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Exam 2

Terms in this set (293)

Infection occurs when
a. a person inhales microbes in the air.
b. a person swallows microbes in/on food.
c. contaminants are present on the skin.
d. pathogens enter and multiply in body tissues.
e. all of the choices are correct
d. pathogens enter and multiply in body tissues.
The term infection refers to
a. contact with microorganisms.
b. contact with pathogens.
c. microorganisms colonizing the body.
d. pathogens penetrating host defenses.
e. none of the choices are correct
d. pathogens penetrating host defenses.
The human body typically begins to be colonized by its normal flora
a. before birth, in utero.
b. during and immediately after birth.
c. during puberty.
d. when a child first goes to school.
e. when an infant gets its first infectious disease.
b. during and immediately after birth.
Normal flora are found in/on the
a. large intestine.
b. mouth.
c. nasal passages.
d. skin.
e. all of the choices are correct
e. all of the choices are correct
Normal flora includes each of the following except
a. bacteria.
b. fungi.
c. protozoans.
d. viruses.
e. all of the choices are correct
e. all of the choices are correct
Each of the following are inoculation of normal flora to a newborn except
a. bottle feeding.
b. breast feeding.
c. contact with hospital staff.
d. the birth process through the birth canal.
e. all of the choices are correct
e. all of the choices are correct
Opportunistic pathogens
a. are always pathogens.
b. cause disease in compromised individuals.
c. cause disease in every individual.
d. have well developed virulence factors.
e. none of the choices are correct
b. cause disease in compromised individuals.
Pathogenic microbes that cause disease in healthy people are called
a. indigenous biota.
b. micropathogens.
c. normal flora.
d. opportunistic pathogens.
e. true pathogens.
e. true pathogens.
Which of the following is not a factor that weakens host defenses against infections?
a. chemotherapy
b. genetic defects in immunity
c. old age
d. physical and mental stress
e. strong, healthy body
e. strong, healthy body
The greatest number of pathogens enter the body through the
a. gastrointestinal system.
b. genital system.
c. respiratory system.
d. skin.
e. urinary system.
c. respiratory system.
An infectious agent that originates from outside the body is called
a. an enterotoxin.
b. an exotoxin.
c. axenic.
d. endogenous.
e. exogenous.
e. exogenous.
An infectious agent already existing on or in the body is called
a. an enterotoxin.
b. an exotoxin.
c. axenic.
d. endogenous.
e. exogenous.
d. endogenous.
The minimum amount of microbes in the inoculating dose is the
a. endotoxin.
b. indigenous biota.
c. infectious dose.
d. minimal dose.
e. virulence factor.
c. infectious dose.
Once a microbe has entered a host, what process performed by certain white blood
cells will attempt to destroy the microbes?
a. adhesion.
b. encapsulation.
c. exocytosis.
d. margination.
e. phagocytosis.
e. phagocytosis.
Which of the following is not an anti-phagocytic factor?
a. ability to survive intracellularly
b. adhering to the host
c. production of leukocidins
d. secretion of a capsule
e. secretion of slime
b. adhering to the host
Virulence factors include all of the following except
a. capsules.
b. endotoxin.
c. exoenzymes.
d. exotoxin.
e. ribosomes.
e. ribosomes.
Which is mismatched?
a. capsules - anti-phagocytic factor
b. coagulase - dissolve fibrin clots
c. fimbriae - adherence to substrate
d. hemolysins - damage red blood cells
e. leukocidins - damage white blood cells
b. coagulase - dissolve fibrin clots
____ are toxins that are the lipopolysaccharide of the outer membrane of Gramnegative
cell walls.
a. Endotoxins
b. Enterotoxins
c. Exotoxins
d. Hemolysins
e. Leukocidins
a. Endotoxins
The suffix -itis means
a. a disease or morbid process.
b. an inflammation.
c. blood.
d. pertaining to.
e. tumor.
b. an inflammation.
The suffix -osis means
a. a disease or morbid process.
b. an inflammation.
c. blood.
d. pertaining to.
e. tumor.
a. a disease or morbid process.
The suffix -emia means
a. a disease or morbid process.
b. an inflammation.
c. blood.
d. pertaining to.
e. tumor.
c. blood.
The time from when the pathogen first enters the body and begins to multiply, until symptoms first appear is the
a. convalescent stage.
b. incubation period.
c. period of invasion.
d. prodromal stage.
e. none of the choices are correct
b. incubation period.
The subjective evidence of disease sensed by the patient is termed a/an
a. inflammation.
b. pathology.
c. sign.
d. symptom.
e. syndrome.
d. symptom.
The objective, measurable evidence of disease evaluated by an observer is termed
a/an
a. inflammation.
b. pathology.
c. sign.
d. symptom.
e. syndrome.
c. sign.
A ____ is the presence of small numbers of bacteria in the blood.
a. bacteremia
b. septicemia
c. viremia
d. none of the choices are correct
a. bacteremia
Infections that go unnoticed because there are no symptoms are called
a. asymptomatic.
b. inflammation.
c. malaise.
d. secondary infection.
e. syndromes.
a. asymptomatic.
Which of the following is an example of sequelae?
a. arthritis from Lyme disease
b. diarrhea from Salmonella enteritidis infection
c. difficulty swallowing from streptococcal infection
d. headache from meningitis
e. all of the choices are correct
a. arthritis from Lyme disease
Diseases that cause long-term or permanent damage leave
a. chronically.
b. directly.
c. indirectly.
d. latent.
e. sequelae.
e. sequelae.
The primary, natural habitat of a pathogen where it continues to exist is called the
a. carrier.
b. fomes.
c. reservoir.
d. source.
e. vector.
c. reservoir.
Someone who inconspicuously harbors a pathogen and spreads it to others is a
a. carrier.
b. fomes.
c. reservoir.
d. source.
e. vector.
a. carrier.
An animal, such as an arthropod, that transmits a pathogen from one host to another is a
a. carrier.
b. fomes.
c. reservoir.
d. source.
e. vector.
e. vector.
The intermediary object or individual from which the infectious agent is actually acquired is termed the
a. carrier.
b. fomes.
c. reservoir.
d. source.
e. vector.
d. source.
Reservoirs include
a. animals.
b. humans.
c. soil.
d. water.
e. all of the choices are correct.
e. all of the choices are correct.
Animals that participate in the life cycles of pathogens and transmit pathogens from host to host are
a. aerosols.
b. biological vectors.
c. droplet nuclei.
d. fomites.
e. mechanical vectors.
b. biological vectors.
Leukopenia is a/an ____ in the level of white blood cells in a patient.
a. decrease
b. elevation
c. stabilization
a. decrease
A ____ is an infection indigenous to animals that can, on occasion, be transmitted to humans.
a. nosocomial infection
b. secondary infection
c. sequelae
d. zoonosis
e. none of the choices are correct
d. zoonosis
____ carriers are shedding and transmitting pathogen while they are recovering from an infectious disease.
a. Asymptomatic
b. Chronic
c. Convalescent
d. Incubation
e. Passive
c. Convalescent
____ carriers are shedding and transmitting pathogen a long time after they have recovered from an infectious disease.
a. Asymptomatic
b. Chronic
c. Convalescent
d. Incubation
e. Passive
b. Chronic
All infectious diseases
a. are caused by microorganisms or their products.
b. are caused by vectors.
c. are contagious.
d. involve viruses as the pathogen.
e. only occur in humans.
a. are caused by microorganisms or their products.
An inanimate object that harbors and transmits a pathogen is a
a. carrier.
b. fomes.
c. reservoir.
d. source.
e. vector.
b. fomes.
A laboratory technologist splashed a blood specimen onto his face, eyes, nose and mouth. This specimen was from an HIV positive patient. If this blood exposure leads to HIV infection in the technologist, the transmission route is
a. aerosol.
b. direct.
c. droplet nuclei.
d. fomes.
e. vehicle.
e. vehicle.
Nosocomial infections involve all the following except
a. are only transmitted by medical personnel.
b. Escherichia coli and staphylococci are common infectious agents.
c. medical and surgical asepsis help lower their occurrence.
d. often involve the patient's urinary tract and surgical incisions.
e. the patient's resident biota can be the infectious agent.
c. medical and surgical asepsis help lower their occurrence.
Which of the following is not a universal precaution used for handling patients and body substances?
a. hand washing
b. healthcare worker with active lesions handling patients
c. mask and gloves
d. proper disposal of needles
e. sterilizing or disinfecting dental hand pieces
b. healthcare worker with active lesions handling patients
When would Koch's postulates be utilized?
a. determination of the cause of a new disease in a microbiology research lab
b. determination of the cause of a patient's illness in a hospital microbiology lab
c. development of a new antibiotic in a pharmaceutical lab
d. formulation of a vaccine against a new pathogen in a genetic engineering lab
e. whenever the scientific method cannot be used to investigate a microbiological problem
a. determination of the cause of a new disease in a microbiology research lab
The study of the frequency and distribution of a disease in a defined population is
a. clinical microbiology.
b. epidemiology.
c. immunology.
d. medicine.
e. pathology.
b. epidemiology.
The principal government agency responsible for tracking infectious diseases in the United States is the
a. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention.
b. Infection Control Committee.
c. National Institutes of Health.
d. United States Department of Agriculture.
e. World Health Organization.
a. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention.
The number of new cases of a disease in a population over a specific period of time compared with the healthy population is the ____ rate.
a. epidemic
b. incidence
c. morbidity
d. mortality
e. prevalence
b. incidence
A disease that has a steady frequency over time in a particular geographic location is
a. chronic.
b. endemic.
c. epidemic.
d. pandemic.
e. sporadic.
b. endemic.
The total number of deaths in a population due to a disease is the ____ rate.
a. endemic
b. incidence
c. morbidity
d. mortality
e. pandemic
d. mortality
The number of persons afflicted with an infectious disease is the ____ rate.
a. endemic
b. incidence
c. morbidity
d. mortality
e. pandemic
c. morbidity
What is one goal of the Human Microbiota Project?
a. provide comprehensive characterization of microbiota relating to human health and disease
b. to sequence the DNA of all microorganisms
c. to study microorganisms in their natural habitat
d. to study the prevalence of disease
a. provide comprehensive characterization of microbiota relating to human health and disease
Bacterial toxins are chemical products made by bacteria. A person ingests some honey containing Clostridium botunlinum. The C. botulinum is actively growing and releases toxin in the honey. The person becomes ill from ingesting the toxin. This is an example of a/an
a. hemolysin.
b. intoxication.
c. pandemic.
d. toxemia.
b. intoxication.
Components of the first line of defense include all the following except
a. flushing action of tears and blinking.
b. flushing action of urine.
c. nasal hairs.
d. phagocytic white blood cells.
e. the tough cell sheet of the upper epidermis of the skin.
d. phagocytic white blood cells.
Nonspecific chemical defenses include
a. lactic acid and electrolytes of sweat.
b. lysozyme.
c. skin's acidic pH and fatty acids.
d. stomach hydrochloric acid.
e. all of the choices are correct
e. all of the choices are correct
The chemical found in tears and saliva that hydrolyzes the peptidoglycan in certain bacterial cell walls is
a. bile.
b. histamine.
c. hydrochloric acid.
d. lactic acid.
e. lysozyme.
e. lysozyme.
The body region where a ciliary escalator helps to sweep microbes trapped in mucus away from that body site is the
a. digestive tract.
b. eye.
c. respiratory tract.
d. skin.
e. urinary tract.
c. respiratory tract.
This body region is protected by fatty acids, acidic pH, lactic acid and a tough cell barrier with its own normal biota.
a. digestive tract
b. eyes
c. respiratory tract
d. skin
e. urinary tract
d. skin
Keratin is an important aspect of non-specific defense because
a. it creates a physical barrier against pathogens.
b. it destroys pathogens.
c. it is toxic to pathogens.
d. it physically restricts pathogens to a specific region.
e. none of the choices are correct
a. it creates a physical barrier against pathogens.
Each of the following are physical barriers to pathogens except
a. hairs.
b. mucus.
c. T-cells.
d. tears.
e. unbroken skin.
c. T-cells.
Zoonotic pathogens
a. have a broad host range.
b. have a narrow host range.
c. infect only humans.
d. infect only mammals.
e. none of the choices are correct
a. have a broad host range.
A properly functioning immune system is responsible for
a. destruction of foreign material.
b. recognition of foreign material.
c. surveillance of the body.
d. only b and c are correct
e. all of the choices are correct
e. all of the choices are correct
Immune system cells differentiate between self and foreign cells by their
a. biota.
b. cell processes.
c. cell walls.
d. markers.
e. skin.
d. markers.
The term ____ is given to any foreign substance that stimulates a specific immune system response.
a. allergen
b. antibody
c. antigen
d. foreign body
e. none of the choices are correct
c. antigen
Plasma
a. contains albumin and globulins.
b. contains fibrinogen.
c. is mostly water.
d. is the liquid portion of blood in which blood cells are suspended.
e. all of the choices are correct
e. all of the choices are correct
Which of the following is incorrect about blood cells?
a. develop from undifferentiated stem cells
b. include erythrocytes that, when mature, lose their nuclei
c. include leukocytes that are either granulocytes or agranulocytes
d. include mast cells
e. produced in red bone marrow sites after birth
d. include mast cells
The blood cells that function in allergic reactions and inflammation, contain peroxidase and lysozyme and particularly target parasitic worms and fungi are
a. basophils.
b. eosinophils.
c. lymphocytes.
d. monocytes.
e. neutrophils.
b. eosinophils.
The least numerous of all white blood cells that release histamine during inflammation and allergic reactions are
a. basophils.
b. eosinophils.
c. lymphocytes.
d. monocytes.
e. neutrophils.
a. basophils.
Which white blood cells comprise 20-30% of the circulating WBCs and are the cells that function in the body's immune system?
a. basophils.
b. eosinophils.
c. lymphocytes.
d. monocytes.
e. neutrophils.
c. lymphocytes.
The most numerous WBCs that have multi-lobed nuclei and are very phagocytic are
a. basophils.
b. eosinophils.
c. lymphocytes.
d. monocytes.
e. neutrophils.
e. neutrophils.
Which white blood cells comprise 3-7% of circulating WBCs are phagocytic and can migrate out into body tissues to differentiate into macrophages?
a. basophils.
b. eosinophils.
c. lymphocytes.
d. monocytes.
e. neutrophils.
d. monocytes.
All of the following pertain to platelets except they
a. are not whole cells but are pieces of cells.
b. contain hemoglobin to transport oxygen and carbon dioxide.
c. function in blood clotting and inflammation.
d. function primarily in hemostasis.
e. originate from giant multinucleate cells called megakaryocytes.
b. contain hemoglobin to transport oxygen and carbon dioxide.
Hematopoiesis is the
a. loss of blood due to hemorrhaging.
b. migration of white blood cells from the blood out to the tissues.
c. plugging of broken vessels to stop bleeding.
d. production of only red blood cells.
e. production of white blood cells, red blood cells and platelets.
e. production of white blood cells, red blood cells and platelets.
Plasma cells
a. are derived from T-lymphocytes.
b. function in blood clotting.
c. function in cell-mediated immunity.
d. produce and secrete antibodies.
d. produce and secrete antibodies.
Which type of white blood cells are particularly attracted to sites of parasitic worm infections?
a. basophils.
b. eosinophils.
c. lymphocytes.
d. monocytes.
e. neutrophils.
b. eosinophils.
Each of the following are granulocytes except
a. basophils.
b. eosinophils.
c. lymphocytes.
d. neutrophils.
e. all of the choices are granulocytes
c. lymphocytes.
The granules of neutrophils contain
a. antibodies.
b. antigens.
c. digestive enzymes.
d. histamine.
e. peroxidase.
c. digestive enzymes.
The granules of eosinophils contain
a. antibodies.
b. antigens.
c. histamine.
d. peroxidase.
e. serotonin.
d. peroxidase.
The granules of basophils contain
a. antibodies.
b. antigens.
c. digestive enzymes.
d. histamine.
e. lysozyme.
d. histamine.
Neutrophils, eosinophils and basophils are called ____ because they have prominent cytoplasmic inclusions that, in a stained blood smear, appear with identifying, characteristic colors.
a. agranulocytes
b. granulocytes
c. leukocytes
d. monocytes
e. none of the choices are correct
b. granulocytes
____ function in humoral immunity, while ____ function in cell-mediated immunity.
a. Basophils, T-cells
b. B-cells, neutrophils
c. B-cells, T-cells
d. Monocytes, basophils
e. T-cells, B-cells
c. B-cells, T-cells
When monocytes migrate from the blood out to the tissues they are transformed by inflammatory mediators to develop into
a. cytotoxic T-cells.
b. killer T-cells.
c. macrophages.
d. neutrophils.
e. primary phagocytes.
c. macrophages.
Which of the following lymphoid organs or tissues has the immunological function of filtering pathogens from the blood?
a. GALT
b. lymph nodes
c. spleen
d. thymus
e. tonsils
c. spleen
What structures are found along lymphatic vessels and are heavily clustered in the armpit, groin and neck?
a. GALT
b. lymph nodes
c. spleen
d. thymus
e. tonsils
b. lymph nodes
Which gland shrinks in size during adulthood and has hormones that function in maturation of T-lymphocytes?
a. GALT
b. lymph nodes
c. spleen
d. thymus
e. tonsils
d. thymus
Diapedesis is the
a. loss of blood due to hemorrhaging.
b. migration of white blood cells from the blood out to the tissues.
c. plugging of broken vessels to stop bleeding.
d. production of only red blood cells.
e. production of white blood cells, red blood cells and platelets.
b. migration of white blood cells from the blood out to the tissues.
All of the following are events of early inflammation except
a. brief vasoconstriction is followed by vasodilation.
b. capillaries become more permeable resulting in edema.
c. chemical mediators and cytokines are released.
d. exudate and pus can accumulate.
e. macrophages appear first and begin phagocytosis.
e. macrophages appear first and begin phagocytosis.
The leakage of vascular fluid into tissues is called
a. chemotaxis.
b. diapedesis.
c. edema.
d. pus.
e. vasoactivity.
c. edema.
The circulating substances that affect the hypothalamus and initiate fever are
a. complement.
b. interferons.
c. leukotrines.
d. lysozymes.
e. pyrogens.
e. pyrogens.
Each of the following are benefits of fever except it
a. increases metabolism.
b. increases phagocytosis.
c. increases the availability of iron.
d. reduces the ability of temperature sensitive organisms to multiply.
e. stimulates hematopoiesis.
c. increases the availability of iron.
Which of the following is not a type of phagocyte?
a. Kupffer cells
b. lymphocytes
c. macrophages
d. monocytes
e. neutrophils
b. lymphocytes
All of the following pertain to interferon except
a. includes alpha, beta and gamma types.
b. increases capillary permeability and vasodilation.
c. inhibits viruses, tumors and cancer gene expression.
d. it is a protein.
e. produced by certain white blood cells and tissue cells.
b. increases capillary permeability and vasodilation.
The four classic signs and symptoms of inflammation include all of the following except
a. chills.
b. pain.
c. redness.
d. swelling.
e. warmth.
a. chills.
Which of the following is incorrect about complement?
a. act in a cascade reaction
b. composed of at least 20 blood proteins
c. involves a classical pathway
d. involves an alternate pathway
e. only appear in the blood during a response to a pathogen
e. only appear in the blood during a response to a pathogen
The membrane attack stage of the complement cascade involves
a. a ring-shaped protein that digests holes in bacterial cell membranes and virus envelopes.
b. cleaving of C3 to yield C3a and C3b.
c. C1q binds to surface receptors on a membrane.
d. initiation of the cascade.
e. production of inflammatory cytokines.
a. a ring-shaped protein that digests holes in bacterial cell membranes and virus envelopes.
The ____ system of blood proteins acts to lyse foreign cells and viruses.
a. cell mediated
b. complement
c. humoral immunity
d. lymphoid
e. none of the choices are correct
b. complement
Which protein can be produced by a virus-infected cell, in order to communicate with other cells the need to produce antiviral proteins?
a. albumin
b. complement
c. histamine
d. interferon
d. interferon
If a CBC shows a moderate leukocytosis (14,000/ul) and lymphocytosis (48%), what type of condition is most likely to be affecting the patient?
a. allergic reaction
b. bacterial infection
c. leukemia
d. parasitic infection
e. viral infection
a. viral infection
If a CBC shows a marked leukocytosis (156,000/ul) with neutrophilia and shift to the left, what type of condition is most likely to be affecting the patient?
a. allergic reaction
b. bacterial infection
c. leukemia
d. parasitic infection
e. viral infection
c. leukemia
The lymphatic system
a. acts as a "receiving" system for the allergic response.
b. provides an auxiliary route for the return of extracellular fluid to the circulatory system proper.
c. renders destruction of foreign bodies through chemical lysing.
d. does all of the above.
b. provides an auxiliary route for the return of extracellular fluid to the circulatory system proper.
Which is the first antibody made during the primary response to an antigen?
a. IgA
b. IgD
c. IgE
d. IgG
e. IgM
e. IgM
The immunoglobulin involved with the allergic reactions is
a. IgA
b. IgD
c. IgE
d. IgG
e. IgM
c. IgE
A foreign molecule that causes a specific immune response is a/an
a. antibody.
b. antigen.
c. hapten.
d. marker.
e. PAMP.
b. antigen.
Acquired specific immunity involves the response of
a. B and T lymphocytes.
b. interferon.
c. lysozyme.
d. mucous membranes.
e. skin barriers.
a. B and T lymphocytes.
The embryonic yolk sac, the liver and the bone marrow are sites where
a. antigen is filtered from the blood.
b. antigen is filtered from tissue fluid.
c. immune responses to antigen occur.
d. stem cells give rise to immature lymphocytes.
e. T-lymphocytes complete maturation.
d. stem cells give rise to immature lymphocytes.
The progeny cells of a B-cell clone are called
a. activated macrophages.
b. antibodies.
c. bursa cells.
d. plasma cells.
e. sensitized T-cells.
d. plasma cells.
Helper T-cells
a. activate B-cells and other T-cells.
b. directly destroy target cells.
c. function in allergic reations.
d. secrete antibodies.
e. suppress immune reactions.
a. activate B-cells and other T-cells.
Plasma cells
a. activate B-cells and other T-cells.
b. directly destroy target cells.
c. function in allergic reations.
d. secrete antibodies.
e. suppress immune reactions.
d. secrete antibodies.
Lymphocyte maturation involves
a. B-cells maturing in bone marrow sites.
b. hormonal signals that initiate development.
c. release of mature lymphocytes to begin migration to various lymphoid organs.
d. T-cells maturing in the thymus.
e. all of the choices are correct.
e. all of the choices are correct.
What type of cells secrete antibodies?
a. antigen-presenting cells (APCs)
b. B-cells
c. cytotoxic T-cells
d. helper T-cellls
e. plasma cells
e. plasma cells
Cell surface markers involved in immune reactions
a. aid in cellular development.
b. are the result of genetic expression.
c. function in recognition of self molecules.
d. receive and transmit chemical messages among other cells of the system.
e. all of the choices are correct
e. all of the choices are correct
Lymphocytes
a. develop into clones of B and T-cells with extreme variations of specificity.
b. gain tolerance to self by destruction of lymphocytes that could react against self.
c. have membrane receptors that recognize foreign antigens.
d. possess MHC antigens for recognizing self.
e. all of the choices are correct
e. all of the choices are correct
The molecular fragment on antigen molecule that a lymphocyte recognizes and responds to is called a/an
a. antigen binding site.
b. epitope.
c. hapten.
d. variable region.
e. none of the choices are correct.
b. epitope.
Superantigens are
a. bacterial toxins that activate T-cells at a 100 times greater rate than other antigens.
b. body tissues that the immune system mistakes as foreign.
c. cell markers found in some member of a species but not in other members.
d. those that evoke allergic reactions.
e. none of the choices are correct
a. bacterial toxins that activate T-cells at a 100 times greater rate than other antigens.
Antigens that elicit allergic reactions are called
a. allergens.
b. autoantigens.
c. heterophilic antigens.
d. superantigens.
e. none of the choices are correct
a. allergens.
Which of the following is not a property of B-cells?
a. low numbers circulating in the blood
b. mature in the bone marrow
c. produce plasma cells and memory cells
d. receptors called immunoglobulins
e. require antigen presented with MHC proteins
e. require antigen presented with MHC proteins
Antigen presenting cells (APCs)
a. engulf and modify antigen to be more immunogenic.
b. hold and present processed antigen on their cell membrane surface.
c. include dendritic cells.
d. include macrophages.
e. all of the choices are correct
e. all of the choices are correct
Which process involves antibodies cross-linking cells or particles into large aggregates?
a. agglutination
b. anamnestic response
c. complement fixation
d. neutralization
e. opsonization
a. agglutination
Which process involves antibodies coating microorganisms in order to
facilitate phagocytosis?
a. agglutination
b. anamnestic response
c. complement fixation
d. neutralization
e. opsonization
e. opsonization
Which process involves a more rapid synthesis and greatly increased titer of antibody when the immune system is subsequently exposed to the same antigen?
a. agglutination
b. anamnestic response
c. complement fixation
d. neutralization
e. opsonization
b. anamnestic response
The immunoglobulin class that has a dimer form found in mucus, saliva, colostrum and other body secretions is
a. IgA.
b. IgD.
c. IgE.
d. IgG.
e. IgM.
a. IgA.
The immunoglobulin class that is the only one capable of crossing the placenta is
a. IgA.
b. IgD.
c. IgE.
d. IgG.
e. IgM.
d. IgG.
The immunoglobulin class that has an Fc region that binds to receptors on
basophils and mast cells is
a. IgA.
b. IgD.
c. IgE.
d. IgG.
e. IgM.
c. IgE
All of the following are characteristics of IgM except
a. can serve as a B-cell receptor.
b. contains a central J chain.
c. has 10 antigen binding sites.
d. is a dimer.
e. is the first class synthesized by a plasma cell.
d. is a dimer.
The immunoglobulin(s) found on the surface of B-cells is/are
a. IgD and IgE.
b. IgD only.
c. IgG only.
d. IgM and IgD.
e. IgM only.
b. IgD only.
Monoclonal antibodies
a. are secreted by hybridomas.
b. are used in immunology lab tests and cancer therapy.
c. have a single specificity for antigen.
d. originate from a single B-cell clone.
e. all of the choices are correct.
e. all of the choices are correct.
____ is the most abundant class of antibodies in serum.
a. IgA.
b. IgD.
c. IgE.
d. IgG.
e. IgM.
d. IgG.
An activated TH cell produces ____ which is a growth factor for T-helper cells and cytotoxic T-cells.
a. antiserum
b. complement
c. interleukin-1
d. interleukin-2
e. interleukin-12
d. interleukin-2
What process provides many B-cells and T-cells that are activated against specific antigens?
a. antibody production
b. antigen expression
c. antigen presentation
d. clonal expansion
e. opsonization
d. clonal expansion
The most significant cells in graft rejection are
a. cytotoxic T-cells.
b. delayed hypersensitivity T-cells.
c. helper T-cells.
d. natural killer (NK) cells.
e. suppressor T-cells.
a. cytotoxic T-cells.
Which lymphocytes lack specificity for antigen and are cells that attack cancer cells and virus-infected cells?
a. cytotoxic T-cells.
b. delayed hypersensitivity T-cells.
c. helper T-cells.
d. natural killer (NK) cells.
e. suppressor T-cells.
d. natural killer (NK) cells.
Which of the following is not a target for Tc cells?
a. bacteria
b. cancer cells
c. human transplanted liver
d. pig transplanted heart
e. virus-infected cells
a. bacteria
The beauty of specific immunity is the production of ____ that provides longlasting protection.
a. antibodies
b. memory cells
c. phagocytic cells
d. plasma cells
e. T-helper cells
b. memory cells
An example of artificial passive immunity would be
a. a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta.
b. chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity.
c. chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox.
d. giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease.
e. none of the choices are correct
d. giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease.
An example of natural passive immunity would be
a. a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta.
b. chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity.
c. chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox.
d. giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease.
e. none of the choices are correct
a. a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta.
An example of artificial active immunity would be
a. a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta.
b. chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity.
c. chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox.
d. giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease.
e. none of the choices are correct
c. chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox.
An example of natural active immunity would be
a. a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta.
b. chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity.
c. chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox.
d. giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease.
e. none of the choices are correct
b. chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity.
During which response to the antigen do we display a latent period of no secretory antibody synthesis?
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
d. quaternary
a. primary
Which of the following statements is not true about innate immunity?
a. These responses are innate or inborn.
b. These responses are not affected by prior exposure to the agent.
c. These responses are not directed specifically to the infectious agent.
d. These responses are operating constantly to prevent the establishment of
any infection.
e. All of the above are true with regard to innate immunity.
e. All of the above are true with regard to innate immunity.
Which of the following is not an example of a nonspecific defense mechanism?
a. antibodies or immunoglobulins
b. flushing action of tears, saliva and urine.
c. inflammation
d. mucous membranes
e. skin
a. antibodies or immunoglobulins
The granulocytes that are actively phagocytic and the most numerous of the leukocytes circulating in the blood are the
a. basophils.
b. eosinophils.
c. lymphocytes.
d. monocytes.
e. neutrophils.
e. neutrophils.
The type of leukocyte that is found in the tissues throughout the body, is actively phagocytic, and constitutes the mononuclear phagocyte system is the
a. basophil.
b. eosinophil.
c. lymphocyte.
d. monocyte.
e. neutrophil.
d. monocyte.
All of the following are true regarding macrophages except
a. macrophages are derived from neutrophils.
b. macrophages play an important role in both innate and adaptive immunity.
c. they are found in most tissues of the body.
d. they can be activated to produce specific enzymes that will degrade the specific molecules or particles that they ingest.
e. to ingest large particles or to fight chronic infections, they can fuse together and form giant cells.
a. macrophages are derived from neutrophils.
Which of the following is true with regards to Toll-like receptors?
a. They are found on the surface of macrophages.
b. They are important for innate immunity.
c. They promote chemokine production.
d. They recognize conserved molecules on bacteria.
e. All of the above are true.
e. All of the above are true.
All of the following are true regarding apoptosis except it
a. damages DNA.
b. induces inflammation.
c. induces membrane budding.
d. induces phagocytosis of cells by macrophages.
e. results in programmed cell death.
b. induces inflammation.
Place the following events in the order in which they would occur during the process of phagocytosis.
1. attachment 2. chemotaxis 3. digestion 4. ingestion
a. 1, 2, 4, 3
b. 1, 4, 3, 2
c. 2, 1, 4, 3
d. 2, 4, 1, 3
e. 2, 4, 3, 1
c. 2, 1, 4, 3
2. chemotaxis
1. attachment
4. ingestion
3. digestion
An enzyme found in our tears, saliva, serum, and mucus that degrades the peptidoglycan of the cell wall of Gram-positive bacteria is called
a. amylase.
b. keratinase.
c. lysozyme.
d. peptidase.
e. streptokinase.
c. lysozyme.
A protein found in neutrophils, mucous secretions, saliva, and other body secretions that binds to iron, thus making it unavailable for microbial growth is
called
a. catalase.
b. complement.
c. lactoferrin.
d. lysozyme.
e. peroxidase.
c. lactoferrin.
Which of the following are mechanisms that protect the respiratory system from infection?
1. acidic environment
2. lysozyme
3. mucociliary escalator
4. mucus
5. normal flora
a. 2, 3
b. 2, 3, 4, 5
c. 4, 3, 1
d. 4, 3, 5
e. 4, 5
b. 2, 3, 4, 5
2. lysozyme
3. mucociliary escalator
4. mucus
5. normal flora
Which of the following substances is produced by the cells in our body and interferes with the multiplication of viruses by stimulating the production of antiviral proteins?
a. antivirase
b. complement
c. inhibitase
d. interferon
e. multiplicase
d. interferon
All of the following are ways that a fever is important in our defense against infections except it
a. can inhibit the growth of some microbes.
b. denatures the enzymes of bacteria and viruses.
c. increases the body's reactions and increases the rate of tissue repair.
d. increases the production of T-lymphocytes.
e. intensifies the effect of interferon.
b. denatures the enzymes of bacteria and viruses.
Which of the following is not true with regard to complement?
a. It can bind to the surface of microbes and promote phagocytosis.
b. It damages plasma membranes of foreign cells.
c. It is a cascade pathway.
d. It is an immune process that is specific to the invading microbe.
e. It is involved in the development of inflammation.
d. It is an immune process that is specific to the invading microbe.
Which of the following would be classified as a cytokine?
1. catalase 2. complement 3. interferon
4. interleukins 5. tumor necrosis factor
a. 2, 3, 4
b. 2, 3, 5
c. 3, 4, 5
d. 3, 4, 5, 1
e. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
c. 3, 4, 5
3. interferon
4. interleukins
5. tumor necrosis factor
The movement of phagocytes in the direction of an infection, due to attraction by complement, chemicals released by microorganisms, and the remnants of damaged cell membranes is a process called
a. adherence.
b. chemotaxis.
c. diapedesis.
d. pavementing.
e. phagocytosis.
b. chemotaxis.
Complement and immunoglobulins can coat the outer surface of a microorganism making it easier for attachment and phagocytosis. The enhancement of phagocytosis is called
a. chemotaxis.
b. endotoxicity.
c. membrane attack complexing
d. opsonization.
e. pavementing.
d. opsonization.
A group of cytokines released by leukocytes that function to induce fever, signal the release of neutrophils from the bone marrow in large numbers, and stimulate macrophages to release cytokines are called
a. colony stimulating factors.
b. endotoxins.
c. interferons.
d. interleukins.
e. tumor necrosis factors.
d. interleukins.
Which of the following is not true regarding inflammation?
a. Cytokines, histamine, complement and other chemical mediators are released.
b. Monocytes are the first cells to arrive from the bloodstream at the site of inflammation.
c. The purpose of inflammation is to remove foreign invaders and heal the damaged tissue.
d. The same sequence of events occurs in response to any injury, whether it be a burn, an infection, or trauma.
e. The signs of inflammation are pain, redness, swelling, heat, and possibly loss of function.
b. Monocytes are the first cells to arrive from the bloodstream at the site of inflammation
Which of the following cells are important in the process of inflammation?
1. basophils/mast cells
2. macrophages
3. megakaryocytes
4. monocytes
5. neutrophils/PMNs
a. 1, 2, 4, 5
b. 1, 3, 4, 5
c. 2, 4
d. 2, 5
e. 4, 5
a. 1, 2, 4, 5
1. basophils/mast cells
2. macrophages
4. monocytes
5. neutrophils/PMNs
Antihistamines are used to decrease the inflammatory response. Which cell's function is directly blocked by antihistamine treatments?
a. basophils
b. eosinophils
c. macrophages
d. monocytes
e. neutrophils
a. basophils
Smoking inhibits the action of cilia. This would most likely impair the innate defenses of which body system?
a. digestive
b. lymphatic
c. respiratory
d. skin
e. urinary tract
c. respiratory
The genetic disorder cystic fibrosis diminishes mucus secretions. What body structures would be most subject to infection as a result of this condition?
1. eyes 2. intestines 3. lungs 4. skin 5. stomach
a. 1, 2, 3, 5
b. 1, 3
c. 2, 3
d. 2, 5
e. 3, 4, 5
c. 2, 3
2. intestines
3. lungs
Being startled sometimes causes neutrophils to
leave reserve areas and become elevated in the blood and various body tissues. This is an indication that the reaction to fear or stress causes the release of which of these innate immune
response chemicals.
a. colony stimulating factor
b. complement
c. interferons
d. interleukins
e. tumor necrosis factor alpha
d. interleukins
Medical studies have revealed that cancer cells are not directly responsible for most of the body decay associated when the disease spreads throughout the body. This is most likely due the way the innate immune system over-responds to cancer. Which of the following cytokines was shown by researchers to cause cellular damage attributed to cancer?
a. colony stimulating factor
b. IL-1
c. interferon alpha
d. interferon beta
e. tumor necrosis factor
e. tumor necrosis factor
An antigen is
a. a cytokine.
b. a hypervariable region of an antibody.
c. a molecule that reacts specifically with an antibody or immune
lymphocyte.
d. the constant region of an antibody.
e. none of the above.
c. a molecule that reacts specifically with an antibody or immune
Immunoglobulins
a. are glycoproteins.
b. increase phagocytosis.
c. neutralize toxins.
d. recognize and bind to foreign substances.
e. all of the above.
e. all of the above.
IgM
a. attaches to mast cells and basophils.
b. has five antigen-binding sites.
c. has five constant regions.
d. has the ability to cross the placenta.
e. is secreted into saliva.
c. has five constant regions.
The epitope is
a. part of the antigen that is bound by the antibody.
b. part of the hypervariable region of the antibody.
c. the part of the antibody that binds to the antigen.
d. the part of the antibody that binds to the T-helper cell.
e. none of the above.
a. part of the antigen that is bound by the antibody.
IgE is
a. involved with the allergic reaction.
b. secreted into the intestinal tract.
c. the antibody that crosses the placenta for the child's immune response.
d. the receptor for antigens on the B-lymphocyte.
e. none of the above.
a. involved with the allergic reaction.
Which of the following is false?
a. T-helper cells activate specific B-cells.
b. T-helper cells are antigen specific.
c. T-helper cells have CD4 on the cell surface.
d. T-helper cells kill virus-infected cells.
e. T-helper cells release cytokines.
d. T-helper cells kill virus-infected cells.
MHC class I proteins
a. are present on only immune system cells.
b. are specific for certain antigens.
c. induce non-specific antibody response.
d. present viral antigens when a cell is infected.
e. none of the above.
d. present viral antigens when a cell is infected.
Which of the following is false?
a. MHC class II molecules are present on only immune system cells.
b. MHC class II molecules are principally found on the professional antigenpresenting cells.
c. MHC class II molecules are specific for certain antigens.
d. MHC class II molecules present antigen to T-helper cells.
e. All of the above
c. MHC class II molecules are specific for certain antigens.
Dendritic cells and macrophages start the immune response by
a. activating B-cells directly.
b. degrading foreign proteins and presenting them on MHC class II proteins.
c. degrading MHC class I proteins and presenting them on the surface of their cells.
d. producing cytokines to recruit T-helper cells.
e. none of the above.
b. degrading foreign proteins and presenting them on MHC class II proteins.
Which of the following is false? T-cell-dependent antigens
a. are bound on MHC class II proteins for presentation.
b. interact with B-cells.
c. interact with macrophages.
d. interact with plasma cells.
e. interact with T-helper cells.
d. interact with plasma cells.
Clonal expansion
a. affects only memory cells.
b. happens only with B-cells that produce IgE.
c. occurs with both T-cells and B-cells.
d. only happens to B-cells as they become plasma cells.
e. a and b.
c. occurs with both T-cells and B-cells.
Which of the following is false? By having a clonal expansion of B-cells, the body is able to
a. allow for more memory cells to be produced.
b. give a slower antibody response to a second antigen challenge.
c. give a stronger antibody response to a second antigen challenge.
d. only produce an IgG response to second antigen challenge.
e. speed up the IgM response to the second antigen challenge.
e. speed up the IgM response to the second antigen challenge.
Which of the following is false? The cell-mediated immune response involves
a. B-cells.
b. CD8 molecules.
c. clonal expansion.
d. cytotoxic T-cells.
e. MHC class I molecules.
a. B-cells.
Which of the following is false? Cytotoxic T-cells
a. are activated by tumor necrosis factor.
b. can act as plasma cells.
c. contain CD8.
d. kill target cells by inducing apoptosis.
e. recognize virus-infected cells.
b. can act as plasma cells.
The Fab region of an antibody
a. binds to the antigen.
b. is constant for antibodies in the same class.
c. is important in cellular recognition.
d. is not found in all antibody classes.
e. none of the above.
a. binds to the antigen.
The maternal IgG antibodies decrease in a child because
a. antibody production is decreased in the newborn child.
b. IgM antibodies are the major maternal antibody given.
c. maternal antibodies are cleared from the child's system in 6 months.
d. the child is not exposed to the antigen anymore.
e. none of the above.
c. maternal antibodies are cleared from the child's system in 6 months.
Opsonization
a. helps increase phagocytosis.
b. is the interaction that allows IgG to cross the placenta.
c. is the killing of target cells by cytotoxic T-cells.
d. is the secretory component of IgA.
e. none of the above.
a. helps increase phagocytosis.
CD4+ cells are
a. B-cells.
b. cytotoxic T cells.
c. macrophages.
d. T-helper cells.
e. all of the above.
d. T-helper cells.
A plasma cell is a ____ cell that produces ____.
a. B; antibodies.
b. CD3; antibodies.
c. cytotoxic T; cell-killing.
d. macrophage; antigens.
e. T; cytokines.
a. B; antibodies.
Which of the following is false? The natural killer (NK) cell
a. can kill cancer cells.
b. can kill virus-infected cells.
c. is part of the cytotoxic T-cell response.
d. kills based on interaction with Fc parts of antibodies that are bound to
antigens.
e. releases granules that kill target cells.
c. is part of the cytotoxic T-cell response.
Many physicians prefer mother's milk over cow's milk for infants. This is because mother's milk has the following property not found in cow's milk.
a. antibodies against human disease
b. B-cells
c. MHCs for maturing the infant's immune system
d. more essential amino acids
e. proteins for growing human muscle
a. antibodies against human disease
Anti-idiotype antibodies are naturally-occurring antibodies that stick to the antigen-binding sites of specific antibodies. What is their probable effect on the adaptive immune response?
a. accelerates the binding of antibodies to antigens
b. counteracts the complement cascade
c. interferes with the binding of antibodies to antigens
d. prevents autoimmune disease
e. stimulates opsonization
c. interferes with the binding of antibodies to antigens
A genetically engineered drug that binds to the heavy chain of IgE would be most useful for
a. building up innate immunity.
b. controlling transplant rejection.
c. enhancing opsonization.
d. reducing blood transfusion illness.
e. treating allergies.
e. treating allergies.
Researchers at the National Institutes of Health learned that cells from the mother migrate into the fetus during early development of humans. These cells usually remain for the life of the person. This very likely affects the immune system in the following way.
a. Increasing the chance of transplant rejection in child to father transplants
b. It is just a curiosity and has no effect on transplant rejection.
c. Reducing the chance of transplant rejection in child to mother transplants.
d. Reducing the chance of transplant rejection in father to child transplants.
e. Reducing the chance of transplant rejection in mother to child transplants.
e. Reducing the chance of transplant rejection in mother to child transplants.
Computer modeling of drugs is extensively used in the pharmaceutical industry to evaluate the safety of drug components. Why would it be difficult to use
computer-generated images of chemicals to determine whether a particular chemical can cause an immune response?
a. It is difficult to make computer models of antibodies.
b. It is difficult to make computer models of antigens.
c. It is difficult to predict the binding of antibody-antigen complex.
d. It is difficult to predict whether a chemical acts as a hapten.
e. Even supercomputers do not have the memory to handle such calculations.
d. It is difficult to predict whether a chemical acts as a hapten.
What features of the respiratory system protect us from infection?
a. cilia
b. macrophages
c. mucus
d. nasal hairs
e. all of the choices are correct
e. all of the choices are correct
Which antibody is concentrated in the respiratory tract?
a. IgA
b. IgE
c. IgG
d. IgM
e. all of the choices are correct
a. IgA
Normal biota of the upper respiratory tract include
a. Candida albicans.
b. Corynebacterium.
c. Hemophilus influenzae.
d. Staphylococcus aureus.
e. all of the choices are correct
e. all of the choices are correct
Normal biota of the upper respiratory tract include
a. alpha-hemolytic streptococci.
b. Neisseria meningitidis.
c. Streptococcus pneumoniae.
d. Streptococcus pyogenes.
e. all of the choices are correct
e. all of the choices are correct
What is the function of normal biota of the respiratory tract?
a. competes with pathogens for resources and space
b. microbial antagonism
c. provides antibodies
d. both a and b are correct
e. all of the choices are correct
d. both a and b are correct
Infection travels to the middle ear by way of the
a. auditory canal.
b. Eustachian (auditory) tubes.
c. nasal cavity.
d. sinuses.
e. subarachnoid space.
b. Eustachian (auditory) tubes.
Streptococcus agalactiae (Group B Strep) causes
a. croup
b. early onset or late onset respiratory infection in neonates.
c. glomerulonephritis.
d. scarlet fever.
b. early onset or late onset respiratory infection in neonates.
The most common causative agent of otitis media is
a. Aspergillus fumigatus.
b. Candida albicans.
c. Corynebacterium.
d. Hemophilus influenzae.
e. Streptococcus pneumoniae.
e. Streptococcus pneumoniae.
Streptococcal pharyngitis involves all of the following except
a. a purulent exudate over the tonsils.
b. can lead to scarlet fever if it is an erythrogenic toxin-producing strain.
c. can lead to serious sequelae.
d. causes redness, difficulty in swallowing and fever.
e. is usually caused by the viridans streptococci.
e. is usually caused by the viridans streptococci.
The bright red rash and fever of scarlet fever is due to
a. enterotoxins.
b. erythrogenic toxin.
c. exfoliative toxin.
d. hemolysins.
e. toxic shock syndrome toxin.
b. erythrogenic toxin.
Rheumatic fever is caused by
a. a primary streptococcal infection.
b. a primary viral infection.
c. a secondary streptococcal infection.
d. both a primary streptococcal infection and a primary viral infection.
e. both a primary viral infection and a secondary streptococcal infection.
a. a primary streptococcal infection.
Superantigens
a. include erythrogenic toxin.
b. include streptolysin O.
c. include only streptolysin and erythrogenic toxin.
d. induce production of tumor necrosis factor.
e. all of the choices are correct
e. all of the choices are correct
Which of the following is/are the main causative agent(s) of pharyngitis?
a. Aspergillus fumigatus.
b. Streptococcus pyogenes.
c. viruses.
d. both a and c are correct
e. both b and c are correct
e. both b and c are correct
Untreated streptococcal pharyngitis can lead to all of the following except
a. glomerulonephritis.
b. otitis media.
c. rheumatic fever.
d. scarlatina.
e. scarlet fever.
b. otitis media.
Which of the following is not true of Streptococcus pyogenes?
a. beta-hemolytic
b. forms spores
c. Gram positive
d. group A streptococcus
e. sensitive to bacitracin
b. forms spores
Pertussis has the following characteristics except
a. catarrhal stage has persistent, hacking cough with "whoops".
b. DTaP immunization will prevent it.
c. early stage resembles a cold with nasal discharge and sneezing.
d. pathogen has virulence factors to destroy the action of respiratory cilia.
e. transmission is by respiratory droplets.
a. catarrhal stage has persistent, hacking cough with "whoops".
The causative organism of whooping cough is
a. Bordetella pertussis.
b. Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
c. Hemophilus influenzae.
d. Streptococcus pneumoniae.
e. Streptococcus pyogenes.
a. Bordetella pertussis.
Which of the following is not true of whooping cough?
a. an uncontrollable cough occurs during the paroxysmal stage
b. caused by a small aerobic Gram-negative rod.
c. cold-like symptoms are common for the paroxysmal stage.
d. incubation period is 3-21 days.
e. secondary infections can occur during the convalescent phase.
c. cold-like symptoms are common for the paroxysmal stage.
Which is not correct about Mycobacterium species?
a. acid fast
b. all species are human pathogens
c. cell walls have waxy lipids
d. long, slender rods
e. usually have a slow growth rate
b. all species are human pathogens
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
a. can survive for 8 months in fine aerosol particles.
b. has a capsule.
c. has a cord factor that can prevent destruction by lysosomes and
macrophages.
d. lives in the soil.
e. produces several virulence factor enzymes and an exotoxin.
a. can survive for 8 months in fine aerosol particles.
All of the following pertain to tuberculosis except
a. antimicrobials cannot treat and cure tuberculosis.
b. live bacilli can remain dormant in the lungs and reactivate later in life.
c. lung infection can disseminate to many other organs in extrapulmonary TB.
d. symptoms of active TB include low-grade fever, coughing, fatigue, weight loss and night sweats.
e. the BCG vaccine is used in other countries.
a. antimicrobials cannot treat and cure tuberculosis.
Tuberculin skin testing
a. injects PPD intradermally.
b. uses a purified protein filtrate of Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
c. will be positive if the person has had previous exposure.
d. will be positive in active TB.
e. all of the choices are correct
e. all of the choices are correct
A diagnosis of tuberculosis involves
a. acid fast stain of sputum.
b. chest X-ray.
c. sputum culture.
d. tuberculin skin test.
e. all of the choices are correct
e. all of the choices are correct
The tubercles formed in primary tuberculosis are caused by an influx of
a. antibodies.
b. basophils.
c. mononuclear cells.
d. neutrophils.
e. polymorphonuclear leukocytes.
c. mononuclear cells.
Extrapulmonary TB is more common in
a. AIDS patients.
b. elderly.
c. organ transplant patients.
d. young children and immunosuppressed patients.
e. all of the choices are correct
d. young children and immunosuppressed patients.
When the centers of tubercles break down into ____ lesions, they gradually heal by calcification that replaces normal lung tissue.
a. granuloma
b. necrotic caseous
c. primary
d. secondary
e. tertiary
b. necrotic caseous
Which is incorrect about Mycoplasma pneumoniae?
a. after 2-3 weeks develops into an unproductive cough and earache
b. common cause of primary atypical pneumonia
c. has birds as a reservoir
d. initially causes fever, malaise, sore throat and headache
e. is a bacterial cell without a cell wall
c. has birds as a reservoir
Streptococcus pneumoniae is
a. a Gram positive diplococcus with a capsule.
b. alpha-hemolytic on blood agar.
c. a pathogen with endotoxin.
d. found in up to 50% of people as normal flora.
e. all of the choices are correct
e. all of the choices are correct
Disease(s) caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae include
a. bronchial pneumonia.
b. lobar pneumonia.
c. meningitis.
d. otitis media.
e. all of the choices are correct
e. all of the choices are correct
People at greatest risk for pneumococcal infections include all the following except
a. adolescents and young adults.
b. patients without a spleen.
c. the elderly.
d. those with underlying lung disease and viral infections.
e. young adults.
b. patients without a spleen.
Legionella pneumophila
a. always causes a severe pneumonia.
b. causes fever, cough and diarrhea.
c. often lives intracellularly in amoebas.
d. requires special lab growth media.
e. all of the choices are correct
e. all of the choices are correct
Which disease involves transmission by aerosolized water from whirlpool spas, air
conditioners, cooling towers and supermarket vegetable misters?
a. brucellosis
b. legionellosis
c. pertussis
d. plague
e. traveler's diarrhea
b. legionellosis
Which of the following is caused by Hemophilus influenzae in the respiratory tract?
a. bacterial meningitis
b. bronchitis
c. epiglottitis
d. influenza
e. otitis media
e. otitis media
The vaccine for immunity to Hemophilus influenzae serotype b is
a. DTaP.
b. Hib.
c. MMR.
d. pneumovax.
e. none of the choices are correct
b. Hib.
Defenses of the GIT against pathogens include
a. GALT.
b. mucus, acid and saliva.
c. peristalsis.
d. secretory IgA and lysozyme.
e. all of the choices are correct
e. all of the choices are correct
Oral flora bacteria on the tooth surface
a. develop a biofilm.
b. include streptococci that metabolize sucrose, produce sticky glucans and form plaque.
c. lactobacilli and streptococci ferment carbohydrates and produce acids that cause caries.
d. use fimbriae and slime layers to adhere.
e. all of the choices are correct
e. all of the choices are correct
Helicobacter pylori causes
a. duodenal ulcers.
b. gastritis.
c. increased risk of stomach cancer.
d. stomach ulcers.
e. all of the choices are correct
e. all of the choices are correct
Which is not a characteristic of Helicobacter pylori?
a. curved rods
b. Gram negative
c. lives in the stomach
d. produces enterotoxin that causes diarrhea
e. produces urease that buffers stomach acidity
d. produces enterotoxin that causes diarrhea
Which of the following is mismatched?
a. H antigen - flagellar
b. K antigen - capsular
c. O antigen - cell wall, somatic
d. all of the choices are correct
e. all of the choices are mismatched
d. all of the choices are correct
Salmonella are
a. Gram positive rods.
b. lactose fermenters.
c. methane producers.
d. motile.
e. all of the choices are correct
d. motile.
Typhoid fever has the following characteristics except
a. becomes a septicemia, spreads to lymph nodes and spleen and causes liver abscesses.
b. chronic carriers have pathogen in their gallbladder.
c. infects the small intestine with fever, diarrhea and abdominal pain.
d. spread by ingestion of food contaminated with animal feces.
e. transmitted by ingesting food and water contaminated with human feces.
d. spread by ingestion of food contaminated with animal feces.
Salmonelloses are
a. associated with undercooked poultry and eggs and reptile and rodent feces.
b. gastroenteritis with vomiting and diarrhea.
c. not caused by Salmonella typhi.
d. treated with fluid and electrolyte replacement.
e. all of the choices are correct
e. all of the choices are correct
Salmonella typhi
a. can be treated with antimicrobials.
b. causes invasive infection of the small intestine.
c. does not cause typhus.
d. multiplies within phagocytes and lymph nodes.
e. all of the choices are correct
e. all of the choices are correct
Which is incorrect about shigellosis?
a. also called dysentery
b. frequently involve septicemia
c. human carriers cause fecal transmission
d. outbreaks have occurred in day care centers
e. watery diarrhea with bloody, mucoid stools and abdominal cramps
b. frequently involve septicemia
Shigella species have the following characteristic except they
a. are not motile, Gram-negative rods.
b. are reservoir is human carriers.
c. infect the large intestine.
d. produce enterotoxin called shiga toxin.
e. produce urease and hydrogen sulfide.
e. produce urease and hydrogen sulfide.
E. coli O157:H7 characteristics include all of the following except
a. it causes a bloody diarrhea.
b. it has a reservoir of cattle intestines.
c. it is transmitted by ingestion of contaminated, undercooked food, especially hamburger.
d. it only causes occupational illness in people who work with animals.
e. some cases go on to hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) with possible kidney failure.
d. it only causes occupational illness in people who work with animals.
Which of the following is not true of enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC)?
a. a high fever is present
b. causes traveler's diarrhea
c. has an A-B, heat-labile exotoxin
d. has heat-stable exotoxins.
e. mainly affects the small intestine.
a. a high fever is present
Which of the following is not true of enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC)?
a. blood and pus in the stool
b. high fever is present
c. invades gut mucosa
d. no heat-labile or heat-stable exotoxins
e. produces shiga toxin
e. produces shiga toxin
Escherichia coli infections
a. are often transmitted by fecal contaminated water and food.
b. include EIEC that destroys gut mucosa.
c. involve enterotoxin in traveler's diarrhea.
d. that are self-limiting with the only treatment being rehydration.
e. all of the choices are correct
e. all of the choices are correct
All of the following are characteristic of Campylobacter jejuni except it
a. causes fever and a watery to bloody diarrhea.
b. infects the stomach.
c. is a Gram-negative curved rod with darting motility.
d. is transmitted through ingestion of contaminated food and water.
e. produces an enterotoxin that stimulates diarrhea.
b. infects the stomach.
The most common bacterial cause of diarrhea in the United States is
a. Campylobacter.
b. E. coli.
c. Salmonella.
d. Shigella.
e. Yersinia.
a. Campylobacter.
Campylobacter infection has all of the following characteristics except it
a. burrows into the mucosa of the ileum and multiplies.
b. can cause acute temporary paralysis.
c. can last over two weeks.
d. can lead to Guillain-Barre syndrome.
e. is caused by a shiga toxin.
e. is caused by a shiga toxin.
Production of enterotoxin is a characteristic of
a. Clostridium botulinum.
b. Clostridium difficile.
c. Clostridium perfringens.
d. Clostridium tetani.
e. all of the choices are correct
b. Clostridium difficile.
Which is true of Yersinia enterocolitica and Yersinia pseudotuberculosis?
a. are Gram positive
b. cause Guillain-Barre syndrome
c. intense pain caused by inflammation of the ileum and mesenteric lymph nodes
d. passed only through direct contact
e. Y. pseudotuberculosis causes tuberculosis
c. intense pain caused by inflammation of the ileum and mesenteric lymph nodes
All of the following pertain to Clostridium difficile infection except it
a. is a colitis that is a superinfection.
b. is associated with disruption of normal flora due to broad spectrum antimicrobials.
c. is due to ingestion of contaminated, improperly stored, cooked meats and gravies.
d. is the major cause of diarrhea in hospitals.
e. often has an endogenous source.
c. is due to ingestion of contaminated, improperly stored, cooked meats and gravies.
Which is not true of Clostridium difficile?
a. a Gram positive, endospore-forming rod
b. causes pseudomembranous colitis
c. infection precipitated by broad sprectrum antibiotic therapy
d. part of normal intestinal biota
e. produces "rice water" stools
e. produces "rice water" stools
The virulence of Vibrio cholerae is due to its
a. capsule.
b. enterotoxin.
c. invasive enzymes.
d. neurotoxin.
e. all of the choices are correct
b. enterotoxin.
Cholera symptom(s) is/are
a. acidosis, sunken eyes, and thirst.
b. copious amounts of watery diarrhea.
c. hypotension, tachycardia, and shock.
d. loss of blood volume.
e. all of the choices are correct
e. all of the choices are correct
The most immediate and important treatment needed to prevent death in cholera victims is
a. antimicrobials.
b. antitoxin.
c. surgery.
d. water and electrolyte replacement.
e. none of the choices are correct
d. water and electrolyte replacement.
"Rice water" stools are associated with disease caused by which organism?
a. Campylobacter jejuni
b. Helicobacter pylori
c. Vibrio cholerae
d. Vibrio parahaemolyticus
e. Vibrio vulnificus
c. Vibrio cholerae
Outbreaks of this disease have been associated with fecal-contaminated drinking water.
a. cryptosporidiosis
b. cyclosporiasis
c. toxoplasmosis
d. trichinosis
e. none of the choices are correct
a. cryptosporidiosis
Symptoms of cryptosporidiosis include
a. a red skin papule that spreads to a large ulcer.
b. bloody, mucus-filled stools and fever.
c. chills, fever, and sweats.
d. headache, sweats, vomiting, severe abdominal cramps and diarrhea.
e. none of the choices are correct
d. headache, sweats, vomiting, severe abdominal cramps and diarrhea.
The primary viral cause of chronic diarrhea globally is
a. adenovirus.
b. astrovirus.
c. Cryptosporidium.
d. norovirus.
e. rotavirus.
e. rotavirus.
Which of the following is not a normal causative agent of acute diarrhea with vomiting caused by food poisoning?
a. Bacillus cereus
b. Clostridium difficile
c. Clostridium perfringens
d. Staphylococcus aureus exotoxin
e. all of the choices are correct
b. Clostridium difficile
A common food intoxication is caused by enterotoxin-producing strains of
a. Staphylococcus aureus.
b. Staphylococcus epidermidis.
c. Staphylococcus saprophyticus.
d. Streptococcus agalactiae.
e. Streptococcus pyogenes.
a. Staphylococcus aureus.
Which is incorrect about Staphylococcus aureus food intoxication?
a. after contamination, food must be left unrefrigerated a few hours
b. commonly associated foods include custards, ham, cream pastries and processed meats
c. food gets contaminated by a human carrier
d. ingestion of the pathogen allows it to multiply and damage the GIT lining
e. symptoms come on quickly and include nausea, vomiting and diarrhea
d. ingestion of the pathogen allows it to multiply and damage the GIT lining
Entamoeba histolytica is acquired by
a. anal-oral sexual contact.
b. contaminated food.
c. contaminated water.
d. ingestion of cysts of the pathogen.
e. all of the choices are correct
e. all of the choices are correct
All of the following can be transmitted by drinking contaminated water except
a. campylobacteriosis.
b. cholera.
c. cryptosporidiosis.
d. giardiasis.
e. malaria.
e. malaria.
Giardiasis involves
a. a protozoan that does not form cysts.
b. infection of the large intestine.
c. symptoms of abdominal pain, flatulence and diarrhea.
d. vector transmission.
e. all of the choices are correct
c. symptoms of abdominal pain, flatulence and diarrhea.
Inflammation of the lungs in which the alveoli become filled with pus is called
a. bronchitis.
b. bronchiolitis.
c. pleurisy.
d. pneumonia.
e. pneumonitis.
d. pneumonia
Which of the following is/are important parts of the mucociliary escalator?
1. alveoli 2. cilia 3. columnar epithelium 4. goblet cells 5. mucus
a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
b. 2, 3, 4
c. 2, 3, 4, 5
d. 2, 4, 5
e. 2, 5
c. 2, 3, 4, 5
2. cilia
3. columnar epithelium
4. goblet cells
5. mucus
All of the following are true of the normal flora of the respiratory system except
a. aerobes, facultative anaerobes, and anaerobes are all present.
b. normal flora of some people include Staphylococcus, Corynebacterium, and Streptococcus.
c. since these microbes are part of the normal flora, they are not pathogenic.
d. the middle ear, the sinuses, trachea, bronchioles, and alveoli are normally sterile.
e. all of the above are true.
c. since these microbes are part of the normal flora, they are not pathogenic.
All of the following virulence factors are produced by Streptococcus pyogenes except
a. a capsule that inhibits phagocytosis.
b. M-protein that interferes with complement.
c. protein F that assists in attachment.
d. protein G that binds to immunoglobulins and prevents phagocytosis.
e. all of the above are virulence factors produced by Streptococcus pyogenes.
e. all of the above are virulence factors produced by Streptococcus pyogenes.
All of the following diseases are caused by Streptococcus pyogenes except
a. flesh-eating necrotizing fasciitis.
b. scarlet fever.
c. strep throat.
d. streptococcal toxic shock syndrome.
e. walking pneumonia.
e. walking pneumonia.
Streptococcus pyogenes produces many virulence factors. All of the following virulence factors and their functions are correct except
a. M protein interferes with complement and therefore phagocytosis.
b. protein F mediates attachment.
c. protein G inhibits phagocytosis by interfering with antibodies.
d. streptolysins lyse erythrocytes and leukocytes.
e. all of the above are correct.
e. all of the above are correct.
Complications of streptococcal infections include scarlet fever, toxic shock syndrome, and necrotizing fasciitis. Which of the following is the virulence factor that causes these complications?
a. hyaluronidase
b. M protein
c. peptidases
d. streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxin
e. streptolysins
d. streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxin
All of the following are true with regard to diphtheria except
a. childhood immunization protects us against this disease.
b. it is caused by a species of Corynebacterium.
c. it is characterized by a white-grayish membrane in the throat.
d. it is self-limiting like a cold or the flu and is not a serious disease.
e. it usually begins as a mild sore throat and a low grade fever.
d. it is self-limiting like a cold or the flu and is not a serious disease
Which of the following are the most common pathogens that cause pinkeye, earache, and sinus infections?
1. Corynebacterium
2. Hemophilus influenzae
3. rhinoviruses
4. Staphylococcus aureus
5. Streptococcus pneumoniae
a. 1, 2, 3
b. 1, 2, 5
c. 1, 3
d. 2, 3, 4, 5
e. 2, 5
e. 2, 5
2. Hemophilus influenzae
5. Streptococcus pneumoniae
All of the following are true with regard to conjunctivitis except
a. it can lead to destruction of the eye in serious cases.
b. it can result from improper handling of contact lenses.
c. it is also called pinkeye.
d. it is caused only by bacteria.
e. the eye can become infected by respiratory droplets or by rubbing the
eyes.
d. it is caused only by bacteria.
Which of the following statements is not true with regard to the common cold?
a. Humans can be infected with cold viruses from their pets.
b. It is most effectively transmitted by someone who is experiencing the most severe symptoms of a cold.
c. Symptoms include sore throat, runny nose, and malaise.
d. They are frequently caused by rhinoviruses, of which there are more than 100.
e. With or without treatment, it usually lasts for about a week.
a. Humans can be infected with cold viruses from their pets.
Which of the following statements are true with regard to the prevention and treatment of the common cold?
1. Antibiotics can decrease the severity of the common cold.
2. Handwashing helps to reduce the number of colds.
3. Keeping your hands away from your face helps reduce the number of colds.
4. Minimizing exposure to crowded places and exposure to people who are in the first couple of days of the onset of symptoms of a cold.
5. Vaccinations are effective against the common cold.
a. 1, 2, 3
b. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
c. 1, 2, 3, 5
d. 1, 2, 5
e. 2, 3, 4
e. 2, 3, 4
2. Handwashing helps to reduce the number of colds.
3. Keeping your hands away from your face helps reduce the number of colds.
4. Minimizing exposure to crowded places and exposure to people who are in the first couple of days of the onset of symptoms of a cold.
All of the following are true regarding adenoviral pharyngitis except
a. it can cause epidemics of upper respiratory infections.
b. it can occasionally cause pneumonia.
c. recovery usually occurs without treatment.
d. unlike the common cold, fever is commonly associated with these infections.
e. unlike the common cold, these infections are all caused by one or two viruses.
e. unlike the common cold, these infections are all caused by one or two viruses.
Which of the following statements is false regarding bacterial infections of the lower respiratory system?
a. Pneumonia, whooping cough, and TB are examples of lower respiratory infections.
b. They are a frequent form of nosocomial infection.
c. They are more common than infections of the upper respiratory system.
d. They are the most frequent cause of death among infectious diseases in the U.S.
e. They are usually more serious than upper respiratory infections.
c. They are more common than infections of the upper respiratory system.
Which of the following statements is true regarding pneumococcal pneumonia?
1. Fluid accumulation in the alveoli can be seen on X-ray.
2. It is responsible for the majority of cases of pneumonia that require hospitalization.
3. Symptoms include fever, chest pain, cough, and a body-shaking chill.
4. The bacteria are inhaled into the alveoli and begin multiplying there.
5. The virulent form of bacteria is encapsulated.
a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
b. 1, 3, 4, 5
c. 2, 3, 4
d. 2, 3, 4, 5
e. 3, 4, 5
a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
All
Complications of pneumococcal pneumonia include all of the following except
a. endocarditis.
b. meningitis.
c. pleurisy.
d. septicemia.
e. all of the above are possible complications.
e. all of the above are possible complications.
The bacterium that causes the disease known as walking pneumonia is
a. Hemophilus influenzae.
b. Klebsiella pneumoniae.
c. Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
d. Streptococcus pneumoniae.
e. Streptococcus pyogenes.
c. Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
A disease that has as its major symptom sudden bouts of paroxysmal coughing that if followed by a whooping sound would be
a. adenoviral pharyngitis.
b. diphtheria.
c. pertussis.
d. tuberculosis.
e. walking pneumonia.
c. pertussis.
Which of the following statements is true with regard to tuberculosis?
1. It has increased primarily due to the AIDS epidemic.
2. It is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
3. It is contracted by inhaling airborne bacteria.
4. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is a rapidly growing bacterium.
5. The bacteria are capable of multiplying within the macrophages of the lung.
a. 1, 2, 3
b. 1, 2, 4
c. 1, 2, 3, 4
d. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
e. 1, 2, 3, 5
e. 1, 2, 3, 5
1. It has increased primarily due to the AIDS epidemic.
2. It is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
3. It is contracted by inhaling airborne bacteria.
5. The bacteria are capable of multiplying within the macrophages of the lung.
Which of the following is not true with regard to influenza?
a. Amantidine can be effective in preventing some types of influenza.
b. It is caused by a DNA virus.
c. Reye's syndrome and Guillian-Barré syndrome are possible serious complications of the virus or the vaccination.
d. Vaccines can be very effective in preventing disease.
e. Virus is typically acquired by the respiratory route.
b. It is caused by a DNA virus.
A very serious and often fatal pulmonary infection acquired by inhalation of dust contaminated with urine and feces of infected rodents is
a. Ebola virus.
b. hantavirus.
c. influenza virus.
d. Marburg virus.
e. respiratory syncytial virus.
b. hantavirus.
People with immune deficiencies suffer from regular bouts of respiratory infections. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
a. Drugs used to treat immune deficiencies encourage bacterial growth.
b. Their respiratory systems are attacked by the normal flora.
c. The normal flora die, leaving behind pathogenic bacteria.
d. The respiratory bacteria are better able to compete with viruses in immune
deficient people.
e. They are more likely to encounter pathogenic bacteria.
b. Their respiratory systems are attacked by the normal flora.
A cardiologist is studying the probable cause of heart failure in a patient. She investigates the history of respiratory diseases in the patient. What respiratory disease is the cardiologist most interested in finding?
a. adenoviral pharyngitis
b. diphtheria
c. influenza
d. pink eye
e. strep throat
e. strep throat
A local outbreak of illnesses swept through a Native American Reservation in Utah. Most people suffered from fever and muscle aches. Others had diarrhea. Almost all people had a variety of breathing problems and respiratory illnesses.
Immediately upon hearing of this outbreak, the local state public health office warned people to control rodents in the area. What was the rationale for this
warning?
a. The outbreak was likely caused by hantavirus.
b. The strategy is known to limit the spread of TB.
c. They wanted to prevent fleas from further spreading the disease.
d. They were afraid rodents would contract it from humans.
e. None of the above provides adequate rationale.
a. The outbreak was likely caused by hantavirus.
In which state would public health officials find it unusual to have an outbreak of histoplasmosis?
a. Illinois
b. Missouri
c. Oregon
d. Texas
e. West Virginia
c. Oregon
This term is given to diarrheal illnesses when pus and blood are present in the feces.
a. dysentery
b. enteric fever
c. gastroenteritis
d. none of the above
a. dysentery
Which of the following account for most bacterial intestinal infections?
a. Campylobacter
b. enterobacteria
c. Vibrio
d. all of the above
d. all of the above
The most common source of cholera infections is through
a. fecally contaminated water.
b. soil.
c. spoiled food.
d. the bite of a rat flea.
a. fecally contaminated water.
A biochemical characteristic of Escherichia coli that helps to distinguish it from the shigellas and salmonellas is its ability to
a. ferment glucose.
b. ferment lactose.
c. produce oxidase.
d. none of the above.
b. ferment lactose.
These viruses are the cause of almost half of the cases of viral gastroenteritis in the United States.
a. hepatitis A viruses
b. hepatitis B viruses
c. noroviruses
d. rotaviruses
c. noroviruses
This disease is the most commonly identified water-borne illness in the U.S.
a. cholera
b. giardiasis
c. salmonellosis
d. shigellas
b. giardiasis
Cryptosporidiosis is
a. easily treated with penicillin.
b. not responsible for traveler's diarrhea.
c. transmitted by a protozoan.
d. none of the above.
c. transmitted by a protozoan.
This organism has been associated with peptic ulcers of the duodenum.
a. Escherichia coli
b. Helicobacter pylori
c. Salmonella typhi
d. Streptococcus mutans
b. Helicobacter pylori
Very fine filters are often used to purify drinking water. These filters would be least effective against controlling the following alimentary tract disease.
a. cholera
b. cryptosporidiosis
c. giardiasis
d. rotavirus
e. salmonellosis
d. rotavirus
Over fifty parents and children developed slight fever and vomiting at a high school football game. Most of them developed a watery diarrhea. All the affected people purchased canned soda stored in a large chest filled with ice. Which of the following was the most likely culprit causing this disease?
a. cholera
b. Cyclospora
c. Giardia
d. rotavirus
e. Salmonella
d. rotavirus
Which of the following is/are probably important to the cholera-causing ability of Vibrio cholerae?
a. it attaches firmly to small intestinal epithelium.
b. it produces cholera toxin.
c. it survives in the sea in association with zooplankton.
d. lysogenic conversion.
e. all of the above.
e. all of the above.
Cholera was a major cause of illness and death for pioneers crossing the United States in the 1800s. What was the main reason that cholera was so common?
a. They disposed of their bodily wastes along the roadside.
b. They had no heating or cooling to protect from the harsh weather.
c. They regularly ate uncooked food.
d. They regularly drank untreated water.
e. They usually ate food that was not refrigerated.
d. They regularly drank untreated water.
Sets with similar terms