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Physiology Challenge Exam Review

Terms in this set (622)

Study of the function of living organisms. Control of internal environments regardless of what happens in the external environment. Explains the physical and chemical factors responsible for both normal function and disease.

The scientific study of diseases.

The ___ environment contains the fluid surrounding living cells within a multi-cellular organism. It describes the fluid in which the cells of the body are bathed.

(1) Interstitial fluid; (2) blood plasma

The two components of the internal environment:

The ___ environment describes the region outside of the body, which includes the digestive, respiratory and urogenital tracts.

A tendency to maintain a balanced or constant internal state; the regulation of any aspect of body chemistry, such as blood glucose, around a particular level.

Negative feedback response

A primary mechanism of homeostasis, whereby a change in a physiological variable that is being monitored triggers a response that counteracts the initial fluctuation.

Positive feedback response

A mechanism of homeostasis that responds to a change in conditions by initiating responses that will amplify the change. Takes the organism away from a steady state.

[1] Maintaining temperature; [2] maintaining fluid volumes

Two examples of negative feedback control systems:

The ideal fixed setting of a particular physiological system.

Integrator - AKA control centre

The component of a homeostatic system which sends instructions based on sensory information.

A structure in the body that can change the value of a [controlled] variable.

Controlled variable

The variable which the body attempts to keep constant during homeostatic regulation. E.g. temperature.

The control center for body temperature.

The total volume of fluids in the body, in liters.

[1] interstitial fluid, 26.4%; [2] intracellular fluid, 67%; [3] plasma, 6.6%

Three components of total fluid content in the body, and their proportions:

Plasma has a ___ color.

[1] water, 92%; [2] other substances, 8%. E.g. proteins, ions, nutrients, gases, and wastes.

Two components of blood plasma, and their proportions:

Colloidal solution

Solution that contains suspended substances that do not settle out of solution. E.g. plasma.

Plasma proteins; including albumins, globulins and fibrinogen

What substance makes up the majority of the suspended particles in plasma?

Plasma volume remains relatively ___.

Layer of white blood cells and platelets that forms at the interface between the plasma and red blood cells in a tube of blood containing an anticoagulant.

[1] plasma, 55%; [2] red blood cells, 44%; [3] buffy coat, less than 1%

Three main components of blood, and their proportions:

[1] Calcium; [2] chloride; [3] sodium

[Three] ions with high concentrations OUTSIDE of the cell:

[1] Potassium; [2] proteins

[Two] ions with high concentrations INSIDE of the cell:

Golgi apparatus

Organelle which produces secretory vesicles.

Secretory vesicles

These organelles are used to transport various proteins out of the cell in a process called secretion.

Mitochondria can replicate themselves under ___ demands.

Granular; agranular

The endoplasmic reticulum is a continuation of the cell's nuclear membrane. It is made of two types: smooth or ____, and rough or ____.

Proteins synthesized in the rough endoplasmic reticulum are packed into ___ for transport to the Golgi apparatus.

Small and round cell structures containing enzymes that break down large food particles, bacteria, and damaged organelles.

A lysosome is one type of ___ vesicle produced by the Golgi apparatus.

[1] Storage; [2] secretory

[Two] types of vesicles produced by the Golgi apparatus:

A steroid in animal cell membranes and a precursor molecule for other steroids. Helps make membrane impermeable to some water-soluble molecules and maintains fluidity of the membrane over wider temperature ranges.

[1] Oxygen; [2] fatty acids; [3] carbon dioxide; [4] steroid hormones

[Four] substances which can penetrate the lipid bilayer:

[1] Ions; [2] urea; [3] glucose; [4] most other molecules found in living organisms

[Four] substances which can not penetrate the lipid bilayer:

[1] Receptors; [2] enzymes; [3] ion channels AKA pores; [4] membrane-transport carriers; [5] cell-identity markers

[Five] functions of membrane proteins:

Cell identity markers

Markers which differentiate different cells. Can include antigens or glycoproteins.

The size of protein channels in cell membranes, in nanometers.

___ molecules are too large to pass through the protein channels in cell membranes.

Similar charges as the amino acids of the protein

Molecule charges may limit the rate of diffusion through protein channels, due to ___.

Electrochemical gradient

The greater the ___ across the membrane, the greater the rate of molecule diffusion through the protein channels of cell membranes.

The ___ of channels within the cell membrane will affect the rate of molecule diffusion through the cell membrane.

Proteins; conformational

Large molecules, such as sugars, which can not pass through the membrane or the protein channels can move across the membrane by attaching to ___ on the membrane surface and causing a(n) ___ change.

[1] Opening a channel; [2] causing the protein to rotate the molecule into the cell

When large molecules attach to surface proteins, they can move across the membrane by one of two ways:

Facilitated diffusion

A process in which substances are transported across a plasma membrane down a concentration gradient. Occurs with the aid of transport proteins and does not require the use of energy.

In facilitated diffusion, the rate of transport is limited by the number of available transport proteins, as well as by the time that it takes the protein to ___.

Facilitated diffusion shows ___ specificity. Thus, it may be competitively inhibited by similarly-shaped molecules.

Active transport

An energy-requiring process that moves material across a cell membrane against a concentration gradient.

Diffusion of water through a selectively permeable membrane.

Addition of a solute results in a decrease of ___ water molecules.

[1] Permeability of membrane; [2] concentration gradient; [3] pressure gradient

[Three] factors which affect osmosis across a membrane:

Osmotically active particle

A particle that causes osmosis to occur.

One mole of non-ionizing molecule dissolved in one liter of water.

A measure of the number of particles per kilogram of water.

A measure of the total solute concentration per liter of solution.

The ability of a surrounding solution to cause a cell to gain or lose water.

300 milli-osmoles per kilogram

Concentration within a typical human cell, in milli-osmoles per kilogram.

Due to accumulating ions on the inner side of the membrane, the cell usually has a ___ charge.

Resting membrane potential of cells.

Electrochemical equilibrium

The point at which the chemical gradient is balanced with the electrical potential across a membrane.

Equilibrium potential

For a particular ion, the electrical potential which needs to be applied to the inside of a cell in order to stop the movement of that ion down its concentration gradient.

-90, +60, -70 millivolts

Equilibrium potential for potassium, sodium, chloride.

Branches that may occur along an axon.

Facilitated diffusion and active transport

The two transport processes which show chemical specificity, may be competitively inhibited, and involve saturation of membrane proteins.

Pores AKA channels

Ions and water molecules move down their gradient through ___.

[1] Molecular specificity; [2] saturation of proteins; [3] competitive inhibition; [4] energy-requirements

Diffusion through the membrane for fat-soluble molecules and through channels for water-soluble molecules is NOT affected by these three:

Without the sodium-potassium pump, most cells would ___.

3 sodium ions, 2 potassium ions

The sodium potassium pump removes ___ and brings in ___ to the cell.

Sodium, potassium

During axon membrane depolarization, ___ channels open immediately and then become inactivated, while ___ channels open after a short delay.

During an action potential, the axon is depolarized to a charge of ___, and then hyper-polarized to a charge of ___.

Absolute refractory period

A period of time following an action potential during which no additional action potential can be evoked regardless of the level of stimulation, usually because sodium channels are closed.

Relative refractory period

The period of time following an action potential when it is possible, but difficult, for the neuron to fire a second action potential due to the fact that the membrane is hyper-polarized.

Potassium channels are ___ to open and close.

The threshold for generating an action potential, such that most sodium channels are opened.

Top of a depolarization curve where sodium channels are closing while potassium channels are opening.

One millionth of available ions

Proportion of ions in extracellular space which participate in an action potential.

Concentration gradients

Thousands of action potentials can be generated before ___ break down enough to prevent further action potentials.

Positive, negative

Current flow tends to go from areas that are ___ to areas that are ___.

A layer of fatty tissue segmentally encasing the fibers of many neurons; enables vastly greater transmission speed of neural impulses.

Cells which produce myelin in the peripheral nervous system.

Oligodendrocytes

Cells which produce myelin in the central nervous system.

Height and amplitude

Action potentials have a fixed ___ and ___.

Multiple sclerosis

Disease in which the body's immune system attacks and damages myelin surrounding the axons of nerves.

Motor nerve fibre

Neuron that contacts a muscle cell at the neuromuscular junction.

Acetylcholinesterase

The basement membrane of an axon terminal contains this enzyme:

Junctional folds

Local invaginations of the sarcolemma underneath the point of contact with the axon, designed to increase its surface area for acetylcholine binding.

End plate potential

Depolarization of the membrane potential of skeletal muscle fibers, caused by the action of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular synapse.

Choline and acetic acid

Acetylcholinesterase breaks down acetylcholine into:

The ___ molecule is taken back into the axon terminal to be recycled.

Action potentials on presynaptic membranes trigger ___ ion channels to open and a subsequent influx into the cell.

Calcium in the presynaptic axon triggers the fusing of synaptic vesicles and the release of ___ into the synaptic cleft.

Chemically-gated, nonspecific

In response to binding of acetylcholine at the postsynaptic membrane, ___ channels open which allow movement of both sodium and potassium.

Inactivation gates

These gates are open at rest, and block channels to prevent more Na+ from entering the cell.

A bundle of skeletal muscle cells. ___ group together to form skeletal muscles.

The long cylindrical cells that make up skeletal muscles.

A threadlike structure, extending longitudinally through a muscle fiber consisting mainly of thick and thin filaments.

___ are contractile proteins, e.g. actin and myosin, of muscle cells.

Thin myofilaments

___ are composed of actin and are associated with troponin and tropomyosin proteins.

Thick myofilaments

___ are composed of myosin and form cross bridges.

Muscle, fascicle, muscle fibre, myofibril

From largest to smallest, the breakdown of a muscle:

The connective-tissue sheath that surrounds a fasciculi.

Muscle cells are ___-nucleated.

Cell membrane of a muscle cell AKA ___.

Transverse tubules

Tube-like projections of the sarcolemma that provide channels for ion flow throughout the muscle fibers to facilitate the propagation of an action potential.

Sarcoplasmic reticulum

Myofibrils in a muscle cell are surrounded by ___, which is a mesh-like network of tubes which contain the calcium ion.

Terminal cisternae

Enlarged areas of the sarcoplasmic reticulum surrounding the transverse tubules which store calcium for release at the start of muscle contraction.

Actin is a ___ protein.

Actin contains a special binding site for the other contractile protein, ___.

Long protein strands found on the thin myofilaments which cover the myosin binding sites at rest.

A muscle protein that, together with tropomyosin, forms a regulatory protein complex controlling the interaction of actin and myosin and that when combined with calcium ions permits muscular contraction.

[1] Actin; [2] troponin; [3] calcium

Troponin is made up of three subunits which allow for three things to bind:

The troponin complex holds tropomyosin over the myosin binding sites at rest. It is released when a calcium ion binds to ___.

Myosin has a long, bendable ___ and two ___ which can attach to the myosin binding site on actin.

Myosin heads have a site that can bind and split ___ to release energy for muscle contraction.

The connection of a myosin head group to an actin filament during muscle contraction, according to the sliding filament theory.

The term describes the action of the myosin head in muscular contraction. The head group attached to the actin filament tilts backwards, pulling the thick filament to overlap further with the thin filament. Requires energy from ATP.

Actin and myosin

During contraction, the ___ filaments slides past one another.

Excitation-contraction coupling

The mechanism that ensures that skeletal muscle contraction does not occur without neural stimulation.

Myosin head activity

ATP is split into ADP and phosphate for ___, by causing it to bend backwards.

ADP and phosphate molecules are released from the myosin head after the ___.

Rigor mortis begins ___ hours after death and lasts for 12 hours. The stiffness slowly disappears over the next 24 to 48 hours.

Stiffening of muscles in the body after death. Calcium is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum causing a muscle contraction, and no ATP is produced to pump calcium back into the cell.

Large motor unit

Motor nerve in contact with up to 200 muscle cells.

Small motor unit

Motor nerve in contact with only a few muscle cells.

10 to 100 milliseconds

A muscle twitch has a very short contraction duration which varies from ___ to ___ milliseconds.

The duration of an action potential, in milliseconds.

The time delay from when the action potential occurs on the motor neuron to when the muscle contracts.

A ___ is a type of mechanical event in the muscle which relies on protein interactions, and can thus be summed.

Force of contraction

The ___ of a muscle can be increased by increasing the number of action potentials per second, AKA frequency.

Maximal titanic contraction

Action potential frequency increases and produces a step-wise summation of individual twitch contractions, called a ___. This is illustrated by a plateau in the muscle tension.

Motor units, frequency

An increase in muscle tension is due to recruiting more ___ or increasing the ___ of twitches.

Excitatory postsynaptic potential, AKA EPSP

A slight depolarization of a postsynaptic cell, bringing the membrane potential of that cell closer to the threshold for an action potential.

Inhibitory postsynaptic potential, AKA IPSP

A slight hyperpolarization of the postysynaptic cell, moving the membrane potential of that cell further from threshold.

Spatial summation

Integration by a postsynaptic neuron of inputs from multiple sources.

Temporal summation

Summation by a postsynaptic cell of input from a single source over time.

Two stimuli separated in time cause EPSPs that do not add together.

Synaptic integration

The summation of the inhibitory and excitatory signal received by a post-synaptic neuron which occurs because a neuron receives many signals.

Supplementary motor cortex

Believed to be involved in the motor planning. It also plays a secondary role in regulating muscle movements.

Primary motor cortex

A strip of neural tissue at the rear of the frontal lobe that is specifically involved in controlling voluntary bodily movements through its control of skeletal muscles.

Receptor that communicates proprioceptive information regarding muscle length.

Alpha-gamma coactivation

Simultaneous activation of alpha and gamma motor neurons so that during muscle contraction, the intrafusal fibers continue to monitor tension in the muscle.

10 billion to 100 billion

Number of cells in the brain:

About 1.5 kilograms

Weight of the brain:

Up to 400 kilometres per second

Speed of action potentials traveling down a nerve cell:

The part of the brain composed of the midbrain, pons, and medulla oblongata. Connects the spinal cord with the forebrain and cerebrum.

[1] Midbrain; [2] pons; [3] medulla oblangata

[Three] components of the brain stem:

The brain stem structure which is continuous with the spinal cord:

A large structure of the hindbrain that controls fine motor skills and coordinated behaviour.

Structure containing the thalamus and hypothalamus.

Elevated portions of the cerebral cortex.

Shallow grooves that separate gyri in the cerebral cortex.

The locations of ___ in the human brain are fairly consistent between individuals, and are so prominent that they have specific names.

Primary motor cortex, motor association areas and the prefrontal cortex

Frontal lobe contains three structures:

Integrate movement information with sensory inputs to generate perceptions of stimuli

The function of the prefrontal cortex and motor association areas:

Processes input from skeletal muscles throughout the body

The function of the primary motor cortex:

An area of the brain, near the rear of the frontal lobes, that controls voluntary movement.

[1] Primary auditory cortex; [2] auditory association areas; [3] olfactory areas; [4] short-term memory storage and recall

[Four] structures in the temporal lobe:

Receive and process signals from the auditory nerve and integrate them with other sensory inputs

Functions of the primary auditory cortex and auditory association areas:

[1] Primary somatosensory cortex; [2] association areas

[Two] structures in the parietal lobe:

Receives input form major sense organs

Function of the primary somatosensory cortex:

Integrate sensory information with other association areas to form meaningful perceptions

Function of the association areas of the Parietal lobe:

[1] Primary visual cortex; [2] visual association areas

[Two] structures in the occipital lobe:

Processing visual information and integrate it with other sensory inputs

Function of the primary visual cortex and visual association areas:

Cerebellum. [1] Somatic receptors; [2] receptors for equilibrium; [3] balance and motor neurons

The structure with the largest number of neurons in the brain. Receives input from three areas:

A structure in the forebrain through which all sensory information (except smell) must pass to get to the cerebral cortex.

The thalamus is involved in ___ sensory information before it is sent to the cortex.

Corpus callosum

The ___ is responsible for allowing coordination of whole-body movement and function.

Mesencephalon, diencephalon, reflexes

The midbrain, AKA ___, bridges the lower brainstem with the ___ above it. Its primary function is to control eye movements and controls auditory and visual motor ___.

A portion of the brainstem that relays information between the cortex and medulla, regulates sleep, and carries some motor and sensory information from the head and neck. Also coordinates and controls breathing.

Pons and medulla

Control of breathing comes from which [two] parts of the brain?

The medulla has primary control over ___ functions.

[1] Breathing; [2] blood pressure; [3] swallowing

[Three] functions which medulla controls:

Where do fibres from the corticospinal tract, originating from the motor cortex, cross over to the opposite side of the spinal cord?

The crossing of the optic nerves from the two eyes at the base of the brain.

Optic nerves meet at the optic chiasma, cross over and continue as optic tracts to lateral geniculate bodies of the thalamus, and then to the primary visual area of the occipital lobe

The path of visual information:

Lateral geniculate bodies of the thalamus

What anatomical feature is considered to be the neural way station of the visual pathway?

In which part of the brain are the lateral geniculate bodies?

There are ___ cranial nerves incorporated into the brain stem.

The language and mathematical area of the brain is usually located in the ___ hemisphere.

Language and mathematical areas of the brain

General interpretive centres for understanding visual and auditory information and generate written and spoken responses.

Glial cells make up ___ percent of the brain

[1] Bipolar; [2] unipolar; [3] multipolar

[Three] basic types of neurons:

Bipolar neurons

___ neurons have one main dendrite and one axon. They are found in the retina of the eye.

Unipolar neurons

___ neurons have one process extending from the cell body. They are found in the peripheral nerves outside of the CNS and are sensory neurons.

In the middle and off to one side of the axon

In unipolar neurons, the cell body lies ___.

Multipolar neurons

___ neurons contain many branching dendrites and one axon.

Most common type of neuron in the CNS.

Most sensory neurons in the PNS are ___ in structure.

Cells in the nervous system that support, nourish, and protect neurons.

There are ___ times as many glial cells as neurons.

[1] Glue to hold neural structures together; [2] regulate nutrients and interstitial environment of the brain; [3] regulate passage of substances between blood and brain's interstitial space.

[Three] functions of glial cells:

[1] Astrocytes; [2] microglia; [3] oligodendrocytes

[Three] types of glial cells:

Nervous tissue of the CNS consisting of neurons and their myelin sheaths.

Nervous tissue that is abundant in cell bodies of neurons rather than axons. Found in cortex of the cerebrum, cerebellum and the core of the spinal cord.

Action potentials

The language of the nervous system:

The way the nervous system converts information into a meaningful pattern of action potentials.

Weight example of neural coding: heavier objects have ___ action potentials relative to lighter objects.

[1] Voltage gated calcium ion channels; [2] synaptic vesicles; [3] mitochondria

[Three] major components of a presynaptic cell axon terminal:

[1] Chemical receptors; [2] chemically gated ion channels

[Two] major components of a postsynaptic cell axon terminal:

Ligand-gated ion channels

Chemically gated ion channels are also known as:

Calcium, sodium

___ ions enter the presynaptic neuron and ___ ions enter the postsynaptic neuron in a synapse.

___ ions are found in high concentrations within neurons.

In response to neurotransmitter binding on the postsynaptic cell, ___ ion channels open, which allow sodium influx and some potassium efflux.

[1] Acetylcholine; [2] biogenic amines; [3] amino acids; [4] neuropeptides

[Four] main categories of neurotransmitters:

A neurotransmitter that enables learning and memory and also triggers muscle contraction.

Biogenic amines

Neurotransmitters derived from amino acids. Includes the catecholamines, e.g. dopamine, norepinephrine and epinephrine.

Involve excitatory neurotransmitters such as glutamate and aspartate, and inhibitory neurotransmitters such as GABA and glycine.

Most common excitatory neurotransmitter:

GABA (gamma-amino-butyric acid)

Most common inhibitory neurotransmitter:

Relatively short chains of amino acids which serve as neurotransmitters, and include endogenous opioids like endorphisn, and vasoactive intestinal peptides.

Natural, opiatelike neurotransmitters linked to pain control and to pleasure. Part of the neuropeptide category of neurotransmitters.

A single action potential in the presynaptic neuron will NOT produce an action potential on a postsynaptic neuron

Important difference between neuromuscular junction and chemical synapse:

Positive sodium ions

Excitatory neurotransmitters will cause the opening of chemically gated channels, and allow an influx of ___.

Graded potential

Shift in electrical charge in a tiny area of the neuron (temporary). Strength is proportional to the strength of the stimulus and lasts about a millisecond.

EPSPs and IPSPs are a ___ depolarization events.

There are no ___-gated channels on the dendrites or cell bodies of neurons.

Distance travelled

EPSPs and IPSPs gets smaller with the ___.

[1] Spatial summation; [2] temporal summation

[Two] ways to increase the strength of an EPSP:

Hyper-polarization

Inhibitory neurotransmitters result in ___ by opening different chemically gated channels as compared to excitatory neurotransmitters.

Chloride, potassium

Inhibitory neurotransmitters will either let ___ ions into the cell, or will let ___ ions out of the cell.

[1] Supplementary motor area; [2] premotor area; [3] primary motor cortex; [4] basal ganglia

[Four] brain structures which make up the motor system:

Premotor cortex

The ___ in the frontal lobe which develops an appropriate strategy for the movement. Controls muscles of the trunk and muscles used for postural adjustments or alignment.

Prefrontal cortex

The decision to move arises from the ___.

Supplementary cortex

The movement strategy travels to the ___ where the motor sequences are programmed.

Complex or repetitious

The supplementary cortex is more involved for movements which are ___ or ___.

Premotor cortex

Inability to select an appropriate movement strategy involves damage to the ___ cortex.

Supplementary motor

Inability to orient hand correctly during a movement involves damage to the ___ cortex.

The motor program is sent to the ___ cortex to activate the neurons to bring forth the desired movement.

Precentral, frontal

The primary motor cortex is located on the ____ gyrus of the ___ lobe.

Graphically shows how much area of the cerebrum is controlling certain areas of the body. There is a sensory and a motor ___.

Foot, ankle, knee, thigh, trunk, shoulder, elbow, wrist, hand, fingers, face, lips, jaw, tongue

From medial to lateral, the arrangement of movement on the homunculus is:

Corticospinal tract

A descending somatic motor tract. Cell bodies in the primary motor cortex. Most fibres cross to opposite side in the medulla and synapse in spinal cord.

___ percent of nerve fibres in the corticospinal tract cross to the contralateral side in the medulla, while ___ percent remain on the ipsilateral side.

___ nerve fibres of the corticospinal tract cross to the contralateral side within the spinal cord.

Muscle spindles

Receptors sensitive to muscle stretch, length, and rate of change of length

Golgi tendon organs

Receptors which detect to muscle tension

Extrafusal fibres

What type of fibres form the muscle and generate muscle tension?

Intrafusal fibres

What type of muscle fibres have a sensory function and do not generate tension?

Muscle spindle, two, sensory

A ___ consists of a series of intrafusal muscle fibres, a central sensory region, ___ sets of gamma motor neurons, and a ___ neuron.

Alpha motor neuron

Spinal cord neurons involved in muscle activation.

Alpha-gamma coactivation

When alpha motor neurons contract and the muscle shortens, gamma motor neurons are activated simultaneously to prevent intrafusal fibers from slackening. Allows muscle spindles to continue to sen information about muscle and limb position.

A relatively direct connection between a sensory neuron and a motor neuron that allows an extremely rapid response to a stimulus, often without conscious brain involvement.

Reflex arcs sometimes involve ____ which communicate internally and intervene between the sensory inputs and motor outputs.

Generate accurate limb movements, correct ongoing movements, modify strength of reflexes, classical Pavlovian conditioning, learning of new muscle movements, and vestibular ocular reflex

Cerebellar functions:

Modify movements by altering signals from the motor cortex

The cerebellum receive signals from the motor and somatosensory cortex, as well as proprioceptive information from the muscle spindles, to be able to ___.

A portion of the cerebrum that is associated with emotion and memory; includes the amygdala, cingulate cortex, septum and hippocampus.

Eating, drinking, locomotion, autonomic responses, attack responses, sexual behaviours, memory

Behaviours related to stimulation of hypothalamus and limbic system:

Link higher thought processes of the brain with more primitive emotional responses. Allows us to respond correctly to environmental changes.

Key function of the limbic system:

Temperature control, body water regulation, regulation of food intake, cardiovascular regulation, circadian clock, coordination of emotional behaviours, control of hormone release.

Functions of the hypothalamus:

A pea, beneath the hypothalamus

The pituitary gland is roughly the size of ___ and is located ___.

The adrenal gland receives input only form the ___ nervous system.

Central, or thoracic and lumbar

Sympathetic nerves exit the spinal cord in the ___ areas.

Brain stem, sacral

Parasympathetic nerves exit either from the ___ or the lower ___ regions.

Preganglionic neuron

its cell body is in the brain or spinal cord, and its axon exits the CNS as part of a cranial or spinal nerve.

Postganglionic neuron

In the autonomic division of the PNS, a neuron that has its cell body located in an autonomic ganglion (where a preganglionic neuron synapses with it), and whose axon synapses with the target organ.

Preganglionic neurons in both the sympathetic and parasympathetic systems release ___ as a neurotransmitter.

Acetylcholine, norepinephrine

Neurotransmitter of postganglionic neuron is ___ in both systems, but usually ___ in the sympathetic system.

parasympathetic

The preganglionic nerve axons are longer in the ___ system.

Constricted bronchioles, watery saliva, constricted pupils, slowed heart rate, release of urine, increased digestion and enzyme secretion.

Parasympathetic response:

Fat breakdown, epinephrine secretion and increased cardiac output, dilated bronchioles, dry mouth, dilated pupils, increased heart rate and force of contraction, increased renin secretion to increased blood pressure, retention of urine, decreased digestion and blood redirected to muscles, constriction of non-exercising organs and dilation of skeletal and cardiac muscle.s

Sympathetic response:

Environmental information is turned into signals which the brain can comprehend.

Adequate stimulus

Stimulus type that requires the least amount of energy to produce a response in a given receptor.

Pressure on the eyeball

Rod and cone cells, in addition to responding to light, also respond to ____.

Receptor potential

A slow, graded electrical potential produced by a receptor cell in response to a stimulus. Also known as a generator potential.

Hyperpolarizing

Receptor potentials can be depolarizing and ___.

Receptor potentials are ___ to the size or intensity of the stimulus.

Receptors sensitive to fine touch and vibration

Free nerve endings

Receptors that respond to pain and temperature

Messiness' corpuscles

Receptors that detect low-frequency (30 to 40 cycles per second) vibrations and touch

Ruffini's corpuscles

Receptors which detect touch only

Pacinian corpuscles

Receptors that detect high-frequency vibrations (250-300 cycles per second) and touch

Receptive field

The area monitored by a single receptor cell.

The spinothalamic tract

Tract which transmits information dealing with sensations like pain, temperature and crude touch. Also known as the anterolateral tract.

Sensory neurons are ___ order neurons.

Cross over to the contralateral side

First order neurons enter spinal cord and synapse with second order neurons, when then ___ and ascends to the thalamus.

Thalamus, somatosensory cortex

Third order neuron synapses in the ___, and the nerve then travels to the ___.

Dorsal column, medial lemniscal system

Tract which deals with more advanced sensations such as fine touch, proprioception and vibration.

Crossing to the contralateral side, upper spinal cord.

In the dorsal column, medial lemniscal system, the first order neuron travels up with spinal cord without ___, and synapses with a second order neuron in the ___, where it then crosses over to the opposite side.

Parietal, post central, central sulcus

The primary somatosensory cortex is located in the ___ lobe, on the ___ gyrus behind the ___.

Hands, tongue and lips

Most sensitive parts of the body:

There is one type of rod cell and ___ different types of cone cells, with different photopigments.

Rods and cones generated receptor potentials that cause the release of a(n) ___ neurotransmitter, but they do not generated action potentials.

Bipolar cells, ganglion cells, horizontal cells, and amacrine cells.

Other cells in the retina include:

Light ___ rod and cone cells and thus shuts them off. Thus, the bipolar cells, which were affected by the inhibitory neurotransmitters of the rod and cone cells, become active.

Activation of the bipolar cells may eventually lead to an action potential in the ___ cell.

Light leads to the ___ of the sodium channels of the photoreceptor cells, which causes hyper polarization and the prevention of neurotransmitter release.

Fast, jerky movements of the eyes as they change from one position of gaze to another.

A type of voluntary eye movement in which the eyes move smoothly to follow a moving object.

Vestibular ocular reflex

This is an ascending system that involves how we control and coordinate head and eye movement. The ability to stabilize vision while head moves.

Eye movements when an object of interest is approaching or moving away from you; converge when objects come close & diverge when object moves farther away (ie. staring at a pencil while moving it closer and farther away from your face).

Eye movement when object is moving away.

Eye movement when object is moving closer.

1000 to 3000 hertz

Most acute hearing frequency range

The portion of the ear consisting of the pinna and the external auditory canal. The outer ear is separated from the middle ear by the tympanic membrane (the eardrum).

The malleus, incus, and stapes are located in the:

The three small bones found in the middle ear (the malleus, the incus, and the stapes) that help to amplify the vibrations from sound waves. The malleus is atached to the tympanic membrane and the stapes is attached to the oval window of the cochlea.

Eustachian tube

A narrow tube between the middle ear and the throat that serves to equalize pressure on both sides of the eardrum.

The innermost part of the ear, containing the cochlea, semicircular canals, and vestibular sacs

A coiled, bony, fluid-filled tube in the inner ear through which sound waves trigger nerve impulses.

Tightly stretched membrane located at the end of the ear canal that vibrates when struck by sound waves.

Scala vestibuli or vestibular duct, middle cochlear duct, lower scala tympani

Compartments of the cochlea

Basilar membrane

A structure that runs the length of the cochlea in the inner ear and holds the auditory receptors, called hair cells.

The structure in the cochlea of the inner ear made up of the basilar membrane, the auditory hair cells, and the tectorial membrane. The Organ of Corti is the site where auditory sensation is detected and transduced to action potentials.

Tectorial membrane

A membrane located above the basilar membrane; serves as a shelf against which the cilia of the auditory hair cells move.

The ear ossicles cause the ___ to vibrate, which amplifies the sound waves to about 15-20 times their original amount.

Fluid that very closely resembles spinal fluid but found in the cochlea

Shorter wavelengths cause displacement on the basilar membrane ___ to the oval window and vice versa for longer wavelengths.

Wide and thin, narrow and thick, tight, loose

The basilar membrane is ___ at the top and ____ at the base near the oval window. it is also ___ at the base and ___ at the top.

Semicircular canals, otolith organs

Two components of vestibular apparatus

Semicircular canals

Three canals within the inner ear that contain specialized receptor cells that generate nerve impulses with rotational or angular accelerations of the head.

Vestibular structures sensitive linear acceleration. There are two, one for the vertical and one for the horizontal plane.

There are ___ semicircular canals, one for each plane of motion.

Fluid within the semicircular canals

Expansion at end or each semicircular canal there contains a crista ampullaris

Crista ampullaris

A specialized receptor located within the semicircular canals that detects head movements. Contains sensory hair cells.

Dragging of endolymph due to inertia causes movement of the cupola in the ___ direction of the movement.

Detects horizontal acceleration and deceleration.

Detects vertical acceleration and deceleration.

Otolith crystals

Embedded in gelatinous membrane (from above) in otolith organs to give it weight/inertia and increase its movement during accelerations/decelerations and increase the bending of the hair cells

Gelatinous membrane

A portion of the floor of the utricle and saccule is thickened and contains hair cells covered with a ___.

Constant, increase, decrease

Hair cells in otoliths are sending ___ action potentials, and the action potential rate will ___ with acceleration and ___ with deceleration.

Bending of stereocilia ___ kinocilia results in increased frequency of action potentials and vice versa.

The heart is roughly the size of a ___.

The heart will beat about ___ times during an average lifetime.

We have roughly ___ kilometers of blood vessels in our bodies.

Transport oxygen and nutrients to body; transports carbon dioxide and waste from cells; regulation of temperature and P H; transports hormones and other substances

Four main functions of the cardiovascular system:

The wall of the ___ is the thickest portion of the heart.

Right atrioventricular valve

Tricuspid valve; blood leaving the right atrium flows into right ventricle through this valve.

Left atrioventricular valve

Mitral or bicuspid valve; blood leaving the left atrium flows into the left ventricle through this valve.

Superior vena cava

A vein that is the second largest vein in the human body and returns blood to the right atrium of the heart from the upper half of the body.

The large arterial trunk that carries blood from the heart to be distributed by branch arteries through the body.

Pulmonary semilunar valve

Located between the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery.

Aortic semilunar valve

Located between the left ventricle and the aorta.

Chordae tendineae

Thin bands of fibrous tissue, mainly collagen, that attach to the valves in the heart and prevent them from inverting

Papillary muscles

Enlarged muscles in ventricles that are attached to chordae tendinae. Hold valves in place during contraction of ventricles.

The ___ carries oxygenated blood to the left atrium.

Pulmonary artery

The ___ carries deoxygenated blood to the lungs.

Contractile cells and nodal/conducting cells

Two types of myocardial cells

Most of the walls of the atria and ventricles are made up of ___ cells.

Nucleus, mitochondria

Contractile cells of the heart differ from skeletal muscles in that they have one ___ but far more ___.

One third of the volume of contractile cells is made up of ___.

Contractile cells extract twice as much oxygen as normal cells, which is about ___ of the oxygen in the blood.

Intercalated discs

Contractile cells are joined together by structures called ___, which allow impulses to move from one cell to another and securely fasten the cells together.

Tight and gap junctions

Intercalated discs contain both ___ and ___.

Nodal cells can ___, however very weakly.

___ are able to spontaneously generated action potentials.

Sinoatrial node (SA node)

The site of origin of the spontaneously-generated action potentials of the heart.

In the upper posterior wall of the right atrium

The SA node is located ___.

A bundle of modified heart muscle that transmits the cardiac impulse from the atrial-ventricular node to the ventricles causing them to contract

Atrial-ventricular node (AV node)

The action potential travels from the SA node, through the atria, to the ___ node and then to the Bundle of His.

Purkinje fibers

Fibers in the ventricles that transmit impulses to the right and left ventricles, causing them to contract

Spontaneous depolarization rate

The SA node has the fastest ___ compared to other areas of the heart.

___ permeability is slightly higher in SA node cells compared to other cells.

___ permeability in SA node cells decreases over time, allowing for depolarization to occur, as less is leaving the cell.

AV node and SA node

The slowest conduction speeds are in the ___ and ___, but this speeds up in the atria and ventricles. The fastest conduction speed is in the Purkinje fibers.

Downwards, upwards

Contraction of the atria occurs ___, while the ventricles contract ___.

A record of the electrical activity of the heart.

Atrial depolarization wave

On an ECG tracing what represents the time it takes for the ventricles to depolarize?

On an ECG tracing what represent ventricular repolarization?

Atria contract and blood is forced through the AV valves into the ventricles. SL valves are shut.

Isovolumetric ventricular contraction

Begins with ventricles depolarizing, which coincides with QRS complex. Ventricles then contract, and ventricular pressure increases above atrial pressures.

Ventricular systole

Ventricles contract, with ventricular pressure above aortic pressure. Aortic valve opens and blood flows to aorta.

Early ventricular diastole

Ventricular pressure is below aortic pressure and the aortic valve closes.

Late ventricular diastole

Ventricular pressure drops below atrial pressure. Blood flows into the ventricle and ventricular volume increases.

70 to 80 percent, 20 to 30 percent

___ of blood enters the ventricles when they relax, and ___ enters when the atria contracts

Atrial diastole

Contraction of the atria

Ejection period

Period when left ventricular pressure rises above 80 mm H G up to a pressure of 120 mm H G, and blood enters the aorta from the ventricles.

The first sound of the heart is made by the closing of the ___, with a low pitch and long duration. LUB

Aortic and pulmonary semilunar valves

The second sound of the heart is made by the closing of the ___, with a high pitch and slow duration. DUP

The volume of blood ejected from the left side of the heart in one minute.

5 liters per minute

Resting cardiac output

Up to 20 liters per minute in normal individual and 35 to 40 in athlete

Vigorous exercise cardiac output

Heart rate times stroke volume

Cardiac output is equal to ___ times ___.

70 beats per minute

Resting heart rate

70 milli liters per beat

Resting stroke volume

Decreasing heart rate through SA node and AV node and decreases force of contraction of the heart

The parasympathetic nervous systems acts on the heart by ___.

110 beats per minute

The heart's natural rate before ANS influence.

The constant inhibition provided to the heart by the vagus nerve.

Acetylcholine, potassium ion

Parasympathetic neurons release ___ to the heart's SA node and AV node, which causes ___ channels to open.

Norepinephrine and epinephrine, calcium and sodium ion

Sympathetic neurons release ___ to the heart's SA node and AV node, which causes ___ channels to open.

End diastolic volume

The amount of blood in the ventricle immediately before a cardiac contraction begins.

End systolic volume

___ is the amount of blood left in the ventricles after they contract, this is the blood that did not make it into the arteries

Decrease, increase

Acetylcholine from the parasympathetic system ____ calcium ion influx, while norepinephrine from the sympathetic system will ___ calcium ion influx.

Frank-Starling law of the heart

What law of the heart states that the more the heart is streched as it fills during diastole, the greater the force of contraction during systole, as stretching fills the muscle cells with calcium ions and thus increases force of contraction.

End diastolic volume, stroke volume

The Frank-Starling law of the heart states that an increase in ___ will cause an increase in ___ and vice versa.

Veins contain ___ percent of the blood at any given time.

The amount of blood returned to the heart by the veins.

The sympathetic system increases venous return by contracting ___ in the veins.

In addition to the sympathetic system, ___ can also increase venous flow.

Systemic circulation

The general blood circulation of the body, not including the lungs.

Pulmonary circulation

Blood flow through a network of vessels between the heart and the lungs for the oxygenation of blood and the removal of carbon dioxide.

[1] Hepatic portal loop; [2] hypothalamic-hypophyseal portal system

[Two] smaller circulator loops within systemic circulation:

[1] Veins, 70%; [2] arteries, 10%; [3] heart and lungs, 15%; [4]capillaries, 5%

Division of blood volume across the cardiovascular system:

Arterioles, 80 to 30

The largest drop in blood pressure occurs in the ___, where the pressure drops from ___ to ___ mm HG.

Pressure gradient over resistance

Flow is equal to ___

Flow in parallel lines in a smooth progression. Higher velocity flow in middle and lower velocity closer to edges.

Longer blood vessels have ___ resistance.

Diameter of blood vessel

Most important factor for resistance to blood flow:

1 over radius to the power of 4

Resistance is equal to ___.

Pressure gradient times radius to the power of 4

Blood flow is equal to ___.

The ___ regulate and control blood flow in an organ.

[1] Tunica external; [2] tunica media [3] tunica interna

[Three] layers of arteries and veins:

Fibrous connective tissue

Main component of tunica externa:

[1] Smooth muscle; [2] elastic tissue

Main [two] components of tunica media:

Endothelial tissue

Main component of tunica interna:

Capillaries are made up of ___ cells, as well as clefts and fenestrations.

Clefts and fenestrations

Holes which allow movement of water and dissolved solutes, except large proteins, into and out of the blood.

[1] Diffusion; [2] filtration; [3] reabsorption

[Three] categories of movement of dissolved substances across a capillary:

Process whereby fluid moves from capillary into interstitial space.

Process whereby fluid moves form interstitial space into capillary.

Starling forces

Hydrostatic and osmotic forces at the capillaries, which determine how much fluid leaves the arterial end of the capillary and how much is then reabsorbed at the venous end.

[1] Capillary hydrostatic pressure; [2] interstitial-fluid hydrostatic pressure

[Two] types of hydrostatic pressures:

Capillary hydrostatic pressure

Pressure on fluid which forces it outward on the walls of the capillary:

Interstitial-fluid hydrostatic pressure

Pressure on fluid which forces it from the interstitial compartment into the capillary.

[1] Osmotic force of plasma proteins; [2] osmotic force of protein in the interstitial space

[Two] types of osmotic forces:

Most common large protein in the plasma of blood:

Interstitial fluid

___ contains relatively low amounts of proteins.

Difference between pressures minus the difference between osmotic forces

Net filtration pressure is equal to:

Filtration of fluid out of capillary, reabsorption of fluid into capillary

A positive net filtration pressure means ___, while a negative means ___.

Lymphatic system

Large network of capillaries an vessels which return excess fluid to systemic circulation.

Swelling of body tissues due to an excessive accumulation of fluid in the interstitial space.

[1] Increased blood pressure due to weight lifting; [2] decreased plasma osmotic force due to fewer plasma proteins in malnourished people; [3] less reabsorption in upper body due to removed lymph nodes

[Three] potential causes of edema:

[1] Local control in organs; [2] humoral mechanisms which rely on chemicals in blood; [3] autonomic nervous system

[Three] methods of cardiovascular system regulation:

Automatic rgulation or reflex control of blood flow in an area depending on the local needs.

[1] Brain; [2] kidneys; [3] heart; [4] skeletal muscles

[Four] main areas which have the ability to control their own blood flow:

Myogenic theory

Theory which refers to changes in blood flow produced by contraction and relaxation of smooth muscles in the walls of blood vessels.

Metabolic theory

Theory which refers to changes in metabolic activity of an organ which alters the the blood flow to said organ

[1] Heat; [2] use of oxygen; [3] production of carbon dioxide, lactic acid and adenosine

[Three] reasons for vasodilation and increased blood flow to muscles during exercise:

Humoral regulation

Regulation f blood flow by chemical substances circulating in the blood, other than local metabolites.

[1] Vasoconstrictors; [2] vasodilators

[Two] categories of humoral regulators:

[1] Epinephrine, released from adrenal gland and acts weakly on intestine; [2] angiotensin II, important renal system; [3] Vasopressin AKA ADH, important in the renal system

[Three] vasoconstrictors:

[1] Epinephrine, released from adrenal gland and acts on blood vessels in skeletal and cardiac muscles; [2] kinins, formed in plasma and tissue; [3] histamine, released from damaged cells; [4] atrial natriuretic factor, produced by atrial muscle cells

[Four] vasodilators:

Norepinephrine, acetylcholine

The sympathetic nervous system causes overall vasoconstriction by releasing ___ onto smooth muscles, and vasodilation by releasing ___ onto skeletal muscles.

The parasympathetic nervous system can produce vasodilation by innervating smooth muscles and releasing ___.

Baroreceptor reflex

An autonomically mediated reflex response that influences the heart and blood vessels to oppose a change in mean arterial blood pressure.

Cardiac output times total peripheral resistance

Mean arterial pressure is equal to:

Total peripheral resistance

The overall resistance of the entire systemic circulatory system.

Mean arterial pressure

The average blood pressure on the arterial side of circulation.

Specialized nerve endings located in the walls of the aortic arch and carotid sinuses. They are affected by changes in blood pressure.

Medulla oblongata

The ___ of the brain is involved in controlling blood pressure through the baroreceptor reflex.

300 million, each with a 0.3 mm diameter

Number of alveoli in a healthy human lung.

Alveolar epithelial cells, AKA type I cells

Cells making up the alveolar walls.

Cells which secrete surfactant.

Respiratory membrane

The space between where gas exchange occurs between the alveoli and the capillary.

Macrophages and lymphocytes

Respiratory membranes include cells of the immune system, such as ___ and ___.

Parietal pleura

Outer layer of pleura lying closer to the ribs and chest wall.

Visceral pleura

Inner layer of pleura lying closer to the lung tissue.

Intrapleural space

The space between the two membranes (visceral pleura and parietal pleura) that cover the lungs. Contains pleural fluid.

Fills the area between layers of pleura to allow gliding.

Alveolar pressure

The pressure inside the lungs. AKA intrapulmonary pressure.

Pressure in intracellular space.

Between breaths, the alveolar and atmospheric pressures are both ___.

Transpulmonary pressure

The difference between intrapulmonary pressure and inter pleural pressure.

The transpulmonary pressure is a health lung is ___ and keeps the lungs and alveoli open.

A collapsed lung, due to an equal alveolar and intracellular pressure.

The relationship between the pressure and volume of a gas at constant temperture; when volume increase, pressure decreases.

External intercostal muscle

A muscle that raises the rib cage, decreasing pressure inside the chest cavity.

When the rib cage is lifted during inspiration, alveolar pressure drops to ___.

The ___ in the brain signals the rib muscles to contract.

Pulmonary compliance

The ease with which the lungs expand; the change in lung volume relative to a given pressure change.

Pressure change over volume change

Compliance is equal to:

[1] amount of elastic tissue; [2] surface tension of liquid lining alveoli

[Two] factors which influence compliance of the lung:

Pulmonary fibrosis

Disease which results form inhalation of large particles and thus decreases the compliance of the lungs.

Pulmonary emphysema

Disease caused by destruction of elastin filaments in lungs due to smoking, which increase the compliance of lungs.

[1] Normalizing aging; [2] pulmonary emphysema

[Two] things which can cause increased compliance:

[1] Elastin; [2] collagen

[Two] fibres which are present in the walls of the alveoli, blood vessels, and bronchioles.

Arrangement of elastin and collagen fibres, surface tension of liquid lining alveoli

One third of elastic behaviour of lungs due to ___, and two thirds are due to ___.

Pulmonary surfactant

A phospholipoprotein complex secreted by the Type II alveolar cells that intersperses between the water molecules that line the alveoli, thereby lowering the surface tension within the lungs.

Infant respiratory distress syndrome

The alveoli collapse each time the infants exhales, and a great deal of effort is needed to reinflate them.

Pulmonary surfactant is released during ___ breathing.

Maximum amount of air that lungs can hold.

Amount of air that moves in and out of the lungs during a normal breath. Equal to 500 millilitres at ret.

Inspiratory reserve volume

Amount of air that can be forcefully inhaled after a normal tidal volume inhalation.

Expiratory reserve volume

Amount of air that can be forcefully exhaled after a normal tidal volume exhalation.

Residual volume

Amount of air remaining in the lungs after a forced exhalation.

Inspiratory capacity

Maximum amount of air that can be inhaled after exhaling tidal volume.

Functional residual capacity

Amount of air still in lungs after exhalation of the tidal volume.

Maximum amount of air that can be exhaled after a maximal inhalation.

Total lung capacity

Maximum amount of air that lungs can hold.

Pulmonary ventilation

Amount of air that enters all of the conducting an respiratory zones in one minute.

Conducting zone

Area of the lungs where no gas exchange occurs. AKA anatomical dead space.

Respiratory zone

Region of the lungs where alveoli are located.

Tidal volume, in millilitres, times respiratory rate

Pulmonary ventilation is equal to:

Alveolar respiration

Volume of air entering respiratory zone each minute.

Their weight in pounds

Amount of anatomical dead space volume in a normal person is roughly equal to ___.

Partial pressure of oxygen and carbon dioxide in lungs, respectively.

Amount of oxygen required by body every minute:

Total volume of dissolved oxygen in blood:

Proportion of oxygen in body carried by hemoglobin:

Life span of red blood cells:

[1] Amino acids; [2] iron; [3] folic acid; [4] vitamin B12

[Four] materials required for formation of RBCs:

Formation of new DNA

Folic acid is required for ___.

Vitamin B12 is required for ___ to perform its function.

Spleen and liver

RBCs are destroyed and removed by these two organs:

A hormone produced and released by the kidney and liver that stimulates the production of red blood cells by the bone marrow.

90% of EPO secreted by ___ and 10% by ___.

[1] Decrease in cardiac output; [2] lung disease; [3] high altitudes; [4] decrease in RBC or hemoglobin

[Four] possible causes of a drop in oxygen levels in the body:

___ stimulates the secretion of EPO.

[1] Heat; [2] acidity; [3] decreased

Factors which shift oxygen-dissociation curve to right:

A shift to the right of the oxygen dissociation curve means that ___ oxygen is unloaded.

[1] Dissolved in blood plasma; [2] bicarbonate ion; [3] attach to proteins in blood, forming carmine compounds

[Three] forms of carbon dioxide transport:

Percentage of carbon dioxide dissolved in plasma.

Bicarbonate ion

Majority of carbon dioxide in blood is in this form:

Hemoglobin in red blood cells

Free hydrogen ions which result from conversion of carbon dioxide to bicarbonate ions attacks to ___.

The balancing of the RBC charge due to bicarbonate ions diffusing out into the blood plasma.

Carbamino compounds

Formed by combination of carbon dioxide with a terminal amine group of blood proteins, usually the globin protein of hemoglobin.

Spontaneous respiration

___ originates in the medullary respiratory centre of the medulla oblongata.

Voluntary centre

The ___ of the brain is located in the cerebral cortex and can override the medulla oblongata to control breathing.

[1] Inspiratory centre; [2] expiratory centre

[Two] centres in the medulla which control respiration:

Expiratory centre

The inspiratory centre inhibits the ___.

Active, active or passive

Inspiration is a ___ process while expiration can be a ___ process.

Pneumotaxic centre

A network of neurons in the pons which control the rate and pattern of breathing.

Apneustic centre

Network of neurons in the pons which control the depth of an inhalation and exhalation.

[1] Peripheral group in the aortic arch and carotid sinus; [2] central group in the medulla of the brainstem

[Two] groups of chemoreceptors in the body:

Oxygen, and slightly carbon dioxide

Peripheral chemoreceptors are receptive to ___ concentrations.

Central chemoreceptors are sensitive to ___ concentrations.

Carbon dioxide, hydrogen ions

The blood brain barrier is permeable to ___ but not to ___.

[1] Water balance; [2] electrolyte levels; [3] PH of blood; [4] long-term regulation of arterial pressure

[Four] functions of the kidneys:

[1] Waste metabolites; [2] excess water; [3] electrolytes

The kidneys remove [three] main things from the blood:

Cortex, medulla, calyces

The kidneys consist of an outer ___, a middle ___, and inner ___.

The cup-shaped recesses in the center of each kidney that receive the urine from the collecting ducts.

Places where major calyces converge, portion of the kidney that narrows to become the ureter.

Triangular-shaped areas of tissue in the medulla of the kidney.

Collecting duct

A segment of the nephron that returns water from the filtrate to the bloodstream.

Blood in the kidneys flows through the renal artery and into several ___ arteries.

Interloper arteries branch into ___ arteries, and then into the interlobular arteries.

Bowman's capsule

Cup-shaped strucutre of the nephron of a kidney which encloses the glomerulus and where filtration takes place.

A capillary bed surrounded by Bowman's capsule in the nephron and serving as the site of filtration in the kidney.

Renal corpuscle

Glomerulus plus Bowman's capsule

Proximal convoluted tubule, descending an ascending limb of the loop of Henle, distal convoluted tubule, collecting duct

Structures in tubular portion of nephron, in order:

afferent arteriole,

From the interlobular artery, blood drains into the ___ which gives rise to the glomerulus.

Peritubular capillaries

The network of tiny blood vessels that surrounds the proximal and distal tubules in the kidney.

Fluid that is filtered from the blood that enters the glomerular capsule.

These cells form a porous membrane surrounding the endothelial cells of the glomerulus.

Movement of a substance from the blood into he lumen of a nephron.

Removal of a substance from the body.

Filtration slits, pedicles

Podocytes have large ___ that are formed between ___.

Glomerular filtration rate

Volume of fluid filtered from renal glomerular capillaries into Bowman's capsule per unit time

GFR times plasma concentration of the substance is equal to:

Paracellular transport

Movement of substances between epithelial cells of the nephron.

Transcellular transport

Movement of substances across epithelial cells.

Paracellular transport is non-___.

Sodium glucose co-transporter

An example of secondary active transport, in which a glucose molecule is carried along with a sodium ion to cross tubule cells.

Angiotensin II, aldosterone

Sodium reabsorption occurs in the proximal tubule, ascending limb, and early distal tubule. It can be regulated in the proximal tubule by the hormone ___ in the proximal tubule and ___ int he late distal tubule and collecting duct.

Proximal tubule

All reabsorption of glucose and amino acids occurs in the ___.

Proximal tubule and descending loop of Henle

Water reabsorption occurs in the ___ and ___. It is regulated by ADH in the late distal tubule and collecting duct.

No ___ is reabsorbed in the ascending loop of Henle.

Antidiuretic hormone or ADH

Water reabsorption in the late distal tubule and collecting ducts is regulated by ___.

[1] Proximal tubule; [2] ascending limb; [3] distal tubule; [4] collecting duct

In the kidneys, hydrogen ions are always secreted, and this occurs in these [four] areas:

Potassium ion reabsorption occurs in the proximal tubule and ascending limb, while secretion occurs in the ___.

Collecting duct

The hormone aldosterone causes secretion of potassium in the distal tubule and ___.

During reabsorption from the proximal convoluted tubules, water can carry dissolved substances, such as potassium ions, by a process called:

Proximal tubule

Majority of sodium reabsorption occurs in the ___, through sodium-glucose, sodium-amino acid, and sodium-hydrogen exchange.

The 3 ion co-transporter of sodium, chloride and potassium

In the ascending limb, sodium is reabsorbed via what mechanism?

Sodium potassium pump

In the late distal tubule and collecting duct, sodium reabsorption is regulated by the hormone aldosterone which increases ___ activity as well as sodium channels in the luminal membrane.

Angiotensin II, proximal tubule

The sodium hydrogen exchanger can be regulated by the hormone ___ in the ___.

Solvent flux and simple diffusion

Potassium reabsorption in the proximal tubule occurs due to ___ and ___.

In the ascending loop of Henle, ___ is reabsorbed by the sodium potassium chloride co-transporter, but is also secreted due to leaky channels.

Collecting duct

Aldosterone causes potassium secretion in the ___ by increasing sodium potassium pump activity and by creating potassium channels.

Osmoreceptors are located in the ___

Wall of the left atrium

Volume receptors of the body are found in ___.

A mineralcortocoid produced by the adrenal cortex that promotes sodium and water reabsorption by the kidneys and potassium excretion in urine.

Angiotensinogen reacts with renin which converts it to angiotensin I and then ___

Juxtaglomerular cells

Tenin-secreting cells in the afferent and efferent arterioles of the renal nephron.

Ascending loop of Henle, sodium hydrogen exchanger

Angiotensin II increases sodium reabsorption in the proximal tubule and ___, and increases the activity of the ___.

[1] Vasoconstrictor; [2] thirst signal; [3] release of ADH; [4] absorption of water and sodium from digestive tract

Effects of Angiotensin II:

Normal PH of body fluids:

Arterial blood is more ___ than venous blood.

Category of acids that can be converted to a gas and are regulated by respiratory system.

Hydrochloric acid, sulphuric acid, lactic acid

Three examples of nonvolatile acids:

Bicarbonate and hemoglobin

Two buffers in the body:

Phosphates and intracellular proteins like hemoglobin

Buffer in intracellular fluid:

Bicarbonate ion

Buffer in extracellular fluid:

Hydrogen ions, bicarbonate ions

Kidneys secrete ___ and reabsorb ___ to help buffer blood.

ATP powered hydrogen ion pump

Hydrogen ions are secrete din the late distal tubule and collecting duct by ___, in which a single hydrogen ion is secreted and a bicarbonate ion is absorbed.

[1] Tyrosine derivatives; [2] Protein hormones; [3] Steroid hormones

Three types of hormones:

Endocrine, neural

The anterior pituitary is made up of ___ tissue, while the posterior pituitary is made up of ___ tissue.

Secreted by specialized cells of the brain; able to affect cells throughout the distant parts of the body.

Functional unit of thyroid gland:

Parafollicular or C cells

Thyroid gland follicles consist of colloid surrounded by epithelial cells, which have ___ cells lying between them.

Thyroid hormones are ___ and thus must be carried by proteins in the blood.

T3, T4, and calcitonin

The thyroid gland produces:

A polypeptide hormone from the thyroid gland that tends to lower the level of calcium in the blood plasma.

Biologically active

Although the body secretes more T4, most of it is converted to T3 because T3 is more ___.

Maintaining BMR, nervous system development in fetus, alertness,s responsiveness, emotional state

T3 and T4 are responsible for:

Higher temperature, higher CO, higher ventilation, higher food intake, greater breakdown of energy sources

An increase in thyroid hormones will cause:

Condition of congenital hypothyroidism in children that results in a lack of mental development and dwarfed physical stature; the thyroid gland is either congenitally absent or imperfectly developed.

Enlargement of thyroid. Due to excessive stimulation of thyroid gland by pituitary due to iodine deficiency. Due to tumor, due to insufficient iodine in diet.

The hormone ___ is secreted by C cells in the thyroid gland.

There are usually ___ parathyroid glands in humans.

[1] Increasing activity of osteoclast cells; [2] causing reabsorption of calcium

Parathyroid gland works in two ways:

The principal component of colloid is ______, an inactive storage form of thyroid hormones.

Zona glomerulosa

Most superficial zone of the adrenal cortex and produces mineralocorticoids such as aldosterone regulating electrolyte levels.

Zona fasciculata

Middle layer of adrenal cortex; secretes cortisol in response to ACTH (glucocorticoids).

Zona reticularis

The inner layer of the adrenal cortex is responsible for the release of androgens (testosterone).

Produce glucose from fats and amino acids; decrease protein synthesis, increase protein breakdown and decrease glucose uptake; decrease lipid synthesis and increase fat breakdown

Cortisol acts on the liver to ___, the muscles to ___, and the fat tissue to ___.

Cushing's syndrome

Condition caused by hypersecretion of cortisol by the adrenal cortex resulting in breakdown of muscle protein and redistribution of body fat,

A gland that releases a secretion external to or at the surface of an organ by means of a canal or duct.

Elevated amino acid levels or decreased glucose levels in the blood

Glucagon is released in response to:

A hormone which reduces the secretion of glucagon and insulin, and is released in response to increased levels of glucose, amino acids or fats in the blood.

At ___ weeks, the male gonads form, and at ___ weeks the female ovaries develop.

Earlier embryonic ducts that can develop into femal internal genitalia in the absence of testosterone.

What duct eventually develops into the vas deferens and epididymis in the male?

Mullerian inhibiting hormone

The chemical that suppresses the Mullerian duct development so the testis can form is called the ___.

A long, coiled duct on the outside of the testis in which sperm mature.

Regulate spermatogenesis, release inhibin, secrete fluid that pushed immature sperm to epididymis, blood-testis barrier

Function of sertoli cells:

In spermatogenesis, the hormone that decreases the secretion of FSH is ___.

Production of testosterone

It takes ___ days to complete the process of spermatogonia dividing into spermatocytes and eventually 4 sperm cells. It then takes an additional ___ days for the sperm to mature.

Spermatogenesis, release of testosterone

In males, FSH stimulates ___ and LH stimulates ____.

Progesterone is an intermediate for ___ production.

Aggressiveness, bone and muscle growth

In addition to sex characteristics, testosterone also causes:

Decrease of the male hormone testosterone during middle age.

Fingerlike projection of the uterin (fallopian) tubes that drape over the ovary.

High estrogen levels causes an increase in LH this triggers ovulation and formation of corpus luteum.

Bile salts are reabsorbed in the ___ of the small intestine, and returned to the liver where they're reused.

What is the major carrier of the fat-soluble vitamins from the intestinal epithelial cell to the circulation?

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

Monoglycerides and fatty acids enter ___ where they combine with cholesterol to form chylomicrons.

A lymph tubule located in the villus that absorbs fatty acids.

B, C, Folic acid, Niacin

Water soluble vitamins:

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