.
The most powerful form of cannabis is:
A) marijuana.
B) ganja.
C) hashish.
D) free-based THC.
In behavioral self-control training, patients are taught to:
A) mentally pair aversive stimuli with drug intake.
B) chastise themselves for relapsing.
C) monitor their own drug intake.
D) share their feelings with their families.
In females, the labia swell during which phase of the sexual response cycle?
A) excitement
B) orgasm
C) resolution
D) arousal
A man experiencing the process of erection and partial elevation of the testes is in which stage of sexual response?
A) desire
B) excitement
C) orgasm
D) refraction
According to Masters and Johnson, the resolution phase is more gradual and less abrupt in women when:
A) they do not experience arousal.
B) they have experienced multiple orgasms.
C) they do not experience orgasm.
D) they experience a sexual aversion.
A woman is perfectly capable of masturbating herself to orgasm, yet is unable to reach orgasm with a partner, either through sexual intercourse or through being masturbated. Most likely, this type of orgasmic disorder would be called:
A) situational.
B) lifelong.
C) acquired.
D) generalized.
A recently married, physically healthy man expresses great love for his new spouse, yet feels almost no sexual desire for her. One likely cause of his condition is:
A) a relationship that is too positive and healthy.
B) decreased testosterone output due to drinking on his wedding night.
C) belief in cultural double standard about women.
D) increased estrogen output now that he has "settled down."
A woman who is sexually assertive and comfortable with masturbation most likely:
A) will have a partner who experiences premature ejaculation.
B) will experience an sexual dysfunction.
C) will have both an arousal and an orgasmic disorder.
D) will be orgasmic.
Which of the following is most common among women?
A) failure to experience orgasm
B) very delayed orgasms among postmenopausal women
C) very delayed orgasms among premenopausal women
D) rarely experiencing orgasm
Symptoms of vaginismus always include:
A) an inability to experience orgasm.
B) an emotional detachment from the partner.
C) involuntary contraction of vaginal muscles.
D) a dislike for and distrust of sexual relationships.
Of those listed below, the least common variety of sexual dysfunction for women is:
A) orgasmic disorder.
B) dyspareunia.
C) sexual arousal disorder.
D) vaginismus.
One who experiences dyspareunia most likely is a:
A) female with psychological problems.
B) male with physical problems.
C) male with psychological problems.
D) female with physical problems.
The idea that both partners share the accountability for sexual dysfunction is known as:
A) nondemand pleasuring.
B) interactionary dysfunction.
C) mutual responsibility.
D) couples therapy.
Erectile disorder may be treated with all of the following except:
A) nitroglycerin.
B) a vacuum erection device.
C) sildenafil.
D) penile prosthesis.
SSRIs successfully treat paraphilias, most likely because of paraphilias' similarity to:
A) depression.
B) sexual dysfunctions.
C) compulsive disorders.
D) schizophrenia.
Most clinicians would agree that paraphiliac activities should only be considered a disorder when they:
A) involve pornography.
B) are related to drug use.
C) are the exclusive means of achieving orgasm.
D) are illegal.
An antiandrogen would be most appropriate if a disorder is caused by:
A) a hormonal imbalance that occurred during the prenatal period.
B) an inappropriate sex drive.
C) a deficiency in the production of testosterone.
D) too much estrogen in the body.
While inflicting pain, perhaps unintentionally, on an animal or person, a teenager may become sexually aroused and later turn out to be a sadist. The theory that best describes this example of the development of sadism is:
A) psychodynamic.
B) behavioral.
C) biological.
D) sociocultural.
Arnold cannot enjoy sexual intercourse unless he is tied up by his partner and beaten. His behavior is typical of:
A) frotteurism.
B) sexual masochism.
C) voyeurism.
D) sexual sadism.
Who is most likely to receive phalloplasty?
A) someone who has a homosexual orientation
B) someone experiencing erectile dysfunction
C) someone experiencing premature ejaculation
D) someone experiencing gender identity disorder
What is the most common outcome of gender identity disorder in childhood?
A) It disappears with no ill effects.
B) It is a precursor to transsexualism.
C) It is a precursor to transvestite fetishism.
D) It develops into pedophilia.
When people with gender identity disorder take hormones it is in an attempt to:
A) reduce their sex drives.
B) enhance their gender of birth.
C) change their external genitals.
D) facilitate their living as the other gender.
In the middle of a normal, calm conversation, a person with Tourette's syndrome might suddenly begin shouting, then follow that with a string of obscenities. This is similar to the symptom of schizophrenia called:
A) loss of volition.
B) blunted and flat affect.
C) inappropriate affect.
D) poverty of speech.
Which of the following is a tactile hallucination?
A) There are invisible bugs crawling on my tingling skin.
B) That butterfly is growing so much it is as big as the house.
C) That dog is singing to me and asking me to sing along.
D) My intestines are a mass of wriggling worms.
One who believes herself to be the Virgin Mary, come to give birth to a new savior, would be experiencing:
A) delusions of reference.
B) delusions of control.
C) delusions of persecution.
D) delusions of grandeur.
Rosa is sure that her family is planning to kidnap her and take her inheritance. She has found her husband talking on the phone in whispers and has seen her children looking at her strangely. She is most likely suffering from:
A) delusions of reference.
B) delusions of control.
C) delusions of grandeur.
D) delusions of persecution.
Alogia is a(n):
A) negative symptom of schizophrenia.
B) positive symptom of schizophrenia.
C) psychomotor symptom of schizophrenia.
D) example of inappropriate affect.
A person with schizophrenia who is experiencing alogia is displaying:
A) poverty of speech.
B) social withdrawal.
C) loss of volition.
D) blunted or flat affect.
The inability to move the limbs in catatonic schizophrenia illustrates ______ symptoms of schizophrenia.
A) negative
B) positive
C) psychomotor
D) active
A person is socially withdrawn, speaks in odd ways, has strange ideas, and expresses little emotion, but is not displaying full-blown schizophrenic symptoms. What phase of schizophrenia is this person in?
A) residual
B) prodromal
C) active
D) either prodromal or residual
Patients are more likely to recover from schizophrenia if they:
A) had primarily negative rather than positive signs.
B) had hallucinations but no delusions.
C) demonstrated good premorbid functioning.
D) showed delusions but no hallucinations.
Olive is hospitalized. She spends most of her time frozen in place. When she is moved by a nurse or physician, she remains in the position she is put into. This is an example of ______ schizophrenia.
A) undifferentiated
B) disorganized
C) catatonic
D) paranoid
A person with schizophrenia who is unusually silly, engages in odd mannerisms, and grimaces is most likely experiencing ______ schizophrenia.
A) paranoid
B) undifferentiated
C) catatonic
D) disorganized
A person with schizophrenia experiences less frequent emotional outbursts than before, and is beginning to participate somewhat in family get-togethers; however, some symptoms persist. Most likely, this person's diagnosis is:
A) undifferentiated type.
B) unorganized type.
C) paranoid type.
D) residual type.
Which of the following statements about genetic factors in schizophrenia is accurate?
A) Those with schizophrenia who have been adopted are more like their adoptive parents than like their biological parents.
B) Fraternal twins have a higher concordance rate for schizophrenia than do identical twins.
C) Recent family studies eliminate the confounding of environment and genetics.
D) Close relatives of those with schizophrenia are more likely to be diagnosed with schizophrenia than distant relatives of schizophrenics.
If schizophrenia depended solely on genetic make-up, then compared to siblings in general, "fraternal" twins should have:
A) the same concordance rate for schizophrenia.
B) half the concordance rate for schizophrenia.
C) twice the concordance rate for schizophrenia.
D) four times the concordance rate for schizophrenia.
Recently the dopamine hypothesis for schizophrenia has been challenged because it has been discovered that:
A) excessive dopamine activity contributes to only some kinds of schizophrenia.
B) atypical antipsychotic drugs work exclusively on dopamine receptors.
C) those with catatonic schizophrenia respond better to atypical than to traditional antipsychotic drugs.
D) effective new drugs suggest abnormal neurotransmitter activity of serotonin as well as dopamine.
The finding that the highest rates of schizophrenia are found among people who are born during the winter supports which theory of schizophrenia?
A) biochemical theory
B) viral theory
C) dopamine theory
D) genetic theory
According to Freudian psychodynamic interpretation, people who develop schizophrenia regress to a state of:
A) primary narcissism.
B) primary process thought.
C) secondary thought processing.
D) secondary denial.
Since 1950, interest in psychological explanations for schizophrenia (as opposed to genetic and biological explanations) has:
A) stayed about the same.
B) decreased, then increased.
C) increased, then decreased.
D) decreased steadily.
Compared to those diagnosed with schizophrenia who live in developing countries, those diagnosed with schizophrenia who live in developed countries are:
A) less likely to recover fully, and less likely to be hospitalized.
B) less likely to recover fully, and more likely to be hospitalized.
C) more likely to recover fully, and less likely to be hospitalized.
D) more likely to recover fully, and more likely to be hospitalized.
If observations of a relationship between "expressed emotion" in families and recovery from schizophrenia demonstrate cause-and-effect, one would predict that relapse would be least common in schizophrenics whose families:
A) infrequently express criticism, and allow a good deal of privacy.
B) frequently express criticism, and do not allow much privacy.
C) infrequently express criticism, and do not allow much privacy.
D) frequently express criticism, and allow a good deal of privacy.
Which of the following is the best example of extinction?
A) Patients in token economy programs do not improve while in the program.
B) Patients in token economy programs do not maintain their gains when outside the hospital, where there is no token economy.
C) Patients in token economy programs can exchange tokens for secondary (money) but not primary (food) reinforcers.
D) Patients in token economy programs object to receiving tokens for their behavior.
The Americans Walter Freeman and James Watts "improved" the procedure developed by Egas Moniz by developing the:
A) prefrontal leucotomy.
B) prefrontal lobotomy.
C) complete prefrontal lobectomy.
D) transorbital lobotomy.
Which of the following is not a criticism of the token economy approach?
A) Many studies of effectiveness do not include a control group, confounding the treatment with attention.
B) Although token economy programs can change patients' delusional statements, they may not be changing delusional thoughts.
C) Token economy programs do not change the behavior of the most severely ill patients.
D) It is difficult for patients to make the transition from a token economy program to the community.
If you could use only one treatment for schizophrenia and wanted the most effective treatment, you should choose:
A) milieu therapy.
B) antipsychotic drugs.
C) psychodynamic therapy.
D) electroconvulsive therapy.
The first of the important group of antipsychotic drugs was developed during the:
A) 1970s.
B) 1950s.
C) 1940s.
D) 1960s.
Which of the following drugs has antipsychotic properties?
A) Prozac
B) haloperidol
C) Valium
D) imipramine
Very low dopamine activity is related to:
A) schizophrenic disorders.
B) addictive behavior.
C) anxiety disorders.
D) Parkinson's disease.
After starting treatment with antipsychotic drugs, tardive dyskinesia typically requires at least ______ to develop.
A) a year
B) a decade
C) a week
D) a month
One of the unwanted and delayed side effects of antipsychotic medications is:
A) Parkinson's disease.
B) paralysis.
C) hyperactivity.
D) tardive dyskinesia.
Which of the following drugs can cause a dangerous drop in the number of white blood cells in the body?
A) chlorpromazine
B) clozapine
C) haloperidol
D) Thorazine
Which of the following antipsychotic drugs appears to work at serotonin receptors?
A) Haldol
B) clozapine
C) the phenothiazines
D) chlorpromazine
The most widely used atypical antipsychotic drug is:
A) Xanac.
B) Prozac.
C) Thorazine.
D) Clozaril.
Why do some therapists believe psychotherapy is unsuccessful in treating schizophrenia?
A) Unmedicated schizophrenics are too far removed from reality to form the relationship needed.
B) Schizophrenia increases the strength of most ego defense mechanism.
C) Excessive dopamine interferes with the process of free association that is requisite to the success of psychotherapy.
D) Insurance does not cover psychotherapy for patients diagnosed as schizophrenic.
Rather than seeking to eliminate hallucinations and delusions, which form of therapy helps people learn to reinterpret their hallucinations and change their reactions to the hallucinations?
A) cognitive-behavioral
B) medical
C) insight
D) milieu
An individual who displays serious psychotic symptoms, but would not benefit from being sent to a large state psychiatric hospital for a long period of time, would best be served by:
A) aftercare.
B) a halfway house.
C) short-term hospitalization in a local psychiatric unit.
D) a sheltered workshop.
A) resulted in a high level of community care being offered throughout the U.S.
B) provided medication to schizophrenics, but not to other mental patients.
C) was aimed at returning patients with mental disorders to their communities.
D) did not reduce substantially the number of people in state mental hospitals.
In the original Community Mental Health Act, the coordinating agency was supposed to be the:
A) day center.
B) halfway house.
C) sheltered workshop.
D) community mental health center.
What proportion of homeless persons are estimated to suffer from severe mental disorders?
A) most
B) about a third
C) about half
D) about a quarter
Which of the following provides the best support for the statement that "people with schizophrenia are now dumped in the community rather than warehoused in institutions?"
A) Most institutions are now closed or used for other types of patients.
B) Many schizophrenics live in single-room occupancy hotels or are homeless.
C) Almost all schizophrenics are medicated, even though many experience serious side effects.
D) Government disability payments support many schizophrenics.
A homeless person approaches you on a city street corner. The chance it is a person with schizophrenia is about:
A) 15%
B) 5%
C) 33%
D) 50%