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1,118 terms

Dental Decks

All non-picture questions from dental decks for NBDE Part I - Microbiology/Pathology (317): Ab, Bact, Bld Disord, Dn Disord, Cells/Org, Dis, Disord, Fungi, Hrt Disord, Hemody Dys, Immun, Inf, IC, Infl
STUDY
PLAY
The Hepatitis A virus, Poliovirus, and Rotavirus have which portal of entry?
- Respiratory tract
- Gastrointestinal tract
- Skin
- Genital tract
- Blood
Gastrointestinal tract

(M/P Vir)
Which virus causes pneumonia and bronchiolitis in infants?
- Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
- Human Immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
- Epstein Barr virus
- Varicelle Zoster virus
Respiratory synctial virus (RSV)

(M/P Vir)
Reoviruses:
- Have a unique single-shelled capsid that contains a non-segmented double-stranded DNA genome
- Have a unique double-shelled capsid that contains a segmented single-stranded RNA genome
- Have a unique double-shelled capsid that contains a segmented double-stranded RNA genome
- Have a unique single-shelled capsid that contains a segmented single-stranded DNA genome
Have a unique double-shelled capsid that contains a segmented double-stranded RNA genome

(M/P Vir)
Which growth curve describes the lytic reproduction cycle that releases a large number of phage simultaneously?
- One step growth curve
- Two step growth curve
- Horizontal growth curve
- None of the above
One step growth curve

(M/P Vir)
Which of the following viruses does not cause upper respiratory tract infections, including symptoms of the common cold?
- Paramyxoviruses
- Papovaviruses
- Coronaviruses
- Rhinoviruses
- Orthomyxoviruses
Papovaviruses

(M/P Vir)
Which two of the following herpes viruses do not cause a vesicular rash, both in primary infections and in reactivations?
- Epstein Barr virus (EBV)
- Varicella Zoster virus (VZV)
- Herpes simplex virus type 1
- Herpes simplex virus type 2
- Cytomegalovirus
Epstein Barr virus (EBV)
Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

(M/P Vir)
All of the following viruses are paramyxoviruses except:
- Mumps virus
- Measles virus
- Influenza A, B, and C viruses
- Respiratory synctial virus (RSV)
- Parainfluenza virus
Influenza A, B, and C viruses

(M/P Vir)
All of the following statements concerning viruses are true except:
- A viral nucleic acid (genome) is composed of either DNA or RNA (but not both) that is encased in a protein coat called a capsid
- They are either naked or enveloped, depending on whether the capsid is surrounded by a lipid bilayer known as an envelope
- They replicate only in living cells and therefore are obligate intracellular parasites
- They are sensitive to antibiotics
- They depend on host cells for energy production
- They cannot be observed with a light microscope
- They pass through filters that retain bacteria
They are sensitive to antibiotics

(M/P Vir)
Influenza virus A has all of the following features except:
- A helical capsid
- Negative stranded RNA
- A lipid envelope of cellular origin
- A nonsegmented RNA genome
- Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase spikes embedded on their surfaces
A nonsegmented RNA genome

(M/P Vir)
All of the following statements are true except:
- DNA viruses, with one exception (poxviruses), replicate in the nucleus and use the host cell DNA-dependent RNA polymerase to synthesize their mRNA
- The genome of all DNA viruses consists of double-stranded DNA, except for the parvoviruses, which have a single-stranded DNA genome
- Most RNA viruses undergo their entire replicative cycle in the cytoplasm (except retroviruses and influenza viruses, which replicate in the nucleus of the host cell)
- Negative polarity is defined as an RNA with the same base sequence as the mRNA
Negative polarity is defined as an RNA with the same base sequence as the mRNA

(M/P Vir)
Which virus can cause herpes zoster lesions along sensory nerve roots in later life?
- Smallpox virus
- Epstein Barr virus
- Varicella Zoster virus
Varicella Zoster virus

(M/P Vir)
Which of the following is the cause of infectious mononucleosis?
- Streptococci
- Epstein Barr virus
- Rubella viruses
- Paramyxovirus
Epstein Barr virus

(M/P Vir)
All of the following statements concerning coxsackieviruses are true except:
- They belong to the Picornavirus family
- They are divided into two groups (A and B) on the basis of the lesions observed in mice
- Group A viruses cause herpangina and head-foot-and-mouth disease, whereas group B cause pleurodynia, myocarditis, and pericarditis
- Group B viruses have a predilection for skin and mucous membranes, whereas group A cause disease in various organs such as the heart, pleura, pancreas, and liver
- Their replication is similar to that of the poliovirus
Group B viruses have a predilection for skin and mucous membranes, whereas group A cause disease in various organs such as the heart, pleura, pancreas, and liver

(M/P Vir)
After the initial primary attack during the early childhood period, the herpes simplex virus remains inactive for periods of time and most commonly resides in the:
- Submandibular ganglion
- Trigeminal ganglion
- Sublingual ganglion
- Ciliary ganglion
Trigeminal ganglion

(M/P Vir)
Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is caused by an enveloped, single-stranded, linear, positive-polarity RNA virus known as:
- An arbovirus
- A parovirus
- A retrovirus
- An adenovirus
A retrovirus

(M/P Vir)
A highly infectious viral disease that chiefly affects children and leads to paralysis, muscular atrophy, and often deformity is called:
- Mumps
- Measles
- Poliomyelitis
- Infectious mononucleosis
Poliomyelitis

(M/P Vir)
Which of the following DNA enveloped viruses are the largest and most complex?
- Herpes viruses
- Hepatitis B virus
- Poxviruses
Poxviruses

(M/P Vir)
The cytopathic effect that is seen when a virus infects a specific cell culture:
- Is the same for most viruses
- Is not useful in diagnostic virology
- Is characteristic of each virus and can be used for detection of that virus
- Does not affect the specific infected cell
Is characteristic of each virus and can be used for detection of that virus

(M/P Vir)
All of the following diseases are associated with adenoviruses except:
- Acute respiratory infections
- Acute contagious conjunctivitis (pinkeye)
- Generalized systemic disease with a maculopapular rash
- Phayngoconjunctival fever characterized by fever, pharyngitis, and conjunctivitis
Generalized systemic disease with a maculopapular rash

(M/P Vir)
All of the following diseases are associated with adenoviruses except:
- Acute respiratory infections
- Acute contagious conjunctivitis (pinkeye)
- Generalized systemic disease with a maculopapular rash
- Phayngoconjunctival fever characterized by fever, pharyngitis, and conjunctivitis
Generalized systemic disease with a maculopapular rash

(M/P Vir)
Herpes viruses can be described as:
- Large sized enveloped viruses with an icosahedral nucleocapsid containing circular, single stranded DNA
- Medium sized enveloped viruses with an icosahedral nucleocapsid containing linear, double stranded RNA
- Small sized enveloped viruses with an icosahedral nucleocapsid containing circular, double stranded DNA
- Medium sized enveloped viruses with an icosahedral nucleocapsid containing linear, double stranded DNA
Medium sized enveloped viruses with an icosahedral nucleocapsid containing linear, double stranded DNA

(M/P Vir)
The infectious viral particle is called a:
- Viroid
- Virion
- Prion
- Neon
Virion

(M/P Vir)
All of the following statements concerning herpes simplex type 1 are true except:
- Many children have asymptomatic primary infections
- May be diagnosed by a Tzanck smear for rapid identification when skin lesions are involved
- May involve a primary infection (e.g., gingivostomatitis) or a recurrent infection (e.g., cold sores)
- Can be treated prophylactically by a vaccine
Can be treated prophylactically by a vaccine

(M/P Vir)
The leading cause of childhood gingivostomatitis in children ages 1 to 3 is:
- Herpes simplex
- Chickenpox
- Influenza
- Rubella
Herpes simplex

(M/P Vir)
A bacteriophage with the ability to form a stable, nondisruptive relationshipe within a bacterium is called a:
- Virulent phage
- Plasmid
- Temperate phage
- Phage T4
Temperate phage

(M/P Vir)
A bacteriophage:
- Is a bacterium that phagocytizes other organisms
- Is a bacterium that becomes phagocytosed by other organisms
- Is a virus that infects bacteria
- Is a fragment of DNA
Is a virus that infects bacteria

(M/P Vir)
The usual site of latency for the Herpes simplex virus type 2 is:
- The cranial sensory ganglion
- The lumbar or sacral sensory ganglion
- The cranial or thoracic sensory ganglion
- B lymphocytes
The lumbar or sacral sensory ganglion

(M/P Vir)
Which group of viruses posses an RNA genome that does not function as a positive or negative sense molecule but acts as a template for the production of viral DNA?
- Coronaviruses
- Picornaviruses
- Retroviruses
- Togaviruses
Retroviruses

(M/P Vir)
All of the following are DNA enveloped viruses except:
- Herpes viruses
- Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
- Poxviruses
- Hepatitis B virus
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

(M/P Vir)
An increase in the size of an organ or tissue due to an increase in the size of cells is known as:
- Hypertrophy
- Atrophy
- Hyperplasia
- Aplasia
- Hypoplasia
- Metaplasia
Hypertrophy

(M/P Terms)
An interactive association between two population of different species living together in which one population benefits from the association, while the other is not affected is called:
- Symbiosis
- Mutualism
- Commensalism
- Latency
Commensalism

(M/P Terms)
Missense mutations:
- Stop protein synthesis prematurely
- Result in the substitution of one amino acid for another
- Generate a termination codon
- Almost always destroy protein function
Result in the substitution of one amino acid for another

(M/P Terms)
Which bacteria produce a toxin that can be detected using the ELISA assay?
- Bacteroides
- Escherichia coli
- Neisseria
- Eikenella
Escherichia coli

(M/P Bact)
All of the following are important features of bacterial spores except:
- They are highly resistant to heating
- They are highly resistant to many disinfectants
- They are produced only be members of genera of bacteria of medical importance, Baciullus and Clostridium, both of which are gram-positive rods
- They can survive for many years, especially in soil
- They exhibit a great amount of metabolic activity
- They contain dipicolinic acid (calcium dipicolinate), a calcium chelator that is found virtually nowhere else in the biological world
They exhibit a great amount of metabolic activity

(M/P Bact)
The process in which DNA released by lysis of one bacterium is taken up by a second bacterium, leading to a change in phenotype of that second bacterium, is called:
- Transduction
- Conjugation
- Transformation
- Sexduction
Transformation

(M/P Bact)
Which of the following is the region in prokaryotes where the DNA is concentrated?
- Granules
- Nucleoid
- Plasmids
- Transposons
Nucleoid

(M/P Bact)
Two different pathways are involved in the metabolism of glucose: one anaerobic and one aerobic. The aerobic process occurs in the:
- Mitochondria and is very efficient
- Cytoplasm and is only moderately efficient
- Mitochondria and is not efficient
- Cytoplasm and is very efficient
Mitochondria and is very efficient

(M/P Bact)
The enzymes superoxide dismutase and catalase are present in:
- Obligate aerobes only
- Facultative anaerobes only
- Obligate anaerobes only
- Both obligate aerobes and facultative anaerobes
Both obligate aerobes and facultative anaerobes

(M/P Bact)
All of the following are prokaryotic cells except:
- Bacteria
- Mycoplasmas
- Fungi
- Rickettsia
- Chlamydia
Fungi

(M/P Bact)
All of the following bacteria have been found to be the principal bacterial associated with adult preiodontitis except:
- Porphyromonas gingivalis
- Prevotella intermedia
- Capnocytophaga ochraceus
- Bacteroides forsythus
- Campylobacter rectus
Capnocytophaga ochraceus

(M/P Bact)
Which toxin or enzyme produced by Group A beta-hemolytic Streptococci (S. pyogenes) activates plasminogen to form plasmin, which dissolves fibrin in clots, thrombi, and emboli?
- Streptokinase
- Streptodornase
- Hyaluronidase
- Erythrogenic toxin
- Streptolysin O
- Streptolysin S
- Pyrogenic exotoxin A
Streptokinase

(M/P Bact)
Which two bacteria have been found to be the principal bacteria associated with acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (ANUG)?
- Streptococcus sanguis
- Prevotella intermedia
- Spirochetes
- Actinomyces israeli
- Porphyromonas gingivalis
Prevotella intermedia
Spirochetes

(M/P Bact)
The synthesis of single-stranded RNA (ribonucleic acid) molecules based on a DNA sequence is called:
- Translation
- Transcription
- Transduction
Transcription

(M/P Bact)
Opsonization of microbial cells by complement is prevented by:
- Peptidoglycans
- The capsule
- Teichoic acid
- Adhesin
The capsule

(M/P Bact)
All of the following are stages of phagocytosis except:
- Chemotaxis
- Adherence
- Transduction
- Pseudopodium formation
- Phagosome formation
- Phago lysosome formation
Transduction

(M/P Bact)
During conjugation, what is transferred from the Hfr bacterium to the F- bacterium?
- The sex factor (F factor)
- Portions of the Hfr chromosome
- The sex factor and portions of the Hfr chromosome
- Nothing is transferred
Portions of the Hfr chromosome

(M/P Bact)
Which of the following bacteria are facultative anaerobic, gram-negative rods?
- Escherichia
- Mycobacterium
- Neisseria
- Bacteroides
Escherichia

(M/P Bact)
All of the following statements concerning Streptococcus pyogenes are true except:
- It is also known as Group B beta hemolytic Streptococcus and is not a frequent bacterial pathogen of humans
- It is a gram positive coccus that occurs in pairs or chains. It is frequently part of the endogenous microflora that colonizes the skin and oropharynx
- It is the cause of several acute pyogenic (pus forming) infections in man, such as scarlet fever, erysipelas, and sore throat ("strep throat")
- It elaborates several exotoxins (i.e., erythrogenic toxins and streptolysisn S and O)
It is also known as Group B beta hemolytic Streptococcus and is not a frequent bacterial pathogen of humans

(M/P Bact)
The symptoms of sepsis include all of the following except:
- Fever
- Weakness
- Painful urination
- Nausea
- Vomiting
- Diarrhea
- Chills
Painful urination

(M/P Bact)
A bacterial toxin that has been weakened until it is no longer toxic but is strong enough to induce the formation of antibodies and immunity to the specific disease caused by the toxin is called a(n):
- Antitoxin
- Toxoid
Toxoid

(M/P Vac)
Which disease is prevented with a vaccine that contains attenuated live viruses?
- Hepatitis A
- Varicella (Chickenpox)
- Influenza
- Rabies
Varicella (Chickenpox)

(M/P Vac)
Freund's adjuvant is a mixture composed of all of the following except:
- Mineral oil
- Lanolin
- Formalin
- Inactivated and dried mycobacteria
Formalin

(M/P Vac)
The erythrogenic exotoxin produced by Streptococcus pyogenes causes:
- Gas gangrene
- Bacterial dysentery
- Scarlet fever
- Tetanus
Scarlet fever

(M/P Bact)
Human HBIG (human serum containing a high titer of antibodies against HBV) to prevent hepatitis B in those not actively immunized with the HepB vaccine is an example of:
- Naturally acquired passive immunity
- Naturally acquired active immunity
- Artificially acquired active immunity
- Artificially acquired passive immunity
Artificialy acquired passive immunity

(M/P Vac)
Microorganisms which grow at an optimum pH well above neutrality (7.0) are called:
- Acidophiles
- Alkaliphiles
- Neutrophiles
Alkaliphiles

(M/P Bact)
The streptococcus pneumonia vaccine is an example of a:
- Capsular polysaccharide vaccine
- Inactivated protein exotoxin (toxoid) vaccine
- Killed bacterial vaccine
- Live attenuated bacterial vaccine
Capsular polysaccharide vaccine

(M/P Vac)
Lactobacillus is a part of the group of:
- Irregular, nonsporing, gram negative rods
- Regular, nonsporing, gram positive bacteria
- Anaerobic, gram negative cocci
- Endospore forming, gram positive cocci
Regular, nonsporing, gram positive bacteria

(M/P Bact)
All of the following bacteria have been found to be the principal bacteria associated with aggressive periodontitis except:
- Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans (AA)
- Capnocytophaga ochraceus
- Wolinella recta
- Prevotella intermedius
- Eikenella corrodens
Wolinella recta

(M/P Bact)
A gelatinous coat that is often used as an indicator of virulence is called the:
- Cell wall
- Capsule
- Pellicle
- Plasma membrane
Capsule

(M/P Bact)
A thin murein layer is characteristic of:
- Gram positive bacterial cell walls
- Gram negative bacterial cell walls
- Viral cell walls
- Fungal cell walls
Gram negative bacterial cell walls

(M/P Bact)
The acid-fast stain may be performed on any clinical specimen but is most commonly used in examining sputum for which bacteria?
- Escherichia coli
- Streptococcus pneumoniae
- Clostridium botulinum
- Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Mycobacterium tuberculosis

(M/P Bact)
Which of the following bacteria form unusual acids, called mycolic acids, that are associated with their cell walls?
- Streptococci
- Lactobacilli
- Mycobacteria
- Staphylococci
Mycobacteria

(M/P Bact)
Which bacteria is a gram-positive coccus that grows in grape-like, irregular clusters in culture?
- Streptococcus
- Neisseria
- Salmonella
- Staphylococcus
Staphylococcus

(M/P Bact)
Hyaluronidase is an enzyme produced by bacteria that digests connective tissue, allowing them to spread through tissues more readily. Species from which bacteria below do no produce this enzyme?
- Streptococcus
- Clostridium
- Staphylococcus
- Neisseria
Neisseria

(M/P Bact)
Endotoxins are the lipopolysaccharide component of the cell wall of:
- Gram positive bacteria
- Gram negative bacteria
- Both gram positive and gram negative bacteria
Gram negative bacteria

(M/P Bact)
Endotoxins are:
- Produced by gram positive bacteria and are located in the inner membrane of the bacteria
- Produced by gram negative bacteria and are located in the inner membrane of the bacteria
- Produced by gram negative bacteria and are located in the outer membrane of the bacteria
- Produced by gram positive bacteria and are located in the outer membrane of the bacteria
Produced by gram negative bacteria and are located in the outer membrane of the bacteria

(M/P Bact)
Gamma-hemolytic streptococci can be differentiated from alpha and beta streptococci on blood agar plates by observing:
- A clear zone of hemolysis about the colony with no intact corpuscles
- Small colonies surrounded by a greenish discoloration
- No hemolysis
- Small colonies surrounded by a zone of partial hemolysis and an outer clear zone
No hemolysis

(M/P Bact)
Identify the four phases on a standard bacterial growth curve.
......__
...../....\
__/.......
Lag phase
Log (Exponential) phase
Stationary phase
Decline (Death) phase

(M/P Bact)
All of the following statements concerning Staphylococcus aureus are true except:
- It is a gram negative coccus that typically grows in a linear fashion and is a very uncommon bacterial pathogen
- It is the most common cause of suppurative infections involving the skin, joints, and bones and is the leading cause of infective endocarditis
- It is coagulase positive whereas other Staphylococci are coagulase negative
- It posseses a surface protein (protein A), that binds the Fc receptor of IgG, thereby blocking complement activation by the classical pathway
It is a gram negative coccus that typically grows in a linear fashion and is a very uncommon bacterial pathogen

(M/P Bact)
Members of which species below are predominant in saliva?
- Actinomyces
- Veillonella
- Streptococcus
- Staphylococcus
Streptococcus

(M/P Bact)
How long does it take to kill bacterial spores when a dental instrument is placed in a 2% solution of glutaraldehyde?
- 10 minutes
- 1 hour
- 10 hours
- 24 hours
10 hours

(M/P IC)
Neurofibromatosis is a(n):
- Sex linked dominant disorder
- Autosomal recessive disorder
- Sex linked recessive disorder
- Autosomal dominant disorder
Autosomal dominant

(M/P Disord)
Which of the following is a powerful oxidizing agent that inactivates bacteria and many viruses by oxidizing free sulfhydryl groups?
- Alcohol
- Chlorine
- Formaldehyde
- Phenol
Chlorine

(M/P IC)
Quaternary ammonium compounds, which are widely used for skin antisepsis, are classified as:
- Nonionic detergents
- Anionic detergents
- Cationic detergents
Cationic detergents

(M/P IC)
The proper time and temperature for autoclaving is:
- 350ºF (177ºC) for 1 hour
- 250ºF (121ºC) for 15-20 minutes
- 450ºF (232ºC) for 5 minutes
- 89ºF (31ºC) for 30 minutes
250ºF (121ºC) for 15-20 minutes

(M/P IC)
The term "antiseptic" best relates to a(n):
- Autoclave
- Dry heat sterilizer
- Chemical used on contaminated counter tops
- Handwash agent
Handwash agent

(M/P IC)
Which type of pathogens provide the ultimate test for efficacy of sterilization?
- Bacteria
- Spore forming
- Viruses
- Fungi
Spore forming

(M/P IC)
The proper time and temperature for dry heat sterilization is:
- 320ºF (160ºC) for 2 hours
- 250ºF (121ºC) for 20-30 minutes
- 450ºF (232ºC) for 5 minutes
- 89ºF (31ºC) for 30 minutes
320ºF (160ºC) for 2 hours

(M/P IC)
The killing or removal of all microorganisms, including bacterial spores, is called:
- Disinfection
- Cleaning
- Sterilization
- Wiping
Sterilization

(M/P IC)
All of the following statements concerning ethylene oxide sterilization are true except:
- It is used extensively in hospitals for the sterilization of heat labile materials such as surgical instruments and plastics
- It kills by alkylating both proteins and nucleic acids
- It is a fast process (20-50 minutes) depending on the material to be sterilized
- It is very toxic to humans and is also flammable
It is a fast process (20-50 minutes) depending on the material to be sterilized

(M/P IC)
The greatest occupational health care worker risk for bloodborne infection is:
- Hepatitis C virus
- Human Immunodeficiency Virus
- Hepatitis B virus
- Tuberculosis
Hepatitis B virus

(M/P IC)
All of the following are advantages of using alcohols (70% isopropyl and 70% ethyl alcohol) as surface disinfectants except:
- They are bactericidal
- They are sporicidal
- They are tuberculocidal
- They are economical
They are sporicidal

(M/P IC)
Which of the following is used as a handwash agent?
- Chlorhexidine gluconate
- Triclosan
- Isopropyl alcohol
- Both chlorhexidine gluconate and triclosan
- All of the above
Both chlorhexidine gluconate and triclosan

(M/P IC)
Antimicrobial chemical agents which destroy microorganisms when applied onto inanimate surfaces such as counter tops or lights, are called:
- Antiseptics
- Sterilants
- Disinfectants
- None of the above
Disinfectants

(M/P IC)
The marker microorganism for intermediate surface disinfection is:
- Bacillus stearothermophilus
- Pseudomonas aeruginosa
- Hepatitis B virus
- Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Mycobacterium tuberculosis

(M/P IC)
An antibacterial solution which directly kills bacteria is said to be:
- Bactericidal
- Bacteriostatic
- Substantive
Bactericidal

(M/P IC)
Cleaning surfaces prior to disinfection in clinical settings is required to:
- Destroy all pathogens
- Inhibit pathogen growth
- Reduce the concentration of pathogens
- Weaken the virulence of pathogens
Reduce the concentration of pathogens

(M/P IC)
The antigens most responsible for an immediate Type I reaction to natural rubber latex are:
- Proteins
- Accelerators
- Corn starch powders
- Anti oxidants
Proteins

(M/P IC)
The most common form of an adverse epithelial reaction noted for health-care-professionals is:
- Irritation dermatitis
- Type I immediate latex allergy
- Type IV, delayed latex allergy
- Superficial fungal infections on the fingers
Irritation dermatitis

(M/P IC)
The most efficient way to kill microbes is:
- Cold sterilization
- Proper handwashing with sterilizing antiseptics
- Heat sterilization
- Immersion of contaminated items in chemical sterilants
Heat sterilization

(M/P IC)
The complete destruction of all forms of microbial life, including spores, best describes:
- Disinfection
- Sterilization
- Pasteurization
- Sanitization
Sterilization

(M/P IC)
One of your patients develops a Type I, immediate allergic reaction to latex. When treating them and wearing gloves from now on, you can:
- Wear vinyl or nitrile gloves
- Wear hypoallergenic latex gloves
- Get an exemption and not wear gloves
- Refuse to treat them
Wear vinyl or nitrile gloves

(M/P IC)
A particular kind of antimicrobial treatment, such as that for our drinking water which lowers the total microbial load to safe public health levels is called:
- Antisepsis
- Sanitization
- Disinfection
- Sterilization
Sanitization

(M/P IC)
Which of the following statements are true?
- Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) is the most infectious target of Standard (universal) Blood Precautions
- Hapatitis B Virus (HBV) is the most infectious target of Standard (univeral) Blood Precautions
- There are no Standard Precautions for health care
Hapatitive B Virus (HBV) is the most infectious target of Standard (universal) Blood Precautions

(M/P IC)
Which of the following have been involved in the transmission of Hepatitis C?
- Accidental needlesticks
- Blood transfusions
- Drug addicts sharing contaminated syringes
- All of the above
All of the above

(M/P IC)
Which phase describing an aspect of infection control is not appropriate?
- Exposure is not synonymous with infection
- Do not disinfect when you can sterilize
- Sterilization of all clinical instruments and inanimate environmental surfaces is mandatory
- Known AIDS patients can be treated using Standard Bloodborne Precautions
Sterilization of all clinical instruments and inanimate environmental surfaces is mandatory

(M/P IC)
An infection caused by normally non-pathogenic microorganisms in a host whose resistance has been decreased or compromised is known as a(n):
- Nosocomial infection
- Secondary infection
- Opportunistic infection
- Medical infection
Opportunistic infection

(M/P IC)
Latex allergy risk factors include all of the following except:
- Persons with multiple surgeries
- Atopy
- Rubber industry workers
- Persons with an allergy to pollen
- Persons with an allergy to bananas
Persons with an allegy to pollen

(M/P IC)
It is recommended that face masks be changed:
- Between patients
- Daily
- Twice per day
Between patients

(M/P IC)
Rapid heat transfer sterilization provides:
- A very fast cycle time
- No dulling of cutting edges
- Dry instruments after cycle
- All of the above
All of the above

(M/P IC)
What is recommended for all instruments that are used in the mouth?
- Disinfection
- High level disinfection
- Sterilization involving the use of heat
- Both disinfection and sterilization involving the use of heat
Sterilization involving the use of heat

(M/P IC)
In healthcare what is the primary disease prevention measure?
- Wipe wipe
- Spray wipe spray
- Handwashing
- Vaccines
Handwashing

(M/P IC)
Personal protective equipment clinic jackets should be:
- Short sleeve, high neck
- Long sleeve, high neck
- Long sleeve, turtle neck
- Whatever your preference
Long sleeve, high neck

(M/P IC)
Because ____________ are the hardiest microbes, their destruction is required before the definition sterilization has been met.
- Hepatitis B viruses
- Bacterial endospores
- Mycobacteria
- Vegetative bacteria
Bacterial endospores

(M/P IC)
Sterilization is the elimination of all microbial organisms including spore formers. Disinfection is the destruction of disease causing microorganisms not including spore formers.
- The first statement is true and the second statement is false
- The first statement is false and the second statement is true
- Both statements are true
- Both statements are false
Both statements are true

(M/P IC)
Which of the following has been shown to be the most effective antimicrobial agent for reducing plaque and gingivitis long-term?
- Stannous fluoride
- Phenolic compounds
- Chlorhexidine
- Quaternary ammonium compounds
Chlorhexidine

(M/P Oral Cav)
All of the following bacteria may be etiologically related to dental caries except:
- Streptococcus mutans
- Actinomyces viscosus
- Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans (AA)
- Streptococcus salivarius
- Streptococcus sanguis
- Actinomyces naeslundi
- Actinomyces isreali
- Lactobacillus casei
Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans (AA)
The principal oral site for the growth of spirochetes, fusobacteria, and other gram-negative anaerobes is:
- Saliva
- Calculus
- The gingival margin
- The gingival sulcus
The gingival sulcus

(M/P Oral Cav)
Which species has been implicated in the dental caries process?
- Staphylococcus
- Bacteroides
- Escherichia coli
- Streptococcus
Streptococcus

(M/P Oral Cav)
Young plaque is dominated by:
- Gram positive cocci
- Gram positive rods
- Gram negative rods
- Filaments
Gram positive cocci

(M/P Oral Cav)
All of the following statements concerning bacterial plaque are true except:
- It is the key etiologic agent in the initiation of gingivitis and periodontal disease
- It is an accumulation of a mixed bacterial community in a dextran matrix
- It forms on a cleaned tooth within minutes
- It is composed of solids (80%; 95% of which are bacteria) and water (20%)
- There are two categories: supragingival and subgingival plaque
- Different bacteria may be found in plaque (cocci, rods, and filaments) and their proportions change with time, diet, and location
It is composed of solids (80%; 95% of which are bacteria) and water (20%)

(M/P Oral Cav)
All of the following statements are true concerning supragingival and subgingival plaque except:
- Subgingival plaque can be attached or loosely adherent (epithelium associated)
- Supragingival plaque is attached or tooth associated
- Subgingival plaque is dominated by gram negative rods
- Supragingival plaque is dominated by gram positive cocci
- Supragingival plaque has more anaerobes than subgingival plaque
Supragingival plaque has more anaerobes than subgingival plaque

(M/P Oral Cav)
All of the following statements concerning calculus are true except:
- It is calcified or mineralized bacterial plaque
- It forms on natural teeth, dentures, and other dental prostheses
- The surface is very rough and is covered by a layer of bacterial plaque
- Inorganic material makes up about 10-15% of the composition while organic material and water make up about 70-90% of the composition
- Its main role in periodontal disease is to serve as a collection site for more bacteria
Inorganic material makes up about 10-15% of the composition while organic material and water make up about 70-90% of the composition

(M/P Oral Cav)
Which one of the following organisms is commonly implicated with the etiology of acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis?
- Streptococcus sanguis
- Actinomyces israelii
- Prevotella intermedia
- Streptococcus uberis
Prevotella intermedia

(M/P Oral Cav)
Which statement is true concerning interferons?
- They are antiviral antibodies
- They are antibacterial substances
- They act to prevent the replication of a range of viruses by inducing resistance
- They are not considered to be a nonspecific resistance factor
They act to prevent the replication of a range of viruses by inducing resistance

(M/P Sub)
Cytokines are:
- Insoluble mediators that play an important role in blood clotting
- Soluble mediators that play an important role in immunity
- Soluble mediators that play an important role in genetic recombination
- Insoluble mediators that play an important role in glomerular filtration
Soluble mediators that play an important role in immunity

(M/P Sub)
All of the following are formed via the cyclooxygenase pathway except:
- Prostaglandins
- Prostacyclin
- Leukotrienes
- Thromboxanes
Leukotrienes

(M/P Sub)
Histamine release within the body causes all of the following except:
- Increased capillary permeability
- Increased gastric secretion
- Bronchiolar constriction
- A rise in blood pressure
A rise in blood pressure

(M/P Sub)
All of the following statements concerning serotonin are true except:
- It is widely considered to be a neurotransmitter
- It is present in the brain
- It is believed to play a role in temperature regulation, in sensory perception, and in the onset of sleep
- It is synthesized from the amino acid arginine
It is synthesized from the amino acid arginine

(M/P Sub)
All of the following statements concerning fibrinolysin are true except:
- It is also called plasmin
- It is a proteolytic enzyme derived from plasminogen
- It is essential in blood clot dissolution (fibrinolysis)
- It is a component of the body's nonspecific disease mechanism
- It is the most important fibrinolytic protease
It is a componet of the body's nonspecific disease mechanism

(M/P Sub)
Which of the following is an enzyme formed in the kidney and released into the bloodstream where it has an important role in activating angiotensin?
- Plasmin
- Lysozyme
- Renin
- Fibrinogen
Renin

(M/P Sub)
Which of the following are respiratory enzymes capable of undergoing alternate reduction and oxidation?
- Pyrimidine nucleotides
- Cytochromes
- Reductants
- Purine nucleotides
Cytochromes

(M/P Sub)
The immunity to infectious agents that is provided by serum lysozyme is:
- Acquired and T cell mediated
- Acquired and B cell mediated
- Innate and IgG mediated
- Innate and nonspecific
Innate and nonspecific

(M/P Cells/Org)
Which organelle contains hydrolytic enzymes necessary for intracellular digestion?
- Lysosome
- Golgi apparatus
- Microbody
- Phagosome
Lysosome

(M/P Cells/Org)
Autolysis:
- Refers to degradative reactions in cells caused by intracellular enzymes indigenous to the cell
- Refers to the cellular degradation by enzymes derived from sources extrinsic to the cell
- Is the sum of intracellular degradative reactions occuring after the death of individual cells within a living organism
- Is the death of single cells within clusters of other cells
Refers to degradative reactions in cells caused by intracellular enzymes indigenous to the cell

(M/P Cells/Org)
The enzyme catalase is contained in which organelle within a cell?
- Nucleus
- Microbodies
- Golgi apparatus
- Mitochondrion
Microbodies

(M/P Cells/Org)
Which of the following is classified as an antifungal agent?
- Bacitracin
- Amphotericin B
- Polymyxin B
- Neomycin
Amphotericin B

(M/P Ab)
The standard prophylactic regime for nonallergic patients is:
- Adults: 2.0 grams Amoxicillin one hour before procedure
- Adults: 2.0 grams Penicillin Vk one hour before procedure
- Children: 100 mg/kg Amoxicillin one hour before procedure
- Children: 100 mg/kg Penicillin Vk one hour before procedure
Adults: 2.0 grams Amoxicillin one hour before procedure

(M/P Ab)
Which antibiotic is not only effective against most staphylococci, aerobic and anaerobic streptococci, but is most effective in treating infections due to bacteroides species?
- Penicillin VK
- Erythromycin
- Tetracycline
- Cephalexin (Keflex)
- Clindamycin
Clindamycin

(M/P Ab)
The only drug that a patient can take is clindamycin, so the patient must be instructed to notify the dental office is (s)he:
- Develops a hearing problem
- Has 5 or more watery stools per day
- Has trouble sleeping
- Develops headaches
Has 5 or more watery stools per day

(M/P Ab)
Which of the following conditions may predispose a patient to candidiasis?
- Hormonal disorder
- Coronary condition
- Immune deficiency disorder
- Chronic respiratory condition
Immune deficiency disorder

(M/P Ab)
Which of the following antibiotics is considered a broad-spectrum antibiotic?
- Penicillin VK
- Cefaclor (Ceclor)
- Penicillin G
Cefaclor (Ceclor)

(M/P Ab)
The penicillins act to:
- Weaken the bacterial cell wall to the point that the cell dies when it ruptures
- Inhibit protein synthesis and suppress bacterial growth
- Disrupt bacterial protein synthesis destroying the bacterial cell
- Disrupt specific biochemical reactions destroying the cell
Weaken the bacterial cell wall to the point that the cell dies when it ruptures

(M/P Ab)
Which penicillin is prescribed primarily in the treatment of severe penicillinase-producing staphylococcal infections?
- Methicillin
- Ampicillin
- Penicillin VK
- Carbenicillin
Methicillin

(M/P Ab)
Which two antibiotics are usually prescribed in the treatment of rickettsial diseases?
- Tetracycline
- Polymixin B
- Erythromycin
- Chloramphenicol
Tetracycline
Chloramphenicol

(M/P Ab)
All of the following statements concerning fungi are true except:
- They are prokaryotic and lack a cell wall
- There are two types: yeasts and molds
- They can be dimorphic; that is, they have two morphologic forms
- They have a distinct nuclear membrane as part of the cellular structure
- They have both asexual and sexual reproduction capabilities
- Most fungi are obligate aerobes; some are facultative anaerobes; but none are obligate anaerobes
They are prokaryotic and lack a cell wall

(M/P Fungi)
Which genera of fungi is not responsible for causing dermatophytosis (tinea or ringworm)?
- Trichophyton
- Microsporum
- Histoplasma
- Epidermophyton
Histoplasma

(M/P Fungi)
A fungal infection that may develop in people who have poorly controlled diabetes is called:
- Aspergillosis
- Coccidioidomycosis
- Mucormycosis
- Cryptococcosis
Mucormycosis

(M/P Fungi)
All of the following statements concerning fungal spores are true except:
- Morphologic characteristics (e.g., the shape, color, and arrangement) of conidia are a useful aid for the identification of fungi
- A conidium is an asexually formed fungal spore
- Fungal spores are as resistant to heat as bacterial spores
- Fungal spores cause allergies in some people
Fungal spores are as resistant to heat as bacterial spores

(M/P Fungi)
All of the following statements concerning coccidioidomycosis are true except:
- It is caused by the inhalation of dust aerosols containing the Coccidioides immitis arthrospores, which are highly infectious
- It is endemic in hot, dry regions of the S.W. United States and Central and South America
- It is referred to as "valley fever" or "San Joaquin fever"
- It can be treated with penicillin
- The primary infection or lesion is in the lung
- It is by and large an inapparent and self limiting infection in endemic areas
It can be treated with penicillin

(M/P Fungi)
Aflatoxins are produced by:
- Candida species
- Coccidioides species
- Aspergillus species
- Histoplasma species
Aspergillus species

(M/P Fungi)
A single-celled parasite that causes amebiasis in humans is:
- Giardia lamblia
- Entamoeba histolytica
- Trichomonas vaginalis
- Balantidium coli
Entamoeba histolytica

(M/P P)
All of the following statements concerning malaria are true except:
- It is an infection of white blood cells
- Drugs taken for prevention are not 100% effective
- Symptoms can begin a month after the infecting mosquito bite
- Early symptoms are nonspecific and often are mistaken for those of influenza
- Rapid diagnosis and early treatment are important, particularly for falciparum malaria, which is fatal in up to 20% of infected people
It is an infection of white blood cells

(M/P P)
Infections caused by certain nematodes results in:
- Marked neutrophilia
- Marked eosinophilia
- Marked basophilia
- All of the above
Marked eosinophilia

(M/P P)
Humans may acquire Toxoplasma gondii by:
- Swimming in contaminated water
- Sustaining a dog bite
- Ingestion of cysts in poorly cooked meat
- Airborne conidia
Ingestion of cysts in poorly cooked meat

(M/P P)
The thymus gland and parathyroid glands are malformed and dysfunctional or missing altogether in:
- Sjogren's syndrome
- DiGeorge syndrome
- Shy Drager syndrome
- Peutz Jeghers syndrome
DiGeorge syndrome

(M/P Syndr)
Mallory-Weiss syndrome is bleeding from an arterial blood vessel in the upper gastrointestinal tract, caused by a mucosal gastric tear at or near the point where the esophagus and stomach join. It is most common in:
- Women who are pregnant
- Men over age 40, especially alcoholics
- Preschool aged children
- Postmenopausal women
Men over age 40, especially alcoholics

(M/P Syndr)
A tall, infertile male with small testes most likely has which of the following conditions?
- Adrenogenital syndrome
- Klinefelter's syndrome
- Testicular feminization
- Turner's syndrome
Klinefelter's syndrome

(M/P Syndr)
Chvostek's sign and Trousseau's sign are reliable indicators of:
- Bell's palsy
- Botulism
- Rickets
- Tetany
Tetany

(M/P Syndr)
A male infant is borm at term. No congenital anomalies are noted at birth. A year later he now has failure to thrive and has been getting one bacterial pneumonia after another with both Hemophilus influenzae and Streptococcus pneumoniae cultured from his sputum. Which of the following diseases is he most likely to have?
- DiGeorge syndrome
- Selective IgA deficiency
- Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) infection
- Acute leukemia
- X linked agammaglobulinemia (Bruton's agammaglobulinemia)
X linked agammaglobulinemia (Bruton's agammaglobulinemia)

(M/P Syndr)
The triad of findings found in Sjogren's syndrome include all of the following except:
- Associated connective tissue disorders (e.g., rheumatoid arthritis)
- Xerostomia (dry mouth)
- Nephrosclerosis
- Keratoconjunctivitis Sicca (dry eyes)
Nephrosclerosis

(M/P Syndr)
Match the nutrients with the symptoms that are caused by a deficiency of that nutrient.
Iron, Calcium, Folic acid, Vitamin B1, Vitamin B2, Vitamin B12, Vitamin C, Vitamin D, Vitamin K, Protein

Sore tongue and cracks at the edge of mouth (cheilosis)
Pins-and-needles sensation, especially in feet
Anemia
Weakness and bleeding gums
Bone thinning
Anemia, pins-and-needles sensation
Tissue swelling (edema), usually legs
Tendency to bruis and bleed
Iron - Anemia
Calcium - Bone thinning
Folic acid - Anemia
Vitamin B1 - Pins and needles sensation, especially in feet
Vitamin B2 - Sore tongue and cracks at edge of mouth (cheilosis)
Vitamin B12 - Anemia, pins and needles sensation
Vitamin C - Weakness, bleeding gums
Vitamin D - Bone thinning
Vitamin K - Tendency to bruise and bleed
Protein - TIssue swelling (edema), usually in legs

(M/P Syndr)
Which immunodeficiency disorder is sometimes called "bubble boy disease?"
- Wiskott Aldrich syndrome
- Severe Combined Immunodeficiency Disease (SCID)
- Ataxia Telangiectasia
- Hyper IgE syndrome
Severe Combined Immunodeficiency Disease (SCID)

(M/P Syndr)
Peutz-Jeghers syndrome:
- Is a hereditary condition that affects only females
- Is a hereditary condition that affects only males
- Is a hereditary condition that affects both males and females equally
Is a hereditary condition that affects both males and females equally

(M/P Syndr)
Tropical sprue is a(n):
- Immunodeficiency syndrome
- Malabsorption syndrome
- Autoimmune syndrome
- Myofacial pain dysfunction syndrome
Malabsorption syndrome

(M/P Syndr)
Which syndrome is also called Trisomy 18?
- Down syndrome
- Edward's syndrome
- Patau's syndrome
Edward's syndrome

(M/P Syndr)
Which cells help to assist other T-cells and B-cells to express their immune functions?
- Cytotoxic (killer) T cells
- Plasma cells
- T helper cells
- T suppressor cells
T helper cells

(M/P Cells/Org)
Which cells do not have the ability to retain a latent capacity for mitotic division?
- Blood
- Bone marrow
- Liver
- Neurons in the brain or spinal cord
Neurons in the brain or spinal cord

(M/P Cells/Org)
What is the function of B-lymphocytes?
- To form red blood cells
- To search out, identify, and bind with specific antigens
- To phagocytize bacteria
- To produce lymph
To search out, identify, and bind with specific antigens

(M/P Cells/Org)
Tissues taken from an individual of the same species whi is not genetically related to the recipient is called a(n):
- Xenograft
- Autograft
- Allograft
- Isograft
Allograft

(M/P Terms)
Delayed closure of two granulating surfaces is referred to as:
- Healing by first intention
- Healing by second intention
- Healing by third intention
Healing by second intention

(M/P Misc.)
Which of the following organs undergoes regeneration?
- Heart
- Brain
- Lungs
- Liver
Liver

(M/P Misc.)
All of the following statements concerning teratology or teratogens are true except:
- Teratology is the study of developmental anomalies
- Teratogens are chemical, physical, and biologic agents that cause developmental anomalies
- Susceptibility to teratogens is variable
- Susceptibility to teratogens is specific for each developmental stage
- The mechanism of teratogenesis is specific for each teratogen
- Teratogenesis is not dose dependent
- Teratogens produce death, growth retardation, malformation, or functional impairment
Teratogenesis is not dose dependent

(M/P Misc.)
Which system is composed of monocytes and macrophages?
- Lymphatic system
- Complement system
- Reticuloendothelial system
- Reticular activating system
Reticuloendothelial system

(M/P Misc.)
Which type of bronchogenic carcinoma (lung cancer) listed below is the most aggressive?
- Epidermoid (squamous cell) carcinoma
- Adenocarcinoma
- Small cell (oat cell) carcinoma
- Large cell (anaplastic carcinoma)
Small cell (oat cell) carcinoma

(M/P Neo)
Burkitt's lymphoma is a high-grade B-cell lymphoma closely associated with the:
- Influenza virus
- Epstein Barr virus (EBV)
- Herpes virus
- Varicella zoster virus
Epstein Barr virus (EBV)

(M/P Neo)
Malignant lymphomas:
- Are two to three times more common in females
- Are two to three more common in males
- Occur only in children
- None of the above
Are two to three times more common in males

(M/P Neo)
All of the following statements concerning basal cell carcinoma are true except:
- It is a fast growing, relatively benign skin tumor
- It usually occurs in persons over the age of 40
- It's more prevelant in blonde, fair skinned males
- It is the most common malignant tumor of the skin
It is a fast-growing, relatively benign skin tumor

(M/P Neo)
Neoplastic cells characterisically resemble prickle cells and form keratin perals on the surface of lesions in:
- Adenocarcinoma
- Squamous cell carcinoma
- Basal cell carcinoma
- Malignant melanoma
Squamous cell carcinoma

(M/P Neo)
In the GI tract which area is most likely to develop malignant neoplasms?
- Stomach
- Colon and rectum
- Esophagus
- Anus
Colon and rectum

(M/P Neo)
Which of the following can cause mutations?
- Ultraviolet light
- Chemicals
- Radiation
- Viruses
- All of the above
All of the above

(M/P Neo)
A 30-year-old woman had a firm nodule palpable on the dome of the uterus four years ago recorded on routine physical examination. The nodule has slowly increased in size and it now appears to be about twice the size it was when first discovered. She remains asymptomatic. Which of the following neoplasms is she most likely to have?
- Adenocarcinoma
- Leiomyosarcoma
- Rhabdomyosarcoma
- Leiomyoma
Leiomyoma

(M/P Neo)
A 75-year-old healthy man is found to have a palpable firm noduble in the prostate gland on digital rectal examination. His serum prostate specific antigen (PSA) is 20 ng/mL. The microscopic appearance seen on biopsy of the prostate will probably be most cinsistent with which of the following conditions?
- Chronic prostatitis
- Adenocarcinoma
- Leiomyoma
- Rhabdomyosarcoma
Adenocarcinoma

(M/P Neo)
Usually, the main symptom of lung cancer is:
- A persistent cough
- Diarrhea
- A low grade fever
- A skin rash
A persistent cough

(M/P Neo)
A 35-year-old woman notes a lump in her left breast while taking a shower. Her physician notes a 4 cm firm, irregular, non-movable mass located in the upper outer quadrant of her left breast on physical examination. A fine needle aspiration of this mass is performed. Cells obtained from the mass are examined cytologically and are consistent with infiltrating ductal carcinoma. The mass is removed with a lumpectomy along with an axillary lymph node dissection. Which of the following findings will best predict a better prognosis for this patient?
- The tumor cells are strongly estrogen receptor positive
- No metastases are found in the sampled lymph nodes
- She has one relative who had a similar type of breast cancer
- The tumor has a high grade
No metastases are found in the sampled lymph nodes

(M/P Neo)
A 31-year-old man has experienced low grade fevers, night sweats, and generalized malaise for the past 2 months. On physical examination he has non-tender cervical and supraclavicular lymphadenopathy. A cervical lymph node biopsy is performed. On microscopic examination at high magnification there are occasional Reed-Sternberg cells along with large and small lymphocytes and bands of fibrosis. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- Burkitt's lymphoma
- Hodgkin's disease
- Mycosis fungoides
- Multiple myeloma
Hodgkin's disease

(M/P Neo)
A 58-year-old man who has an 85 pack-year history of cigarette smoking has had a persistent cough for the past 10 years. He has begun to lose weight during the past year. No abnormal findings are noted on physical examination. He has a chest radiograph that reveals a right hilar mass. A sputum cytology shows atypical, hyperchromatic squamous cells. What is the most common initial pathway of spread of this lesion?
- Bloodstream
- Pleural cavity
- Contiguous spread to chest wall
- Lymphatics
- Bronchi
Lymphatics

(M/P Neo)
Multiple myeloma is a cancer of:
- Macrophages
- Plasma cells
- Erythrocytes
- Monocytes
Plasma cells

(M/P Neo)
A study is performed to analyze characteristics of malignant neoplasms in biopsy specimens. The biopsies were performed on patients who had palpable mass lesions on digital rectal examination. Of the following microscopic findings, which is most likely to indicate that the neoplasm is malignant?
- Pleomorphism
- Atypia
- Metastasis
- Increased nuclear/cytoplasmic ratio
- Necrosis
Metastasis

(M/P Neo)
Which of the following is a relatively common low-grade malignancy that originates in the pilosebaceous glands and pathologically resembles squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)?
- Dermatofibromas
- Seborrheic keratosis
- Acrochordon
- Keratoacanthoma
- Actinic keratosis
Keratoacanthoma

(M/P Neo)
Which of the following is a neoplasm derived from all three germ cell layers?
- Carcinoma
- Sarcoma
- Teratoma
- APUDoma
Teratoma

(M/P Neo)
All of the following are benign tumors of mesenchymal origin except:
- Leiomyoma
- Rhabdomyoma
- Osteosarcoma
- Lipoma
- Fibroma
- Chondroma
Osteosarcoma

(M/P Neo)
Which of the following is a characteristic of malignant neoplasms in which there is no differentiation to suggest a particular cell type?
- Dysplasia
- Anaplasia
- Metaplasia
- Desmoplasia
Anaplasia

(M/P Neo)
The cardinal sign of pheochromocytoma is:
- Persistent diarrhea
- Internal bleeding
- Persistent or paroxysmal (episodic) hypertension
- Hypoglycemia
Persistent or paroxysmal (episodic) hypertension

(M/P Neo)
Which of the following is the most dangerous type of skin cancer?
- Basal cell carcinoma
- Squamous cell carcinoma
- Malignant melanoma
Malignant melanoma

(M/P Neo)
All of the following are benign neoplasms except:
- Adenoma
- Fibroma
- Carcinoma
- Hemangioma
- Lipoma
Carcinoma

(M/P Neo)
A 14-year-old boy complains of pain persisting in his right leg for 3 weeks. On physical examination his temperature is 101ºF. A radiograph of the leg reveals a mass in the diaphyseal region of the right femur with overlying cortical erosion and soft tissue extension. A bone biopsy is performed and the lesion on microscopic examination shows numerous small round blue cells. Which of the following neoplasms is he most likely to have?
- Ewing's sarcoma
- Neuroblastoma
- Chondroblastoma
- Osteoblastoma
Ewing's sarcoma

(M/P Neo)
Nonosseous bone tumors arise from hematopoietic, vascular, or neural tissues and include all of the following except:
- Ewing's sarcoma
- Fibrosarcoma
- Malignant giant cell tumor
- Chordoma
Malignant giant cell tumor

(M/P Neo)
Osseous bone tumors arise from the bony structure itself and include all of the following except:
- Osteogenic sarcoma
- Parosteal osteogenic sarcoma
- Ewing's sarcoma
- Chondrosarcoma
- Malignant giant cell tumor
Ewing's sarcoma

(M/P Neo)
Primary amyloidosis is associated with abnormalities of:
- Macrophages
- Erythrocytes
- Hemoglobin
- Plasma cells
Plasma cells

(M/P Dis)
Urticaria is commonly known as:
- Edema
- Hives
- Bleeding
- Itching
Hives

(M/P Dis)
A 20-year-old woman gives a history of a sore throat with fever followed by 6 weeks of malaise. On physical examination she has mildly tender generalized lymphadenopathy. Hematologically, there is atypical lymphocytosis and a positive heterophile antibody test. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- Lymphocytic lymphoma
- Hodgkin's disease
- Infectious mononucleosis
- Human immunodeficiency virus infection
- Brucellosis
Infectious mononucleosis

(M/P Dis)
A 50-year-old man has noted increasing dyspnea for the past 5 years. On examination rales are auscultated in both lungs. He is afebrile. A chest radiograph shows an enlarged cardiac silhouette and bilateral pulmonary edema. Past history reveals that, as a child he suffered recurrent bouts of pharyngitis with group A beta hemolytic streptococcal infections. Which of the following cardiac valves are most likely to be abnormal in this man?
- Aortic and tricuspid
- Mitral and pulomonic
- Aortic and pulmonic
- Tricuspid and pulmonic
- Mitral and aortic
Mitral and aortic

(M/P Dis)
Addison's disease is a hormone deficiency caused by damage to the:
- Pancreatic islets of Langerhans
- Thyroid gland
- Outer layer of the adrenal gland (adrenal cortex)
- Parathyroid glands
Outer layer of the adrenal gland (adrenal cortex)

(M/P Dis)
The cause of multiple sclerosis is:
- Bacterial
- Viral
- Unknown
- Fungal
Unknown

(M/P Dis)
All of the following are true concerning Type 1 diabetes except:
- It is usually diagnosed in childhood
- It is far more common than Type 2 and makes up 90% or more of all cases of diabetes
- The body makes little or no insulin
- Likely long term complications of poorly controlled Type 1 diabetes include: hyaline arteriosclerosis, proliferative retinopathy, nodular glomerulosclerosis, and peripheral symmetric neuropathy
- Daily injections of insulin are required to sustain life
It is far more common than Type 2 and makes up 90% or more of all cases of diabetes

(M/P Dis)
An otherwise healthy 48-year-old woman with no prior medical history has had increasing back pain and left hip pain for the past decade. The pain is worse at the end of the day. On physical examination she has bony enlargement of the distal interphalangeal joints. A radiograph of the spine reveals the presence of prominent osteophytes involving the vertebral bodies. There is sclerosis with narrowing of the joint space at the left acetabulum seen on a radiograph of the pelvis. Which of the following diseases is most likely to be taking place in this patient?
- Gout
- Rheumatoid arthritis
- Osteoarthritis
- Osteomyelitis
- Lyme disease
Osteoarthritis

(M/P Dis)
The cause of rheumatoid arthritis is:
- Viral
- Fungal
- Bacterial
- Unknown
Unknown

(M/P Dis)
An 8-year-old child has complained of pain on the left side of his head for 5 weeks. There are no abnormal findings on physical examination. A skull radiograph reveals a solitary destructive bony lesion on the left mastoid region. A biopsy is performed and microscopic examination shows that this lesion is composed histologically of histiocytes, eosinophils, plasma cells, and lymphocytes. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- Osteoid osteoma
- Letterer Siwe syndrome
- Eosinophilic granuloma
- Osteitis fibrosa cystica
Eosinophilic granuloma

(M/P Dis)
In which type of hypersensitivity reaction do the antibodies produced by the immune response bind to antigens on the patient's own cell surfaces?
- Type I hypersensitivity reactions
- Type II hypersensitivity reactions
- Type III hypersensitivity reactions
- Type IV hypersensitivity reacctions
Type II hypersensitivity reactions

(M/P Dis)
Immune complex diseases are those in which the tissue deposition of circulating immune complexes initiates tissue injury and inflammation in multiple sites. Which of the following is the prototype immune complex disease?
- Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
- Serum sickness
- Sjogren's syndrome
- Glomerulonephritis
- Rheumatoid arthritis (RA)
Serum sickness

(M/P Dis)
Which of the following autoimmune diseases displays the characteristic "butterfly rash" over the face?
- Rheumatoid arthritis
- Sjogren's disease
- Scleroderma
- Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

(M/P Dis)
All of the following abnormalities in parathyroid function are matched with the appropriate association except:
- Primary hyperparathyroidism --> adenoma
- Secondary hyperparathyroidism --> liver disease
- Tertiary hyperparathyroidism --> hyperparathyroidism that persists after definitive therapy for secondary hyperparathyroidism
- Hypoparathyroidism --> most commonly caused by accidental surgery excision during thyroidectomy
- Pseudoparathyroidism --> defective end organ responsiveness to PTH
Secondary hyperparathyroidism --> liver disease

(M/P Dis)
Match each disease, condition, or syndrome with the appropriate description.
Behcet's syndrome, Ankylosing spondylitis, Reiter's syndrome, Temporal arteries, Polyarteritis nodosa, Polymyalgia rheumatica

An inflammation of the joints and tendon attachments at the joints, often accompanied by inflammation of the eye's conjunctiva and the mucous membranes (mouth, urinary tract, etc.) and by a distinctive rash
A chronic inflammatory disease of large arteries
A condition causing severe pain and stiffness in the muscles of the neck, shoulders, and hips
A disease in which segments of medium-sized arteries become inflamed and damaged, reducing the blood supply to the organs they supply
A chronic, relapsing inflammatory disease that can produce recurring, painful mouth sores, skin blisters, genital sores, and swollen joints
A connective tissue disease characterized by an inflammation of the spine and large joints, resulting in stiffness and pain
Behcet's syndrome - A chronic, relapsing inflammatory disease that can produce recurring, painful mouth sores, skin blisters, genital sores, and swollen joints
Ankylosing spondylitis - A connective tissue disease characterized by an inflammation of the spine and large joints, resulting in stiffness and pain
Reiter's syndrome - An inflammation of the joints and tendon attachments at the joints, often accompanied by inflammation of the eye's conjunctiva and the mucous membranes (mouth, urinary tract, etc.) and by a distinctive rash
Temporal arteries - A chronic inflammatory disease of large arteries
Polyarteritis nodosa - A disease in which segments of medium sized arteries become inflammed and damaged, reducing the blood supply to the organs they supply
Polymyalgia rheumatica - A condition causing severe pain and stiffness in the muscles of the neck, shoulders, and hips

(M/P Dis)
Decreased melanin pigmentation is seen in:
- Addison's disease
- Jaundice
- Albinism and vitiligo
- Hemosiderosis
Albinism and vitiligo

(M/P Disord)
Cholelithiasis, stones or calculi (gallstones) in the gallbladder, results from changes in:
- Lymph components
- Plasma components
- Bile components
- White blood cell components
Bile components

(M/P Disord)
Acute gouty arthritis is the attack of a metabolic disease marked by:
- Stearic acid deposits in the joints
- Hydrochloric acid deposits in the joints
- Uric acid deposits in the joints
- Sodium carbonate deposits in the joints
Uric acid deposits in the joints

(M/P Disord)
A subdural hematoma is a typical complication of:
- Bacterial infection
- Viral infection
- Traumatic injury
- Myocardial infarction
Traumatic injury

(M/P Disord)
Extreme hypothyroidism in adults is called:
- Rickets
- Addison's disease
- Myxedema
- Graves' disease
Myxedema

(M/P Disord)
Match the appropriate fat-soluble vitamin deficiency with the clinical manifestation.
Vitamin A, Vitamin D, Vitamin E, Vitamin K

Osteomalacia
Neurologic dysfunction
Tendency to hemorrhage
Night blindness
Vitamin A - Night blindness
Vitamin D - Osteomalacia
Vitamin E - Neurologic dysfunction
Vitamin K - Tendency to hemorrhage
The presence of blood in the urine is called:
- Glucosuria
- Ketonuria
- Hematuria
- Proteinuria
Hematuria

(M/P Disord)
Calcification occuring in degenerated or necrotic tissue, as in hyalinized scars, degenerated foci in leiomyomas, and caseous nodules is called:
- Metastatic calcification
- Dystrophic calcification
- Pathologic calcification
- Eggshell calcification
Dystrophic calcification

(M/P Disord)
Which disease produces diffuse enlargement of the thyroid with increased thyroid hormone production from the onset?
- Diabetes
- Graves' disease
- Parkinson's disease
- Paget's disease
Graves' disease

(M/P Disord)
The most common cause of preventable blindness in underdeveloped areas of the world is:
- Pinkeye
- Trachoma
- Conjunctivitis
- Inclusion conjunctivitis
Trachoma

(M/P Disord)
Vitamin B3 deficiency is known as:
- Pellagra
- Scurvy
- Beriberi
- Rickets
Pellagra

(M/P Disord)
Which two enzymes are elevated in the blood of a patient suffering from acute pancreatitis?
- Alkaline phosphatase
- Acid phosphatase
- Lipase
- Amylase
Lipase
Amylase

(M/P Disord)
Which lipid storage disease results from lack of sphingomyelinase and can lead to severe neurologic impairment in children?
- Gaucher's disease
- Neimann Pick disease
- Fabry's disease
- Tay Sachs disease
Neimann Pick disease

(M/P Disord)
Acromegaly is a chronic metabolic disorder of adults caused by an excessive amount of:
- Thyroid hormone
- Growth hormone
- Parathyroid hormone
- Epinephrine
Growth hormone

(M/P Disord)
A 51-year-old woman has had increasing cold intolerance, weight gain of 10kg, and sluggishness over the past three years. A physical examination reveals dry, coarse skin and alopecia of the scalp. Her thyroid is not palpably enlarged. Her serum TSH is 11.9 mU/L with thyroxine of 2.3 micrograms/dL. A year ago, anti-thyroglobulin and anti-microsomal autoantibodies were detected at high titer. Which of the following thyroid diseases is she most likely to have?
- Papillary carcinoma
- Hashimoto's thyroiditis
- Nodular goiter
- Graves' disease
Hashimoto's thyroiditis

(M/P Disord)
Impetigo is a common skin infection. It is common in:
- Children
- Young adults
- Middle aged adults
- Elderly
Children

(M/P Disord)
Erythema multiforme (EM) is an acute self-limited eruption characterized by a distinctive clinical eruption, the hallmark of which is the:
- Butterfly rash
- Iris or target lesion
- Hill Sachs lesions
- Janeway lesion
Iris or target lesion

(M/P Disord)
A condition marked by extreme thirst and excessive urine output caused by a deficiency of a hormone (vasopressin) that normally would limit the amount of urine made is called:
- Nephrogenic insipidus
- Diabetes insipidus
- Neither of the above
Diabetes insipidus

(M/P Disord)
Erythema multiforme (EM) is an acute self-limited eruption characterized by a distinctive clinical eruption, the hallmark of which is the:
- Butterfly rash
- Iris or target lesion
- Hill Sachs lesions
- Janeway lesion
Iris or target lesion

(M/P Disord)
Peptic ulcers are most commonly found in the:
- Duodenum
- Jejunum
- Ileum
Duodenum

(M/P Disord)
Although asthma can strike at any age, half of all cases first occur in:
- Middle age adults
- Teenagers
- Elderly persons
- Children under age 10
Children under age 10

(M/P Disord)
A 37-year-old man has a traumatic injury to his thigh and incurs extensive blood loss. On physical examination in the emergency department his blood pressure is 75/35 mm Hg. Which of the following cellular changes is most likely to represent irreversible cellular injury as a result of this injury?
- Epithelial dysplasia
- Cytoplasmic fatty metamorphosis
- Nuclear pyknosis
- Atrophy
- Anaerobic glycolysis
Nuclear pyknosis

(M/P Infl
An accumulation of pus, usually caused by a bacterial infection, is called a(n):
- Granuloma
- Tumor
- Abscess
- Cyst
Abscess

(M/P Infl
The first type of white blood cells on the scene during the acute or early stage of inflammation are the:
- Basophils
- Eosinophils
- Neutrophils
- Monocytes
Neutrophils

(M/P Infl
Death of a portion of tissue or an organ in the body is called:
- Hypertrophy
- Necrosis
- Ascites
- Atrophy
Necrosis

(M/P Infl
Which one of the following is the tissue response to injury where there is an accumulation of mononuclear inflammatory cells (lymphocytes, plasma cells, and macrophages) and the production of fibrous connective tissue?
- Acute inflammation
- Chronic inflammation
- Edema
- Gangrene
Chronic inflammation

(M/P Infl
Gas gangrene occurs as a result of infection by:
- Clostridium tetani
- Clostridium perfringens
- Clostridium botulinum
- Actinomyces israelii
Clostridium perfringens

(M/P Infl
Epitheliod cells and giant cells are derived from macrophages and are important in the development of:
- Initial inflammation
- Granulomatous inflammation
- Acute inflammation
- Subacute inflammation
Granulomatous inflammation

(M/P Infl
The hallmark of the acute cellular phase of acute inflammation is the appearance of:
- Macrophages in the tissues
- Granulocytes, particularly neutrophils, in the tissues
- Lymphocytes in the tissues
- Epitheloid cells in the tissues
Granulocytes, particularly neutrophils, in the tissues

(M/P Infl
A clear straw colored liquid produced by the body in response to tissue damage is called:
- Plasma
- Serum
- Exudate
- Transudate
Exudate

(M/P Infl
All of the following statements concerning malignant hypertension are true except:
- It is a medical emergency condition where there is a severe rise in the blood pressure
- The cause is unknown, but there is often a prior history of hypertension, especially hypertension resulting from kidney disorders (secondary hypertension)
- It is more common in younger adults, especially African American men. It also occurs in women with toxemia of pregnancy, and people with renal or collagen vascular disorders
- There is a sudden, rapid decrease in blood pressure, usually for no observable cause
- The disorder can cause severe, permanent, life threatening consequence from pressure damage to multiple organs of the body, including the brain, eyes, blood vessels, heart, and kidneys
There is a sudden, rapid decrease in blood pressure, usually for no observable cause

(M/P Kid Dis)
An inherited kidney disorder which enlarges the kidneys and interferes with their function because of multiple cysts on the kidneys is called:
- Glomerulonephritis
- Polycystic kidney
- Medullary cystic disease
- Medullary sponge kidney
Polycystic kidney

(M/P Kid Dis)
Hydronephrosis results from:
- A viral infection
- Chronic urinary tract obstruction
- A direct complication of diabetes mellitus
- A bacterial infection
Chronic urinary tract obstruction

(M/P Kid Dis)
The most commonly occuring form of nephrolithiasis is:
- Struvite stones
- Calcium stones
- Uric acid stones
- Cystine stones
Calcium stones

(M/P Kid Dis)
Glomerulonephritis (GN) is a bilateral inflammation of the glomeuli, often following a:
- Staphylococcal infection
- Chlamydial infection
- Streptococcal infection
- Fungal infection
Streptococcal infection

(M/P Kid Dis)
A 25-year-old man has noted puffiness around his eyes and swelling of his feet for the past 3 weeks. On physical examination his blood pressure is 160/98 mm Hg. Urine microscopic examination reveals oval fat bodies. Which of the following conditions is he most likely to have?
- Ascending pyelonephritis
- Nephritic syndrome
- Nephrotic syndrome
- Renal infarction
- Papillary necrosis
Nephrotic syndrome

(M/P Kid Dis)
All of the following are true except:
- Acute leukemias have a slow onset and progression
- Acute leukemias are characterized by the appearance of immature, abnormal cells in the bone marrow and peripheral blood and frequently in the liver, spleen, lymph nodes, and other parenchymatous organs
- The clinical picture of acute leukemias are marked by the effects of anemia, which is usually severe (fatigue, malaise), an absence of functioning granulocytes (proneness to infection and inflammation), and thrombocytopenia (hemorrhagic diathesis)
- The spleen and liver usually are moderately enlarged, while enlarged lymph nodes are seen mainly in acute lymphocytic leukemia. Fever and a very high ESR are found
- Leukocyte counts vary greatly in the acute leukemias
Acute leukemias have a slow onset and progression

(M/P Leuk)
Leukemias are evenly split between the acute and chronic forms, but among children one form accounts for about two-thirds of cases. This one form is:
- Acute lymphocytic leukemia
- Acute myeloid leukemia
- Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
- Acute monoblastic
Acute lymphocytic leukemia

(M/P Leuk)
Leukemia is a group of bone marrow disease involving an uncontrolled increase in:
- Red blood cells (Erythrocytes)
- Platelets
- Plasma cells
- White blood cells (Leukocytes)
White blood cells (Leukocytes)

(M/P Leuk)
Which statement is true concerning chronic leukemias?
- They have a rapid onset and progression
- They have a shorter, more devastating clinical course than the acute leukemias
- They are characterized by proliferations of lymphoid or hematopoietic cells that are more mature than those of the acute leukemias
- They constitute 75% of all leukemias
They are characterized by proliferations of lymphoid or hematopoietic cells that are more mature than those of the acute leukemias

(M/P Leuk)
A specific chromosome marker characterizes:
- Acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)
- Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)
- Acute myeloid leukemia (AML)
- Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)
Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)

(M/P Leuk)
For the past 6 months, a 65-year-old man has noted increasing fatigue and shortness of breath with minimal exercise. He has noted some abdominal discomfort over the past month. He has been healthy all his life. On physical examination he has non-tender cervical lymphadenopathy. A CBC shows absolute lymphocytosis (> 10,000/uL) and increased lymphocytes (> 30%) in the bone marrow. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- Chronic myelogenous leukemia
- Acute myelogenous leukemia
- Acute lymphocytic leukemia
- Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

(M/P Leuk)
Cigarette smoking is the most common cause of:
- Bronchial asthma
- Emphysema
- Pneumonia
- Hepatitis
Emphysema

(M/P Lng Disord)
A 70-year-old man has an 85 pack a year history of smoking. For the past 7 years, he has had a cough productive of copious amounts of muccoid sputum for months at a time. He has had episodes of pneumonia with Streptococcus pneumoniae and E. coli cultured. His last episode of pneumonia is compicated by septicemia and brain abscess and he dies. At autopsy, his bronchi microscopically demonstrate mucus gland hypertrophy. Which of the following conditions is most likely to explain his clinical course?
- Squamous cell carcinoma
- Bronchiectasis
- Chronic bronchitis
- Bronchial asthma
- Centrilobular emphysema
Chronic bronchitis

(M/P Lng Disord)
Which of the following is the most common fatal genetic disease in white children?
- Von Hippel Lindau disease
- Cystic fibrosis
- Marfan's syndrome
- Familial hypercholesterolemia
Cystic fibrosis

(M/P Lng Disord)
Which of the following is most commonly caused by left-sided heart failure due to arteriosclerosis, hypertension, cardiomyopathy, or valvular heart disease?
- Bronchiectasis
- Chronic bronchitis
- Atelectasis
- Pulmonary edema
Pulmonary edema

(M/P Lng Disord)
Bacterial pneumonia occuring in a healthy individual usually is due to:
- Group A streptococcus
- Klebsiella pneumoniae
- Streptococcus pneumoniae
- Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Streptococcus pneumoniae

(M/P Lng Disord)
All of the following are pneumoconioses except:
- Asbestosis
- Silicosis
- Berylliosis
- Tuberculosis
- Anthracosis
Tuberculosis

(M/P Lng Disord)
During a cardiac arrest, a 65-year-old man, a non-smoker, receives cardiopulmonary resuscitative measures and is brought to the hospital, where he is intubated. During the intubation procedure he suffers aspiration of gastric contents. Over the next 12 days he develops a non-productive cough along with a fever to 101ºF. A chest radiograph reveals a 5 cm diameter mass with an air-fluid level in the right lung. A sputum gram stain reveals mixed flora. Which of the following conditions is he most likely to have?
- Squamous cell carcinoma
- Lung abscess
- Chronic bronchitis
- Bronchiectasis
- Bronchopulmonary sequestration
Lung abscess

(M/P Lng Disord)
Which of the following is defined clinically as a person who has a persistent cough with sputum production for at least 3 months in at least 2 consecutive years?
- Congestive heart failure
- Emphysema
- Chronic bronchitis
- Centrilobular emphysema
Chronic bronchitis

(M/P Lng Disord)
Ascites is excess fluid in the space between the membranes lining the abdomen and abdominal organs (the peritoneal cavity). This is typically caused by:
- Paget's disease
- Liver disease
- Diabetes
- Prostate cancer
Liver disease

(M/P Lv Dis)
Which of the following leads to the appearance of esophageal varices in the lower esophagus that can erode and bleed profusely?
- Mallory Weiss syndrome
- Iron deficiency
- Portal hypertension
- Barrett's esophagus
Portal hypertension

(M/P Lv Dis)
All of the following are RNA viruses except:
- Hepatitis A
- Hepatitis B
- Hepatitis C
- Hepatitis D
- Hepatitis E
Hepatitis B

(M/P Lv Dis)
Jaundice is a yellow discoloring of the skin, mucous membranes, and eyes, caused by an excessive amount of:
- Glucose in the blood
- Creatinine in the blood
- Bilirubin in the blood
- Folic acid in the blood
Bilirubin in the blood

(M/P Lv Dis)
All of the following statements concerning cirrhosis are true except:
- Cirrhosis is a chronic disease characterized by diffuse destruction and fibrotic regeneration of hepatic cells
- It is twice as common in women as in men
- It is especially prevelant among malnourished persons over the age of 50 with chronic alcoholism
- Mortality is high; many patients die within 5 years of onset
It is twice as common in women as in men

(M/P Lv Dis)
Common hepatitis virus infections include Hepatitis A, Hepatitis B and Hepatitis C. Which is the least serious and most mild of these diseases?
- Hepatitis A
- Hepatitis B
- Hepatitis C
Hepatitis A

(M/P Lv Dis)
Intrinsic factor is a protein the body uses to absorb:
- Vitamin B6
- Vitamin B2
- Vitamin B5
- Vitamin B12
Vitamin B12

(M/P Bld Disord)
A 49-year-old man has had increasing abdominal discomfort with abdominal enlargement for the past three years. On physical examination, the spleen can be felt below the left costal margin. An abdominal CT scan reveals massive (estimated 4000 gm size) splenomegaly. Which of the following underlying conditions is he most likely to have?
- Myelofibrosis
- Sickle cell anemia
- Portal hypertension
- Infectious mononucleosis
Myelofibrosis

(M/P Bld Disord)
What three organs are usually damaged from prolonged hypertension?
- Intestine
- Kidneys
- Heart
- Stomach
- Brain
Kidneys
Heart
Brain

(M/P Bld Disord)
Phlebitis is inflammation of the veins. It is most common in the:
- Arms
- Fingers
- Legs
- Toes
Legs

(M/P Bld Disord)
A clinical study is performed with subjects who are adults found to have anemia. Their clinical histories and laboratory findings are reviewed. It is observed that ingestion of a drug preceded development of the anemia in some of the subjects, but not in others. Which of the following conditions is most likely to be found in persons without a history of drug ingestion?
- Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
- Macrocytic anemia
- Aplastic anemia
- Microcytic anemia
Microcytic anemia

(M/P Bld Disord)
The most common cause of secondary hypertension is:
- Pheochromocytoma
- Kidney disease
- Hypothyroidism
- Hyperparathyroidism
Kidney disease

(M/P Bld Disord)
In many cases, severe hemolytic disease results when the:
- Fetus has Rh negative blood and the mother has Rh negative blood
- Fetus has Rh positive blood and the mother has Rh positive blood
- Fetus has Rh positive blood and the mother has Rh negative blood
Fetus has Rh positive blood and the mother has Rh negative blood

(M/P Bld Disord)
Dicumarol is an oral anticoagulant that interferes with the metabolism of:
- Vitamin K
- Vitamin A
- Vitamin D
- Vitamin E
Vitamin K

(M/P Bld Disord)
Which two arteries are most often affected by arteriosclerosis?
- Aorta
- Femoral artery
- Coronary arteries
- Cerebral
Aorta
Coronary arteries

(M/P Bld Disord)
When purpura spots are very small, they are called:
- Pimples
- Petechiae
- Ecchymoses
- Varicose veins
Perechiae

(M/P Bld Disord)
Sickle cell anemia is caused by an abnormal type of:
- Leukocyte
- Bilirubin
- Hemoglobin
- Melanin
Hemoglobin

(M/P Bld Disord)
All of the following statements are true except:
- Carbon monoxide is a very dangerous, colorless, odorless gas, generally associated with fumes from a car or from a home heating system
- Carbon monoxide attaches to the hemoglobin of the blood's red cells and blocks their capacity to carry oxygen
- Severe carbon monoxide poisoning can cause a coma or irreversible brain damage because of oxygen deprivation
- The initial symptoms of CO poisoning are similar to the flu (but without the fever). They include: headache, fatigue, shortness of breath, nausea, dizziness
- The affinity between CO and hemoglobin is 200 times weaker than the affinity between hemoglobin and oxygen
The affinity between CO and hemoglobin is 200 times weaker than the affinity between hemoglobin and oxygen

(M/P Bld Disord)
Hemophilia A (classic hemophilia) results from a deficiency of:
- Factor IX
- Factor XI
- Factor VIII
- Factor V
Factor VIII

(M/P Bld Disord)
An 84-year-old woman has had no major medical problems, but she has never been physically active for most of her life. One day she falls out of bed and immediately notes a sharp pain in her right hip. She is subsequently unable to ambulate without severe pain. Radiographs show not only a fracture of the right femoral head, but also a compressed fracture of T10. Which of the following conditions is she most likely to have?
- Vitamin D deficiency
- Osteomyelitis
- Osteogenesis imperfecta
- Osteoporosis
Osteoporosis

(M/P Bn Disord)
Which of the following is a group of disease in children and adolescents in which localized tissue death (necrosis) occurs, usually followed by full regeneration of healthy bone tissue?
- Osteochondrodysplasias
- Mucopolysaccharidoses
- Osteochondroses
- Osteopetroses
Osteochondroses

(M/P Bn Disord)
An uncommon inherited metabolic disorder which leads to "brittle bones" that predispose to fractures is called:
- Fibrous dysplasia
- Osteogenesis imperfecta
- Albers Schonberg disease
- Achondroplasia
Albers Schonberg disease

(M/P Bn Disord)
Which of the following is a disease that involves softening of the bones caused by a deficiency of vitamin D or problems with the metabolism of this vitamin?
- Osteomalacia
- Multiple myeloma
- Osteonecrosis
- Ewing's sarcoma
Osteomalacia

(M/P Bn Disord)
An 80-year-old male has noted increasing back and leg pain for 4 years. He has greater difficulty hearing on the right. On physical examination he has decreased range of motion at the hips. Radiographs reveal bony sclerosis of the sacroiliac, lower vertebral, and upper tibial regions with cortical thickening, but without mass effect or significant bony destruction. If that weren't enough trouble, he says his hats don't even fit him anymore. Laboratory studies show a serum alkaline phosphatase of 264 U/L. Which of the following conditions is he most likely to have?
- Metastatic adenocarcinoma
- Paget's disease of bone
- Decreased bone mass
- Vitamin D deficiency
Paget's disease of bone

(M/P Bn Disord)
Generalized swelling, or massive edema is also known as:
- Anasarca
- Aphasia
- Phlebitis
- Anomia
Anasarca

(M/P Hemody Dys)
When a bone is broken into more than two pieces or crushed it is called:
- A complete fracture
- A greenstick fracture
- A single fracture
- A comminuted fracture
- A bending fracture
- An open fracture
A comminuted fracture

(M/P Hemody Dys)
Shock is a clinical syndrome that leads to reduced perfusion of tissues, organs, and organ failure. The most common cause of hypovolemic shock is:
- GI fluid loss, renal loss, fluid shifts
- Burns
- Blood loss
- Ascites, pertonitis
- Hemothorax
Blood loss

(M/P Hemody Dys)
The clotting of blood within an artery or a vein is called:
- Thrombolysis
- Thrombosis
- A thrombus
- An embolus
Thrombosis

(M/P Hemody Dys)
Metabolic acidosis occurs in which stage of shock?
- Non progressive (early) stage
- Progressive stage
- Irreversible stage
Progressive stage

(M/P Hemody Dys)
Which of the following is the most important contributor to arterial thrombosis?
- Pregnancy
- Oral contraceptives
- Atherosclerosis
- Smoking
Atherosclerosis

(M/P Hemody Dys)
Heart failure resulting from progressive diseases that weaken the heart directly or cause an increased demand on the heart is known as:
- Congenital heart failure
- Congestive heart failure
- Left sided heart failure
- Right sided heart failure
Congestive heart failure

(M/P Hrt Disord)
Cardiac tamponade has three classic features known as Beck's triad. Which of the following is not one of these features?
- Elevated central venous pressure with neck vein distension
- Muffled heart sounds
- Pulsus paradoxus
- Cyanosis
Cyanosis

(M/P Hrt Disord)
Creatine phosphokinase (CPK), is an enzyme found predominanly in all of the following except:
- Heart
- Liver
- Brain
- Skeletal muscle
Liver

(M/P Hrt Disord)
The classic symptom of coronary artery disease (CAD) is:
- Coughing
- Venous congestion
- Angina
- Peripheral edema
Angina

(M/P Hrt Disord)
Many bacteria can cause infectious endocarditis, but one is responsible for approximately half of all bacterial endocarditis cases. That one bacteria is:
- Staphylococcus
- Pseudomonas
- Streptococcus viridans
- Serratia
Streptococcus viridans

(M/P Hrt Disord)
A type of cellulitis that involves inflammation of the tissues of the floor of the mouth which often occurs following infection of the roots of the teeth (such as tooth abscess) or after mouth trauma is called:
- Angioedema
- Vincent's angina
- Ludwig's angina
- Ranula
Ludwig's angina

(M/P Inf)
Leukocytosis often accompanies a:
- Viral infection
- Bacterial infection
- Fungal infection
- Parasitic infection
Bacterial infection

(M/P Inf)
All of the following statements concerning botulism are true except:
- It is an uncommon, life-threatening poisoning caused by the toxins produced by the gram positive, anaerobic bacillis Clostridium botulinum
- These exotoxins (neurotoxins) are the most potent poisons known and can severely damage nerves and muscles
- It is caused by a toxin that hydrolyzes lecithin (lecithinase), thereby destroying nerve cells
- It occurs with botulism food poisoning, wound botulism, and infant botulism
- The foods most commonly contaminated are home canned vegetables, cured pork and ham, smoked or raw fish, and honey or corn syrup
- The mortality from botulism is about 25%; death is usually caused by respiratory failure during the 1st week of illness
It is caused by a toxin that hydrolyzes lecithin (lecithinase), thereby destroying nerve cells

(M/P Inf)
The primary pulmonary tubercle lesion is referred to as the:
- Tuberculoid
- Atypical tubercle
- Ghon tubercle
- Group II lesion
Ghon tubercle

(M/P Inf)
Gonorrhea:
- Is commonly seen as a testicular infection in men
- Is controllable by immunization
- Is commonly asymptomatic in women
- Is commonly not symptomatic in men
It is commonly asymptomatic in women

(M/P Inf)
All of the following statements concerning Reye's syndrome are true except:
- Reye's syndrome involves brain damage (encephalopathy) and liver damage of an unknown cause
- It is associated with the use of NSAIDs in children to treat chickenpox or influenza
- Reye's syndrome is most often seen in children from 4 to 12 years old, with a peak incidence at age 6
- The illness has a rapid onset and symptoms may vary greatly. Changes in mental status occur including delirium, combative behavior, and coma
- Typically, Reye's syndrome follows an upper respiratory infection or chickenpox by about a week. It frequently begins with vomiting, which is persistent over many hours
- The vomiting is rapidly followed by irritable and combative behavior. As the condition progresses, the child may become semi-conscious or stuporous. Ultimately, seizures and coma develop, which can quickly lead to death
It is associated with the use of NSAIDs in children to treat chickenpox or influenza

(M/P Inf)
All of the following statements concerning appendicitis are true except:
- Appendicitis is a sudden inflammation of the appendix, a small, finger-shaped tube that branches off the large intestine
- Appendicitis is one of the most common causes of emergency abdominal surgery in children
- Appendicitis is more common in females than in males, and incidence peaks in the late 30s and early forties
- Appendicitis generally follows obstruction of the appendix by feces (fecalith), a foreign body, or rarely, a tumor
- Typically, the first symptom is crampy or "colicky" pain around the navel. There is usually a marked recution in or total absence of appetite, often associated with nausea, and occasionally, vomiting and low grade fever
Appendicitis is more common in females than in males, and incidence peaks in the late 30s and easrly forties

(M/P Inf)
Encephalitis is most often caused by a:
- Bacterial infection
- Viral infection
- Fungal infection
- Head injury
Viral infection

(M/P Inf)
A macular or papular skin rash is characteristic of which stage of syphilis?
- Primary
- Secondary
- Tertiary
Secondary

(M/P Inf)
An infection is pandemic if:
- It has a worldwide distribution
- It is constantly present at a low level in a specific population
- It occurs much more frequently than usual
- It is highly communicable
It has a worldwide distribution

(M/P Inf)
Which of the following immunoglobulins is present normally in plasma at the highest concentration?
- IgG
- IgM
- IgA
- IgD
- IgE
IgG

(M/P Immun)
B-cells are responsible for:
- Humoral immunity
- Cellular imunity
- Both humoral and cellular immunity
Humoral immunity

(M/P Immun)
An injection of a drug into a patient who is allegric to this drug may lead to death due to:
- Low levels of histamine
- Hyperglobulinemia
- Severe anaphylaxis (anaphylactic shock)
- Localized anaphylaxis
Severe anaphylaxis (anaphylactic shock)

(M/P Immun)
The most potent of the anaphylatoxins is:
- C3a
- C4a
- C5a
C5a

(M/P Immun)
The three principal kinds of atopic allergies include all of the following except:
- Atopic dematitis (eczema)
- Rhinitis (hay fever and year around symptoms)
- Jaundice
- Allergic asthma
Jaundice

(M/P Immun)
Defects in the complement system could result in:
- Failure to produce complement fixing antibody
- Increased resistance to viral infections
- Impaired elimination of microbial antigen and circulating immune complexes
- Marked increase in bleeding time
Impaired elimination of microbial antigen and circulating immune complexes

(M/P Immun)
Which of the following is the most frequently employed diagnostic laboratory technique for the microscopic detection of antigens in tissue secretions or in cell suspensions?
- Immunofluorescence (fluorescent antibody)
- Agglutination
- Radioimmunoassay (RIA)
- Precipitation (Precipitin)
- Enzyme Linked Immunosorbent Assay (ELISA)
Immunofluorescence (fluorescent antibody)

(M/P Immun)
A small molecule, not antignic by itself, that can react with antibodie is called a(n):
- Epitope
- Hapten
- Plasmid
- Immunogen
Hapten

(M/P Immun)
Passive immunization:
- Provides protection without hypersensitivity
- Provides long lasting protection
- Provides immediate protection
- Employs sensitized T cells
Provides immediate protection

(M/P Immun)
A group of compounds derived from unsaturated fatty acids which are extremely potent mediators of immediate hypersensitivity reactions and inflammation are called:
- Neurotransmitters
- Leukotrienes
- Teratogens
- Bradykinins
Leukotrienes

(M/P Immun)
All of the following statements concerning complement are true except:
- It is a collective term for a group of plasma proteins that is the primary mediator of antigen antibody reactions
- These proteins participate in lysis of foreign cells, inflammation, and phagocytosis
- It consists of about twenty plasma proteins
- The proteins are synthesized mainly by the kidney
- It is present in normal human serum
- It is heat labile
The proteins are synthesized mainly by the kidney

(M/P Immun)
Natural immunity (innate immunity) is resistance:
- Acquired through contact with an antigen
- Not acquired through contact with an antigen
Not acquired through contact with an antigen

(M/P Immun)
The predominant antibody in external secretions is:
- IgD
- IgE
- IgA
- IgG
- IgM
IgA

(M/P Immun)
Fourteen hours after going on a hike through dense foliage, a 35-year-old woman notices a slightly raised and tender irregular reddish rash on one forearm that was not covered by clothing. This rash gradually increases in intensity for 3 days and then fades after two weeks. Which of the following forms of hypersensitivity is most likely demonstrated in this patient?
- Type I
- Type II
- Type III
- Type IV
Type IV

(M/P Immun)
Which blood group has neither antigen A or B?
- A
- B
- O
- AB
O

(M/P Immun)
A T-cell product that stimulates growth of pluripotent hematopoietic stem cells is:
- Interleukin 1
- Interleukin 2
- Interleukin 3
Interleukin 3

(M/P Sub)
All of the following statements concerning the rubella virus are true except:
- It is a member of the togavirus family and is an enveloped virus composed of an icosahedral nucleocapsid and a negative stranded, double stranded RNA genome
- It causes rubella (German measles) and congenital rubella syndrome
- It is transmitted via respiratory droplets
- Prevention involves immunization with the live, attenuated vaccine
It is a member of the togavirus family and is an enveloped virus composed of an icosahedral nucleocapsid and a negative stranded, double stranded RNA genome

(M/P Vir)
Which of the following bacteria are notable for their fluorescent pigments and their resistance to disinfectants and antibiotics?
- Staphylococci
- Pseudomonas
- Bacteroides
- Treponema
Pseudomonas
(M/P Bact)
According to the Spaulding Classification System for contaminated items and surfaces, critical items should be decontaminated after cleaning by:
- Intermediate or low level disinfection
- High level disinfection (by heat or chemicals)
- Sterilization and holding in sterilized state
- All of the above
Sterilizing and holding in sterilized state

(M/P IC)
Which major type of protein present in human blood plasma plays a crucial role in maintaining the blood's colloid osmotic pressure and represents an important amino acid reserve for the body?
- alpha1 globulin
- Albumin
- alpha2 globulin
- beta globulin
Albumin

(B/P Bld)
The principal route of calcium excretion is:
- Tears
- Urine
- Feces
- Sweat
Feces

(B/P Bld)
Hemoglobin:
- Carries carbon dioxide to tissue from the lungs and oxygen away from tissues to the lungs
- Carries carbon monoxide to tissue from the lungs and carbon dioxide away from tissue to the lungs
- Carries oxygen to tissue from the lings and carbon dioxide away from tissue to the lungs
- Carries carbon monoxide to tissue from the lungs and oxygen away from tissue to the lungs
Carries oxygen to tissue from the lungs and carbon dioxide away from tissue to the lungs

(B/P Bld)
O blood type is referred to as:
- Universal recipient
- Universal donor
- Neither of the above
Universal donor

(B/P Bld)
The general term for reactions that prevent or minimize loss of blood from the vessels if they are injured or ruptured is:
- Homeostasis
- Hemostasis
- Erythropoiesis
- Syneresis
Hemostasis

(B/P Bld)
Which mineral is important in the formation of hemoglobin?
- Sodium
- Potassium
- Iron
- Magnesium
Iron

(B/P Bld)
The fluid phase of coagulated blood is known as:
- Blood hematocrit
- Blood cells
- Blood serum
- Blood plasma
Blood serum

(B/P Bld)
All of the following will promote the release of oxygen from oxyhemoglobin --> the hemoglobin dissociation curve will shift to the right except:
- Increased carbon dioxide concentration (Pco2)
- Increased tissue temperature
- Increase in the pH
- Increased diphosphoglycerate (DPG)
Increase in the pH

(B/P Bld)
Which of the following is considered to be the normal hemoglobin?
- Hemoglobin A
- Hemoglobin C
- Hemoglobin H
- Hemoglobin S
- Hemoglobin M
Hemoglobin A

(B/P Bld)
The globin (protein) portion of a hemoglobin molecule consists of:
- One alpha chain and one beta chain
- Two alpha chains and two beta chains
- Three alpha chains and three beta chains
- Four alpha chains and four beta chains
Two alpha chains and two beta chains

(B/P Bld)
The amount of oxygen bound to hemoglobin:
- Is directly proportional to the partial pressure of O2
- Increases if the temperature increases
- Decreases if the Pco2 increases
- Increases if DPG concentration increases
- Is constant between Po2's of 40 and 100 mmHg
Decreases if the Pco2 increases

(B/P Bld)
Glucose, fructose and galactose are classified as which type of sugar?
- Monosaccharides
- Disaccharides
- Oligosaccharides
- Polysaccharides
Monosaccharides

(B/P Carb)
The ground substance of the extracellular matrix is made up of:
- Type II collagen
- Type III collagen
- Proteoglycan molecules
- Fibrillin
- Oxytalan
Proteoglycan molecules

(B/P Carb)
Glycogen, starch, and glycosaminoglycans are classified as:
- Monosaccharides
- Disaccharides
- Oligosaccharides
- Polysaccharides
Polysaccharides

(B/P Carb)
Which of the following statements concerning glycosaminoglycans is true:
- They contain branches of N acetylneuraminic acid
- They seldom contain sulfate groups
- They are most often positively charged
- They contain repeating disaccharides
- They contain short oligosaccharide chains
They contain repeating disaccharides

(B/P Carb)
Dextrans are:
- Soluble polysaccharides of fructose produced by bacteria and yeasts
- Soluble polysaccharides of galactose produced by bacteria and yeasts
- Soluble polysaccharides of glucose produced by bacteria and yeasts
- Soluble polysaccharides of ribose produced by bacteria and yeasts
Soluble polysaccharides of glucose produced by bacteria and yeasts

(B/P Carb)
The most abundant glycosaminoglycan in the body is:
- Keratan sulfate
- Hyaluronic acid
- Dermatan sulfate
- Chondroitin sulfate
- Heparin sulfate
- Heparin
Chondroitin sulfate

(B/P Carb)
Which structures are the site of highest resistance in the cardiovascular system?
- Venules
- Arteries
- Arterioles
- Veins
Arterioles

(B/P Circ S)
The function of systemic arteries is to:
- Act as control valves through which blood is released into the capillaries
- Exchange fluid, nutrients, electrolytes, hormones, and other substances
- Transport blood under high pressure to the tissues
- Act as conduits for the transport of blood from the tissues back to the heart
Transport blood under high pressure to tissues

(B/P Circ S)
Most of the entire blood volume of the body is in the:
- Pulmonary circulation
- Systemic arterial circulation
- Heart
- Systemic venous circulation
Systemic venous circulation

(B/P Circ S)
Which of the following is not part of the pulmonary cicuit?
- The left atrium
- The pulmonary trunk
- The aortic semilunar valve
- The pulmonary veins
- The pulmonary semilunar valves
The aortic semilunar valve

(B/P Circ S)
Which two of the following will increase tissue edema?
- Increased capillary fluid pressure
- Increased interstitial fluid pressure
- Increased colloid osmotic pressure of the plasma
- Increased colloid osmotic pressure of the interstitial fluid
Increased capillary fluid pressure
Increased colloid osmotic pressure of the interstitial fluid

(B/P Circ S)
The greatest pressure decrease in the circulation occurs accross the:
- Veins
- Large arteries
- Capillaries
- Arterioles
Arterioles

(B/P Circ S)
Which of the following receptors are most important for the short term regulation of mean arterial blood pressure?
- Chemoreceptors in the carotid bodies
- Stretch receptors in the carotid sinus
- Chemoreceptors in the aortic bodies
- Stretch receptors in the pulmonary circulation
Stretch receptors in the carotid sinus

(B/P Circ S)
Within the spinal cord, the H-shaped mass of gray matter is divided into horns, which consist mainly of neuron cell bodies. Cell bodies in the posterior (dorsal) horn relay:
- Voluntary motor impulses
- Reflex motor impulses
- Sensory impulses
- All of the above
Sensory impulses

(B/P CNS)
All of the following are main structures of the hindbrain except the:
- Cerebellum
- Pons
- Cerebral hemispheres
- Medulla oblongata
Cerebral hemispheres

(B/P CNS)
Which structure regulates body temperature, appetite, water balance, pituitary secretions, emotions, and autonomic functions?
- Basal ganglia
- Thalamus
- Hypothalamus
- Hippocampus
Hypothalamus

(B/P CNS)
Select the function not performed by the temporal lobe of the brain.
- Controls hearing
- Interprets and integrates sensations, including pain, temperature, and touch
- Controls language comprehension
- Controls storage and recall of memories
Interprets and integrates sensations, including pain, temperature, and touch

(B/P CNS)
When gastric chief cells are stimulated, they secrete:
- HCl and intrinsic factor
- Mucus and pepsinogen
- Gastrin
- Pepsinogen
Pepsinogen

(B/P GI S)
Gastric emptying can be slowed by:
- Gastric inhibitory peptide
- Secretin
- Activation of the sympathetic nervous system
- Activation of the enteric nervous system
- All of the above
All of the above

(B/P GI S)
The most important stimuli for pancreatic secretion comes from three hormones secreted by the enteric endocrine system. Which of the following is not one of these hormones?
- Cholecystokinin
- Secretin
- Calcitonin
- Gastrin
Calcitonin

(B/P GI S)
Which of the following factors affect the intensity of segmentation within the small intestine?
- Mechanical
- Neural
- Hormonal
- All of the above
All of the above

(B/P GI S)
"Chief" cells in gastric glands synthesize and secrete:
- Pepsinogen
- Mucous
- Hydrochloric acid
- Intrinsic factor
Pepsinogen

(B/P GI S)
Action potentials in the skeletal muscle cell membrane initiate depolarization of the T tubules, which opens calcium ion release channels in the sarcoplasmic reticulum. The calcium ions that are released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum bind to which of the following?
- ATP
- Acetylcholine
- Troponin
- Tropomyosin
Troponin

(B/P GI S)
The absorption of which of the following occurs by simple diffusion across the small intestinal mucosa?
- Fructose
- Glucose
- Free fatty acids
- Dipeptides
Free fatty acids

(B/P GI S)
During exercise, which of the following is thought to be an immediate source for high energy phosphate groups with which to replenish ATP?
- NADH
- FADH2
- Creatine phosphate
- Phosphoenolpyruvate
Creatine phosphate

(B/P Msl)
Which of the following is the immediate source of energy for muscle contraction?
- Creatine phosphate
- Glycogen
- Cellular respiration in the mitochondria of the muscle fibers
- ATP
ATP

(B/P Msl)
All of the following statements concerning muscle fibers are true except:
- Fast twitch fibers are about twice as large in diameter
- Slow twitch fibers have a greater resistance to fatigue
- The enzymes of oxidative phosphorylation are considerably more active in slow twitch fibers
- Fast twitch fibers contain more mitochondria and myoglobin
- Fast twitch fibers can deliver extreme amounts of power for a few seconds to a minute
Fast twitch fibers contain more mitochondria and myoglobin

(B/P Msl)
An a motor neuron and the muscle fibers innervated by it are called a:
- Motor circuit
- Motor unit
- Motor system
- Motor pool
Motor unit

(B/P Msl)
Which of the following is the monosynaptic response to stretching of a muscle
- The golgi tendon reflex
- The stretch reflex
- The flexor withdrawal reflex
- None of the above
The stretch reflex

(B/P Msl)
All of the following statements concerning muscle spindles are true except:
- They are found within the belly of muscles
- They consist of small, encapsulated intrafusal fibers and run in parallel with the main muscle fibers (extrafusal fibers)
- The finer the movement required, the lesser the number of muscle spindles in a muscle
- They detect both static and dynamic changes in muscle length
The finer the movement required, the lesser the number of muscle spindles in a muscle

(B/P Msl)
Which of the following are the two main types of intrafusal fibers that are encapsulated in sheaths to form muscle spindles?
- Nuclear bag fibers
- Nuclear pipe fibers
- Nuclear chain fibers
- Nuclear rope fibers
Nuclear bag fibers
Nuclear chain fibers

(B/P Msl)
All reflex arcs have:
- Three basic elements
- Four basic elements
- Five basic elements
- Six basic elements
Six basic elements

(B/P Msl)
When light changes from bright to dim, the iris of the eye:
- Dilates
- Changes the color
- Constricts
- Remains the same
- Thickens
Dilates

(B/P SSO)
The retina:
- Bends and focuses light rays
- Protects the internal parts of the eye
- Is the photosensitive curtain of nerve cells located at the back of the eye
- Is the round opening in the center of the eye through which light passes
Is the photosensitive curtain of nerve cells located at the back of the eye

(B/P SSO)
Nearsightedness or myopia, occurs when light entering the eye:
- Focuses in front of the retina instead of directly on it
- Focuses behind the retina, instead of directly on it
- Focuses directly on the retina
- None of the above
Focuses in front of the retina instead of directly on it

(B/P SSO)
Which of the following membranes does a sound wave strike first?
- Tectorial membrane
- Membrane of the oval window
- Membrane of the round window
- Tympanic membrane
Tympanic membrane

(B/P SSO)
Sugars that contain aldehyde groups that are oxidized to carboxylic acids are classified as:
- Nonreducing sugars
- Reducing sugars
- Polar sugars
- Nonpolar sugars
Reducing sugars

(B/P Carb)
All of the following are disaccharides except:
- Maltose
- Lactose
- D glucose
- Sucrose
D glucose

(B/P Carb)
Which of the following glycosaminoglycans is also known as the cement substance of tissues?
- Chondroitin sulfate
- Dermatan sulfate
- Hyaluronic acid
- Keratan sulfate
- Heparin sulfate
Hyaluronic acid

(B/P Carb)
Erythropoietin:
- Raises the blood sugar level
- Controls blood pressure
- Prmotes plasma protein production
- Stimulates red blood cell production
Stimulates red blood cell production

(B/P Bld)
Each heart valve has three cusps except the:
- Pulmonary valve
- Tricuspid valve
- Mitral valve
- Aortic valve
Mitral valve

(B/P Hrt)
Which cardiac muscle has a longer refractory period?
- Ventricular muscle
- Atrial muscle
Ventricular muscle

(B/P Hrt)
The volume of blood pumped per minute by each ventricle is the:
- Total peripheral resistance (TPR)
- Cardiac output (CO)
- Stroke volume (SV)
- Heart rate (HR)
Cardiac output (CO)

(B/P Hrt)
In the electrocardiogram (ECG) the "T" wave is created by:
- Ventricular repolarization
- Atrial repolarization
- Ventricular depolarization
- Atrial depolarization
Ventricular repolarization

(B/P Hrt)
An average heartbeat, or cardiac cycle, lasts approximately:
- 8.0 seconds
- 80 seconds
- 0.80 seconds
- 0.008 seconds
0.80 seconds

(B/P Hrt)
The stretch receptors of the atria that elict the Bainbridge reflex transmit their afferent signals through the:
- Trigeminal nerves to the medulla of the brain
- Vagus nerves to the medualla of the brain
- Facial nerves to the medulla of the brain
- Glossopharyngeal nerves to the medulla of the brain
Vagus nerves to the medulla of brain

(B/P Hrt)
The structural and functional portions of the cardiac conduction system are listed below. Which portion is called the "pacemaker" of the heart?
- Sinoatrial node
- Atrioventricular node
- Internodal pathways
- Atrioventricular bundle
- Purkinje fibers
Sinoatrial node

(B/P Hrt)
The first heart sound corresponds to the closure of the:
- Semilunar valves
- Pulmonary valve
- Aortic valve
- Atrioventricular valve
Atrioventricular valves

(B/P Hrt)
Place the following phases of gastric secretion in their proper order.
- Intestinal phase
- Gastric phase
- Cephalic phase
Cephalic phase
Gastric phase
Intestinal phase

(B/P GI S)
The ventricles are completely depolarized during which isoelectric portion of the electrocardiogram (ECG)?
- QRS complex
- Q...T interval
- S...T segment
- T wave
S...T segment

(B/P Hrt)
Which of the following is the most important determinant of cardiac output?
- Venous return
- Activation of cardiac sympathetic fibers
- Mean arterial blood pressure
- Heart rate
Venous return

(B/P Hrt)
Blood flow is directly proportional to the pressure difference between the two ends of the vessel but is inversely proportional to the fractional resistance to the blood flow through a vessel. This relationship can be expressed as:
- Flow = pressure difference x resistance
- Flow = pressure difference/resistance
- Flow = resistance/pressure difference
Flow = pressure difference/resistance

(B/P Hrt)
Venous return is the blood returning to the heart via the inferior and superior vena cavae. Which of the following assists venous return?
- The contraction of skeletal muscles
- The pressure changes in the thorax and abdomen during breathing
- The presence of venous valves
- Decreased venous compliance
- All of the above
All of the above

(B/P Hrt)
The three factors that affect the magnitude of the resistance the blood encounters as it flows through vessels are listed below. Which factor has the most powerful relationship?
- Blood viscosity
- Vessel length
- Vessel radius
Vessel radius

(B/P Hrt)
Which of the following contribute sympathetic fibers to the heart and increase cardiac function?
- Right vagus nerve
- First four thoracic spinal nerves (accessory nerves)
- Left vagus nerve
- Trigeminal nerve
First four thoracic spinal nerves (accessory nerves)

(B/P Hrt)
Which of the following parameters is decreased during exercise?
- Heart rate (HR)
- Cardiac output (CO)
- Total peripheral resistance (TPR)
- Stroke volume (SV)
Total peripheral resistance (TPR)

(B/P Hrt)
The bundle of His arises in the:
- SA node
- AV node
- Right ventricle
- Left ventricle
AV node

(B/P Hrt)
Which of the following characteristics is shared by simple and facilitated diffusion of glucose?
- It is saturable
- Required metabolic energy
- Occurs down an electrochemical gradient
- Require a Na gradient
Occurs down an electrochemical gradient

(B/P Misc.)
The thick ascending limb of Henle's loop is called the "diluting segment" because:
- Sodium chloride (NaCl) is reabsorbed with a proportional amount of water
- Water is secreted into the tubular lumen
- Water is reabsorbed from the tubular lumen
- Sodium chloride (NaCl) is reabsorbed without water
- Sodium chloride (NaCl) is reabsorbed and water is secreted
Sodium chloride (NaCl) is reabsorbed without water

(B/P Kid)
Which of the following substances is freely filtered but neither reabsorbed nor secreted by the kidney tubules?
- Sodium chloride
- Inulin
- Para aminohippurate (PAH)
- Glucose
Inulin

(B/P Kid)
All of the following will cause a decrease in the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) except:
- Constriction of the afferent arteriole
- Constriction of the efferent arteriole
- Increased plasma protein concentration of glomerular capillary bed
- Ureteral blockage
Constriction of the efferent arteriole

(B/P Kid)
The kidneys regulate acid-base balance by the:
- Secretion of bicarbonate ions (HCO3-) into the renal tubules and the reabsorption of hydrogen ions (H )
- Secretion of hydrogen ions (H ) into the renal tubules and the reabsorption of bicarbonate ions (HCO3-)
- Secretion of both hydrogen (H ) and bicarbonate ions (HCO3-) into the renal tubules
- Reabsorption of both hydrogen (H _ and bicarbonate ions (HCO3-)
Secretion of hydrogen ions (H ) into the renal tubules and the reabsorption of bicarbonate ions (HCO3-)

(B/P Kid)
Most of the glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed in the:
- Descending loop of Henle
- Distal convoluted tubule
- Proximal convoluted tubules
- Ascending loop of Henle
Proximal convoluted tubule

(B/P Kid)
Whuch mechanism is essential to the production of an osmotically concentrated urine?
- Proprioceptive mechanism
- Association mechanism
- Countercurrent mechanism
- Investing mechanism
Countercurrent mechanism

(B/P Kid)
Ammonia is produced from the metabolism of a variety of compounds. Which compound listed below is quantitatively the most important source of ammonia?
- Glutamine
- Amino acids
- Amines
- Purines and pyrimidines
Amino acids

(B/P Kid)
The kidneys normally excrete:
- 1 to 2 L of urine per day
- 10 to 20 L of urine per day
- 50 to 75 L of urine per day
- 100 to 150 L of urine per day
1 to 2 L of urine per day

(B/P Kid)
The processes which take place in the nephrons, ultimately leadng to urine formation include:
- Filtration
- Reabsorption
- Tubular excretion
- All of the above
All of the above

(B/P Kid)
The cell (plasma) membrane is a fluid mosaic of:
- Lipids and carbohydrates
- Proteins and carbohydrates
- Lipids and proteins
- Carbohydrates
Lipids and proteins

(B/P Mbr)
What is the basic structure of cell membranes?
Lipid bilayer

(B/P Mbr)
Proteins that make up the cell membrane serve as:
- Transporters
- Enzymes
- Receptors
- Mediators
- All of the above
All of the above

(B/P Mbr)
Molecules that can easily penetrate a biologic membrane are usually:
- Large and nonpolar
- Small and polar
- Large and polar
- Small and nonpolar
Small and nonpolar

(B/P Mbr)
Which of the following conditions decreases the likelihood of edema formation?
- Inflammation
- Standing
- Venous constriction
- Arteriolar constriction
Arteriolar constriction

(B/P Misc.)
The method of measuring heat loss or energy loss is called:
- Enthalpy
- Hydropathy index
- Calorimetry
- Entropy
Calorimetry

(B/P Misc.)
An isotonic solution is:
- A solution that when placed on the outside of a cell will cause osmosis out of the cell
- A solution that when placed on the outside of a cell will cause osmosis into the cell
- A solution that when placed on the outside of a cell will not cause osmosis
A solution that when placed on the outside of a cell will not cause osmosis

(B/P Misc.)
Which of the following affect bone mass, structural integrity, and bone loss?
- Age
- Race
- Gender
- All of the above
All of the above

(B/P Misc.)
Which of the following is a gene that when mutated or expressed at abnormally-high levels contributes to converting a normal cell into a cancer cell?
- Antigene
- Oncogene
- Epigene
- Monogene
Oncogene

(B/P Misc.)
The pitch of a sound is related mainly to which of the following characteristics of a sound wave?
- Amplitude of the sound wave
- Frequency of the sound wave
- Superimposed wave
- Secondary waves
- Length of the sound wave
Frequency of the sound wave

(B/P Misc.)
All of the following bonds are considered to be weak bonds except:
- Hydrogen bonds
- Ionic bonds
- Covalent bonds
- van der Waals interactions
Covalent bonds

(B/P Misc.)
The junction between the terminal of a motor neuron and a muscle fiber is called the:
- Gap junction
- Costochondral junction
- Neuromuscular junction
- Mucocutaneous junction
Neuromuscular junction

(B/P Nrv)
The neurotransmitter released by preganglionic sympathetic neurons is:
- Norepinephrine
- Acetylcholine
- Dopamine
- Serotonin
Acetylcholine

(B/P Nrv)
The junction between two neurons is called:
- A neurospace
- An axon
- A neural junction
- A synapse
A synapse

(B/P Nrv)
Of the 20 amino acids commonly found in proteins, how many are not essential in the adult diet because they can be synthesized in the body?
- 5
- 9
- 11
- 18
11

(B/P Pro/AA)
Which one of the following statements about protein structure is correct?
- Proteins consisting of one polypeptide can have quaternary structure
- The formation of a disulfide bond in a protein requires that the two participating cysteine residues be adjacent to each other in the primary sequence of the protein
- The stability of quaternary structure in proteins is mainly due to covalent bonds among the subunits
- The information required for the correct folding of a protein is contained in the specific sequence of amino acids along the polypeptide chain
The information required for the correct folding of a protein is contained in the specific sequence of amino acids along the polypeptide chain

(B/P Pro/AA)
In eukaryotes, DNA does not exist free, it is complexed with an approximately equal mass of basic proteins called histones. These histones contain a large portion of:
- Cysteine and lysine
- Arginine and lysine
- Lysine and glutamine
- Glutamine and arginine
Arginine and lysine

(B/P Pro/AA)
A peptide bond:
- Has a partial double bond character
- Is cleaved by agents that denature proteins, such as organic solvents and high concentrations of urea
- Is stable to heating in strong acids
- Is ionized at physiologic pH
- Occurs most commonly in the cis configuration
Has a partial double bond character

(B/P Pro/AA)
All plasma proteins (except gamma globulins) are synthesized in the:
- Kidneys
- Liver
- Pancreas
- Stomach
Liver

(B/P Pro/AA)
All amino acids found in proteins are of the:
- D configuration
- L configuration
- F configuration
- C configuration
L configuration

(B/P Pro/AA)
An oxygen-storing pigment found in muscle is called:
- Hemoglobin
- Myoglobin
- Albumin
- Globulin
Myoglobin

(B/P Pro/AA)
What is the general structure shown below? Hint: They are found in proteins.

NH2--CHR--COOH
Amino acid

(B/P Pro/AA)
Which molecule forms part of the electron transport chain?
- Aminotransferase
- Cytochrome
- Isomerase
- Vitamin B complex
Cytochrome

(B/P Pro/AA)
A protein which forms long felxible fibers is called:
- Hemoglobin
- Elastin
- Reticulin
- Collagen
Elastin

(B/P Pro/AA)
Glutamate can be synthesized by the addition of ammonia to a-ketoglutarate. All of the following amino acids can be derived from glutamate except:
- Asparagine
- Glutamine
- Proline
- Arginine
Asparagine

(B/P Pro/AA)
The sequence of amino acids which makes up a protein molecule is called the:
- Primary structure
- Secondary structure
- Tertiary structure
- Quaternary structure
Primary structure

(B/P Pro/AA)
Which two amino acids have sulfur containing side chains (R-groups)?
- Lysine
- Cysteine
- Arginine
- Glutamate
- Methionine
Cysteine
Methionine

(B/P Pro/AA)
Which of the following serves as a principal source of carbon for nonessential amino acids?
- Fats
- Water
- Carbohydrates
- Urea
Carbohydrates

(B/P Pro/AA)
Production of which of the following proteins would be most directly affected in scurvy?
- Hemoglobin
- Insulin
- Myoglobin
- Collagen
Collagen

(B/P Pro/AA)
Which one of the following is synthesized from an essential amino acid?
- Alanine
- Proline
- Tyrosine
- Glutamate
Tyrosine

(B/P Pro/AA)
Which of the following is an enzyme which produces a DNA molecule from the corresponding mRNA?
- RNA ligase
- DNA polymerase
- Reverse transcriptase
- DNA ligase
Reverse transcriptase

(B/P DNA/RNA)
Genetic recombination experiments depend heavily upon the action of which two enzymes?
- Restriction endonuclease
- Alkaline phosphatase
- DNA ligases
- Creatine kinase
Restriction endonucleases
DNA ligases

(B/P DNA/RNA)
Which of the following are commonly called "protein factories" of the cell?
- Mitochondria
- Golgi apparatus
- Ribosomes
- Lysosomes
Ribosomes

(B/P DNA/RNA)
The hydrolysis of DNA (Deoxyribonucleic Acid) will yield all of the following except:
- Ribose
- Phosphoric acid
- Deoxyribose
- Nitrogenous bases (adenine, guanine, thymine, and cytosine)
Ribose

(B/P DNA/RNA)
Okazaki fragments are pieces of DNA formed:
- During the isolation of DNA
- During transcription
- During replication
- During apoptosis
During replication

(B/P DNA/RNA)
The primary purine bases in both RNA and DNA are:
- Thymine (T) and Guanine (G)
- Adenine (A) and Guanine (G)
- Cytosine (C) and Thymine (T)
- Guanine (G) and Cytosine (C)
Adenine (A) and Guanine (G)

(B/P DNA/RNA)
A nucleotide represents a combination of:
- Base and sugar
- Base, sugar and phosphate
- Two DNA strands
- DNA/RNA complex
Base, sugar and phosphate

(B/P DNA/RNA)
The most important aspect of the DNA double helix is:
- The randomness of base pairing
- The specificity of base pairing
- The phosphodiester bond
- That it forms a double spiral coil
The specificity of base pairing

(B/P DNA/RNA)
The degenerate nature of the genetic code implies what?
- That many animo acids are designated by more than one codon (triplet)
- The only one amino acid is designated by one codon (triplet)
- Neither of the above
That many amino acids are designated by more than one codon (triplet)

(B/P DNA/RNA)
What is the complementary sequence (3'-->5') to the DNA segment CAT?
- ATG
- TAA
- AGG
- GTA
GTA

(B/P DNA/RNA)
All of the following statements concerning the backbone of DNA are true except:
- It is constant throughout the molecule
- It consists of deoxyriboses linked by "phosphodiester bridges" or "phosphodiester bonds"
- It is hydrophobic
- It is highly polar
It is hydrophobic

(B/P DNA/RNA)
Which material comprises most of the RNA in the cell?
- DNA
- Messenger RNA
- Transfer RNA
- Ribosomal RNA
Ribosomal RNA

(B/P DNA/RNA)
Which fatty acids are essential?
- Lauric and myristic acids
- Palmitic and stearic acids
- Linoleic and linolenic acids
- Butyric and caproic acids
Linoleic and linolenic acids

(B/P Lipids)
A membrane phospholipid that does not contain glycerol is:
- Lecithin
- Sphingomyelin
- Cerebroside
- Cardiolipin
Sphingomyelin

(B/P Lipids)
The digestion and absorption of dietary lipid can be completed only in the presence of adequate amounts of:
- Phospholipids
- Proteins
- Bile salts
- Steroids
Bile salts

(B/P Lipids)
Which one of the following statements about plasma lipoproteins is correct?
- Chylomicrons are synthesized in the intestinal mucosal cells and transport triacylglycerol to the peripheral tissues
- HDL particles are produced from LDL particles in the circulation by the action of lipoprotein lipase
- HDL competes with LDL for binding to receptors on the surface of cells in extrahepatic tissues
- LDL particles have the least percentage concentration of cholesterol
Chylomicrons are synthesized in the intestinal mucosal cells and transport triacylglycerol to the peripheral tissues

(B/P Lipids)
Which one of the following sequences places the lipoproteins in the order of most dense to least dense?
- HDL / VLDL / chylomicrons / LDL
- LDL / chylomicrons / HDL / VLDL
- HDL / LDL / VLDL / chylomicrons
- VLDL / chylomicrons / LDL / HDL
HDL / LDL / VLDL / chylomicrons

(B/P Lipids)
Which of the following is not a source of Acetyl-CoA for fatty acid synthesis?
- Creatinine
- Pyruvate
- Glucose
- Citrate
Creatinine

(B/P Lipids)
Ketone body synthesis from acetyl-CoA occurs in:
- Hepatic mitochondria
- Skeletal muscle mitochondria
- Kidney mitochondria
- Cardiac muscle mitochondria
Hepatic mitochondria

(B/P Lipids)
The excessive buildup of ketones produces a condition called:
- Keloidosis
- Ketole syndrome
- Ketosis
- Keyolytic disease
Ketosis

(B/P Lipids)
Fatty acid breakdown (catabolism) occurs:
- In the cytosol
- In the mitochondria
- In the nucleus
- None of the above
In the mitochondria

(B/P Lipids)
What structure consists of three molecules of fatty acid combined with one molecule of glycerol?
- Phospholipid
- Triglyceride
- Prostaglandin
- Steroid
Triglyceride

(B/P Lipids)
All of the following statements concerning fatty acid synthesis are true except:
- Fatty acid synthesis involves two carbon additions primarily from acetyl CoA
- The important step in fatty acid synthesis is the first one in which acetyl CoA, ATP, and bicarbonate from malonyl CoA
- Fatty acid synthesis is not a simple reversal of B oxidation used for the catabolism of fatty acids
- Fatty acid synthesis takes place in the mitochondria while fatty acid breakdown (catabolism) occurs in the cytosol (cytoplasm)
Fatty acid synthesis takes place in the mitochondria while fatty acid breakdown (catabolism) occurs in the cytosol (cytoplasm)

(B/P Lipids)
Which of the following can be found in the liver, where it plays a role in methionine and lipoprotein formation?
- Heparin
- Choline
- Thrombin
- Serotonin
Choline

(B/P Lipids)
The oxidation of one NADH by the electron transport chain (or respiratory chain) leads to the formation of:
- 1 ATP
- 2 ATP
- 3 ATP
- 4 ATP
3 ATP

(B/P Metab)
Which electron-carrier complex of the respiratory chain uses NADH as the electron donor?
- Complex I
- Complex II
- Complex III
- Complex IV
Complex I

(B/P Metab)
All of the following statements concerning the citric acid cycle (Krebs' cycle) are true except:
- It is also called the tricarboxylic acid (TCA) cycle
- The cycle starts with the 4 carbon compound oxaloacetate, adds 2 carbons from acetyl CoA, loses 2 carbons as CO2, and regenerates the 4 carbon compound oxaloacetate
- The pyruvate that enters this cycle is generated by the glycolysis of glucose or protein catabolism
- This cycle is controlled by regulation of several enzyme activities. The most important of these regulated enzymes are citrate synthase, isocitrate dehydrogenase, and a ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex
- The enzymes involved in the citric acid cycle are found in the cytosol
- Aspartic acid and oxaloacetic acid are interconvertible
The enzymes involved in this citric acid cycle are found in the cytosol

(B/P Metab)
Which of the following is the process whereby glucose is recycled when there is insufficient oxygen for normal glucose metabolism via the Krebs' cycle?
- Hydrologic cycle
- Cori cycle
- Carbon cycle
- Glucose cycle
Cori cycle

(B/P Metab)
Which of the following is the pace-setting enzyme of glycolysis?
- Hexokinase
- Phosphoglucose isomerase
- Phosphofructokinase
- Aldolase
- Triose phosphate isomerase
- Glyceraldehyde 3 phosphate dehydrogenase
- Phosphoglycerate kinase
- Phosphoglyceromutase
- Enolase
- Pyruvate kinase
Phosphofructokinase

(B/P Metab)
The branch point molecule of glycolysis is:
- Glucose 6 phosphate
- Pyruvate
- Glyceraldehyde 3 phosphate
- Phosphoenolpyruvate
Pyruvate

(B/P Metab)
Which pathways is depicted?
Glucose -- 2ATP --> Fructose 1,6 diphosphate -- 4ADP, 2 NAD --> 2 pyruvate

- Entner Doudoroff pathway
- Embden Meyerhof pathway
- Pentose phosphate pathway
- Urea pathway
Embden Meyerhof pathway

(B/P Metab)
ATP is produced via all of the following except:
- Substrate level phosphorylation
- Electron transport/oxidative phosphorylation
- Photophosphorylation
- Pentose phosphate pathway
Pentose phosphate pathway

(B/P Metab)
All of the following statements concerning the pentose phosphate pathway are true except:
- It produces carbon dioxide (CO2)
- It can produce NADPH
- It requires ATP for phosphorylation
- It can produce five carbon sugars (used for DNA and RNA)
- It is controlled by inhibition of glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase by NADPH
- It occurs in the cytosol of the cell
It requires ATP for phosphorylation

(B/P Metab)
The external heat transfer mechanisms are:
- Radiation
- Conduction
- Convection
- Evaporation of perspiration
- All of the above
All of the above

(B/P Misc.)
Which of the following ions has a higher concentration in the intercellular fluid (ICF) than in the extracellular fluid (ECF)?
- Chloride (Cl-)
- Potassium (K )
- Sodium (Na )
- Bicarbonate (HCO3-)
Potassium (K )

(B/P Misc.)
Which of the following solutions has an osmotic pressure different from the other two solutions?
- 1 M glucose
- 1 M sodium chloride
- 1 M potassium nitrate
1 M glucose

(B/P Misc.)
Which of the following statements concerning the two principal laws of thermodynamics are true?
- They apply only to closed systems, that is, entities within which there can be no loss of energy or mass
- The first law says that the total quantity of energy in the universe remains constant (this is the principle of the conservation of energy)
- The second law states that the quality of this energy is degraded irreversibly (this is the principle of the degradation of energy)
- The second law, known as Carnot's principle, is controlled by the concept of entropy
- All of the above statements are true
All of the above statements are true

(B/P Misc.)
Isotopes of an element:
- Have different chemical properties but the same weights
- Have the same chemical properties but different weights
- Have different chemical properties and weights
- Have the same chemical properties and weights
Have the same chemical properties but different weights

(B/P Misc.)
The isoelectric point (pI) is the pH at which:
- The number of positive charges outnumbers the number of negative charges
- The number of positive charges equals the number of negative charges
- The number of negative charges outnumbers the number of positive charges
- None of the above
The number of positive charges equals the number of negative charges

(B/P pH)
Proteins are effective buffers because they contain:
- A large number of hydrogen bonds in a helices
- A large number of amino acids
- Amino acid residues with different pKas
- Peptide bonds that readily hydrolyze, consuming hydrogen and hydroxyl ions
Amino acid residues with different pKas

(B/P pH)
Which of the following represents the pH of a solution that has a 10^-4 M concentration of OH- ions?
- 5
- 8
- 7
- 10
10

(B/P pH)
All of the following statements are true except:
- Blood is normally slightly acidic, with a pH range of 6.45 to 6.55
- The blood's acid base balance is controlled precisely because even a minor deviation from the normal range can severely affect many organs
- The body uses three mechanisms to control the blood's acid base balance
- An abnormality in one or more of these pH control mechanisms can cause one of two major disturbances in acid base balance: acidosis or alkalosis
Blood is normally slightly acidic, with a pH range of 6.45 to 6.55

(B/P pH)
A famous relationship (in biochemistry circles) for predicting pH for acid buffers is the:
- Arrhenius equation
- Henderson Hasselbalch equation
- Bohr equation
- Einthoven equation
Henderson Hasselbalch equation

(B/P pH)
Which of the following is a cause of metabolic alkalosis?
- Vomiting
- Chronic renal failure
- Salicylate poisoning
- Diarrhea
Vomiting

(B/P pH)
Ovulation occurs as a result of:
- The progesterone induced LH surge
- The estrogen induced FSH surge
- The progesterone induced FSH surge
- The estrogen induced LH surge
The estrogen induced LH surge

(B/P Rpr S)
Ovulation occurs:
- 7 days before menses, regardless of cycle length
- 14 days before menses, regardless of cycle length
- 18 days before menses, regardless of cycle length
- 21 days before menses, regardless of cycle length
14 days before menses, regardless of cycle length

(B/P Rpr S)
All of the following statements are true except:
- During early childhood, a boy does not secrete gonadotropins, and thus has little circulating testosterone
- Secretion of gonadotropins from the adrenal gland, which usually occurs between the ages 16 and 20, marks the onset of puberty
- These pituitary gonadotropins stimulate testes functioning as well as testosterone secretion
- During puberty, the penis and testes enlarge and the male reaches full adult secual and reproductive capability
- Puberty also marks the development of male secondary sexual characteristics
Secretion of gonadotropins from the adrenal gland, which usually occurs between the ages 16 and 20, marks the onset of puberty

(B/P Rpr S)
All of the following are actions of estrogen except:
- Causes the development of female secondary sex characteristics at puberty
- Causes the development of the breasts
- Maintains pregnancy
- Promotes secretory changes in the uterine endometrium during the latter half of the monthly female sexual cycle, thus preparing the uterus for implantation of the fertilized ovum
Promotes secretory changes in the uterine endometrium during the latter half of the monthly female sexual cycle, thus preparing the uterus for implantation of the fertilized ovum

(B/P Rpr S)

(B/P Rpr S)
When the lungs are in the resting position, the alveolar pressure is equivalent to:
- Blood pressure
- Critical pressure
- Atmospheric pressure
- Transmural pressure
Atmospheric pressure

(B/P Rsp S)
Alveolar ventilation is expressed as:
- Respiratory rate x (Tidal volume Dead air space volume)
- Respiratory rate (Tidal volume Dead air space volume)
- Respiratory rate x (Tidal volume - Dead air space volume)
- Respiratory rate - (Tidal volume - Dead air space volume)
Respiratory rate x (Tidal volume - Dead air space volume)

(B/P Rsp S)
The factors that influence the rate of gas diffusion across the respiratory membrane include:
- The thickness of the membrane
- The surface area of the membrane
- The diffusion coefficient of the gas in the substance of the membrane
- The partial pressure difference of the gas between the two sides of the membrane
- All of the above
All of the above

(B/P Rsp S)
The volume of air remaining in the lungs after a maximal expiration is called the:
- Vital capacity (VC)
- Tidal volume (TV)
- Residual volume (RV)
- Functional residual capacity (FRC)
Residual volume (RV)

(B/P Rsp S)
Which two situations listed below will excite the respiratory neurons and increase respiration?
- An increase in hydrogen ion concentration
- A decrease in hydrogen ion concentration in the arterial blood
- An increase in the Pco2 of arterial blood
- A decrease in the Pco2 of arterial blood
An increase in hydrogen ion concentration in the arterial blood
An increase in the Pco2 of arterial blood

(B/P Rsp S)
Which receptors below are stimulated by distension of the lungs?
- Irritant receptors
- J receptors
- Lung stretch receptors
- Joint and muscle receptors
Lung stretch receptors

(B/P Rsp S)
Which of the following factors influence pulmonary ventilation?
- Arterial Po2
- Arterial Pco2
- Arterial pH
- All of the above
All of the above

(B/P Rsp S)
The unpleasant sensation of difficulty in breathing is called:
- Hypercapnea
- Dyspnea
- Hypocapnea
- Apnea
Dyspnea

(B/P Rsp S)
The most calcified of the dental tissues is:
- Dentin
- Enamel
- Cementum
- Pulp
Enamel

(B/P Tth/Mth)
Caries activity is directly proportional to all of the following except:
- The consistency of fermentable carbohydrates ingested
- The quantity of fermentable carbohydrates ingested
- The frequence of ingesting fermentable carbohydrates
- The oral retention of fermentable carbohydrates ingested
The quantity of fermentable carbohydrates ingested

(B/P Tth/Mth)
All of the following statements concerning enamel hypoplasia are true except:
- It is a defect in the mineralization of the formed enamel matrix
- The enamel of primary and permanent teeth appear pitted
- Radiographically the enamel is either absent or very think over tips of cusps and interproximal areas
- It can be caused by nutritional deficiencies
It is a defect in the mineralization of the formed enamel matrix

(B/P Tth/Mth)
All of the following characterized saliva except:
- High potassium and bicarbonate ion concentrations
- Low sodium and chloride concentrations
- It is hypertonic
- Its production is inhibited by vagotomy
It is hypertonic

(B/P Tth/Mth)
Amylase in saliva initiates digestion of:
- Lipids
- Proteins
- Carbohydrates
- Fats
Carbohydrates

(B/P Tth/Mth)
Which hormone stimulates water reabsorption by renal collecting ducts?
- Growth hormone (GH)
- Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
- Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
- Oxytocin
- Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

(B/P Hrm)
Which hormone increases the rate of amino acid uptake by cells, protein synthesis, and glycogenolysis?
- Cortisol
- Glucagon
- Growth hormone
- Estrogen
Growth hormone

(B/P Hrm)
Which of the following is the best known stimuli for increasing the rate of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) secretion by the anterior pituitary gland?
- Exposure to heat
- Exposure to cold
- Exposure to stress
Exposure to cold

(B/P Hrm)
A molecule found inside a cell which responds to the presence of a hormone outside the cell by activating a particular enzyme is called a:
- Neurotransmitter
- Second messenger
- Third messenger
- Hormones
Second messenger

(B/P Hrm)
Releasing hormones are synthesized in the:
- Posterior pituitary
- Hypothalamus
- Pancreas
- Ovary
Hypoythalamus

(B/P Hrm)
A hormone released by the posterior portion (the neurohypophysis) of the pituitary gland which causes contraction of the smooth muscle in the wall of the uterus during childbirth is called:
- Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
- Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
- Oxytocin
- Prolactin
Oxytocin

(B/P Hrm)
Glucagon has all of the following actions except:
- Increases plasma glucose
- Increases free fatty acids and ketoacids
- Decreases plasma amino acids
- Increases urea production
Decreases plasma amino acids

(B/P Hrm)
All of the following are factors that decrease insulin secretion except:
- Decrease in blood glucose level
- Secretion of somatostatin
- Secretion of glucagon
- Secretion of either epinephrine or norepinephrine
Secretion of glucagon

(B/P Hrm)
Low pH in the duodenum causes the secretion of:
- Gastrin
- Secretin
- Cholecystokinin
- Gastric inhibitory peptide
Secretin

(B/P Hrm)
Low pH in the duodenum causes the secretion of:
- Gastrin
- Secretin
- Cholecystokinin
- Gastric inhibitory peptide
Secretin

(B/P Hrm)
Enterogastones are enterogastric inhibitory hormones liberated from the duodenal mucosa by:
- Bicarbonate
- Acid chyme
- Enkephalins
- Water
Acid chyme

(B/P Hrm)
Oral conraceptives inhibit:
- Follicle growth
- Ovulation
- Follicle formation
- Puberty
Ovulation

(B/P Hrm)
Aldosterone's primary effect is on the:
- Liver
- Heart
- Kidneys
- Lungs
Kidneys

(B/P Hrm)
Which amino acid is taken up by chromaffin cells in the adrenal medulla and converted to norepinephrine and epinephrine?
- Alanine
- Tyrosine
- Proline
- Arginine
Tyrosine

(B/P Hrm)
Which of the following is a glycoprotein prohormones (10% carbohydrate) that is synthesized by the thyroid follicular cell and iodinated once it has been synthesized?
- Glucagon
- Cortisol
- Thyroglobulin
- Aldosterone
Thyroglobulin

(B/P Hrm)
Calcium levels in the blood are increased by:
- Calcitonin
- Heparin
- Vitamin E
- Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
Parathyroid hormone (PTH)

(B/P Hrm)
Epinephrine and norepinephrine are secreted from the:
- Zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex
- Adrenal medulla
- Zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex
- Zona reticularis of the adrenal cortex
Adrenal medulla

(B/P Hrm)
Which GI hormone has the ability to enhance the release of insulin in response to infusions of glucose?
- Gastrin
- Gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP)
- Cholecystokinin (CCK)
- Secretin
Gastric inhibitory protein (GIP)

(B/P Hrm)
Which GI hormone is synthesized in G cells, which are located in gastric pits, primarily in the antrum region of the stomach?
- Gastrin
- Cholecystokinin (CCK)
- Secretin
- Gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP)
Gastrin

(B/P Hrm)
Cortisol is the primary glucocorticoid produced by the adrenal cortex gland. Cortisol's principle physiological actions include all of the following except:
- Increase hepatic gluconeogenesis
- Increase hepatic glycogenolysis
- Increase protein catabolism
- Stimulation of fat deposition and inhibition of lipolysis
- Inhibit ACTH secretion (negative feedback mechanism)
- Maintenance of blood pressure by sensitizing arterioles to the action of noradrenaline
- Renal excretion
Stimulation of fat deposition and inhibition of lipolysis

(B/P Hrm)
Cortisol is secreted from the:
- Zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex
- Zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex
- Zona reticularis of the adrenal cortex
- Adrenal medulla
Zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex

(B/P Hrm)
Cortisol (hydrocortisone) has a direct inhibitory effect on which two structures?
- Adrenal cortex
- Hypothalamus
- Anterior pituitary gland
- Posterior pituitary gland
Hypothalamus
Anterior pituitary gland

(B/P Hrm)
Which hormone is often called the "stress hormone?"
- Growth hormone (GH)
- Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
- Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
- Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

(B/P Hrm)
Secretion of growth hormone is increased by all of the following except:
- Sleep
- Stress
- Obesity
- Starvation
- Exercise
- Hypoglycemia
- Hormones related to puberty
Obesity

(B/P Hrm)
Which two hormones maintain the lining of the uterus necessary for successful pregnancy?
- Testosterone
- Progesterone
- Estrogen
- Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
Progesterone
Estrogen

(B/P Hrm)
The major hormone responsible for lactogenesis is:
- Growth hormone
- Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
- Prolactin
- Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
Prolactin

(B/P Hrm)
Somatostatin inhibits the secretion of all of the following hormones except:
- Insulin
- Glucagon
- Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
- Gastrin
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

(B/P Hrm)
All of the following statements concerning calcitonin are true except:
- It is synthesized and secreted by the parafollicular cells of the thyroid gland
- Its secretion is stimulated by a decrease in serum calcitonin
- It acts primarily to inhibit bone resorption
- Along with parathyroid hormone and 1,25 DHC, it is a regulator of calcium metabolism
Its secretion is stimulated by a decrease in serum calcium

(B/P Hrm)
Steroid hormones include all of the following except:
- Cortisol
- Progesterone
- Insulin
- Testosterone
- Estrogen
- Aldosterone
Insulin

(B/P Hrm)
End organ resistance to which hormone results in polyuria and elevated serum osmolarity?
- Oxytocin
- Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
- Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
- Aldosterone
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

(B/P Hrm)
All of the following statements concerning thyroid hormone are true except:
- Collectively referred to as thyroid hormone, T4 and T3 are the body's major metabolic hormones
- It regulates metabolism by speeding cellular respiration
- T3 (triiodothyronine) has several times the biologic activity of T4 (thyroxine)
- It stimulates bone maturation as a result of ossification and fusion of the growth plates
- It decreases glycogenolysis, gluconeogenesis, and lipolysis
- T4: T3 = 20: 1
It increases glycogenolysis, gluconeogenesis, and lipolysis

(B/P Hrm)
Steroid hormones are all derived from:
- Dopamine
- Cholesterol
- Epinephrine
- Lecithin
Cholesterol

(B/P Hrm)
Which class of antibody constitutes about 75% of the antibodies of the normal person?
- IgA
- IgD
- IgE
- IgG
- IgM
IgG

(B/P Misc.)
Which enzyme is abundant in the liver?
- Creatine kinase (CK)
- Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)
- Glutamate pyruvate transaminase (GPT)
- Glutamate oxaloacetate transaminase (GOT)
Glutamate pyruvate transaminase (GPT)

(B/P Enz)
The activity level of which enzyme controls the rate of glycolysis?
- Aldolase
- Phosphoglucose isomerase
- Phosphofructokinase
- Triose phosphate isomerase
Phosphofructokinase

(B/P Enz)
Which enzyme catalyzes the oxidative deamination of glutamate?
- Histidase
- Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)
- Glutamate dehydrogenase
- Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
Glutamate dehydrogenase

(B/P Enz)
All of the following statements concerning transamination reactions are true except:
- These reactions involve the transfer of an amino group from one amino acid to an a keto acid
- The enzymes that catalyze these reactions are known as transaminases or aminotransferases
- Glutamate and a ketoglutarate are often involved in these reactions, serving as one of the amino acid/a keto acid pairs
- Pyridoxal phosphate (PLP) which is derived from vitamin B6 serves as the cofactor for these reactions
- All amino acids participate in these reactions at some point in their catabolism
All amino acids participate in these reactions at some point in their catabolism

(B/P Enz)
Which of the following components of the electron transport chain only accepts electrons?
- FMN (Flavin mononucleotide)
- Coenzyme Q (Ubiquinone)
- Cytochrome b
- Oxygen
Cytochrome b

(B/P Enz)
Carbonic anhydrase catalyzes the reaction between:
- Carbon dioxide and oxygen
- Oxygen and water
- Carbon dioxide and bicarbonate
- Carbon dioxide and water
Carbon dioxide and water

(B/P Enz)
The proteolytic enzyme that dissolves fibrin is:
- Prothrombin
- Thrombin
- Fibrinogen
- Plasmin
Plasmin

(B/P Enz)
The inactive precursor of an enzyme is called a(n):
- Activator
- Apoenzyme
- Proenzyme
- Preenzyme
Proenzyme

(B/P Enz)
Which amylase converts starch to maltose and dextrins?
- Alpha amylase
- Beta amylase
- Glucamylase
Beta amylase

(B/P Enz)
The proteolytic enzymes are secreted in the gastric juice or by the pancreas as inactive precursors called:
- Carbohydrates
- Lipids
- Zymogens
- Ketone bodies
Zymogens

(B/P Enz)
The Michaelis constant, Km, is:
- Independent of pH
- Numerically equal to 1/2 Vmax
- Dependent on the enzyme concentration
- Numerically equal to the substrate concentration that gives half maximal velocity
Numerically equal to the substrate concentration that gives half maximal velocity

(B/P Enz(
Which is lacking in muscle, but present in the normal liver?
- Glycogen phosphorylase
- Phosphoglucomutase
- Phosphoglucokinase
- Glucose 6 phosphatase
Glucose 6 phosphatase

(B/P Enz)
The rate of glycogen synthesis is determined by:
- Glycogen phosphorylase
- Phosphoglucomutase
- Glycogen synthase
- Phosphofructokinase
Glycogen synthase

(B/P Enz)
All of the following statements concerning allosteric enzymes are true except:
- They frequently catalyze a committed step early in a metabolic pathway
- They often have two or more subunits each with substrate binding sites that exhibit cooperativity
- Allosteric activators cause the enzyme to bind substrate more readily
- Allosteric inhibitors cause the enzyme to bind substrate less readily
- They follow the Michaelis Menton kinetics
They follow Michaelis Menton kinetics

(B/P Enz)
A competitive inhibitor of an enzyme:
- Increases Km without affecting Vmax
- Decreases Km without affecting Vmax
- Increases Vmax without affecting Km
- Decreases both Vmax and Km
Increases Km without affecting Vmax

(B/P Enz)
If a reversible inhibitor can bind to an enzyme at a site that is distinct from the active site, it is described as a:
- Competitive inhibitor
- Noncompetitive inhibitor
Noncompetitive inhibitor

(B/P Enz)
If a reversible inhibitor can bind to an enzyme at a site that is distinct from the active site, it is described as a:
- Competitive inhibitor
- Noncompetitive inhibitor
Noncompetitive inhibitor

(B/P Enz)
Which enzyme is used as an indicator of osteoblastic activity?
- Creatine phosphate
- Hyaluronidase
- Alkaline phosphatase
- Acid phosphatase
Alkaline phosphatase

(B/P Enz)
Trypsinogen is transformed into trypsin as a result of the cleavage of a single peptide bond by:
- Endopeptidase
- Alanine aminotransferase
- Enteropeptidase
- Pancreatic lipase
Enteropeptidase

(B/P Enz)
All of the following statements are true except:
- Peripheral nerve fibers can sometimes regenerate if the soma (cell body) is not damaged and some of the neurilemma remains intact
- The neurilemma forms a regeneration tube through which the growing axon reestablishes its original connection
- If the nerve originally led to a skeletal muscle, the muscle atrophies in the absence of innervation but regrows when the connection is reestablished
- Nerve fibers of the CNS (brain and spinal cord) possess the thickest neurilemma
Nerve fibers of the CNS (brain and spinal cord) possess the thickest neurilemma

(B/P Nrv)
The action potential is a positive feedback mechanism that is initiated by a:
- Polarizing stimulus
- Depolarizing stimulus
- Repolarizing stimulus
Depolarizing stimulus

(B/P Nrv)
The fasciculi gracilis and cuneatus are:
- The largest ascending tracts of the spinal cord
- The largest descending tracts of the spinal cord
- The smallest ascending tracts of the spinal cord
- The smallest descending tracts of the spinal cord
The largest ascending tracts of the spinal cord

(B/P Nrv)
Local anesthetics affect the nerve membrane by:
- Increasing potassium flux
- Increasing the membrane excitabilty by increasing the membrane's permeability to sodium ions
- Decreasing the membrane's permeability to sodium ions and reducing the membrane excitability
- Increasing the calcium and chloride flux
Decreasing the membrane's permeability to sodium ions and reducing the membrane excitability

(B/P Nrv)
Myelinated fibers conduct impulses more rapidly than unmyelinated fibers. This is because action potentials "leap" from one neurofibril node to the next instead of progressing from point to point along the axon. This leaping or jumping of the impulse is called:
- Proximal conduction
- Continuous conduction
- Saltatory conduction
- Accelerated conduction
Saltatory conduction

(B/P Nrv)
Spatial summation occurs when:
- Two inhibitory inputs arrive at a postsynaptic neuron within one minute of each other
- Two excitatory inputs arrive at a postsynaptic neuron simultaneously
- Two inhibiting inputs arrive at a postsynaptic neuron 10 seconds apart
- Two excitatory inputs arrive at a postsynaptic neuron in rapid succession
Two excitatory inputs arrive at a postsynaptic neuron simultaneously

(B/P Nrv)
Parkinson's disease and other motor disorders are attributed to dysfunction of, or trauma to the:
- Pons
- Parietal lobe
- Basal ganglia (basal nuclei)
- Thalamus
Basal ganglia (basal nuclei)

(B/P Nrv)
Which of the following is least likely to result in an excitatory postsynaptic potential in the CNS?
- Acetylcholine (ACh)
- Norepinephrine
- Glycine
- Epinephrine
- Dopamine
- Glutamate
- Serotonin
Glycine

(B/P Nrv)
The brain has two motor systems: (1) the voluntary or pyramidal motor system that moves your muscle under the direction of the mild, and (2) the extra-pyramidal systems that control muscle tone, posture and motor activity without conscious thought. The voluntary or pyramidal motor system is located in the:
- Cortex
- Brain stem
- Dural sinuses
- Cerebellum
Cortex

(B/P Nrv)
The two types of cholinergic receptors in the autonomic nervous system are:
- Nicotinic and alpha
- Alpha and beta
- Nicotinic and muscarinic
- Muscarinic and beta
Nicotinic and muscarinic

(B/P Nrv)
Which of the following is the cause of the hyperpolarization which occurs for a few milliseconds after the action potential is over?
- Many sodium channels remain open for several milliseconds after repolarization of the membrane is complete
- All potassium channels remain closed for several milliseconds after repolarization of the membrane is complete
- Many potassium channels remain open for several milliseconds after repolarization of the membrane is complete
- All sodium and potassium channels remain closed for several milliseconds after repolarization of the membrane is complete
Many potassium channels remain open for several milliseconds after repolarization of the membrane is complete

(B/P Nrv)
All of the following statements are true except:
- Preganglionic neurons have their cell bodies in the CNS and synapse in autonomic ganglia
- Sympathetic ganglia are located in the paraverterbral chain
- Cholinergic neurons, whether in the sympathetic or parasympathetic nervous system, release norepinephrine as the neurotransmitter
- The majority of sympathetic postganglionic neurons are noradrenergic
Cholinergic neurons, whether in the sympathetic or parasympathetic nervous system, release norepinephrine as the neurotransmitter

(B/P Nrv)
In a resting neuron:
- The membrane is electrically permeable
- The outside of the membrane is positively charged
- The outside of the membrane is negatively charged
- The potential difference across the membrane is zero
The outside of the membrane is positively charged

(B/P Nrv)
The two main types of adrenergic receptors in the autonomic nervous system are:
- Nicotinic and muscarinic
- Alpha and gamma
- Gamma and beta
- Alpha and beta
Alpha and beta

(B/P Nrv)
Which of these nerve endings sense continuous touch or pressure, and are found primarily in the dermis of the fingers?
- Merkel discs
- Hair follicle receptors
- Pacinian corpuscles
- Ruffini's end organs
- Meissner's corpuscles
Ruffini's end organs

(B/P Nrv)
Afferent nerve endings in joints and tendons are called:
- Exteroreceptors
- Visceroreceptors
- Proprioreceptors
Proprioceptors

(B/P Nrv)
Which of the following is not a function of the autonomic nervous system?
- Innervation of all visceral organs
- Transmission of sensory and motor impulses
- Regulation and control of vital activities
- Conscious control of motor activities
Conscious control of motor activities

(B/P Nrv)
In most human cells, one glucose molecule produces enough usable chemical energy to synthesize:
- 20 to 24 ATP molecules
- 30 to 32 ATP molecules
- 36 to 38 ATP molecules
- 44 to 48 ATP molecules
36 to 38 ATP molecules

(B/P Metab)
The accumulation of the GM2 ganglioside in Tay-Sachs disease is caused by:
- An increased synthesis of the ganglioside precursor, ceramide
- An increased concentration of the UDP sugars required for ganglioside synthesis
- A genetic deficiency of phospholipase A2
- A deficiency of lysosomal enzyme that degrades gangliosides
A deficiency of a lysosomal enzyme that degrades gangliosides

(B/P Disord/Dis)
Which type of shock is most often associated with severe trauma and reactive peripheral vasodilation?
- Hypovolemic shock
- Cardiogenic shock
- Septic shock
- Neurogenic shock
- Anaphylactic shock
Neurogenic shock

(B/P Disord/Dis)
All of the following statements concerning Addison's disease (adrenocortical insufficiency) are true except:
- It results when underactive adrenal glands produce insufficient amounts of corticosteroids
- It usually occurs in young adults and affects males more often than females
- In 30% of people with Addison's disease, the adrenal gland are destroyed by a cancer, amyloidosis, an infection such as tuberculosis, or another identifiable disease
- In the other 70% of people with Addison's disease, the cause isn't known for certain, but it is suspected that the adrenal glands are destroyed by an autoimmune reaction
- It is characterized by hypotension; increased pigmentation of the skin; low levels of serum sodium, chloride, and bicarbonate with an elevation of serum potassium
It usually occurs in young adults and affects males more often than females

(B/P Disord/Dis)
Jaundice refers to yellow discoloration of the skin, sclera, and tissues caused by:
- Hyperlipidemia
- Hyperglycemia
- Hyperbilirubinemia
- Hypercalcemia
Hyperbilirubinemia

(B/P Disord/Dis)
In a person with phenylketonuria (a deficiency of phenylalanine hydroxylase):
- Phenylalanine can be replaced by tyrosine in the diet
- Tyrosine is an essential amino acid, but phenylalanine is not
- Phenylalanine and tyrosine are both essential amino acids
- Phenylalanine is an essential amino acid, but tyrosine is not
Phenylalanine and tyrosine are both essential amino acids

(B/P Disord/Dis)
All of the following are symptoms of hyperthyroidism except:
- Restlessness, irritability, and fatigability
- Heat intolerance (sweating)
- Tachycardia (a rapid heart rate), increase cardiac output
- Weight gain
- Fine hair
- Dyspnea
- Tremor (shakiness), weakness, diarrhea
- Exophthalmos
- Goiter
Weight gain

(B/P Disord/Dis)
All of the following statements about a person with Type 1 diabetes mellitus are true except:
- There is little or no insulin secretion
- Dietary treatment may not suffice
- There is hypoglycemia
- Ketoacidosis and dehydration may develop
There is hypoglycemia

(B/P Disord/Dis)
In Diabetes insipidus there is a failure to either produce or for the kidney to respond to:
- Glucagon
- Antidiuretic hormone (vasopressin)
- Growth hormone
- Thyroid hormone
Antidiuretic hormone (vasopressin)

(B/P Disord/Dis)
Which of the following enzymes function only when the intracellular concentration of glucose in the hepatocyte is elevated, such as during the brief period following consumption of a carbohydrate-rich meal, when high levels of glucose are delivered to the liver via the portal vein:
- Pyruvate kinase
- Glucokinase
- Phosphofructokinase
- Hexokinase
Glucokinase

(B/P Liv)
All of the following are important functions of the liver except:
- Synthesis of most of the plasma membrane
- Synthesis of nonessential amino acids
- Formation of urine
- Oxidizing triglycerides to produce energy
- Synthesis of large quantities of cholesterol and phospholipids
Formation of urine

(B/P Liv)
All of the following statements concerning the urea cycle are true except:
- The two nitrogen atoms that are incorporated into urea enter the cycle as ammonia and aspartate
- Urea is produced by the hydrolysis of ornithine
- The urea cycle operates only to eliminate excess nitrogen
- The first two reactions leading to the synthesis of urea occur in the mitochondria, whereas the remaining cycle enzymes are located in the cytosol
- The urea that is formed in the urea cycle is passed via the blood stream to the kidneys and is excreted into the urine
Urea is produced by the hydrolysis of ornithine

(B/P Liv)
The liver releases glucose back into the circulating blood during exercise. Besides the skeletal muscle, what other organ takes up this extra glucose?
- Kidneys
- Heart
- Brain
- Lungs
Brain

(B/P Liv)
The major regulatory enzyme of cholesterol synthesis is:
- Thiolase
- HMG CoA reductase
- HMG CoA synthase
- All of the above
HMG CoA reductase

(B/P Liv)
The catecholamines (dopamine, norepinephrine, and epinephrine) are derived from the amino acid:
- Tryptophan
- Proline
- Tyrosine
- Alanine
Tyrosine

(B/P Sub)
All of the following statements concerning heparin are true except:
- Unlike other glycosaminoglycans that are extracellular compounds, heparin is an intracellular component of mast cells that line arteries, especially in the liver, lungs, and skin
- It serves as a powerful anticoagulant
- It is used in the treatment of certain types of lung, blood vessel, and heart disorders, and during or after certain types of surgery (open heart or bypass surgeries)
- Small quantities are produced by basophil cells of the blood
- It is usually found in large quantities in the blood
It is usually found in large quantities in the blood

(B/P Sub)
Histamine causes all of the following responses except:
- Vasodilation (particularly the arterioles)
- Secretion of HCl
- Bronchoconstriction
- Increased blood pressure
- Increased vascular permeability (particularly in capillaries and venules)
Increased blood pressure

(B/P Sub)
All of the following are formed via the cyclooxygenase pathway except:
- Prostaglandins
- Prostacyclin
- Leukotrienes
- Thromboxanes
Leukotrienes

(B/P Sub)
All of the following statements concerning prostaglandins are true except:
- They have a very short half life
- They generally act locally on or near the tissue that produced them
- They are synthesized only in the liver and the adrenal cortex
- The common precursor of the prostaglandins is arachidonic acid (an unsaturated fatty acid)
- Their synthesis can be inhibited by a number of unrelated compounds including aspirin and cortisol
They are synthesized only in the liver and the adrenal cortex

(B/P Sub)
Which of the following is a part of active cytochrome oxidase?
- Zinc
- Vitamin C
- Copper
- Vitamin K
- Magnesium
Copper

(B/P Min/Vit)
Which essential nutrient has the highest RDA for the 25-50 age group?
- Riboflavin
- Vitamin E
- Vitamin C
- Folacin
Vitamin C

(B/P Min/Vit)
A severe thiamine deficiency syndrome found in areas where polished rice is the major component of the diet is called:
- Pellagra
- Beriberi
- Scurvy
- Megaloblastic anemia
Beriberi

(B/P Min/Vit)
Which essential nutrient listed below has an RDA expressed in mg equivalents rather than pure mg or micro g?
- Riboflavin
- Vitamin E
- Vitamin C
- Folacin
Vitamin E

(B/P Min/Vit)
Which of the following is a water soluble vitamin and in contrast to other water-soluble vitamins is not excreted quickly in the urine, but rather accumulates and is stored in the liver, kidney and other body tissues?
- Vitamin A
- Cobalamin (vitamin B12)
- Niacin
- Vitamin E
- Riboflavin
Cobalamin (vitamin B12)

(B/P Min/Vit)
A deficiency of niacin leads to:
- Night blindness
- Pellagra
- Scurvy
- Rickets
- Beriberi
Pellagra

(B/P Min/Vit)
Which of the following is a water-soluble vitamin that helps the body form red blood cells and aids in the formation of genetic material?
- Vitamin A
- Thiamine
- Folacin (folate, folic acid)
- Pantothenic acid
- Vitamin D
Folacin (folate, folic acid)

(B/P Min/Vit)
Which of the following is required for the balancing of hormonal changes in women as well as assiting the immune system and the growth of new cells?
- Vitamin A
- Vitamin B6
- Vitamin K
- Vitamin B12
Vitamin B6

(B/P Min/Vit)
Which of the following is a component of Coenzyme A?
- Riboflavin
- Niacin
- Pantothenic acid
- Biotin
Pantothenic acid

(B/P Min/Vit)
Which of the following fat-soluble vitamins is necessary for calcium's role in blood clotting?
- Vitamin A
- Vitamin K
- Vitamin E
- Vitamin D
Vitamin K

(B/P Min/Vit)
Vitamin A (retinol) is:
- Required for blood clotting
- Required for the hydroxylation of proline and lysine residues in the precursor of collagen
- Required for the formation of the visual pigments of rod and cone cells
- Required for synthesis of a cofactor required for reactions in the oxidation of pyruvate to carbon dioxide and water
Required for the formation of the visual pigments of rod and cone cells

(B/P Min/Vit)
Biotin is:
- The precursor of FAD
- Required for the carboxylation of acetly CoA to malonyl CoA, an intermediate in fatty acid synthesis
- A cofactor required for the hydroxylation of proline and lysine
- A fat soluble vitamin
Required for the carboxylation of acetyl CoA to malonyl CoA, an intermediate in fatty acid synthesis
Which fat-soluble vitamin below is a steroid hormone and is known for its important role in regulating body levels of calcium and phosphorus, and in the mineralization of bone?
- Vitamin A
- Vitamin D
- Vitamin E
- Vitamin K
Vitamin D

(B/P Min/Vit)
All of the following are water-soluble vitamins except:
- Vitamin B complex
- Vitamin C
- Vitamin E
- Vitamin H
Vitamin E

(B/P Min/Vit)
Which of the following is a water-soluble vitamin that acts as an essential coenzyme in many oxidation-reduction reactions involved with carbohydrate metabolism?
- Folacin (Folic acid)
- Riboflavin (Vitamin B2)
- Niacin
- Thiamine (Vitamin B1)
Riboflavin (Vitamin B2)

(B/P Min/Vit)
The active form of vitamin D is:
- Cholecalciferol
- 25 hydroxycholecalciferol
- 1,25 dihydroxycholecalciferol
- 24,25 dihydroxycholecalciferol
1,25 dihydroxycholecalciferol

(B/P Min/Vit)
Which of the following helps maintain the sense of taste and smell?
- Phosphorus
- Cobalt
- Copper
- Zinc
Zinc

(B/P Min/Vit)
Fluoride (fluorine) is found primarily in:
- Milk
- Drinking water
- Seafood
- Eggs
Drinking water

(B/P Min/Vit)
Tracts descending to the spinal cord are concerned with voluntary motor function, muscle tone, reflexes, equilibrium, visceral innervation, and modulation of ascending sensory signals. The largest and most important of these tracts is:
- Rubrospinal tract
- Vestibulospinal tract
- Reticulospinal tract
- Corticospinal tract
Corticospinal tract

(B/P Nrv)
Strictly speaking, the all-or-none law refer to the:
- Strength of muscle contraction
- Resting potential
- Action potential
- Excitatory postsynaptic potential
Action potential

(B/P Nrv)
The binding of glucagon to its receptor:
- Deactivates adenylate cyclase
- Activates adenylate cyclase
- Causes the breakdown of cyclic AMP to ATP
- Deactivates protein kinase
Activates adenylate cyclase

(B/P Lipids)
Which statement below concerning G-proteins is true?
- G proteins bound to GDP are inactive
- Activation of a membrane receptor triggers an exchange of GDP for GTP on G proteins
- Adenylate cyclase activates G proteins and causes dissociation into a and Bg subunits
- cAMP activates G proteins, leading to an exchange of GTP for GDP
G proteins bound to GDP are inactive

(B/P Pro/AA)
Which vessel lacks a tunica media and tunica adventitia?
- Arteries
- Veins
- Capillaries
Capillaries

(B/P Cir S)
Surfactant:
- Reduces the surface tension in pulmonary alveoli
- Increase the Pco2 levels in blood
- Is a mucous secreted by goblet cells
- Reduces friction in the pleural cavity
Reduces the surface tension in pulmonary alveoli

(B/P Rsp S)
Organic molecules or ions that are required by an enzyme for its activity are called:
- Allosteric factors
- Cofactors
- Coadapters
- Clearing factors
Cofactors

(B/P Enz)
In which compartment of the cell does glycolysis occur:
- Mitochondrion
- Nucleus
- Cytosol
- Rough endoplasmic reticulum
Cytosol

(B/P Metab)
Substrates for gluconeogenesis include all of the following except:
- Lactate
- Pyruvate
- Amino acids
- Glycerol
- Acetly CoA
- Propionate
Acetyl CoA

(B/P Metab)
Which motor system in the brain works with the autonomic nervous system to help with posture and muscle tone and has more influence over midline structures than those in the periphery?
- Pyramidal system
- Extrapyramidal system
Extrapyramidal system

(B/P Nrv)
Growth and preparation of the chromosomes for replication occurs in which phase of the cell cycle?
- G1
- G0
- S
- G2
- M
G1

(B/P Misc.)
Which of the following functions as a coenzyme vital to tissue respiration?
- Pyridoxal phosphate
- Biocytin
- Thiamine pyrophosphate
- Tetrahydrofolate
Thiamine pyrophosphate

(B/P Enz)
The primary disturbance is respiratory acidosis is:
- Decreased arterial Pco2
- Increased arterial Pco2
- Increased arterial bicarbonate
- Decreased arterial bicarbonate
Increased arterial Pco2

(B/P pH)
Which cells differentiate from the inner layer of mesenchyme of the dental sac, adjacent to the tooth root?
- Odontoblasts
- Cementoblasts
- Ameloblasts
- Fibroblasts
Cementoblasts

(AS Tth Hist)
When a tooth first erupts into the oral cavity, where is the attachment epithelium derived from?
- Dental papilla
- Dental sac
- Reduced enamel epithelium
- Dental pulp
Reduced enamel epithelium

(AS Tth Hist)
The first sign of tooth development as seen in histological sections occurs about the:
- Second week in utero
- Sixth week in utero
- Tenth week in utero
- Fourth week in utero
Sixth week in utero

(AS Tth Hist)
Listed below are the usual events in the histogenesis of a tooth. Place them in their correct sequence (from what happens first to what happens last).
- Deposition of the first layer of dentin
- Differentiation of odontoblasts
- Deposition of the first layer of enamel
- Elongation of inner enamel epithelium cells
1. Elongation of the inner enamel epithelial cells
2. Differentiation of odontoblasts
3. Deposition of the first layer of dentin
4. Deposition of the first layer of enamel

(AS Tth Hist)
Which two structures join to form Hertwig's epithelial root sheath?
- Stratum intermedium
- Inner enamel epithelium
- Stellate reticulum
- Outer enamel epithelium
Inner enamel epithelium
Outer enamel epithelium

(AS Tth Hist)
The four distinct layers of the enamel organ include all of the following except:
- Outer enamel epithelium
- Inner enamel epithelium
- Stratum granulosum
- Stratum intermedium
- Stellate reticulum
Stratum granulosum

(AS Tth Hist)
Remnants of the epithelial root sheath that remain following its disintegration during root formation are called:
- Accessory root canals
- The epithelial rests of Malassez
- The dentinoenamel junction (DEJ)
- The cementoenamel junction (CEJ)
The epithelial rests of Malassez

(AS Tth Hist)
Which stage in the life cycle of a tooth is attained by ten weeks, when the dental papilla invaginates deeply into the core of the bud of the developing tooth?
- Initiation (Bud stage)
- Proliferation (Cap stage)
- Differentiation (Bell stage)
- Apposition
- Calcification
- Eruption
- Attrition
Differentiation (Bell stage)

(AS Tth Hist)
The tooth germ is composed of all of the following except:
- Enamel organ
- Dental sac
- Dental pulp
- Dental papilla
Dental pulp

(AS Tth Hist)
A layer of imperfectly calcified dentin made of small interglobular spaces immediately beneath the dentinocemental junction in the root of a tooth is referred to as:
- Incremental lines of Retzius
- Rete pegs
- Tomes granular layer
- Sharpey's fibers
Tomes granular layer

(AS Tth Hist)
Antidiuretic hormone is secreted from the:
- Anterior pituitary
- Posterior pituitary
- Adrenal medulla
- Adrenal cortex
- Thyroid
Posterior pituitary

(AS Endr S)
Which gland is sometimes called the "master" gland of the endocrine system, because it controls the functions of the other endocrine glands?
- Pancreas
- Thymus gland
- Pituitary gland
- Parathyroid glands
Pituitary gland

(AS Endr S)
Which hormone is the most plentiful anterior pituitary hormone?
- Prolactin
- Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
- Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
- Growth hormone (GH)
- Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
- Luteinizing hormone (LH)
Growth hormone

(AS Endr S)
Excision of the parathyroid glands would result in:
- Strengthening of muscles
- Weakening of bones
- Muscle convulsions
- Decalcification of bones
Muscle convulsions

(AS Endr S)
The part of the developing salivary gland destined to become responsible for its functioning is called the:
- Nephron
- Follicle
- Adenomere
- Lobule
Adenomere

(AS Endr S)
All of the following structures lie within the parotid gland except the:
- Facial nerve
- Retromandibular vein
- Trigeminal nerve
- External carotid artery
Trigeminal nerve

(AS Endr S)
The portion of the pituitary gland that arises from the roof of the primitive oral cavity is the:
- Pars nervosa
- Adenohypophysis
- Neurohypophysis
- Infundibulum
Adenohypophysis

(AS Endr S)
The secretion of which endocrine gland is not essential to life?
- Parathyroids
- Adrenal cortex
- Adrenal medulla
- Anterior pituitary
- Pancreatic islets (Langerhans)
Adrenal medulla

(AS Endr S)
Which anterior pituitary hormone controls the production and secretion of hormones called glucocorticoids by the cortex of the adrenal gland?
- Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
- Luteinizing hormone (LH)
- Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
- Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

(AS Endr S)
Exocrine glands include all of the following except:
- Lacrimal glands
- The pituitary gland
- Sweat glands
- The prostate gland
- Bile producing glands of the liver
- Gastric glands
The pituitary gland

(Endr S)
Which of the following muscles indents the submandibular gland and divides it into superficial and deep parts?
- Genioglossus
- Styloglossus
- Superior constrictor muscle
- Mylohyoid muscle
Mylohyoid muscle

(AS Endr S)
The main excretory duct of the pancreas is:
- Wharton's duct
- The Duct of Wirsung
- Bartholin's duct
- Wolffian's duct
The Duct of Wirsung

(AS Endr S)
Which of the following is both an exocrine and an endocrine organ?
- Thyroid gland
- Thymus
- Pancreas
- Parathyroid glands
Pancreas

(AS Endr S)
The major gland of the immune system is:
- The thyroid gland
- The adrenal glands
- The thymus gland
- The pineal gland
The thymus gland

(AS Endr S)
All of the following contain muscus-secreting cells except the:
- Submandibular glands
- Sublingual glands
- Parotid glands
- Glands of the esophagus
- Mucosa of the trachea
Parotid glands

(AS Endr S)
The two hormones produced by the thymus gland are:
- Glucagon
- Thymopoietin
- Calcitonin
- Thymosin
Thymopoietin
Thymosin

(AS Endr S)
What determines whether gigantism or acromegaly will occur when there is oversecretion of growth hormone by the pituitary gland?
- Whether the epiphyses of the short bones have fused with the shaft
- Whether there is enough calcium present to cause fusion of the epiphyses
- Whether the epiphyses of the long bones have fused with the shaft
- None of the above
Whether the epiphyses of the long bones have fused with the shaft

(AS Endr S)
Thyroid epithelial cells -- the cells responsible for the synthesis of thyroid hormones -- are arranged in spheres called:
- Acini
- Follicles
- Nodes
- Nephrons
Follicles

(AS Endr S)
An exocrine gland in which a portion of the secretory cell is discharged with the secretion is termed:
- Merocrine
- Apocrine
- Holocrine
Apocrine

(AS Endr S)
The proper sequence of the adrenal cortex zone, from the inside --> out is:
- Zona glomerulosa --> zona fasiculata --> zona reticularis
- Zona fasiculata --> zona glomerulosa --> zona reticularis
- Zona reticularis --> zona fasiculata --> zona glomerulosa
- Zona reticularis --> zona glomerulosa --> zona fasiculata
Zona reticularis --> zona fasiculata --> zona glomerulosa

(AS Endr S)
The portion of the pituitary gland that arises as a downgrowth of the neural ectoderm of the hypothalamus is the:
- Pars nervosa
- Adenohypophysis
- Neurohypophysis
- Infundibulum
Neurohypophysis

(AS Endr S)
Which salivary gland lies beneath the mucous membrane of the floor of the mouth, close to the midline?
- Submandibular gland
- Parotid gland
- Sublingual gland
Sublingual gland

(AS Endr S)
Follicular "colloid" is a protein substance that stores:
- Thyroxine
- Thyroglobulin
- Triiodothyronine
- Thyrotropin
Thyroglobulin

(AS Endr S)
Which structure can be seen in histologic examination of the submandibular and sublingual glands but not in the adult parotid gland?
- Myoepithelial cells
- Serous cells
- Intercalated ducts
- Serous demilunes
- Striated ducts
Serous demilunes

(AS Endr S)
The posterior lobe of the pituitary gland consists of:
- Unmyelinated nerve fibers
- Myelinated nerve fibers
- Both myelinated and unmyelinated nerve fibers
Unmyelinated nerve fibers

(AS Endr S)
The small, pea-shaped pituitary gland (hypophysis) is located on the inferior surface of the brain. It is positioned in the:
- Infratemporal fossa of the sphenoid bone
- Sella turcica of the sphenoid bone
- Crista galli of the ethmoid bone
- Cribiform plate of the ethmoid bone
Sella turcica of the sphenoid bone

(AS Endr S)
Which of the following cardiac veins empties directly into the right atrium of the heart?
- Middle cardiac
- Anterior cardiac
- Small cardiac
- Great cardiac
- None of the above
Anterior cardiac

(AS Hrt)
All of the following statements concerning cardiac muscle are true except:
- It makes up the muscular component of the heart known as the myocardium
- Cardiac muscle cells are faintly striated, branching cells, which connect by means of intercalated discs to form a functional network
- It contracts voluntarily
- Its fibers are separate cellular units, which (unlike other striated muscle fibers) don't contain many nuclei
- It responds to increased demands by increasing the size of its fiber; this is known as compensatory hypertrophy
It contracts voluntarily

(AS Hrt)
The apex of the heart is formed by the:
- Right atrium
- Left atrium
- Right ventricle
- Left ventricle
- Both left and right ventricles
Left ventricle

(AS Hrt)
The pacemaker of the heart is the:
- Atrioventricular node
- Sinoatrial node
- Atrioventricular bundle
- Purkinje fibers
Sinoatrial node

(AS Hrt)
Which heart layer is the thickest and is the workhorse of the heart?
- Epicardium
- Myocardium
- Endocardium
Myocardium

(AS Hrt)
The fossa ovalis is an oval depression on the septal wall of the atrium and is the remnant of the:
- Foramen magnum in the fetus
- Foramen ovale in the fetus
- Foramen rotundum in the fetus
- Foramen cecum in the fetus
Foramen ovale in the fetus

(AS Hrt)
Which group of structures empties directly into the right atrium?
- Superior vena cava, coronary sinus and hemiazygous vein
- Coronary sinus and pulmonary vein
- Pulmonary and bronchial veins
- Superior and inferior vena cavae and coronary sinus
- Coronary sinus and azygos vein
Superior and inferior vena cavae and coronary sinus

(AS Hrt)
Blood supply to the myocardium (heart muscle) is provided by the:
- Four pulmonary veins
- Superior vena cava
- Right and left coronary arteries
- Inferior vena cava
Right and left coronary arteries

(AS Hrt)
During diastole, the aortic valve:
- Prevents reflux of blood into the right ventricle
- Prevents reflux of blood into the right atrium
- Prevents reflux of blood into the left atrium
- Prevents reflux of blood into the left ventricle
Prevents reflux of blood into the left ventricle

(AS Hrt)
Which heart valve is best heard over the apex of the heart?
- Tricuspid valve
- Mitral valve
- Pulmonary valve
- Aortic valve
Mitral valve

(AS Hrt)
The pumping chambers of the heart are called the:
- Atria
- Ventricle
- Vena cava
- Pacemakers
Ventricles

(AS Hrt)
The pectinate muscles are located within the heart:
- On the interatrial septum
- In the right ventricle
- On the inner surface of the right atrium
- On the sinus venosum
- On the right side of the interventricular septum
On the inner surface of the right atrium

(AS Hrt)
A synarthroses is a(n):
- Joint permitting slight mobility
- Immovable joint
- Freely movable joint
Immovable joint

(AS Jnts)
Synovial fluid that lubricates a synovial joint is produced by:
- A meniscus
- The synovial membrane
- A bursa
- The articular cartilage
The synovial membrane

(AS Jnts)
Which of the following are united by hyaline cartilage and contain epiphyseal cartilage plates?
- Syndesmoses
- Synchondroses
- Symphyses
- Sutures
Synchondroses

(AS Jnts)
What are the subdivisions of the posterior cervical triangle?
- Submental and digastric triangles
- Carotid and muscular triangles
- Occipital and supraclavicular (subclavian) triangles
- Occipital and submental triangles
Occipital and supraclavicular (subclavian) triangles

(AS Jnts)
Lymph is moved by:
- Diffusion
- Pressure from the heart
- A special lymph pump
- Differing osmotic pressure in the capillaries
- Active transport
Differing osmotic pressure in the capillaries

(AS Lym S)
Which joint allows maximum rotational movement of the head about its vertical axis?
- Atlanto occipital joint
- Intervertebral joint
- Atlanto axial joint
- Costovertebral joint
Atlanto axial joint

(AS Jnts)
The spleen does not:
- House lymphocytes
- Filter foreign particles, damaged red blood cells, and cellular debris from the blood
- Contain phagocytes
- Change undifferentiated lymphocytes into T lymphocytes
House lymphocytes

(AS Lym S)
All of the following statements concerning the lymphatic system are true except:
- The main function is to collect and transport tissue fluids from the intercellular spaces in all the tissues of the body, back to the veins in the blood system
- Lymph is a transparent, usually slightly yellow, often opalescent liquid found in the lymphatic vessels
- It consists of the bone marrow, spleen, thymus gland, lymph nodes, tonsils, appendix, Peyer's patches, lymph, and lymphatic vessels
- Just like the circulatory system, the lymphatic system has a central "heart like" organ to pump lymph throughout lymph vessels
- The chief characteristic common to all lymphatic organs is the presence of lymphocytes
Just like the circulatory system, the lymphatic system has a central "heart like" organ to pump lymph throughout the lymph vessels

(AS Lym S)
The germinal layer of a lymph node harbors:
- Erythrocytes
- Lymphocytes
- Platelets
- Basophils
Lymphocytes

(AS Lym S)
In the head and neck, all lymph ultimately drains into the:
- Submental lymph nodes
- Submandibular lymph nodes
- Deep cervical lymph nodes
- Retropharyngeal lymph nodes
Deep cervical lymph nodes

(AS Lym S)
The spleen:
- Lies in the right inguinal region of the abdominal cavity
- Lies in the right hypochondrium of the abdonimal cavity between the stomach and the diaphragm
- Lies in the left hypochondrium of the abdominal cavity between the stomach and the diaphragm
- Lies in the hypogastrium of the abdominal cavity just below the liver
Lies in the left hypochondrium of the abdominal cavity between the stomach and the diaphragm

(AS Lym S)
The thoracic duct usually drains into the:
- Left internal jugular vein
- Left subclavian vein
- Junction of the left internal jugular and subclavian veins
- Superior vena cava
- Junction of the right internal jugular and subclavian veins
Junction of the left internal jugular and subclavian veins

(AS Lym S)
Which structure(s) are called adenoids when enlarged?
- Lingual tonsils
- Palatine tonsils
- Pharyngeal tonsil
Pharyngeal tonsil

(AS Lym S)
Which statement concerning the hepatic portal vein is true?
- It carries half as much blood as the hepatic artery
- It has no tributaries superior to its beginning
- It is formed posterior to the neck of the pancreas by the union of the splenic and renal veins
- It ascends anterior to the bile duct and the proper hepatic artery
- It passes anterior to the epiploic foramen in the free edge of the lesser omentum
It passes anterior to the epiploic foramen in the free edge of the lesser omentum

(AS Vns)
The subclavian vein is the continuation of the:
- Brachial vein
- Brachiocephalic vein
- Cephalic vein
- Axillary vein
Axillary vein

(AS Vns)
The azygos vein drains into the:
- Superior vena cava
- Inferior vena cava
- Right atrium
- Left brachiocephalic vein
- Right brachiocephalic vein
Superior vena cava

(AS Vns)
Which structures below are very thin and fragile?
- Arteries
- Capillaries
- Veins
Capillaries

(AS Vns)
The ductus venosus is an important vessel within the fetal circulation. After birth, the blood within this vessel clots and the vessel in converted to a fibrous cord called the:
- Ligamentum arteriosum
- Ligamentum teres
- Fossa ovalis
- Ligamentum venosum
Ligamentum venosum

(AS Vns)
The veins of the brain are direct tribiutaries of the:
- Internal jugular vein
- Dural sinuses
- Diploic veins
- Emissary veins
- Pterygoid venous plexus
Dural sinuses

(AS Vns)
Which vein does not empty into the cavernous sinus?
- Superior ophthalmic vein
- Inferior ophthalmic vein
- Vertebral vein
- The cerebral veins
- Sphenoparietal sinus
Vertebral vein

(AS Vns)
Compared to their companion arteries, veins show all of the following except:
- Less muscle
- Lower blood pressure within them
- Less elastic tissue
- Same general structure
- Smaller diameter
Smaller diameter

(AS Vns)
The pterygoid plexus of veins surrounds the:
- Maxillary artery
- Subclavian artery
- Facial artery
- Internal carotid artery
Maxillary artery

(AS Vns)
Which of the following lies immediately anterior to the epiploic foramen?
- Hepatic vein
- Portal vein
- Superior mesenteric vein
- Coronary vein
- Inferior mesenteric vein
Portal vein

(AS Vns)
Which vein is formed within the parotid gland?
- Hemiazygos vein
- Left superior intercostal vein
- Retromandibular vein
- Subclavian vein
Retromandibular vein

(AS Vns)
Which vein is one of a system of veins that drain the thoracic and abdominal walls?
- External jugular vein
- Internal jugular vein
- Azygos vein
- Femoral vein
Azygos vein

(AS Vns)
Which vein communicates with the superior ophthalmic vein and this with the cavernous sinus, allowing a route of infection from the face to the cranial dural sinus?
- Occipital vein
- Facial vein
- Lingual vein
- Posterior auricular vein
Facial vein

(AS Vns)
All of the following characteristics are true concerning veins except:
- Thick tunica media with a lot of muscle fibers
- Thick tunica adventitia with little elastic tissue
- Larger lumen and thinner walls than the arteries they accompany
- Some contain valves and vasa vasorum
- They receive blood from the venules and carry it from the body (except the lungs) to the right atrium of the heart
Thick tunica media with a lot of muscle fibers

(AS Vns)
Which of the following becomes continuous with the internal jugular vein at the jugular foramen?
- Cavernous sinus
- Sigmoid sinus
- Superior sagittal sinus
- Transverse sinus
- Straight sinus
Sigmoid sinus

(AS Vns)
If a benign tumor is found where the common carotid artery usually bifurcates, it would be located at the level of the:
- Cricoid cartilage
- Angle of the mandible
- Superior border of the thyroid cartilage
- Jugular notch
Superior border of the thyroid cartilage

(AS Art)
The external carotid artery terminates within the:
- Submandibular gland
- Parotid gland
- Circle of Willis
- Aortic arch
Parotid gland

(AS Art)
The small, deep, penetrating arteries of the basal nuclei (ganglia) known as the "lenticulostriate arteries" are branches of which artery?
- Middle cerebral
- Internal carotid
- Anterior choroidal
- Infraorbital
Middle cerebral

(AS Art)
Which statement concerning the carotid sinus is true?
- It is innervated by the facial nerve
- It is located at the terminal end of the external carotid artery
- It communicates freely with the cavernous sinus
- It is stimulated by changed in blood pressure
- It functions as a chemoreceptor
It is stimulated by changes in blood pressure

(AS Art)
The most prominent functional component in the tunica media of small arteries is the:
- Elastic fibers
- Collagen fibers
- Smooth muscle cells
- Skeletal muscle cells
Smooth muscle cells

(AS Art)
Which of the following structures take the place of capillaries in the liver, spleen, pituitary gland, adrenal gland, carotid body, pancreas, and parathyroid glands?
- Lymph nodes
- Venules
- Sinusoids
- Lacteals
Sinusoids

(AS Art)
Which artery supplies the liver with oxygenated blood?
- Portal artery
- Hepatic artery
- Common carotid artery
- Splanchnic artery
Hepatic artery

(AS Art)
Substances exchanged at the capillary level move through the capillary walls primarily by:
- Filtration
- Osmosis
- Diffusion
- Active transport
Diffusion

(AS Art)
The facial artery gives rise to branches that supply each of the regions listed below except for the:
- Medial angle of the orbit
- Lateral nose
- Region of the eyebrow
- Upper lip
- Lower lip
Region of the eyebrow

(AS Art)
Resistive vessels of the circulatory system are:
- Large arteries
- Large veins
- Small arteries and arterioles
- Small veins and venules
Small arteries and arterioles

(AS Art)
Which artery supplies the mucosa of the hard palate posterior to the maxillary canine?
- Greater palatine artery
- Posterior superior alveolar artery
- Sphenopalatine artery
- Lesser palatine artery
Greater palatine artery

(AS Art)
Which artery does not accompany the corresponding nerve throughout its course?
- Lingual artery
- Infraorbital artery
- Inferior alveolar artery
- Posterior superior alveolar artery
Lingual artery

(AS Art)
Which muscle divides the maxillary artery into three parts?
- Buccinator muscle
- Lateral pterygoid muscle
- Masseter muscle
- Medial pterygoid muscle
Lateral pterygoid muscle

(AS Art)
The tongue receives its blood supply from all of the following except:
- Tonsilar branch of the facial artery
- Lingual artery
- Palatine artery
- Ascending pharyngeal artery
Palatine artery

(AS Art)
At the level of the sixth intercostal space, the internal thoracic artery divides into the:
- Superior epigastric and musculophrenic arteries
- Anterior and posterior intercostal arteries
- Subclavian and inferior epigastric arteries
- None of the above
Superior epigastric and musculophrenic arteries

(AS Art)
All of the following arteries supply the stomach except:
- Right and left gastric arteries
- Right and left gastroepiploic arteries
- Inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery
- Short gastric arteries
Inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery

(AS Art)
Maxillary and mandibular teeth are supplied by the:
- Vertebral artery
- Maxillary artery
- Occipital artery
- Subclavian artery
Maxillary artery

(AS Art)
The abdominal aorta passes through the diaphragm at which vertebral level?
- T8
- T10
- T12
- L1
- L2
T12

(AS Art)
Most of the small intestine receives its blood supplu from branches of a single artery. The artery that supplies most of the small intestine is the:
- Middle colic
- Celiac
- Gastroduodenal
- Inferior mesenteric
- Superior mesenteric
Superior mesenteric

(AS Art)
A nosebleed (epistaxis) frequently occurs because of picking of the nose with the finger at the anterior inferior portion of the nasal septum. Branches of which arteries may be involved?
- Maxillary
- Facial
- Ophthalmic
- Maxillary and Facial
- Facial and Ophthalmic
Maxillary and Facial

(AS Art)
All of the following statements concerning the common carotid arteries are true except:
- The common carotid arteries are the same in length
- The common carotid arteries differ in their mode of origin
- The right common carotid artery begins at the bifurcation of the innominate artery (brachiocephalic artery) behind the sternoclavicular joint and is confined to the neck
- The left common carotid artery originates from the highest part of the arch of the aorta in the superior mediastinum and consists of a thoracic and a cervical portion
The common carotid arteries are the same in length

(AS Art)
Which artery arises from the arch of the aorta and divides into the right subclavian and right carotid arteries?
- Maxillary artery
- Coronary artery
- External iliac artery
- Brachiocephalic artery
Brachiocephalic artery

(AS Art)
Neutrophils also known as polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs), play a vital role in:
- Transporting oxygen
- Ingesting bacteria
- Hemostasis
- The body's immune system
The body's immune system

(AS Bld)
Yellow bone marrow:
- Provides internal support to spongy bone
- Produces red blood cells
- Is found only in lower vertebrates
- Stores fat
Stores fat

(AS Bld)
Which leukocytes (white blood cells) are the least abundant?
- Neutrophils
- Monocytes
- Eosinophils
- Basophils
- Lymphocytes
Basophils

(AS Bld)
Under the microscope, erythrocytes (red blood cells) appear as:
- Oval discs with multi lobed nuclei
- Circular discs with centrally located nuclei
- Biconcave discs without nuclei
- Circular discs with several nuclei
Biconcave discs without nuclei

(AS Bld)
Platelets are best described as:
- Giant, multinucleated cells
- Cytoplasmic fragments of cells
- Immature leukocytes
- Lymphoid cells
Cytoplasmic fragments of cells

(AS Bld)
The liquid portion of blood is called:
- Formed elements
- Cerebrospinal fluid
- Plasma
- Lymph
Plasma

(AS Bld)
The first dentin that is formed is called mantle dentin, while the remaining dentin is called:
- Intratubular dentin
- Circumpulpal dentin
- Intertubular dentin
- Interglobular dentin
Circumpulpal dentin

(AS T)
Cementum is approximately:
- 25% inorganic
- 30% inorganic
- 50% inorganic
- 75% inorganic
50% inorganic

(AS T)
Which of the following is the remnant of the onset of enamel formation?
- Cementoenamel junction (CEJ)
- Dentinoenamel junction (DEJ)
- Cementodentinal junction (CDJ)
- Mucogingival junction (MGJ)
Dentinoenamel junction (DEJ)

(AS T)
The dental pulp is a connective tissue that develops from the:
- Enamel organ
- Dental papilla
- Dental sac
Dental papilla

(AS T)
The main function of cementum is:
- To compensate for tooth wear by depositing apical cementum
- Reparative in nature
- To provide rough surface anchorage for attachment of Sharpey's fibers
- Protection of the root surface
To provide rough surface anchorage for attachment of Sharpey's fibers

(AS T)
The primary function of the dental pulp is to:
- Protect the periodontium
- Form enamel
- Form dentin
- Assure root end closure
Form dentin

(AS T)
The application of excessive heat to a tooth results in pain because:
- Excessive stimulation of a heat receptor always results in pain
- Heat receptors in the pulp have a low treshold to pain
- All stimuli to the pulp results in a pain sensation
- Blood vessels of the pulp expand and cause strangulation of the tissue
All stimuli to the pulp results in a pain sensation

(AS T)
Which of the following oral tissues is most highly mineralized?
- Enamel
- Dentin
- Cementum
- Pulp
Enamel

(AS T)
In its mature state, enamel is:
- 47% mineralized
- 68% mineralized
- 87% mineralized
- 96% mineralized
96% mineralized

(AS T)
The hardest substance in the body is:
- Bone
- Dentin
- Enamel
- Cementum
Enamel

(AS T)
Where would you expect to see incremental lines of Retzius?
- In dentin
- In cementum
- In enamel
- In the pulp
In enamel

(AS T)
The fundamental morphologic unit of enamel is the:
- Enamel tuft
- Enamel spindle
- Enamel rod
- Enamel lamellae
Enamel rod

(AS T)
If a tooth is being tilted mesially during orthodontics, which two of the following four statements are true?
- The coronal half of the distal wall will show resorption as a result of osteoclastic activity
- The coronal half of the mesial wall will show resorption as a result of osteoclastic activity
- The coronal half of the distal wall will show deposition as a result of osteroblastic activity
- The coronal half of the mesial wall will show deposition as a result of osteoblastic activity
The coronal half of the mesial wall will show resorption as a result of osteoclastic activity

The coronal half of the distal wall will show deposition as a result of osteoblastic activity

(AS T)
Dentin is hard, elastic, and is:
- 40% mineral
- 35% mineral
- 70% mineral
- 60% mineral
70% mineral

(AS T)
The alveolar process is that part of the maxilla and mandible that houses the teeth. It consists of two main parts which are called:
- Cortical plate and spongy bone
- Compact lamellar bone and a layer of bundle bone
- Alveolar bone proper and supporting alveolar bone
Alveolar bone proper and supporting alveolar bone

(AS T)
Apical abscesses of which teeth have a marked tendency to produce cervical spread of infection most rapidly?
- Mandibular central and lateral incisors
- Mandibular canine and first premolar
- Maxillary first and second molars
- Mandibular second and third molars
Mandibular second and third molars

(AS T)
What causes the formation of resting lines as seen in the cortical bone of the mandible?
- Growth of the mandible by appositional growth
- Growth of the mandible by interstitial growth
- Growth of the mandible by both interstitial and appositional growth
Growth of the mandible by appositional growth

(AS T)
A delicate membrane covering the crown of a newly erupted tooth is called:
- Perikymata
- The primary enamel cuticle
- Hertwig's rooth sheath
- Plasmalemma
The primary enamel cuticle

(AS T)
Which of the following is produced in reaction to various stimuli such as attrition, caries or a resorative dental procedure?
- Primary dentin
- Secondary dentin
- Reparative dentin
- Sclerotic dentin
Reparative dentin

(AS T)
Each odontoblast of dentin gives rise to a long, slender cytoplasmic extension called a:
- Triacetate fiber
- Tomes' fiber
- Tag fiber
- Korff's fiber
Tomes' fiber

(AS T)
Which group of gingival fibers arise from the alveolar crest and fan out coronally into the adjacent gingival connective tissue?
- Transseptal fibers
- Dentogingival fibers
- Alveologingival fibers
- Circumferential fibers
- Dentoperiosteal fibers
Alveologingival fibers

(AS Pdl/G)
Surrounding the root of each tooth is a specialized epithelium known as a:
- Connective tissue attachment
- Periodontal ligament attachment
- Junctional epithelium
- Nasmyth's membrane
Junctional epithelium

(AS Pdl/G)
The main cellular compound of the gingival connective tissue is the:
- Osteoblast
- Odontoblast
- Fibroblast
- Ameloblast
Fibroblast

(AS Pdl/G)
The oral mucosa is lined by:
- Stratified squamous epithelium
- Simple squamous epithelium
- Simple cuboidal epithelium
- Stratified cuboidal epithelium
Stratified squamous epithelium

(AS Pdl/G)
Approximately one-third of all principal fibers of the periodontal ligament are:
- Alveolar crest
- Horizontal
- Oblique
- Apical
- Interradicular
Oblique

(AS Pdl/G)
The periodontal ligament in an adult is about:
- 0.002 mm wide
- 0.2 mm wide
- 2.0 mm wide
- 20.0 mm wide
0.2 mm wide

(AS Pdl/G)
Which type of functional oral mucosa covers the dorsum of the tongue?
- Masticatory
- Specialized mucosa
- Lining or reflective mucosa
Specialized mucosa

(AS Pdl/G)
The main component of the periodontal ligament is the:
- Elastic fibers
- Reticulin fibers
- Principal fibers
- Spindle fibers
Principal fibers

(AS Pdl/G)
Which of the following is a delicate bone that forms parts of the nasal cavity and eye orbits, it also extends into the cranial cavity with its cribiform plate and sharp ridge called the crista galli?
- Temporal bone
- Maxilla
- Ethmoid bone
- Vomer bone
Ethmoid bone

(AS Bn)
When looking at a principal x-ray of a tooth, the radiolucent space seen between the root and the lamina dura is the:
- Alveolar bone proper
- Cortical plates
- Periodontal ligament space
- Cancellous bone
Periodontal ligament space

(AS Pdl/G)
In long bones, the process whereby cartilage cells are replaced by bone cells, organic matrix is laid down, and calcium and phosphate are deposited is known as:
- Intramembranous ossification
- Primary ossification
- Endochondral ossification
- Subchondral ossification
Endochondral ossification

(AS Bn)
All statements concerning the sphenoid bone are true except:
- The greater wing of the sphenoid bone forms the lateral wall of the orbit and the roof of the infratemporal fossa
- The lesser wing of the sphenoid bone contains the optic canal (optic foramen) and helps form the superior orbital fissure and roof of the orbit
- The medial pterygoid plates of the sphenoid bone provide attachment sites for two muscles of mastication
- Foramina within the greater wing of the sphenoid bone provide access to both the pterygopalatine and infratemporal fossa
- The body of the sphenoid bone contains the sella turcica and the sphenoidal sinuses
The medial pterygoid plates of the sphenoid bone provide attachment sites for two muscle of mastication

(AS Bn)
All are functions of the skeletal system except:
- Support
- Protection
- Body movement
- Hemopoiesis
- Lymph filtration
- Mineral storage
Lymph filtration

(AS Bn)
In the adult, the skeletal system is constantly being remodeled. This remodeling is a function of:
- Osteoblasts and osteocytes
- Chondrocytes and osteocytes
- Osteoclasts and osteoblasts
- Chondroblasts and osteoblasts
Osteoclasts and osteoblasts

(AS Bn)
In a young child, the alveolar process:
- Increases in height only to accommodate the developing dentition
- Increases in length only to accommodate the developing dentition
- Increases in height and length to accommodate the developing dentition
Increases in height and length to accommodate the developing dentition

(AS Bn)
An oval depression located medial to the origin of the zygomatic process is called the:
- Infratemporal fossa
- Mandibular fossa
- Pterygopalatine fossa
- Anterior cranial fossa
Mandibular fossa

(AS Bn)
A tuberosity is:
- A large, rounded, roughened process
- A sharp, slender, projecting process
- A small, rounded process
- A prominent elevated ridge or border of a bone
A large, rounded, roughened process

(AS Bn)
All of the following statements concerning the nasal cavity are true except:
- The roof is formed by the nasal, frontal, sphenoid (body), and ethmoid (cribiform plate) bones
- The floor is formed by the palatine process of the maxilla and the horizontal plate of the palatine bone
- The lateral walls are formed primarily by the maxilla, palatine (perpendicular plate), ethmoid, and nasal conchae (superior, middle, and inferior)
- The medial wall or nasal septum is formed entirely by the vomer bone
- The bridge of the nose is formed by the two nasal bones
The medial wall or nasal septum is formed entirely by the vomer bone

(AS Bn)
Which cranial fossa houses the frontal lobes of the cerebral hemispheres?
- Anterior cranial fossa
- Middle cranial fossa
- Posterior cranial fossa
Anterior cranial fossa

(AS Bn)
The shaft of a long bone which consists of compact bone enclosing the medullary cavity is called the:
- Diaphysis
- Endosteum
- Epiphysis
- Periosteum
Diaphysis

(AS Bn)
Which can be defined as a small pit or depression in bone?
- Fossa
- Fissure
- Fovea
- Meatus
Fovea

(AS Bn)
Which bone forms the substance of the cheek and anchors the muscles of mastication and facial expression?
- Sphenoid bone
- Ethmoid bone
- Zygomatic bone
- Occipital bone
Zygomatic bone

(AS Bn)
All of the following are openings from the pterygopalatine fossa except the:
- Sphenopalatine foramen
- Pterygoid canal
- Foramen rotundum
- Pharyngeal canal
- Foramen lacerum
- Pterygopalatine canal
- Pterygomaxillary fissure
Foramen lacerum

(AS Bn)
The muscles of mastication, their nerves and their vessels are located primarily in which part of the head?
- Pterygopalatine fossa
- Jugular fossa
- Incisive fossa
- Infratemporal fossa
- Temporal fossa
Infratemporal fossa

(AS Bn)
The left and right pterygoid processes project downward from neat the junction of each of the greater wings within the body of the:
- Palatine bone
- Temporal bone
- Sphenoid bone
- Occipital bone
Sphenoid bone

(AS Bn)
The inferior nasal concha extends horizontally along the lateral wall of the:
- Nasal cavity
- Sphenoid bone
- Ethmoid bone
- Temporal bone
Nasal cavity

(AS Bn)
Compact bone would most likely be found:
- In the medullary cavity of a long bone
- Directly underneath the periosteum
- On either side of the epiphyseal line of adult bone
- In the secondary ossification centers of fetal bone
Directly underneath the periosteum

(AS Bn)
The roof of the oral cavity is formed by the:
- Nasal and vomer bones
- Ethmoid and palatine bones
- Maxilla and nasal bones
- Maxilla and palatine bones
Maxilla and palatine bones

(AS Bn)
All of the following bones fuse to form the hip bone in the young adult except:
- The ilium
- The ischium
- The femur
- The pubis
The femur

(AS Bn)
Which of the following accompanies the optic nerve through the optic canal?
- Ophthalmic artery
- Ophthalmic veins
- Cranial nerves III, IV, and VI
- Ophthalmic nerve (CN V1)
Ophthalmic artery

(AS For)
The internal acoustic meatus pierces the posterior surface of the petrous part of the temporal bone. It transmits which two structures below?
- Vestibulocochlear nerve (CN VIII)
- Trigeminal nerve (CN V)
- Facial nerve (CV VII)
- Vagus nerve (CN X)
Vestibulocochlear nerve (CN VIII)
Facial nerve (CN VII)

(AS For)
Which structures are not retroperitoneal?
- Ascending colon
- Descending colon
- Sigmoid colon
- Kidney
- Ileum
- Pancreas
Sigmoid colon
Ileum

(AS Misc.)
Which of the following allows for the exit of the spinal accessory nerve from the cranial cavity?
- Foramen rotundum
- Foramen magnum
- Foramen ovale
- Jugular foramen
Jugular foramen

(AS For)
In relationship to the occlusal plane of the mandibular molars, the mandibular foramen is located:
- At or slightly above the occlusal plane and anterior to the molars
- At or slightly below the occlusal plane and anterior to the molars
- At or slightly below the occlusal plane and posterior to the molars
- At or slightly above the occlusal plane and posterior to the molars
At or slightly below the occlusal plane and posterior to the molars

(AS For)
The abducent nerve enters the orbit through the:
- Petrotympanic fissure
- Superior orbital fissure
- Inferior orbital fissure
- Squamotympanic fissure
Superior orbital fissure

(AS For)
A long, whip-like organelle that many unicellular organisms, and some multicellular ones, use to move about is called a:
- Cilium
- Flagellum
- Vacuole
- Centriole
Flagellum

(AS Cell)
Which cellular component is often called the "shipping department" of the cell?
- The nucleus
- The nucleolus
- The Golgi apparatus
- The endoplasmic reticulum
The Golgi apparatus

(AS Cell)
The inactive X chromosome in a female cell is called the:
- Golgi body
- Barr body
- Pineal body
- Lateral body
Barr body

(AS Cell)
Sites where the cell assembles proteins according to genetic instructions are called:
- Mitochondria
- Peroxisomes
- Ribosomes
- Centrosomes
Ribosomes

(AS Cell)
Which of the following is the distinctive array of microtubules in the core of cilia and flagella comprised of a central pair surrounded by a sheath of nine doublet microtubules (characteristic "9 2" pattern)?
- Tubulin
- Centriole
- Axoneme
- Malleolus
Axoneme

(AS Cell)
Which of the following are specialized cells which populate the epithelium of the respiratory tree from the level of the terminal bronchiole to the alveolar duct?
- Endothelial cells
- Interstitial cells
- Sertoli cells
- Clara cells
Clara cells

(AS Cell)
Which cell is most concerned with defense against bacterial invasion?
- Macrophages
- Basophil
- Plasma cell
- Mast cell
Macrophages

(AS Cell)
The cell cycle consists of all of the following except:
- Growth
- Synthesis
- Fusion
- Mitosis
Fusion

(AS Cells)
What is the collective name given to lifeless substances --> such as yolk, fat, and starch --> that may be stored in various parts of the cytoplasm?
- Ectoplasm
- Metaplasm
- Protoplasm
- Nucleoplasm
Metaplasm

(AS Cell)
What is the name of the cell present in mesenchyme that is capable of differentiating into any of the special types of connective tissue or supporting tissues, smooth muscle, vascular endothelium, or blood cells?
- Mast cell
- Mesenchyme cell
- Macroglia cell
- Myoepithelial cell
Mesenchymal cell

(AS Cell)
The plasma membrane (cell membrane):
- Is a non permeable membrane enclosing the cell wall
- Is a dynamic, selectively permeable membrane enclosing the cytoplasm
- Surrounds the cell wall and serves to protect the cell from changes in osmotic pressure
- Is a polysaccharide containing structure that functions in attachment to solid surfaces, preventing dessication, and protection
Is a dynamic, selectively permeable membrane enclosing the cytoplasm

(AS Cell)
Chromosomes are composed of:
- RNA and DNA
- DNA and protein
- Protein and RNA
- Lipids and phospholipids
DNA and protein

(AS Cell)
The basophils in the circulating blood are similar to:
- Platelets
- Mast cells
- Macrophages
- Kupffer cells
Mast cells

(AS Cell)
Which of the following is the only cell in the body that manufactures albumin, fibrinogen, and the prothrombin group of clotting factors?
- Macrophage
- Hepatocyte
- Kupffer cell
- Erythrocyte
Hepatocyte

(AS Cell)
A plasma cell:
- Is a mature B lymphocyte that is specialized for antibody production
- Is any phagocytic cell of the reticuloendothelial system
- Is a mature T lymphocyte that is specialized for cell mediated immunity
- Is a formative cell present in red bone marrow that gives rise to a specific specialized cell
Is a mature B lymphocyte that is specialized for antibody production

(AS Cell)
The two daughter cells formed by mitosis have:
- Identical genetic constitutions
- Exactly half as many genes as the parent cell
- The same amount of cytoplasm as the parent cell
- None of the above
Identical genetic constitutions

(AS Cell)
The nucleolus of a cell functions to:
- Synthesize DNA
- Synthesize mRNA
- Synthesize tRNA
- Synthesize rRNA
Synthesize rRNA

(AS Cell)
A specialized type of cell division that occurs in the formation of gametes such as egg and sperm is called:
- Mitosis
- Meiosis
- Binary fusion
- Conjugation
Meiosis

(AS Cell)
During the fourth week of embryonic life there appears, immediately behind the ventral ends of the two halves of the mandibular arch (process), a rounded swelling named the tuberculum impar which gives the first indication of:
- Salivary gland development in the embryo
- Tongue development in the embryo
- Palatine tonsil development in the embryo
- Small intestine development in the embryo
Tongue development in the embryo

(AS Emb)
Which part of the face is the first to form in the embryo?
- The maxilla
- The mandible
Mandible

(AS Emb)
Which is the cartilaginous bar of the first branchial arch?
- Meckel's cartilage
- Reichert's cartilage
- Thyroid cartilage
- Cricoid cartilage
Meckel's cartilage

(AS Emb)
Which pharyngeal pouch gives rise to the superior parathyroid gland and C-cells of the thyroid gland?
- First
- Second
- Third
- Fourth
- Fifth
Fourth

(AS Emb)
During the fourth week of embryonic development, the first branchial arch divides to form:
- The two lateral nasal processes
- The mandibular and maxillary processes
- The two medial nasal processes
- The lateral and medial nasal processes
The mandibular and maxillary process

(AS Emb)
The corticospinal tract is the:
- Largest ascending tract of the spinal cord
- Largest descending tract of the spinal cord
- Smallest ascending tract of the spinal cord
- Smallest descending tract of the spinal cord
Largest descending tract of the spinal cord

(AS Nrv S)
Between the maxillary processes and the mandibular processes (of the first branchial arch) there is an ectoderm-lined invagination called the:
- Medial tongue bud
- Frontonasal prominence
- Stomodeum
- Tuberculum impar
Stomodeum

(AS Emb)
The primary palate develops as a result of the merger of the two:
- Maxillary processes
- Lateral nasal processes
- Mandibular processes
- Medial nasal processes
Medial nasal processes

(AS Emb)
Which type of epithelium would be found lining the male urethra?
- Simple squamous epithelium
- Stratified squamous epithelium
- Stratified cuboidal epithelium
- Pseudostratified columnar epithelium
Stratified squamous epithelium

(AS Tis)
Which cell type is most common in the epidermis of the skin?
- Melanocytes
- Keratinocytes
- Kupffer
- Mesenchymal
Keratinocytes

(AS Tis)
Extracellular fluid:
- Is composed mainly of transcellular fluids
- Makes up the major proportion of total body water
- Has a higher sodium/potassium ratio than intracellular fluid
- Contains less glucose than intracellular fluid
Has a higher sodium/potassium ratio than intracellular fluid

(AS Misc.)
Which of the following is a sheet of amorphus extracellular material upon which the basal surfaces of epithelial cells rest?
- Plasma membrane
- Basement membrane
- Epidermis
- Microvilli
Basement membrane

(AS Tis)
The oral epithelium is covered by a layer of:
- Stratified cuboidal epithelium
- Stratified squamous epithelium
- Stratified columnar epithelium
- Pseudostratified columnar epithelium
Stratified squamous epithelium

(AS Tis)
Which type of epithelium is unique in that not all of its cells contact the basal lamina?
- Simple epithelium
- Stratified epithelium
- Pseudostratified epithelium
Stratified epithelium

(AS Tis)
The human body contains four basic types of tissue. Which type is classified according to number of cell layers and the shape of the cells on its surface?
- Nervous tissue
- Muscle tissue
- Connective tissue
- Epithelial tissue
Epithelial tissue

(AS Tis)
Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium is found most heavily along the:
- Digestive tract
- Urinary tract
- Respiratory tract
- All of the above
Respiratory tract

(AS Tis)
The human body contains four basic types of tissue. Which one bonds, supports, and protects body parts?
- Epithelium
- Connective tissue
- Muscle tissue
- Nerve tissue
Connective tissue

(AS Tis)
What is the function of hyaline cartilage during endochondral ossification in a long bone of an extremity?
- Provides a region where bone can grow in width
- Provides a region where bone can grow in length
- Hyaline cartilage has no function during endochondral ossification in a long bone
Provides a region where bone can grow in length

(AS Tis)
Cartilage tissues are generally slow to heal following an injury because:
- Cartilage does not undergo mitosis
- The matrix is semisolid
- Cartilage is avascular
- Chondrocytes are surrounded by fluids
Cartilage is avascular

(AS Tis)
Which area of the oral cavity has mucosa that is lined with keratinized epithelium?
- Soft palate
- Gingiva
- Sublingual regions
- Buccal regions
Gingiva

(AS Tis)
The most common type of cartilage is:
- Fibrocartilage
- Hyaline cartilage
- Elastic cartilage
Hyaline cartilage

(AS Tis)
Bands of fibrous connective tissue that attach muscle to the fibrous membrane that covers bones (periosteum) are called:
- Tendons
- Chorda tendinae
- Ligaments
- Menisci
Tendons

(AS Tis)
What structures act as "molecular sponges" and hold water in the extracellular matrix of cartilage?
- Glycosaminoglycans
- Glycoproteins
- Oxytalans
- Elaunins
Glycosaminoglycans

(AS Tis)
Which are found between the basal cells of epithelia and the underlying basal lamina?
- Focal contacts and hemidesmosomes
- Hemidesmosomes and gap junctions
- Desmosomes and gap junctions
- Gap junctions and focal contacts
Focal contacts and hemidesmosomes

(AS Tis)
Which type of connective tissue makes up organ capsules and allows resistance to stress in multiple directions?
- Loose connective tissue
- Dense irregular connective tissue
- Dense regular connective tissue
- Elastic connective tissue
Dense irregular connective tissue

(AS Tis)
Hyaline cartilage occurs in all of the following areas except:
- In the trachea
- In the larynx
- In the epiglottis
- In the tip of the nose
- In the connection between the ribs and the breastbone
In the epiglottis

(AS Tis)
A channel that permits ions and small molecules to move between adjacent cells is called a:
- Tight junction
- Hemidesmosome
- Gap junction
- Intermediate junction
Gap junction

(AS Tis)
Which layer of the dermis is thick and fibrous?
- Papillary layer
- Reticular layer
Reticular layer

(AS Tis)
Which layer of the skin is an elastic system that contains and supports blood vessels, lymphatic vessels, nerves, and epidermal appendages?
- Epidermis
- Dermis
- Hypodermis
Dermis

(AS Tis)
Which is not a component of a junctional complex?
- Tight junctions
- Gap junctions
- Intermediate junctions
- Desmosomes
Gap junctions

(AS Tis)
A localized area of skin that has its sensation via a single nerve from a single nerve root of the spinal cord is called a:
- Fasciculus
- Dermatome
- Spindle
- Bundle
Dermatome

(AS Nrv S)
The functional unit of the nervous system is the:
- Axon
- Dendrite
- Neuron
- Cell body
Neuron

(AS Nrv S)
Which cerebral lobe contains the primary motor (movement) area and influences personality, judgement, abstract reasoning, social behavior, and language expression?
- Frontal lobe
- Parietal lobe
- Occipital lobe
- Temporal lobe
Frontal lobe

(AS Nrv S)
The fasciculi gracilis and cuneatus are the:
- Largest ascending tracts of the spinal cord
- Largest descending tracts of the spinal cord
- Smallest ascending tracts of the spinal cord
- Smallest descending tracts of the spinal cord
Largest ascending tracts of the spinal cord

(AS Nrv S)
Which of the following cells is responsible for myelin formation in the peripheral nervous system?
- Astrocyte
- Oligodendrocyte
- Schwann cell
- Microglial cell
- Satellite cell
Schwann cell

(AS Nrv S)
The system that controls smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and gland activity is the:
- Somatic nervous system
- Autonomic nervous system
- Skeletal division
- Sensory nervous system
Autonomic nervous system

(AS Nrv S)
Which of the following is not a plexus of the spinal nerves?
- Cervical
- Choroid
- Brachial
- Lumbar
Choroid

(AS Nrv S)
Which of the following is not a plexus of the spinal nerves?
- Cervical
- Choroid
- Brachial
- Lumbar
Choroid

(AS Nrv S)
Which laryngeal muscle is innervated by the external branch of the superior laryngeal nerve?
- Posterior cricoarytenoid
- Thyroarytenoid
- Cricothyroid
- Transverse arytenoid
- Lateral cricoarytenoid
Cricothyroid

(AS Nrv)
Which statement concerning the left vagus nerve is false?
- It can be cut on the lower part of the esophagus to reduce gastric secretion (termed a vagotomy)
- It forms the anterior vagal trunk at the lower part of the esophagus
- It passes in front of the left subclavian artery as it enters the thorax
- It contains parasympathetic postganglionic fibers
- It contributes to the anterior esophageal plexus
It contains parasympathetic postganglionic fibers

(AS Nrv)
Which cranial nerve supplies the derivatives of the first branchial arch?
- Glossopharyngeal (IX)
- Trigeminal (V)
- Vagus (X)
- Facial (VII)
Trigeminal (V)

(AS Nrv)
Which nerve arises from the geniculate ganglion?
- Inferior alveolar
- Greater (superficial) petrosal
- Internal laryngeal
- Infraorbital branch of V2
Greater (superficial) petrosal

(AS Nrv)
Which ganglia is located at the level of the cricoid cartilage?
- The superior cervical ganglion
- The middle cervical ganglion
- The inferior cervical ganglion
- The otic ganglion
The middle cervical ganglion

(AS Nrv)
Which nerve provides major sensory innervation to the TMJ?
- Masseteric nerve
- Auriculotemporal nerve
- Facial nerve
- Trochlear nerve
Auriculotemporal nerve

(AS Nrv)
The submandibular ganglion contains preganglionic parasympathetic axons from which cranial nerves?
- Oculomotor
- Facial
- Trigeminal
- Glossopharyngeal
- Vagus
Facial

(AS Nrv)
Which is the largest of the 12 cranial nerves and is the principal sensory nerve to the head, particularly the face?
- Facial nerve
- Trigeminal nerve
- Abducens nerve
- Glossopharyngeal nerve
Trigeminal nerve

(AS Nrv)
The splanchnic nerves (greater, lesser, and least) arise from the:
- Cervical sympathetic chain
- Thoracic sympathetic chain
- Sacral sympathetic chain
Thoracic sympathetic chain

(AS Nrv)
An upper eyelid that droops (ptosis) may be causes by damage to the:
- Trochlear nerve (CN IV)
- Abducens nerve (CN VI)
- Oculomotor nerve (CN III)
- Optic nerve (CN II)
Oculomotor nerve (CN III)

(AS Nrv)
All of the following statements concerning the hypoglossal nerve (CN XII) are true except:
- It is a motor nerve supplying all of the intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of the tongue, except the palatoglossus, which is supplied by the vagus nerve
- It leaves the skull through the jugular foramen medial to the carotid canal
- It passes above the hyoid bone on the lateral surface of the hyoglossus muscle deep to the mylohyoid muscle
- It loops around the occipital artery and passes between the external carotid artery and internal jugular vein
- Soon after it leaves the skull through the hypoglossal canal it is joined by C1 fibers from the cervical plexus
It leaves the skull through the jugular foramen medial to the carotid canal

(AS Nrv)
The path of the recurrent laryngeal nerve differs on the right and left sides of the body. Which one (right or left) separates from the vagus nerve at the level of the aortic arch then loops posteriorly around the aortic arch and ascends through the superior mediastinum to enter the groove between the esophagus and trachea?
- Right recurrent laryngeal nerve
- Left recurrent laryngeal nerve
Left recurrent laryngeal nerve

(AS Nrv)
The optic disc is also called the:
- Hot spot
- Photo spot
- Blind spot
- Red spot
Blind spot

(AS Nrv)
Which nerve has the widest distribution?
- Trigeminal (V)
- Facial (VII)
- Vagus (X)
- Hypoglossal (XII)
Vagus (X)

(AS Nrv)
Which of the following contains the sensory neurons which innervate a small area of skin on the external ear and taste buds on the anterior 2/3 of the tongue?
- The semilunar ganglion
- The geniculate ganglion
- The otic ganglion
- The ciliary ganglion
The geniculate ganglion

(AS Nrv)
Which cranial nerve supplies the posterior belly of the digastric muscle?
- Oculomotor nerve (CN III)
- Facial nerve (CN VII)
- Abducens nerve (CN VI)
- Trochlear nerve (CN IV)
- Trigeminal nerve (CN V)
Facial nerve (CN VII)

(AS Nrv)
Which of the following muscles is/are innervated by the mylohyoid nerve?
- Mylohyoid
- Mylohyoid and anterior belly of the digastric muscle
- Mylohyoid, geniohyoid and thyrohyoid
- Geniohyoid and thyrohyoid
Mylohyoid and anterior belly of the digastric muscle

(AS Nrv)
The X-shaped structure formed by the meeting of the two optic nerves is called the:
- Optic tract
- Lateral geniculate body
- Optic chiasma
- Medial geniculate body
Optic chiasma

(AS Nrv)
Which of the following is a sign of injury to the right abducens nerve?
- Right ptosis
- Loss of light reflexes on the right side
- Inability to adduct the right eye
- Medial deviation of the right eye
- Loss of corneal reflex on the right side
Medial deviation of the right eye

(AS Nrv)
Which cranial nerve provides for the sense of smell?
- Optic (CN II)
- Olfactory (CN I)
- Oculomotor (CN III)
- Trochlear (CN IV)
Olfactory (CN I)

(AS Nrv)
Which muscle is a landmark for locating the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) in the neck?
- Posterior belly of the digastric muscle
- Inferior pharyngeal constrictor muscle
- Stylopharyngeus muscle
- Anterior scalene muscle
Stylopharyngeus muscle

(AS Nrv)
Which nerve carries general sensation from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue?
- Hypoglossal nerve
- Chorda tympani
- Lingual nerve
- Recurrent layngeal nerve
- Glossopharyngeal nerve
Lingual nerve

(AS Nrv)
Which division of the trigeminal nerve exits the cranial cavity through the foramen ovale and supplies motor innervation to the tensor veli palatini, tensor tympani, muscles of mastication (temporalis, masseter, and lateral and medial pterygoid), and the anterior belly of digastric and mylohyoid muscles?
- Ophthalmic division (V1)
- Maxillary division (V2)
- Mandibular division (V3)
Mandibular division (V3)

(AS Nrv)
All of the following statements concerning the cervical plexus and its branches are true except:
- The motor nerves for most of the infrahyoid muscles are branches of the ansa cervicalis (loop formed by C1, C2, and C3)
- Cervical nerves C5-C8 contribute motor fibers to the cervical plexus
- It is positioned deep on the side of the neck, lateral to the first four cervical vertebrae
- An important branch of each cervical plexus is the phrenic nerve which supplies the diaphragm
- The supracervical nerves innervate the skin over the shoulder
- The transverse cervical nerve provides sensory innervation to the anterior and lateral parts of the neck
Cervical nerves C5-C8 contribute motor fibers to the cervical plexus

(AS Nrv)
A lesion of the facial nerve just after it exits from stylomastoid foramen would result in:
- An ipsilateral (same side) loss of taste to the anterior tongue
- A decrease in saliva production in the floor of the mouth
- A sensory loss to the tongue
- An ipsilateral (same side) paralysis of facial muscles
- A contralateral (opposite side) paralysis of facial muscles
An ipsilateral (same side) paralysis of facial muscles

(AS Nrv)
The principal types of nerves found in the dental pulp are:
- Parasympathetic and efferent fibers
- Sympathetic and afferent fibers
- Sympathetic and efferent fibers
- Parasympathetic and afferent fibers
Sympathetic and afferent fibers

(AS Nrv)
Which cranial nerve supplies motor function to the trapezius and sternocleidomastoid muscles?
- Glossopharyngeal (CN IX)
- Vagus (CN X)
- Accessory (CN XI)
- Hypoglossal (CN XII)
Accessory (CN XI)

(AS Nrv)
The brain stem is composed of all of the following except:
- Midbrain
- Pons
- Cerebrum
- Medulla
Cerebrum

(AS Nrv S)
The meninges cover and protect the cerebral cortex and spinal column. They consist of three layers of connective tissue. Which layer is a fragile, fibrous layer of moderate vascularity?
- Dura mater
- Arachnoid mater (membrane)
- Pia mater
Arachnoid mater (membrane)

(AS Nrv S)
The hypothalamus is part of the:
- Basal nuclei
- Diencephalon
- Cerebrum
- Cerebellum
Diencephalon

(AS Nrv S)
Which of the following meningeal structures is located between the cerebral hemispheres?
- Tentorium cerebelli
- Falx cerebri
- Falx cerebelli
- Diaphragma sellae
Falx cerebri

(AS Nrv S)
Which statement concerning the autonomic nervous system is not true?
- It usually operates without any conscious control
- It regulates visceral activities
- All of its axons are afferent fibers
- It contains rami and ganglia
All of its axons are afferent fibers

(AS Nrv S)
Neuron cell bodies are located in:
- White matter of the spinal cord
- Meninges
- Gray matter of the spinal cord
Gray matter of the spinal cord

(AS Nrv S)
Growth of which tissue causes the folding of the embryo during the fourth week of development?
- Epithelial
- Connective
- Muscular
- Neural
Neural

(AS Nrv S)
Parasympathetic effects:
- Prepare the body to resist stress
- Lead to acceleration of body activity
- Cause rage and emotional reactions
- Maintain normality of body functions
- All of the above
Maintain normality of body functions

(AS Nrv S)
Non-neuronal cells of the CNS that perform supportive and other ancillary functions are called:
- Ganglia
- Neuroglia
- Centrosomes
- Interneurons
Neuroglia

(AS Nrv S)
The information about touch and pain is transmitted to the spinal cord and brain by:
- Primary efferent axons
- Primary afferent axons
- Both
- Neither
Primary afferent axons

(AS Nrv S)
An occlusion in a choroid plexus would interfere with an individual's ability to:
- Breathe
- Carry on peristalsis
- Form cerebrospinal fluid
- Store glycogen
Form cerebrospinal fluid

(AS Nrv S)
All pregnaglionic and postganglionic neurons of the parasympathetic nervous system release:
- Dopamine
- Norepinephrine
- Acetylcholine
- Epinephrine
Acetylcholine

(AS Nrv S)
Which of the following is located at the opening between the small and large intestines?
- Ligament of Treitz
- Cardiac sphincter
- Ileocecal valve
- Pyloric sphincter
- Tricuspid valve
Ileocecal valve

(AS GI S)
Which space is entered when performing a spinal tap?
- Arachnoid space
- Central canal
- Subarachnoid space
- Conus medullaris
Subarachnoid space

(AS Nrv S)
Which part of the pancreas sits within the "C" shaped curve of the duodenum?
- Head
- Body
- Tail
Head

(AS GI S)
Which organ stores and concentrates bule produced in the liver?
- Appendix
- Spleen
- Gallbladder
- Pancreas
Gallbladder

(AS GI S)
The point of exit from the stomach, where it joins the small intestine, is guarded by a:
- Greater omentum
- Pyloric sphincter
- Lesser omentum
- Cardiac orifice
Pyloric sphincter

(AS GI S)
Which of the following is a muscular tube that connects the pharynx to the stomach?
- Duodenum
- Esophagus
- Ascending colon
- Ureter
Esophagus

(AS GI S)
All of the following comparisons between the ileum and the jejunum are correct except:
- They are both suspended by mesentery
- The ileum has more plicae circulares (valves of Kerckring) and more villi
- Less digestion and absorption of nutrients occur in the ileum
- The mesentery of the ileum contains more fat
The ileum has more plicae circulares (valves of Kerckring) and more villi

(AS GI S)
Which statement concerning the liver is false?
- It is the body's largest and most active organ
- It receives blood from the hepatic artery and portal vein
- It receives autonomic nerve fibers from the celiac plexus
- Its function is to store and concentrate bile
- The caudate lobe of the liver is separated from the right lobe by the inferior vena cava and from the left lobe by the fissure for the ligamentum venosum
- The quadrate lobe of the liver is separated from the right lobe by the gallbladder and from the left lobe by the fissure for ligamentum teres
Its function is to store and concentrate bile

(AS GI S)
Which cells of the mucosal villi of the small intestine secrete mucus?
- Enteroendocrine cells
- Absorptive cells
- Goblet cells
- Paneth cells
Goblet cells

(AS GI S)
Taeniae coli are characteristic of which organ?
- Stomach
- Pancreas
- Large intestine
- Small intestine
Large intestine

(AS GI S)
Brunner's glands are found in the submucosa of the:
- Stomach
- Duodenum
- Jejunum
- Ileum
Duodenum

(AS GI S)
Which comparison between the large intestine and small intestine is false?
- The large intestine is about one fourth the size of the small intestine
- The lumen of the large intestine is of a greater diameter than that of the small intestine
- The smooth muscle coat of the large intestine consists of three bands called taeniae coli that cause the colon to form pouches (called haustra). The small intestine lacks this characteristic.
- The walls of the large intestine have more villi than the small intestine
- The external surface of the large intestine has small areas of fat filled peritoneum called epiploic appendages. The small intestine lacks this characteristic.
The walls of the large intestine have more villi than the small intestine

(AS GI S)
The mediastinum is divided into four areas. Which area contains the heart and pericardial sac?
- Superior mediastinum
- Anterior mediastinum
- Middle mediastinum
- Posterior mediastinum
Middle mediastinum

(AS Misc.)
The abdomen is divided into nine regions by four imaginary planes. Which region contains portions of the diaphragm, kidneys, and stomach, the spleen, and part of the pancreas?
- Umbilical
- Epigastric
- Right and left lumbar
- Right and left hypochondriac
- Hypogastric
- Right and left iliac
Right and left hypochondriac

(AS Misc.)
Which of the following structures is retroperitoneal?
- Transverse colon
- Spleen
- Ileum
- Descending colon
- Jejunum
Descending colon

(AS Misc.)
The middle ear (tympanic cavity) communicates anteriorly with the nasopharynx via the:
- Acoustic apparatus
- Vestibular apparatus
- Auditory tube
- External acoustic (auditory) meatus
Auditory tube

(AS Misc.)
Which abdominal organ is not retroperitoneal?
- Kidney
- Aorta
- Adrenal gland (suprarenal gland)
- Liver
- Pancreas
- Ureter
Liver

(AS Misc.)
Which structure divides the anterior body cavity into an upper thoracic cavity and a lower abdominopelvic cavity?
- Liver
- Diaphragm
- Stomach
- Lungs
Diaphargm

(AS Misc.)
Consider the following 3 tubes --> 1. Epididymis 2. Oviduct 3. Ejaculatory Duct
Which of the following is the correct order sperm travels through them?
- 1, 3, 2
- 3, 1, 3
- 2, 1, 3
- 2, 3, 1
1, 3, 2

(AS Rpr S)
The site of oogenesis is the:
- Ovary
- Ovum
- Oocyte
- Oviduct
- Ovarian lacunae
Ovary

(AS Rpr S)
Regarding the anatomy of the inguinal canal, all of the following statements are true about it except:
- Its floor is predominantly formed by the inguinal ligament
- Its deep ring is located just lateral to the inferior epigastric artery
- Its roof is formed by arching fibers of the internal oblique and transversus muscles
- Its deep ring is formed by periotoneum
- Its superficial ring is formed by the aponeurosis of the external oblique muscle
Its deep ring is formed by peritoneum

(AS Rpr S)
All of the following statements concerning the breast and mammary gland are true except:
- The nipple usually lies at the level of the fourth intercostal space
- The mammary glands lie in the deep fascia
- The mammary gland is actually a modified sweat gland
- The breast receives arterial blood through branches of the lateral thoracic (branch of the axillary artery) and internal thoracic arteries
- Fibrous Cooper's ligaments support the breasts
The mammary glands lie in the deep fascia

(AS Rpr S)
Fertilization occurs in the distal portion of the:
- Ovaries
- Uterine tubes
- Uterus
- Labia majora
Uterine tubes

(AS Rpr S)
The urethra:
- Transfers urine from the renal pelvises of the kidneys to the urinary bladder
- Collects urine and finnels it to the ureter
- Converys urine from the urinary bladder to the outside of the body
- Regulates acid base balance by the secretion of hydrogen ions
Conveys urine from the urinary bladder to the outside of the body

(AS Rpr S)
The gonads consist of:
- The uterus in females and the epididymis in males
- The vagina in females and the ductus deferens in males
- The ovaries in females and the testes in males
- The uterine tubes in females and the ejaculatory ducts in males
The ovaries in females and the testes in males

(AS Rpr S)
Which organ of the male reproductive system encloses and protects the testes?
- Prostate gland
- Ductus deferens
- Scrotum
- Penis
Scrotum

(AS Rpr S)
The trachea bifurcates into right and left primary bronchi at the level of the:
- Plane of the sternal angle
- Suprasternal (or jugular) notch
- First rib
- Seventh cervical vertebra
- Xiphoid process
Plane of the sternal angle

(AS Rsp S)
The cardiac notch is an indentation in the left lung that provides room for the:
- Liver
- Heart
- Trachea
- Kidney
Heart

(AS Rsp S)
What are the three major structures found in the root of the lung?
- Pulmonary artery
- Pulmonary vein
- Superior vena cava
- Primary Bronchus
Pulmonary artery
Pulmonary vein
Primary bronchus

(AS Rsp S)
The final divisions of the bronchioles within the respiratory tree and the first to permit gaseous exchange with the blood are called the:
- Terminal bronchioles
- Respiratory bronchioles
- Primary bronchioles
- Tertiary bronchioles
Respiratory bronchioles

(AS Rsp S)
Which type of epithelium would you expect to find lining the lumen of the nasal cavity?
- Squamous ciliated epithelium without goblet cells
- Transitional epithelium with goblet cells
- Olfactory epithelium
- All of the above
- None of the above
Olfactory epithelium

(AS Rsp S)
Which statement concerning the respiratory system is false?
- It has two major parts --> the conducting part (a branching, tree like set of hollow tubes) and a respiratory part (smallest tubes and thin walled pouches in which gas exchange takes place)
- The lungs lie in the mediastinum
- Cartilaginous rings are found in the main bronchi
- The left lung has a smaller capacity than the right lung
- Clusters of alveoli called alveolar sacs form the functional unit of the lung
The lungs lies in the mediastinum

(AS Rsp S)
An emergency cricothyrotomy:
- Involves an incision into the trachea
- Usually damages the vocal ligaments
- Usually involves an incision through the isthmus of the thyroid gland
- Involves an incision below the thyroid cartilage and above the cricoid cartilage
- Involves an incision into the vestibule of the larynx
Involves an incision below the thyroid cartilage and above the cricoid cartilage

(AS Rsp S)
The auditory tube, salpingopharyngeal fold, pharyngeal recess, and pharyngeal tonsils (adenoids) are all located in the:
- Nasopharynx
- Laryngopharynx
- Oropharynx
- None of the above
Nasopharynx

(AS Rsp S)
What two processes merge to form most of the upper lip?
- Maxillary processes
- Frontonasal processes
- Mandibular processes
Maxillary processes

(AS Emb)
To which ganglion does the glossopharyngeal nerve supply preganglionic parasympathetic fibers?
- Semilunar ganglion
- Otic ganglion
- Geniculate ganglion
- Submandibular ganglion
Otic ganglion

(AS Nrv)
Which of the following is the functional unit of the kidney, responsible for the actual purification and filtration of the blood?
- Glomerular capsule
- Renal pelvis
- Glomerulus
- Nephron
Nephron

(AS Urn S)
In the human kidney, the renal papilla projects directly into the:
- Renal pyramid
- Ureter
- Major calyx
- Renal columns
- Minor calyx
Minor calyx

(AS Urn S)
Which statement concerning urine is false?
- Adults pass about a quart and a half of urine each day, depending on the fluids and foods consumed
- The volume of urine formed at night is about half that formed in the daytime
- Normal urine is sterile. It contains fluids, salts, and waste products, but is free of bacteria, viruses, and fungi
- The tissues of the bladder are isolated from urine and toxic substances by a coating that discourages bacteria from attaching and growing on the bladder wall
- Urine formation is the result of three processes: glomerular filtration, tubular reabsorption and tubular secretion
- The ureters regulate reabsorption and secretion, this determining the composition of excreted urine
The ureters regular reabsorption and secretion, thus determining the composition of excreted urine

(AS Urn S)
Fibromuscular tubes which convery urine from the kidney to the bladder are called:
- Renal pyramids
- Ureters
- Urethra
- Renal columns
Ureters

(AS Urn S)
An overlap of actin and myosin filaments occurs in the:
- A Band
- I Band
- Z Line
- H Band
- M Line
A Band

(AS Msl)
Which longitudinal muscle of the pharynx is innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerve?
- Stylopharyngeus
- Palatopharyngeus
- Salpingopharyngeus
- None of the above
Stylopharyngeus

(AS Msl)
The uvula is suspended from the:
- Hard palate
- Soft palate
- Palatal raphe
- Tongue
Soft palate

(AS Msl)
Which two muscles form a sling aroung the angle of the mandible?
- Medial pterygoid and lateral pterygoid
- Posterior belly of digastric and lateral pterygoid
- Masseter and medial pterygoid
- Buccinator and anterior belly of digastric
Masseter and medial pterygoid

(AS Msl)
Which muscle is not a muscle of mastication?
- Masseter
- Temporalis
- Buccinator
- Medial pterygoid
- Lateral pterygoid
Buccinator

(AS Msl)
Which muscle assists in extension, adduction, and medially rotates the upper arm?
- Pectoralis major
- Latissimus dorsi
- Deltoid
- Teres major
- Teres minor
Teres major

(AS Msl)
Most of the muscles that act on the shoulder girdle and upper limb joints are supplied by branches of the brachial plexus. Which of the following is not?
- Serratus anterior
- Pectoralis minor
- Subclavius
- Trapezius
- Levator scapulae
- Rhomboideus major
- Rhomboideus minor
Trapezius

(AS Msl)
During an oral examination, you have a patient stick out his/her tongue and say AAH. The muscle that is responsible for this movement is the:
- Genioglossus
- Hyoglossus
- Styloglossus
- Palatoglossus
Genioglossus

(AS Msl)
All of the following statements concerning the temporalis muscle are true except:
- It is fan shaped and originates from the bony floor of the temporal fossa and from the deep surface of the temporal fascia
- The anterior and superior fibers elevate the mandible; the posterior fibers retract the mandible
- It inserts on the coronoid process of the mandible and the anterior border of the ramus of the mandible
- It is innervated by the maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve (V2)
- It is considered to be one of the muscles of mastication
It is innervated by the maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve (V2)

(AS Msl)
The alveolar processes of the maxilla and mandible as well as the pterygomaxillary ligament and pterygomandibular raphe are attachments for what muscle?
- Masseter
- Temporalis
- Buccinator
- Medial pterygoid
- Lateral pterygoid
Buccinator

(AS Msl)
When you inhale, the diaphragm:
- Does not move
- Moves upward
- Moves downward
- Relaxes
Moves downward

(AS Msl)
All of the following five paired skeletal muscles of the soft palate are innervated by the pharyngeal plexus (CN IX, CN X), except the:
- Palatoglossus muscle
- Palatopharyngeus muscle
- Levator veli palatini muscle
- Tensor veli palatini muscle
- Uvular muscle
Tensor veli palatini

(AS Msl)
When a muscle contracts, tension develops because of:
- The interaction between the actin and myosin filaments
- A slackening within the connective tissue elements
- The length tension relationship
- The shortening of the actin filament
The interaction between the actin and myosin filaments

(AS Msl)
The intrinsic muscles of the thorax (thoracic wall) are involved in what process?
- Swallowing
- Breathing
- Laughing
- Digestion
Breathing

(AS Msl)
There are four important paired muscles in the anterior abdominal wall, which muscle below is not one of them?
- External oblique
- Internal oblique
- Quadratus lumborum
- Rectus abdominis
- Transversus abdominis
Quadratus lumborum

(AS Msl)
The rectus femoris muscle acts at the:
- Hip joint
- Knee joint
- Both
- Neither
Both

(AS Msl)
The connective tissue layer that bundles skeletal muscle fibers into fascicles is the:
- Perichondrium
- Perineurium
- Perimysium
- Epimysium
- Endomysium
Perimysium

(AS Msl)
Which circular muscle of the pharynx originate from the greater and lesser horns of the hyoid bone?
- Superior constrictor
- Middle constrictor
- Inferior constrictor
Middle constrictor

(AS Msl)
Which laryngeal muscle is innervated by the external laryngeal branch of the superior laryngeal nerve?
- Cricothyroid
- Thyroarytenoid
- Posterior cricoarytenoid
- Transverse arytenoid
- Lateral cricoarytenoid
Cricothyroid

(AS Msl)
The walls of hollow organs and some blood vessels contain:
- Striated muscle tissue
- Skeletal muscle tissue
- Cardiac muscle tissue
- Voluntary muscle tissue
- Smooth muscle tissue
Smooth muscle tissue

(AS Msl)
Which muscle separates the anterior and posterior triangles of the neck?
- Digastric
- Mylohyoid
- Sternocleidomastoid
- Omohyoid
Sternocleidomastoid

(AS Msl)
The axilla, or armpit, is a localized region of the body between the upper humerus and thorax. It provides a passageway for the large, important arteries, nerves, veins and lymphatics which insure that the upper limb functions properly. The muscle that forms the bulk of the anterior axillary fold is the:
- Latissimus dorsi
- Pectoralis major
- Subscapularis
- Teres minor
- Teres major
Pectoralis major

(AS Msl)
All of the following statements concerning cardiac muscle fibers are true except:
- Make up the thick, middle layer of the heart known as the myocardium
- Have larger t tubules and less developed sarcoplasmic reticula as compared to skeletal muscle fibers
- In contract to skeletal muscle fibers, cardiac muscle fibers are short, branched, and single or binucleated
- Their characteristic feature is the presence of intercalated discs
- Cardiac muscle fibers have fewer mitochondria between myofibrils and are poorer in myoglobin than most skeletal muscle fibers
Cardiac muscle fibers have fewer mitochondria between myofibrils and are poorer in myoglobin than most skeletal muscle fibers

(AS Msl)
Which two arches are formed by the anterior and posterior pillars of the fauces?
- Palatoglossus arch
- Zygomatic arch
- Costal arch
- Palatopharyngeal arch
Palatoglossus arch
Palatopharyngeal arch

(AS Msl)
All of the following statements are true concerning the triangle of auscultation except:
- It is a small depressed area of the back that is located below the inferior angle of the scapula
- It is bounded by the trapezius muscle medially, rhomboideus major muscle superiorly, and the latissimus dorsi muscle inferiorly
- The floor of the triangle is formed by the sternocleidomastoid muscle
- It is the site where breathing sounds can be heard most clearly
The floor of the triangle is formed by the sternocleidomastoid muscle

(AS Msl)
Which of the following statements concerning the tongue is correct?
- All extrinsic muscles are innervated by cranial nerve XII (hypoglossal)
- General sensory innervation to the anterior 2/3 is provided by the glossopharyngeal nerve
- Protrusion of the tongue requires contraction of the genioglossus muscle
- Contains one extrinsic muscle innervated by the lingual nerve
Protrusion of the tongue requires contraction of the genioglossus muscle

(AS Msl)
The distal attachment (insertion) of the triceps brachii muscle is:
- Coronoid process of the ulna
- Olecranon process of ulna
- Styloid process of ulna
- Radial notch of ulna
- Ulnar tuberosity
Olecranon process of ulna

(AS Msl)
During an inferior alveolar nerve block injection, the needle passes through the mucous membrane and the buccinator muscle and lies lateral to which muscle?
- Masseter
- Temporalis
- Medial pterygoid
- Lateral pterygoid
Medial pterygoid

(AS Msl)
When a patient attempts protrusion, the mandible deviates markedly to the left. Which muscle is unable to contract?
- Left lateral pterygoid
- Right lateral pterygoid
- Temporalis muscle
- Buccinator
Left lateral pterygoid

(AS Msl)
Which muscles elevate and close the mandible?
- Medial pterygoid, digastric (both anterior and posterior belly), and lateral pterygoid
- Digastric (both anterior and posterior belly), and lateral pterygoid
- Medial pterygoid, temporalis, and masseter
- Digastric (both anterior and posterior belly), temporalis, and masseter
Medial pterygoid, temporalis, and masseter

(AS Msl)
The cell type least likely to contain more than one nucleus is a:
- Skeletal muscle cell
- Cardiac muscle cell
- Smooth muscle cell
Smooth muscle cell

(AS Msl)
The filiform papillae are found on the:
- Back of the tongue
- Tip and sides of the tongue
- Anterior two thirds of the tongue
- Dorsum of the tongue
Anterior two thirds of the tongue

(AS Msl)
Which of the following refers to the sarcoplasmic reticulum present in skeletal muscle?
- Releases and stores phosphate ions during muscle contraction and relaxation
- Releases and stores glucose during muscle contraction and relaxation
- Releases and stores calcium ions during muscle contraction and relaxation
- None of the above
Releases and stores calcium ions during muscle contraction and relaxation

(AS Msl)
A long depression or a V-shaped valley on the occlusal surface of a posterior tooth between ridges and cusps is referred to as a:
- Fossa
- Fissure
- Pit
- Sulcus
Sulcus

(DA
For every contact area there is (are):
- One embrasure
- Two embrasures
- Three embrasures
- Four embrasures
Four embrasures

(DA
Which statement concerning proximal contact areas is true?
- They support neighboring teeth, which thereby stabilizes the dental arches
- They prevent food particles from entering the interproximal areas
- They protect the interdental papillae of the gingiva by shunting foor toward the buccal and lingual areas
- They form embrasures
- All of the above statements concerning proximal contact areas are true
All of the above statements concerning proximal contact areas are true

(AS
All of the following are true concerning developmental grooves except:
- They are braod, deep, linear depressions
- They are formed during tooth development
- They usually separate the primary parts of the crown or root
- They are important escape ways for cusps during lateral and protrusive jaw motions and for food particles during mastication
They are broad, deep, linear depressions

(DA
Memelons are found on newly erupting:
- Molars
- Canines
- Premolars
- Incisors
Incisors

(DA
Which of the following types of ridges is unique to permanent maxillary molars?
- A labial ridge
- A marginal ridge
- An oblique ridge
- A transverse ridge
An oblique ridge

(DA
The interdental space is the (that):
- Occlusal (incisal) border at which the gingiva meets the tooth
- Portion of the gingiva that fills the interproximal space
- Collar of tissue that is not attached to the tooth or alveolar bone
- Band or zone of gray to light or coral pink keratinized masticatory mucosa that is firmly bound down to the underlying bone
Portion of the gingiva that fills the interproximal space

(DA
The chewing surface of posterior teeth is referred to as the:
- Clinical crown
- Incisal edge
- Occlusal surface
- Anatomic crown
Occlusal surface

(DA
Any untion of two triangular ridges produces a single ridge which is called:
- A cusp ridge
- A marginal ridge
- A transverse ridge
- A proximal ridge
A transverse ridge

(DA
A small elevation of enamel found on the crown portion of a tooth would be classified as a:
- Tubercle
- Mamelon
- Ridge
- Developmental depression
Tubercle

(DA
The minimum number of lobes from which any tooth may develop is:
- Two
- Three
- Four
- Five
Four

(DA
Any linear elevation on the surface of a tooth is called:
- An incline
- A prominence
- A ridge
- A tuberosity
A ridge

(DA
The meeting of three surfaces on a tooth is called a:
- Line angle
- Point angle
- Midline
- Developmental depression
Point angle

(DA
A V-shaped area located between the contact point of two teeth and the gingival crest is called:
- A contact area
- An occlusal curvature
- A gingival space
- An embrasure
An embrasure

(DA
The dental lamina is induced to proliferate into a tooth bud by the:
- Basement membrane
- Epithelial nerves
- Ectomesenchyme
- Oral epithelium
Ectomesenchyme

(DA
In its mature state, enamel is:
- 47% mineralized
- 68% mineralized
- 87% mineralized
- 96% mineralized
96% mineralized

(DA
Enamel consists of approximately:
- 10% inorganic minerals, 70% organic materials, and 20% water
- 50% inorganic minerals, 45% organic materials, and 5% water
- 75% inorganic minerals, 15% organic materials, and 10% water
- 96% inorganic minerals, 1% organic materials, and 3% water
96% inorganic minerals, 1% organic materials, and 3% water

(DA
Below are the usual events in the histogenesis of a tooth. Place them in their correct sequence --> from what happens first to what happens last.
- Deposition of the first layer of dentin
- Differentiation of odontoblasts
- Deposition of the first layer of enamel
- Elongation of the inner enamel epithelial cells
1. Elongation of the inner enamel epithelium
2. Differentiation of odontoblasts
3. Deposition of the first layer of dentin
4. Deposition of the first layer of enamel

(DA
The findamental morphologic unit of enamel is the:
- Enamel tuft
- Enamel spindle
- Enamel rod
- Enamel lamellae
Enamel rod

(DA
The dental pulp is a connective tissue that develops from the:
- Enamel organ
- Dental papilla
- Dental sac
Dental papilla

(DA
Which layer of the enamel organ is essential for the initiation of dentin formation once enamel is formed?
- Outer enamel epithelium
- Inner enamel epithelium
- Stratum intermedium
- Stellate reticulum
Inner enamel epithelium

(DA
Which cell is in greatest abundance in the tooth pulp?
- Odontoblasts
- Histiocytes
- Reserve cells
- Fibroblasts
Fibroblasts

(DA
The composition of dentin is:
- 50% organic, 40% inorganic, and 10% water
- 60% organic, 35% inorganic, and 5% water
- 20% organic, 70% inorganic, and 10% water
- 30% organic, 68% inorganic, and 2% water
20% organic, 70% inorganic, and 10% water

(DA
The primary function of the dental pulp is to:
- Protect the periodontium
- Form enamel
- Form dentin
- Assure root end closure
Form dentin

(DA
The stage of tooth development in which the physiological process of differentiation occurs to its fullest extent is called:
- Initiation
- Bud stage
- Cap stage
- Bell stage
- Appositional stage
- Maturation stage
Bell stage

(DA
Which cells form cementum?
- Cementoclasts
- Odontoblasts
- Cementoblasts
- Ameloblasts
Cementoblasts

(DA
The main function of cementum is:
- To compensate for tooth wear by depositing apical cementum
- Reparative in nature
- To provide rough surface anchorage for attachment of Sharpey's fibers
- Protection of the root surface
To provide rough surface anchorage for attachment of Sharpey's fibers

(DA
The peripheral layer of dentin, which is the first layer of dentin deposited, is called:
- Mantle dentin
- Peritubular dentin
- Intertubular dentin
- Interglobular dentin
Mantle dentin

(DA
Which of the following is formed very rapidly in response to irritants?
- Primary dentin
- Secondary dentin
- Reparative dentin
- Sclerotic dentin
Reparative dentin

(DA
The application of excessive heat to a tooth results in pain because:
- Excessive stimulation of a heat receptor always results in pain
- Heat receptors in the pulp have a low treshold to pain
- All stimuli to the pulp results in a pain sensation
- Blood vessels of the pulp expand and cause strangulation of the tissue
All stimuli to the pulp results in a pain sensation

(DA
Which structure is the remnant of the onset of enamel formation?
- Cementoenamel junction (CEJ)
- Dentinoenamel junction (DEJ)
- Pulp chamber
- Mucogingival junction (MGJ)
Dentinoenamel junction (DEJ)

(DA
In the diagram below of Posselt's envelope of mandibular motion (sagittal section), which letter designates the protruded contact position?
A__B__C

....
....


...D....


...
.../

...
..E

../.../

.
../.
..F....
A

(DA
How many planes of movement can the mandible move in?
- One
- Two
- Three
- Four
Three

(DA
When the mandible is in its physiologic rest or postural position, the contact of teeth is:
- Maximum
- Not present
- Premature
- Slight
Not present

(DA
View anteiorly, which shape represents a chewing stroke?
- Diamond
- Posselt's sagittal envelope
- Shield
- Droplet
- Vertical line
Droplet

(DA
When a mandibular movement to the right is performed, which condyle moves forward, downward and medially?
- Working condyle (right)
- Non working condyle (left)
Non working condyle (left)

(DA
Which jaw position is a ligament-guided position?
- Centric occlusion (CO)
- Centric relation (CR)
- Rest position of the mandible
Centric relation (CR)

(DA
During a working side movement of the mandible, the oblique ridge of a maxillary first molar passes through which sulcus of a permanent mandibular first molar?
- Mesiobuccal sulcus
- Distobuccal sulcus
- Mesiolingual sulcus
- Distolingual sulcus
Distobuccal sulcus

(DA
During typical empty mouth swallowing, the mandible is braced in which jaw position to allow for proper stabilization?
- Centric relation (CR)
- Intercuspal position (IC)
- Retruded contact position (RCP)
- Protruded contact position (PCP)
Intercuspal position (IC)

(DA
Occlusal adjustment may also be known as:
- Restoring cuspid guidance
- Restoring group function
- Equilibration
- Restoring the hinge axis
Equilibration

(DA
All of the following are theoretical determinants needed for restoring a complete and functional occlusal surface of a tooth except:
- The amount of vertical overlap of the anterior teeth
- The contour of the articular eminence
- The height of the pulp horm of that particular tooth
- The amount and direction of lateral shift in the working side condyle
- The position of the tooth in the arch
The height of the pulp horn of that particular tooth

(DA
Which term refers to tooth contacts wile the mandible is in action, such as during mastication and swallowing?
- Centric relation
- Centric occlusion
- Functional occlusion
Functional occlusion

(DA
The determinant factors of occlusion include all of the following except:
- The temperomandibular joint
- The masticatory muscles
- The ear facebow measurement
- The biomechanics of the temperomandibular joint
- The dentition and the occlusal table
The ear facebow measurement

(DA
In the early stages of lateral movements, the condyle appears to rotate with a slight lateral shift in the direction of movement. This movement is called the Bennett movement. This Bennett movement refers to the:
- Non working side condyle only
- Working side condyle only
- Both the non working and working side condyles
Working side condyle only

(DA
Anterior guidance is the result of:
- Horizontal overlap
- Vertical overlap
- Both horizontal and vertical overlap
- None of the above
Both horizontal and vertical overlap

(DA
Which curve of the occlusal plane is depicted by a line tracing the occlusal contacts of teeth from a side view?
- Curve of Spee
- Curve of Wilson
Curve of Spee

(DA
The vertical distance by which maxillary incisors overlap the mandibular incisors is referred to as:
- Overjet
- Overbite
- Underjet
- Openbite
Overbite

(DA
The mandible functions as a:
- Class I lever
- Class II lever
- Class III lever
Class III lever

(DA
The fusion of the alveolar bone to a tooth is referred to as:
- Ankylosis
- Hypercementosis
- Concrescence
- Mesiodens
Ankylosis

(DA
The abnormal or pathological wearing away of tooth structure by a mechanical means is referred to as:
- Erosion
- Abrasion
- Attrition
Abrasion

(DA
How does the maxillary arch generally compate in length with the mandibular arch?
- It is exactly the same
- It is slightly longer
- It is slightly shorter
It is slightly longer

(DA
The human dentition is composed of seceral kinds of teeth, serving a variety of functions. The term to denote this is:
- Polyphyodont dentition
- Homodont dentition
- Heterodont dentition
- Monophydont dentition
Heterodont dentition

(DA
All of the following have been implicated as causes of cleft lip/palate except:
- Drugs (including several different anti seizure drugs)
- Infections
- Vitamin D excess
- Maternal illness
- Maternal smoking and slcohol use
VItamin D excess

(DA
A child has maxillary incisor protrusion, an anterior open bite, crowded lower anteriors, and a high palatal vault. Which of the following most likely caused this problem?
- Mouth breathing
- Thumb sucking
- Tongue thrusting
- Using a pacifier
- Nocturnal bruxism
Thumb sucking

(DA
A developmental abnormality characterized by the total absence of teeth is called:
- Hypodontia
- Anodontia
- Diphyodontia
- Hypsodontia
Anodontia

(DA
Which surfaces have a trapezoidal outline?
- Lingual and labial of posterior teeth
- Lingual and facial of all teeth
- Lingual and buccal of anterior teeth
- Proximal surfaces of anterior teeth
- Proximal surfaces of all posterior teeth
Lingual and facial of all teeth

(DA
A hereditary dental defect in which enamel of the teeth is soft and undercalcified in contxt yet normal in quantity is called:
- Enamel hypoplasia
- Enamel hypocalcification
- Fluorosis
Enamel hypocalcification

(DA
Which suprahyoid muscle elevates the tongue?
- Mylohyoid
- Geniohyoid
- Digastric
- Stylohyoid
Geniohyoid

(DA
Which infrahyoid muscle pulls the larynx downward?
- Sternothyroid
- Sternohyoid
- Omohyoid
- Thyrohyoid
Sternothyroid

(DA
Which muscle plays a subsidary role in mastication?
- Masseter
- Buccinator
- Orbicularis oris
- Mentalis
Buccinator

(DA
If you stick out your tongue at someone, what muscle are you using?
- Genioglossus
- Styloglossus
- Hyoglossus
- Intrinsic longitudinal
Genioglossus

(DA
The mandible is moved to the right by contraction of the:
- Left lateral pterygoid muscle
- Right lateral pterygoid muscle
- Left medial pterygoid muscle
- Right medial pterygoid muscle
Left lateral pterygoid muscle

(DA
A patient with a paralyzed right lateral pterygoid muscle is instructed to open his mouth wide. Which direction will the mandible deviate to upon opening?
- To the right
- To the left
- It will not deviate right or left
To the right

(DA
The prime mover in effecting a left working-side movement is:
- The right medial pterygoid muscle
- The left medial pterygoid muscle
- The right lateral pterygoid muscle
- The left lateral pterygoid muscle
The right lateral pterygoid muscle

(DA
Bilateral contraction of which muscles protrudes the mandible?
- Medial pterygoid muscles
- Lateral pterygoid muscles
- Temporalis muscles
- Masseter muscle
Lateral pterygoid muscles

(DA
Which group of principal fibers of the periodontal ligament help to prevent tipping and dislocation of the tooth?
- Transseptal
- Alveolar crest
- Horizontal
- Oblique
- Apical
- Interradicular
Apical

(DA
Which type of functional oral mucosa covers the dorsum of the tongue?
- Masticatory
- Specialized mucosa
- Lining or reflective mucosa
Specialized mucosa

(DA
Which structure is the inner layer of cells of the junctional epithelium and attaches the gingiva to the tooth?
- Mucogingival junction
- Free gingival groove
- Epithelial attachment
- Gingival col
Epithelial attachment

(DA
Which group of gingival fibers arise from the alveolar crest and fan out coronally into the adjacent gingival connective tissue?
- Circumferential fibers
- Dentogingival fibers
- Dentoperiosteal fibers
- Alveologingival fibers
Alveologingival fibers

(DA
Gingival fibers are found within the:
- Attached gingiva
- Free gingiva
- Mucogingival junction
- Attached and free gingiva
Free gingiva

(DA
The portion of gingiva that extends from the gingival crest to the crest of the bone is called the:
- Attached gingiva
- Free gingiva
- Mucogingival junction
- Free gingival groove
Free gingiva

(DA
Which teeth have the most variable crown shape of all permanent teeth?
- Maxillary lateral incisors
- Mandibular lateral incisors
- Maxillary third molars
- Mandibular second premolars
Maxillary third molars

(DA
Which tooth has the longest crown length?
- Maxillary canine
- Maxillary lateral incisor
- Maxillary central incisor
Maxillary central incisor

(DA
The periodontal ligament in an adult is about:
- 0.002 mm wide
- 0.2 mm wide
- 2.0 mm wide
- 20.0 mm wide
0.2 mm wide

(DA
The alveolar process is that part of the maxilla and mandible that houses the teeth. It consists of two main parts which are called:
- Cortical plate and spongy bone
- Compact lamellar bone and a layer of bundle bone
- Alveolar bone proper and supporting alveolar bones
Alveolar bone proper and supporting alveolar bones

(DA
The periodontium is a collective term for the supporting structures of the teeth. All of the following are considered to be a part of the periodontium except:
- The gingiva
- The periodontal ligament
- The cementum
- The alveolar bone
- The pulp
The pulp

(DA
The periodontal ligament is made of large collagen fibers that course between the cementum and the alveolar bone. The portion of the principal fiber that is embedded into the cementum is called a:
- Cemental fiber
- Sharpey's fiber
- Dentinal fiber
- Gingival fiber
Sharpey's fiber

(DA
The largest permanent tooth in the mandibular arch is the:
- First molar
- Second molar
- Third molar
First molar

(DA
All of the following statements concerning the mandibular lateral incisor are true except:
- The mandibular lateral incisor is a little larger in all dimensions than the mandibular central incisor
- The crown of the mandibular lateral incisor is not as bilaterally symmetrical as the mandibular central incisor
- The cingulum is directly in the center of the lingual surface
- The root is very narrow mesiodistally
The cingulum is directly in the center of the lingual surface

(DA
The most reliable distinguishing feature of the mandibular third molar is the:
- Fused and compressed root system
- Short, bulbous outline of the crown
- Marginal ridge forming a smooth circle
- Marked distal inclination of the root trunk
- Great morphologic resemblance to the first molar
Marked distal inclination of the root trunk

(DA
A mesio-lingual developmental groove is a positive ID for the:
- Maxillary first premolar
- Mandibular first premolar
- Maxillary second premolar
- Mandibular second premolar
Mandibular first premolar

(DA
Which tooth frequently exhibits a small fifth cusp attached to the lingual surface of the mesiolingual cusp?
- Maxillary second molar
- Maxillary first molar
- Mandibular first molar
- Mandibular second molar
Maxillary first molar

(DA
The most distinguishable difference between the maxillary first and second permanent premolars is:
- The size of the crown
- The number of roots
- The curvature of the facial surface
- The length of the lingual cusp
The number of roots

(DA
Which tooth occasionally exhibits a lingual groove that extends from the enamel onto the cemental area of the root?
- Maxillary centrals
- Mandibular centrals
- Maxillary laterals
- Mandibular laterals
Maxillary laterals

(DA
The rods of the maxillary canine are generally:
- The shortest in the maxillary arch
- The longest in the dental arch
- Varied more so than other teeth
- Nearly equal to the roots of other anterior teeth
The longest in the dental arch

(DA
The anterior tooth most likely to have a bifurcated root is the:
- Maxillary central incisor
- Mandibular canine
- Mandibular central incisor
- Maxillary canine
Mandibular canine

(DA
Which tooth is most likely to have a pronounced concavity on its mesial surface?
- Mandibular first premolar
- Maxillary second premolar
- Maxillary first premolar
- Mandibular second premolar
Maxillary first premolar

(DA
Which tooth has a small DL cusp that can be absent, creating a three-cusp tooth?
- Mandibular second molar
- Maxillary first molar
- Mandibular first premolar
- Maxillary second molar
Maxillary second molar

(DA
Which tooth may show three types of occlusal surfaces?
- Maxillary first premolar
- Mandibular second premolar
- Mandibular first premolar
- Maxillary second premolar
Mandibular second premolar

(DA
A cingulum is normally located:
- At the cervical third of the lingual surface of anterior teeth
- At the incisal third of the lingual surface of anterior teeth
- At the middle third of the lingual surface of anterior teeth
- At the cervical third of the lingual surface of posterior teeth
At the cervical third of the lingual surface of anterior teeth

(DA
Which of the following provide the most reliable criterion for differentiating permanent mandibular central incisors from permanent mandibular lateral incisors?
- Difference in rooth length
- Difference in ratio of crown length to root length
- Degree of slope of the incisal edge when viewed facially
- Difference in rotation of the crown on the root
Difference in rotation of the crown on the root

(DA
Which characteristic below is common to all mandibular anterior teeth?
- Distinct cingula with grooves and pits
- Incisal edges that are facial to the root axis line
- Facial surfaces that are marked by pronounced labial ridges
- Continuous convexity incisoapically on the facial surface
Continuous convexity incisoapically on the facial surface

(DA
Of the two mandibular incisors, which has a root that is larger in all dimensions?
- Mandibular central incisor
- Mandibular lateral incisor
Mandibular lateral incisor

(DA
When viewed from a buccal or lingual aspect, the crowns of all mandibular and maxillary incisors appear to have a:
- Triangular outline
- Trapezoidal outline
- Rhomboidal outline
- Rectangular outline
Trapezoidal outline

(DA
Which tooth may have a pulp chamber that is somewhat triangular as opposed to oval?
- Maxillary central incisor
- Mandibular central incisor
- Maxillary lateral incisor
- Mandibular lateral incisor
Maxillary central incisor

(DA
How does the distoincisal angle of most anterior teeth compar to the mesiodistal angle?
- It is straighter
- It is more rounded
- There is no difference
It is more rounded

(DA
The mesial and distal aspect (or surfaces) of all anterior teeth have a:
- Trapezoidal outline
- Triangular outline
- Rhomboidal outline
- Square outline
Triangular outline

(DA
What single feature distinguishes the permanent mandibular lateral incisor from the permanent mandibular central incisor when looking at them from an incisal view?
- The lateral incisor has a cingulum that is more centered on the lingual surface
- The marginal ridges of the lateral are the same length
- The incisal edge of the lateral has a distolingual twist
The incisal edge of the lateral has a distolingual twist

(DA
A maxillary right canine may be distinguished from a maxillary left canine because:
- The root always curves to the distal in the apical one third
- The distal surface is fuller and more convex than the mesial surface
- Labially, the cusp tip is placed distal to a line which bisect the crown and root
- Lingually, the cervical line slopes mesially
The distal surface is fuller and more convex than the mesial surface

(DA
The permanent maxillary canine is most likely to articulate with which of the following mandibular teeth?
- Lateral incisor and canine
- Canine only
- Canine and first premolar
- First premolar only
Canine and first premolar

(DA
Usually the last permanent canines to erupt are the:
- Maxillary canines
- Mandibular canines
Maxillary canines

(DA
A labial ridge is:
- A ridge running cervicoincisally in approximately the center of the labial surface of the centrals
- A ridge running cervicoincisally in approximately the center of the labial surface of the canines
- A ridge running cervicoincisally in approximately the center of the labial surface of the laterals
- A ridge running cervicoincisally in approximately the center of the labial surface of the molars
A ridge running cervicoincisally in approximately the center of the labial surface of the canines

(DA
Which cusp ridge is the shortest on the permanent canines?
- Labial
- Lingual
- Mesial
- Distal
Mesial

(DA
In comparison with the mandibular permanenr canine, the maxillary permanent canine in the same mouth:
- Is narrower mesiodistally
- Has a les pronounced cingulum
- Is wider mesiodistally
- Has a shorter root
Is wider mesiodistally

(DA
All posterior teeth have proximal contacts in the:
- Middle third
- Junction of the occlusal and middle third
- Occlusal third
Middle third

(DA
The character of occlusal contacts in the unworn dental arch are all of the following, except:
- Point to point
- Point to area
- Edge to edge
- Edge to area
- Area to area
Area to area

(DA
Which three mandibular teeth are so aligned that, when viewed from the occlusal, a straight line may be drawn that will bisect all contact areas?
- Central incisor, lateral incisor, and canine
- Canine, first premolar, and second premolar
- Second premolar, first molar, and second molar
- Lateral incisor, canine, and first premolar
Second premolar, first molar, and second molar

(DA
Both maxillary and mandibular premolars and molars have heights of contour approximately in the middle third on the:
- Facial surface of the crown
- Lingual surface of the crown
- Distal surface of the crown
- Mesial surface of the crown
Lingual surface of the crown

(DA
The cemento-enamel junction (cervical line) of teeth curves towards the apex on the facial and lingual surfaces and:
- Towards the apex on the mesial surface
- Away from the apex on the distal surface
- Towards the apex on the mesial and distal surfaces
- Away from the apex on the mesial and distal surfaces
Away from the apex on the mesial and distal surfaces

(DA
Cercial line (or CEJ) contours are closely related to the attachment of the ginigva at the neck of the tooth. The greatest contours of the cervical lines and gingival attachments occur on the:
- Distal surfaces of anterior teeth
- Distal surfaces of posterior teeth
- Mesial surfaces of anterior teeth
- Mesial surfaces of posterior teeth
Mesial surfaces of anterior teeth

(DA
The mesial contact area of a permanent mandibular lateral incisor is usually located:
- In the incisal third
- In the middle third
- At the junction of the incisal and middle thirds
In the incisal third

(DA
When viewed from the occlusal, all posterior teeth have their contacts (mesial and distal):
- In the middle third
- Slightly lingual of the middle third
- Slightly buccal of the middle third
Slightly buccal of the middle third

(DA
The primary maxillary lateral incisor typically erupts when a child is about:
- 8 months old
- 16 to 22 months old
- 13 to 19 months old
- 25 to 33 months old
8 months old

(DA
Which teeth are succedaneous teeth?
- The permanent maxillary and mandibular premolars
- The permanent maxillary and mandibular first molars
- The permanent maxillary and mandibular second molars
- The permanent maxillary and mandibular third molars
The permanent maxillary and mandibular premolars

(DA
Which of the following are the three cardinal rules regarding the eruption of teeth?
- Boys teeth usually erupt before girls teeth of the same age
- Girls teeth usually erupt before boys teeth of the same age
- Maxillary teeth usually erupt before mandibular teeth
- Mandibular teeth usually erupt before maxillary teeth
- The teeth of slender children usually erupt before the teeth of stocky children
- The teeth of stocky children usually erupt before the teeth of slender children
1. Girls teeth usually erupt before boys teeth of the same age
2. Mandibular teeth usually erupt before maxillary teeth
3. The teeth of slender children usually erupt before the teeth of stocky children

(DA
The primary mandibular canines are usually exfoliated when a child is about:
- 6 to 8 years old
- 7 to 9 years old
- 9 to 12 years old
- 14 to 16 years old
9-12 years old

(DA
The permanent dental formula of man is:
- I 2/2 C 1/1 B 3/3 M 2/2 = 16 x 2 = 32
- I 2.2 C 1/1 B 1/1 M 3/3 = 14 x 2 = 28
- I 2/2 C 1/1 B 2/2 M 3/3 = 16 x 2 = 32
- I 2/2 C 1/1 M 3/3 = 12 x 2 = 24
- None of the above
I 2/2 C 1/1 B 2/2 M 3/3 = 16 x 2 = 32
The deciduous dental formula of man is:
- I 1/1 C 1/1 B 1/1 M 2/2 = 10 x 2 = 20
- I 2/2 C 1/1 M 2/2 = 10 x 2 = 20
- I 2/2 C 1/1 M 3/3 = 12 x 2 = 24
- I 2/2 C 1/1 B 2/2 M 3/3 = 16 x 2 = 32
- None of the above
I 2/2 C 1/1 M 2/2 = 10 x 2 = 20

(DA
The deciduous dental formula of man is:
- I 1/1 C 1/1 B 1/1 M 2/2 = 10 x 2 = 20
- I 2/2 C 1/1 M 2/2 = 10 x 2 = 20
- I 2/2 C 1/1 M 3/3 = 12 x 2 = 24
- I 2/2 C 1/1 B 2/2 M 3/3 = 16 x 2 = 32
- None of the above
I 2/2 C 1/1 M 2/2 = 10 x 2 = 20

(DA
A 15-month-old child would normally have all of the following teeth erupted except the:
- Primary lateral incisors and canines
- Primary canines and first molars
- Primary canines and second molars
- Primary central and lateral incisors
- Primary first and second molars
Primary canines and second molars

(DA
The eruption of which teeth commences the mixed dentition period?
- The permanent canines
- The permanent first molars
- The permanent first premolars
- The permanent second premolars
The permanent first molars

(DA
Which root of a maxillary first molar commonly has two root canals?
- The palatal root
- The distobuccal root
- The mesiobuccal root
The mesiobuccal root

(DA
The permanent mandibular second premolar typically erupts when a child is about:
- 5 to 6 years old
- 8 to 9 years old
- 11 to 12 years old
- 13 to 14 years old
11 to 12 years old

(DA
On a maxillary molar, the largest, longest, and strongest of the three roots is the:
- Mesiobuccal
- Distobuccal
- Palatal
Palatal

(DA
Which teeth typically have trifurcations?
- Mandibular molars
- Maxillary molars
- Maxillary premolars
- Mandibular premolars
Maxillary molars

(DA
A fissured groove is most frequently found on the:
- Facial surface of maxillary molars
- Lingual surface of maxillary molars
- Facial surface of mandibular molars
- Lingual surface of mandibular molars
Lingual surface of maxillary molars

(DA
From a developmental viewpoint, all mandibular molars have how many major cusps, as compared to how many major cusps on maxillary molars?
- 4:6
- 5:3
- 5:4
- 3:4
5:4

(DA
The cross-section at the mid-root looks like a figure 8 for the:
- Maxillary canine root
- Palatal root of a maxillary molar
- Distobuccal root of a maxillary molar
- Mesial root of a mandibular molar
Mesial root of a mandibular molar

(DA
The shape of the floor of the pulp chamber in maxillary molars is roughly:
- Square
- Rhomboidal
- Triangular
- Circular
Triangular

(DA
From either proximal view, mandibular molar crowns have a:
- Triangular outline
- Rhomboidal outline
- Square outline
- Rectangular outline
Rhomboidal outline

(DA
The cross-section at the CEJ of which tooth typically looks like a square-like fried egg?
- Maxillary molars
- Mandibular molars
- Maxillary premolars
- Maxillary incisors
Maxillary molars

(DA
Occlusocervically, the height of the distal marginal ridge of a permanent maxillary first molar is the same height as the:
- Mesial marginal ridge of a maxillary second premolar
- Mesial marginal ridge of a mandibular first molar
- Mesial marginal ridge of a maxillary second molar
- Distal marginal ridge of a maxillary second premolar
Mesial marginal ridge of a maxillary second molar

(DA
Which cusp on permanent maxillary molars generally is the one that gets progressively smaller as you go posterior in the arch?
- Mesiobuccal
- Distobuccal
- Mesiolingual
- Distolingual
Distolingual

(DA
Mandibular molars have a decided:
- Facial inclination
- Lingual inclination
- Mesial inclination
Lingual inclination

(DA
As a general rule, root tips tend to curve:
- Toward the mesial
- Toward the distal
- Toward the mesial on maxillary teeth and toward the distal on mandibular teeth
- Toward the distal on maxillary teeth and toward the mesial on mandibular teeth
Toward the distal

(DA
How many roots are visible from the buccal aspect of a maxillary first molar?
- One root
- Two roots
- Three roots
- Four roots
Three roots

(DA
The parotid duct opens on the oral surface of the cheek through a small opening opposite the:
- Maxillary first premolar
- Maxillary second molar
- Mandibular first molar
- Mandibular second molar
Maxillary second molar

(DA
In an ideal intercuspal position, the mesiobuccal cusp of the permanent maxillary second molar opposes:
- The distobuccal groove of the mandibular first molar
- The buccal groove of the mandibular second molar
- The mesiobuccal groove of the mandibular second molar
- The developmental groove between the distobuccal and distal cusps of the mandibular first molar
The buccal groove of the mandibular second molar

(DA
Which teeth should ideallt provide the predominant guidance through the full range of movement in lateral mandibular excursions?
- Premolars
- First molars
- Incisors
- Canines
Canines

(DA
The lingual cusps of the maxillary posterior teeth are:
- Non supporting and working
- Supporting and balancing
- Supporting and working
- Non supporting and balancing
Supporting and working

(DA
Identify the following arch relationships as being Class I, Class II, or Class III.
- Maxillary teeth slightly anterior mandibular teeth
- Maxillary teeth significantly anterior to mandibular teeth
- Mandibular teeth anterior to maxillary teeth
Maxillary teeth slightly anterior to mandibular teeth: Class I

Maxillary teeth significantly anterior to mandibular teeth: Class II

Mandibular teeth anterior to maxillary teeth: Class III
In an ideal intercuspal position, the facial cusp tips of permanent maxillary premolars oppose:
- The facial embrasures between their class counterpart and the tooth mesial to it
- The facial embrasures between their class counterpart and the tooth distal to it
- The opposing central fossae
- The opposing mesial marginal ridge
The facial embrasure between their class counterpart and the tooth distal to it

(DA
Which permanent teeth occlude with only one tooth in the opposite jaw, assuming ideal relations exist?
- Maxillary canines
- Maxillary central incisors
- Mandibular central incisors
- Mandibular third molars
Mandibular central incisors

(DA
In the intercuspal position, the distobuccal cusp of a permanent mandibular second molar occludes where?
- The interproximal marginal ridge area between the maxillary second bicuspid and the first molar
- Central fossa of the maxillary first molar
- Central fossa of the maxillary second molar
- The interproximal marginal ridge area between the maxillary first molar and the second molar
Central fossa of the maxillary second molar

(DA
In the intercuspal position, the mesiolingual cusp of a permanent maxillary first molar occludes where?
- Central fossa of the mandibular first molar
- Central fossa of the mandibular second molar
- The interproximal marginal ridge areas between the mandibular first and second molars
- The interproximal marginal ridge areas between the mandibular second and third molars
Central fossa of the mandibular first molar

(DA
When posterior teeth are in a normal ideal relationship, which cusps are considered to be guiding cusps?
- Maxillary lingual cusps
- Maxillary buccal cusps
- Mandibular lingual cusps
- Mandibular buccal cusps
Maxillary buccal cusps
Mandibular lingual cusps

(DA
Which cusp of the permanent maxillary first molar serves as a reference point in identifying Angle's Class I, II, and III occlusion?
- Distobuccal
- Mesiobuccal
- Mesiolingual
- Distolingual
Mesiobuccal

(DA
In an ideal intercuspal position, the mesiolingual cusp of a permanent mandibular molar opposes:
- The opposing central fossae
- The lingual embrasure between their class counterpart and the tooth distal to it
- The opposing distal marginal ridge
- The lingual embrasure between their class counterpart and the tooth mesial to it
The lingual embrasure between their class counterpart and the tooth mesial to it

(DA
The mental foramen is located most closely to the apex of the:
- Mandibular canine
- Mandibular second premolar
- Mandibular first molar
- Maxillary first molar
Mandibular second premolar

(DA
The characteristic common to all mandibular first premolars when viewed from the occlusal aspect is:
- The buccal ridge is flat
- The marginal ridges are underdeveloped
- The buccal lobe makes up the majority of the tooth
- The lingual cusp is large
The buccal lobe makes up the majority of the tooth

(DA
Which tooth has a mesial marginal ridge that is directly shorter in length and less prominent in height than the distal marginal ridge?
- Maxillary second premolar
- Mandibular first premolar
- Mandibular second premolar
- Maxillary first premolar
Mandibular first premolar

(DA
Which premolar is the only one that has a mesial buccal cusp ridge that is longer than its distal buccal cusp ridge?
- Maxillary first premolar
- Maxillary second premolar
- Mandibular first premolar
- Mandibular second premolar
Maxillary first premolar

(DA
The mid-root sketch of which tooth looks like an upside down 8 with the top tilted to the left?
- The lingual root of a maxillary right molar
- A mandibular right canine
- A mandibular left first premolar
- A maxillary left first premolar
A maxillary left first premolar

(DA
The buccal and lingual cusps are almost equal in height on the:
- Maxillary first premolar
- Maxillary second premolar
Maxillary second premolar

(DA
Which premolar is usually the largest?
- Maxillary first premolar
- Maxillary second premolar
- Mandibular first premolar
- Mandibular second premolar
Maxillary first premolar

(DA
The occlusal anatomy of the mandibular primary first molar resembles that of the:
- Permanent mandibular first premolar
- Primary mandibular second molar
- Permanent maxillary second molar
- Permanent mandibular first molar
- None of the above --> Its anatomy is unlike any other tooth in the mouth (primary or permanent)
None of the above --> its anatomy is unlike any other tooth in the mouth (primary or permanent)

(DA
All of the following statements are true except:
- The primary teeth are lighter in color than the permanent teeth
- The pulp cavities are proportionately smaller in primary teeth
- In general, the crowns of primary teeth are more bulbous and constricted than the permanent counterpart
- The crown surfaces of all primary teeth are much smoother than the permanent teeth (in other words, there is less evidence of pits and grooves)
The pulp cavities are proportionately smaller in primary teeth

(DA
Which statement is true?
- The cusp on the primary maxillary canine is much shorter than the cusp on the permanent maxillary canine
- The mesial cusp ridge on the primary maxillary canine is shorter than the distal cusp ridge --> this is opposite of all other canines
- The cusp on the primary maxillary canine is much longer and sharper than the cusp on the permanent maxillary canine
- The primary maxillary canine is much narrower and longer than the permanent maxillary canine
The cusp on the primary maxillary canine is much longer and sharper than the cusp on the permanent maxillary canine

(DA
The first deciduous tooth to erupt is the:
- Mandibular central incisor
- Mandibular first molar
- Maxillary central incisor
- Maxillary first molar
Mandibular central incisor

(DA
Which primary mandibular molar has a prominent transverse ridge the unites the mesiobuccal and mesiolingual cusps?
- The primary mandibular first molar
- The primary mandibular second molar
The primary mandibular first molar

(DA
Identify the these two primary molars:
- Y5
- 4
Y5 = primary mandibular right first molar
4 = primary mandibular right second molar

(DA
Which statement is true?
- The sum of the mesiodistal widths of the primary molars in any one quadrant is equal to the permanent teeth that succeed them (premolars)
- The sum of the mesiodistal widths of the primary molars in any one quadrant is less than the permanent teeth that succeed them (premolars)
- The sum of the mesiodistal widths of the primary molars in any one quadrant is greater than the permanent teeth that succeed them (premolars)
The sum of the mesiodistal widths of the primary molars in any one quadrant is greater than the permanent teeth that succeed them (premolars)

(DA
When viewed from the facial, which teeth resemble a pentagon (five-sided)?
- The primary central incisors
- The primary lateral incisors
- The primary canines
The primary canines

(DA
The crowns of all 20 primary teeth begin to calcify between:
- 1 to 2 months in utero
- 2 to 3 months in utero
- 4 to 6 months in utero
- 8 to 9 months in utero
4 to 6 months in utero

(DA
The crown of the primary maxillary central incisor is:
- Smaller mesiodistally and has a longer length inciso cervically than the permanent maxillary central incisor
- Larger mesiodistally and has a longer length inciso cervically than the permanent maxillary central incisor
- Smaller mesiodistally and has a shorter length inciso cervically than the permanent maxillary central incisor
- Larger mesiodistally and has a shorter length inciso cervically than the permanent maxillary central incisor
Larger mesiodistally and has a shorter length inciso cervically than the permanent maxillary central incisor

(DA
Which primary molar is the most atypical of all the molars, primary and permanent, and appears to be intermediate in form and development between a premolar and a molar?
- The primary mandibular first molar
- The primary maxillary first molar
- The primary mandibular second molar
- The primary maxillary second molar
The primary maxillary first molar

(DA
Ordinarily, a six-year-old child would have what teeth clinically visible in the mouth?
- All (20) primary teeth and 4 permanent first molars
- 18 primary teeth and 2 permanent mandibular central incisors
- 18 primary teeth, 2 permanent mandibular central incisors, and 4 permanent first molars
All (20) primary teeth and 4 permanent first molars

(DA
The permanent mandibular first molar has a morphology that closely resembles the:
- Primary mandibular first molar
- Primary mandibular second molar
- Primary maxillary first molar
- Primary maxillary second molar
Primary mandibular second molar

(DA
Primate spaces occur in about:
- 10% of children
- 25% of children
- 50% of children
- 75% of children
50% of children

(DA
Which molar is the most symmetrical?
- Maxillary second molar
- Maxillary first molar
- Mandibular first molar
- Mandibular second molar
Mandibular second molar

(DA
Morphologically, the primary maxillary second molar strikingly resembles the:
- Permanent maxillary third molar
- Permanent maxillary second molar
- Permanent maxillary first molar
- Permanent mandibular second molar
Permanent maxillary first molar

(DA
The smallest tooth in the dental arch is the:
- Maxillary central incisor
- Maxillary lateral incisor
- Mandibular central incisor
- Mandibular lateral incisor
Mandibular central incisor

(DA
Which ligament is the only one that gives direct support to the capsule of the TMJ?
- Sphenomandibular ligament
- Stylomandibular ligament
- Temporomandibular ligament
Temporomandibular ligament

(DA
What is the best way to palpate the posterior aspect of the mandibular condyle?
- Intraorally
- Externally over the posterior surface of the condyle with the mouth open
- Through the external auditory meatus
- Any of the above
Externally over the posterior surface of the condyle with the mouth open

(DA
Which muscle has fibers that insert into the neck of the mandibular condyle and into the capsule and articular disc of the TMJ?
- Temporalis muscle
- Buccinator muscle
- Medial pterygoid muscle
- Lateral pterygoid muscle
Lateral pterygoid muscle

(DA
Which structure associated with the TMJ is fibrous, saddle-shaped, and separates the condyle and the temporal bone?
- Articular fossa
- Articular disc (meniscus)
- Articular eminence
- None of the above
Articular disc (meniscus)

(DA
Dislocation of the TMJ is almost always:
- Posteriorly and occurs while sleeping
- Anteriorly and occurs while laughing or yawning
- Anteriorly and occurs while chewing food
- Posteriorly and occurs while laughing or yawning
Anteriorly and occurs while laughing or yawning

(DA
Which of the following is the best imaging modality for identifying the position of the articular disc of the temporomandibular disc?
- Panoramic radiograph
- Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
- Computerized axial tomography (CAT Scan)
- Lateral transcranial radiograph
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

(DA
The articular surfaces of the TMJ are covered with:
- Dense fibrous connective tissue
- Periosteum
- Hyaline cartilage
- Elastic cartilage
Dense fibrous connective tissue

(DA
The most common direction in which the articular disc in the TMJ can be displaced is:
- Lateral
- Medial
- Posterior
- Anteromedial
Anteromedial

(DA
Which of the following best describes the type of sound associated with a disc replacement with reduction of the articular disc of the temporomandibular joint?
- Crepitation
- Tinnitus
- Dull thud
- Click
Click

(DA
All of the following structures make up the articulating parts of each temporomandibular joint except:
- Mandibular condyle
- Articular fossa and articular eminence
- Retrodiscal tissue
- Articular disc (meniscus)
Retrodiscal tissue

(DA
The TMJ is a:
- Hinge joint
- Gliding (sliding) joint
- Combined hinge and gliding (sliding) joint
Combined hinge and gliding (sliding) joint

(DA
Rotational movements take place in which compartment of the TMJ?
- Upper (mandibular fossa - articular disc) compartment
- Lower (condyle - articular disc) compartment
- Both the upper and lower compartments
Lower (condyle - articular disc) compartment

(DA
Which of the following encloses the TMJ like a tube?
- Bowman's capsule
- Glisson's capsule
- Fibrous capsule
- Crosby capsule
Fibrous capsule

(DA