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Study Quetions from Urinalysis Book Ch 1-6

1. In the urinalysis laboratory the primary source in the chain of infection would be

A. Patients
B. Needlesticks
C. Specimens
D. Biohazardous waste

2. The best way to break the chain of infection is

A. Handwashing
B. Personal protective equipment
C. Aerosol prevention
D. Decontamination

3. Standard Precautions differ from Universal Precautions and body substance isolation by requiring

A. Wearing face shields and gloves whenever blood may be encountered
B. Wearing gloves when encountering any moist body fluid
C. Washing hands after removing gloves if visual contamination is present
D. Wearing gloves when exposed to moist body fluids and washing hands after glove removal

4. An employee who is accidentally exposed to a possible
blood-borne pathogen should immediately

A. Report to a supervisor
B. Plush the area with water
C. Clean the area with disinfectant
D. Receive HIV prophylaxis

5. Personnel in the urinalysis laboratory should wear lab coats that

A. Do not have buttons
B. Are fluid-resistant
C. Have short sleeves
D. Have full—length zippers

6. All of the following should be discarded in biohazardous waste containers except

A. Urine specimen containers
B. Towels used for decontamination
C. Disposable lab coats
D. Blood collection tubes

7. An employer who fails to provide sufficient gloves for the employees may be fined by the


8. An acceptable disinfectant for blood and body fluid decontamination is

A. Sodium hydroxide
B. Antimicrobial soap
C. Hydrogen peroxide
D. Sodium hypochlorite

9. Proper hand washing includes all of the following except

A. Using warm water
B. Rubbing to create a lather
C. Rinsing hands in a downward position
D. Turning on the water with a paper towel

10. Centrifuging an uncapped specimen may produce a biological hazard in the form of

A. Vectors
B. Sharps contamination
C. Aerosols
D. Specimen contamination

11. An employee who accidently spills acid on his arm should immediately

A. Neutralize the acid with a base
B. Hold the arn under running water for 15 minutes
C. Consult the MSDSs
D. Wrap the arm in gauze and go to the emergency room

12. When combining acid and water, ensure that

A. Acid is added to water
B. Water is added to acid
C. They are added simultaneously
D. Water is slowly added to acid

13. An employee can learn the carcinogenic potential of potassium chloride by consulting the

A. Chemical hygiene plan
B. Material safety data sheets
C. OSHA standards
D. Urinalysis procedure manual

14. Employees should not work with radioisotopes if they are

A. Wearing contact lenses
B. Allergic to iodine
C. Sensitive to latex
D. Pregnant

15. All of the following are safe to do when removing the source of an electric shock except

A. Pulling the person away from the instrument
B. Turning off the circuit breaker
C. Using a glass container to move the instrument
D. Unplugging the instrument

16. The acronym PASS refers to

A. Presence of vital chemicals
B. Operation of a fire extinguisher
C. Labeling of hazardous material
D. Presence of radioactive substances

17. The system used by firefighters when a fire occurs in the laboratory is


18. A class ABC fire extinguisher contains

A. Sand
B. Water
C. Dry chemicals
D. Acid

19. The first thing to d0 when a fire is discovered is to

A. Rescue persons in danger
B. Activate the alarm system
C. Close doors to other areas
D. Extinguish the fire if possible

20. If a red rash is observed after removing gloves, the employee

A. May be washing her hands too often
B. May have developed a latex allergy
C. Should apply cortisone cream
D. Should not rub the hands so vigorously

21. Pipetting by mouth is

lA. Acceptable for urine but not serum
B. Not acceptable without proper training
C. Acceptable for reagents but not specimens
D. Not acceptable in the laboratory

22. The NPFA classification symbol contains information on all of the following except

A. Fire hazards .
B. Biohazards
C. Reactivity
D. Health hazards

23. The classification of a lire that can be extinguished with water is

A. Class A .
B. Class B V
C. Class C
D. Class D

24. Employers are required to provide free immunization for

B. HTLV-] y

25. A possible physical hazard in the hospital is

A. Wearing closed-toed shoes
B. Not wearing jewelry
C. Having short hair
D. Running to answer the telephone

1. The type of nephron responsible for renal concentration is the

A. Cortical
B. juxtaglomerular

2. The function of the peritubular capillaries is

A. Reabsorption
B. Filtration
C. Secretion
D. Both A and C

3. Blood flows through the nephron in the following order

A. Efferent arteriole, peritubular capillaries, vasa recta, afferent arteriole
B. Peritubular capillaries, afferent arteriole, vasa recta, efferent arteriole
C. Afferent arteriole, peritubular capillaries, vasa recta, efferent arteriole
D. Efferent arteriole, vasa recta, peritubular capillaries, afferent arteriole

4. Filtration of protein is prevented in the glomerulus by

A. Hydrostatic pressure
B. Oncotic pressure
C. Renin
D. Capillary pores

5. Renin is secreted by the nephron in response to

A. Low systemic blood pressure
B. High systemic blood pressure
C. Oncotic capillary pressure
D. Increased water retention

6. The primary chemical affected by the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system is

A. Chloride
B. Sodium ~
C. Potassium
D. Hydrogen

7. Secretion of renin is stimulated by

A. juxtaglomerular cells
B. Angiotensin I and II
C. Macula densa cells
D. Circulating angiotensin-converting enzyme

8. The hormone aldosterone is responsible for

A. Hydrogen ion secretion
B. Potassium secretion
C. Chloride retention
D. Sodium retention

9. The fluid leaving the glomerulus has a specific gravity of

A. 1.005
B. 1.010
C. 1.015
D. 1.020

10. All of the following are reabsorbed by active transport in the tubules except

A. Urea
B. Glucose
C. Sodium
D. Chloride

11. Which of the tubules is impermeable to water

A. Proximal convoluted tubule
B. Descending loop of Henle
C. Ascending loop of Henle
D. Distal convoluted tubule

12. Glucose will appear in the urine when the

A. Blood level of glucose is 200 mg/dl.
B. Tm for glucose is reached
C. Renal threshold for glucose is exceeded
D. All of the above

13. The countercurrent mechanism takes place in the

A. juxtaglomerular nephrons
B. Proximal convoluted tubule
C. Cortical nephrons
D. Both A and C

14. ADH regulates the final urine concentration by controlling

A. Active reabsorption of sodium
B. Tubular permeability
C. Passive reabsorption of urea
D, Passive reabsorption of chloride

15. When the body is dehydrated

A. ADH production is decreased
B. ADH production is increased
C. Urine volume is increased
D. Both A and C

16. Bicarbonate ions filtered by the gloinerulus are returned to the blood

A. ln the proximal convoluted tubule
B. Combined with hydrogen ions
C. By tubular secretion
D. All of the above

17. lf ammonia is not produced by the distal convoluted tubule, the urine pH will be

A. Acidic
B. Basic

18. Place the appropriate letter in front of the following clearance substances

A. Exogenous
B. Endogenous
A: inulin
B: creatinine
B: cystatin C
A: 125 I-iothalmate

19. The largest source of error in creatinine clearance tests is

A. Secretion of creatinine
B. improperly timed urine specimens
C. Refrigeration of the urine _
D. Time of collecting blood sample _ A

20. Given the following infomation, calculate the creatinine clearance

24-hour urine volume: 1000 mL: serum creatinine:2.0 mg/dL: urine creatinine: 200 mg/dL
69 mil/min

21. Values for creatinine clearance tests on children arecorrected for

A. Body size
B. Urine volume
C. Activity level
D. Diet

22. Given the data serum creatinine

1.1 mg/dL: age:50 years, and weight: 72 kg, the estimated creatinine clearance using the Cockcroft-Gault formula is:
A. 46
B. 62
C. 82
D. 127

23. Variables that may be included in estimated creatinine clearance calculations include all of the following except

A. Serum creatinine
B. Urine creatinine
C. Age
D. Blood urea nitrogen

24. An advantage to using cystatin C to monitor GPR is

A. It does not require urine collection
B. It is not secreted by the tubules
C. It can be measured by immunoassay
D. All of the above

25. Solute dissolved in solvent will

A. Decrease vapor pressure
B. Lower the boiling point
C. Decrease the osmotic pressure
D. Lower the specific gravity

26. Substances that may interfere with measurement of urine and serum osmolarity include all of the following except

A. Ethanol
B. Lactic acid
C. Sodium
D. Lipids

27. The normal serum osmolarity is

A. 50-100 mOsm
B. 275-300 mOsm
C. 400-500 mOsm
D. 3 times the urine osmolarity

28. After controlled fluid intake, the urine-to-serum osmolarity ratio should be at least

A. 1:1
B. 2:1
C. 3:1
D. 4:1

29. Calculate the free water clearance from the following results

urine volume in 6 hours 720 mL urine osmolarity:
225 mOsm plasma osmolarity 300 mOsm

30. To provide an accurate measure of renal blood flow, a test substance should be completely

A. Filtered by the glomerulus
B. Reabsorbed by the tubules
C. Secreted when it reaches the distal convoluted
D. Cleared on each contact with functional renal tissue

31. Given the following data, calculate the effective renal plasma flow

urine volume ih 2 hours 240 ml. urine PAH
150 mg/dL plasma PAI•I 0.5 mg/dl.

32. Renal tubular acidosis can be caused by the

A. Production of excessively acidic urine due to increased Hltration of hydrogen ions
B. Production of excessively acidic urine due to increased secretion of hydrogen ions
C. Inability to produce an acidic urine due to impaired production of ammonia
D. Inability to produce an acidic urine due to increased production of ammonia

33. Tests performed to detect renal tubular acidosis after administering an ammonium chloride load include all of the following except

A. Urine ammonia
B. Arterial pH
C. Urine pH
D. Titratable acicity

1. The primary chemical constituents of normal urine are

A. Protein, sodium, and water
B. Urea, water, and protein
C. Urea, chloride, and water
D. Urea, bilirubin, and glucose

2. An unidentified fluid is received in the laboratory with a request to determine if the fluid is urine or another body fluid. Using routine laboratory tests, what test would determine that the fluid is most probably urine

A. Glucose and ketones
B. Urea and creatinine
C. Uric acid and amino acids
D. Protein and amino acids

3. A person exhibiting oliguria would have a daily urine volume of

A. 200-400 mL '
B. 600-1000 mL
C. 1000-1500 mL
D. Over 1500 mL

4. A patient presenting with polyuria, nocturia, polydipsia, and a high urine specific gravity is exhibiting symptoms of what disorder

A. Diabetes insipidus
B. Diabetes mellitus A
C. Urinary tract infection
D. Uremia

5. True or False

Disposable containers with a capacity of 50 mL are recommended for the collection of specimens for routine urinalysis.

6. The correct method for labeling urine specimen containers is to

A. Attach the label to the lid
B. Attach the label to the bottom
C. Attach the label to the container
D. Use only a wax pencil for labeling

7. A urine specimen for routine urinalysis would be rejected by the laboratory because

A. The specimen had been refrigerated
B. More than 50 mL was in the container
C. The specimen and accompanying requisition donot match
D. The label was placed on the side of the container

8. An unpreserved specimen collected at 8 a.m. and remaining at room temperature until the afternoon shift arrives can be expected to have

I. Decreased glucose and ketones
2. Increased bacteria and nitrite
3. Decreased pH and turbidity
4. Increased cellular elements
A. I, 2, and 3
B. I, 2, and 4
C. I and 2 only
D. 4 only

9. A specimen containing precipitated amorphous urates may have been preserved using

A. Boric acid ,
B. Chloroform
C. Forrnalin
D. Refrigeration

10. What three changes will affect the results of the microscopic examination of urine if it is not tested within 2 hours

A. Decreased bacteria, decreased red blood cells, decreased casts
B. Increased bacteria, increased red blood cells, increased casts
C. Increased bacteria, decreased red blood cells, decreased casts
D. Decreased bacteria, increased red blood cells, increased casts

11. What is the method of choice for preservation of routine urinalysis samples

A. Boric acid
B. Formalin
C. Refrigeration
D. Sodium fluoride

12. For best preservation of urinary sediments, the preservatives of choice are

A. Boric acid and thymol •
B. Fonnalin and sodium fluoride
C. Toluene and freezing
D. Chloroform and refngeration

13. What chemical can be used to preserve a specimen for a culture and a routine urinalysis

A. Boric acid
B. Formalin
C. Sodium fluoride
D. Thymol


'True or False: A properly labeled urine specimen for routine urinalysis delivered to the laboratory in a gray—top blood collection tube can be tested.

15. What is the specimen of choice for routine urinalysis

A. Fasting specimen
B. First morning specimen
C. Random specimen
D. 24—Hour specimen

16. Quantitative urine tests are performed on

A. First morning specimens
B. Timed specimens •
C. Midstsream clean-catch specimens
D. Suprapubic aspirations

17. Three types of urine specimens that would be acceptable for culture to diagnose a bladder infection include all of the following except

A. Catheterized
B. Midstream clean-catch
C. Random •t
D. Suprapubic aspiration

18. A negative urine pregnancy test performed on a random specimen may need to be repeated using a

A. Clean-catch specimen
B. Fasting specimen
C. First morning specimen
D. 24-Hour specimen

19. Cessation of urine flow is termed

A. Anuria
B. Azoternia
C. Diuresis
D. Dysuria

20. Persons taking diuretics can be expected to produce

A. Oliguria
B. Polyuria
C. Proteinuria
D. Pyuria

21. What type of urine specimen should be collected from a patient who complains of painful urination and the physician has ordered a routine urinalysis and urine culture

A. Random
B. First morning
C. Fasting
D. Midstream clean-catch

1. The concentration of a normal urine specimen can be estimated by which of the following

A. Color
B. Clarity
C. Foam
D. Odor

2. The normal yellow color of urine is produced by

A. Bilirubin
B. Hemoglobin
C. Urobilinogen
D. Urochrome

3. A yellow—brown specimen that produces a yellow foam when shaken can be suspected of containing

A. Bilirubin
B. Carrots
C. Hemoglobin
D. Rhubarb

4. A urine that turns black after standing may contain

A. Homogentisic acid
B. Melanin
C. Methemoglobin
D. All of the above ~

5. Specimens that contain intact RBCs can be visually distinguished from those that contain hemoglobin because

A. Hemoglobin produces a much brighter red color
B. Hemoglobin produces a cloudy pink specimen
C. RBCs produce a cloudy specimen
D. RBCs are quickly converted to hemoglobin

6. After eating beets purchased at the local farmers' market, Mrs. Williams notices that her urine is red, but Mr. Williams urine remains yellow The Williamses should

A. Be concerned because red urine always indicates
the presence of blood
B. Not be concerned because all women produce red
urine after eating beets
C. Be concerned because both of them should have
red urine if beets are the cause
D. Not be concerned because only Mrs. Williams is
genetically susceptible to producing red urine
from beets

7. Specimens from patients receiving treatment for urinary tract infections frequently appear

A. Clear and red
B. Viscous and orange '
C. Dilute and pale yellow
D. Cloudy and red

8. Freshly voided normal urine is usually clear

however, if it is alkaline, a white turbidity may be present due to:
A. Amorphous phosphates and carbonates
B. Uroerythrin
D. Yeast

9. Microscopic examination of a clear urine that produces a pink precipitate after refrigeration will show

A. Amorphous urates
B. Porphyrins
C. Red blood cells
D. Triple phosphate crystals

10. Under what conditions will a port-wine urine color be observed in a urine specimen

A. The patient has eaten Clorets.
B. Melanin is present.
C. Urine contains porphyrins.
D. The patient has a Pseudomonas infection.

11. Which of the following specific gravities would be most likely to correlate with a dark yellow urine

A. 1.005
B. 1.010
C. 1.020
D. l.030

12. True or False

Urine specific gravity is equally influenced by the presence of glucose and sodium.

13. In what circumstance might sediment be slightly warmed prior to microscopic examination

A. To hemolyze RBCs
B. To dissolve amorphous urates
C. To increase the specific gravity
D. To correct for temperature in determining the it A
cific gravity

14. A urine specific gravity measured by refractometer 1.029, and the temperature of the urine is 14°C. The specific gravity should be reported as

A. 1.023
B. 1.027
C. 1.029
D. 1.032

15. Refractive index compares

A. Light velocity in solutions with light velocity in solids
B. Light velocity in air with light velocity in solutml
C. Light scattenng by air with light scattering by Solutions
D. Light scattering by particles in solution

16. Refractometers are calibrated using

A. Distilled water and protein
B. Distilled water and blood
C. Distilled water and sodium chloride
D. Distilled water and urea »

17. A correlation exists between a specific gravity of 1.050 and at

A. 2+ glucose V
B. 2+ protein T
C. First morning specimen
D. Radiographic dye infusion

18. An alkaline urine turns black upon standing, develops a cloudy white precipitate, and has a specific gravity of 1.012. The major concern about this specimen would be

A. Color
B. Turbidity
C. Specific gravity
D. All of the above .

19. The reading of distilled water by the refractometer is 1.003. You should

A. Subtract 1.003 from each specimen reading j
B. Add 1.003 to each specimen reading
C. Use a new refractometer
D. Adjust the set screw

20. A unne specimen with a specinc gravity of 1.008 has been diluted 1

5. The actual specihc gravity is:
A. 1.008 .
B. 1.040

21. The method for determining a urine specific gravity that is based on the principle that the frequency of a sound wave entering a solution changes in proportion to the density of the solution is

A. Colorimetric
B. Harmonic oscillation densitometry
C. Refractometry
D. Urinometry

22. A specimen with a specific gravity of 1.005 would be considered

A. lsosthenuric
B. Hyposthenuric
C. Hypersthenuric
D. Not urine

23. True or False

Specific gravity is of more diagnostic value than osmolarity in evaluating renal concentration ability

24. A strong odor of ammonia in a urine specimen could indicate

A. Ketones
B. Normal
C. Phenylketonuria
D. Urinary tract infection ~

25. The microscopic of a cloudy amber urine is reported as rare WBCs and epithelial cells. What does this suggest

A. Urinary tract infection
B. Dilute random specimen
C. Precipitated amorphous urates
D. Possible mix-up of specimen and sediment »

26. A specimen with a strong ammonia odor and a heavy white precipitate when it arrives in the laboratory may require

A. Collection of a fresh specimen
B. Centrifugation
C. Dilution for specific gravity
D. Testing under a hood

1. Leaving a reagent strip in the specimen for too long will

A. Cause runover between reagent pads
B. Alter the color of the specimen
C. Cause reagents to leach from the pads
D. Not affect the chemical reactions

2. Failure to mix a specimen prior to inserting the reagent strip will primarily affect the

A. Glucose reading
B. Blood reading
C. Nitrite reading
D. Ph reading

3. Testing a refrigerated specimen that has not warmed to room temperature will adversely affect

A. Enzymatic reactions
B. Dye-binding reactions
C. The sodium nitroprusside reaction
D. Diazo reactions

4. The reagent strip reaction that requires the longest reaction time is the

A. Bilirubin
B. pH
C. Leukocyte esterase »
D. Glucose

5. Quality control of reagent strips is performed

A. Using positive and negative controls
B. When results are questionable
C. At least once every 24 hours
D. All of the above

6. All of the following are important to protect the integrity of reagent strips except

A. Removing the desiccant from the bottle ~
B. Storing in an opaque bottle
C. Storing at room temperature
D. Resealing the bottle after removing a strip

7. The principle of the reagent strip test for pH is the

A. Protein error of indicators
B. Greiss reaction
C. Dissociation of a polyelectrolyte
D. Double indicator reaction ••

8. A urine specimen with a pl•l of 9.0

A. ls indicative of metabolic acidosis
B. Should be recollected t
C. May contain calcium oxalate crystals
D. ls seen after drinking cranberry juice

9. In the laboratory a primary consideration associated with pH is

A. Identification of urinary crystals
B. Monitoring of vegetarian diets
C. Determination of specimen acceptability
D. Both A and C

10. Indicate the source of the following proteinuiias by placing a 1 for prerenal, 2 for renal, or 3 for postrenal in front of the condition

A. ___Microalbuminuria 2. Renal
B. ___Acute phase reactants 1.Prerenal
C. ___Pre-eclampsia 2. Renal
D. ___Vaginal inflammation 3. Postrenal
E. ____Multiple myeloma 1. Prerenal
F. ___Orthostatic Proteinuria 2. Renal
G. ___Prostatitis 3. Postrenal

11. The principle of the protein error of indicators reaction is that:
A. Protein changes the pH of the urine
B. Albumin accepts hydrogen ions from the indicator!
C. The indicator accepts ions for albumin
D. Albumin changes the pH of the urine

12. All of the following will cause false-positive protein reagent strip values except

A. Proteins other than albumin
B. Highly buffered alkaline urines
C. Delay in removing the reagent strip from the specimen
D. Contamination by quartenary ammonium compounds

13. A patient with a 1+ protein reading in the afternoon is asked to submit a first morning specimen. The second specimen also has a 1 + protein. This patient is

A. Positive for orthostatic proteinuria
B. Negative for orthostatic proteinuria
C, Positive for Bence jones protein
D. Negative for clinical proteinuria

14. Testing for microalbuminuria is valuable for monitoring patients with

A. Hypertension
B. Diabetes mellitus
C. Cardiovascular disease risk
D. All of the above

15. All of the following are true for the Micral-Test for microalbumin except

A. It is run on first morning specimens
B. It contains an antibody-enzyme conjugate
C. Two blue bands are formed on the strip
D. Unbound antibody attaches to immobilized Albumin

16. All of the following are true for the lmmunodip test for microalbumin except

A. Unbound antibody migrates farther than bound antibody
B. Blue latex particles are coated with antibody
C. Bound antibody migrates further than unbound antibody —
D. It utilizes an immumochromographic principle

17. The principle of the protein-low reagent pad on the Multistix Pro is the

A. Binding of albumin to sulphonphtalein dye
B. Immunologic binding of albumin to antibody
C. Reverse protein error of indicators reaction
D. Enzymatic reaction between albumin and dye

18. The principle of the creatinine reagent pad on microalbumin reagent strips is the

A. Double indicator reaction
B. Diazo reaction
C. Pseudoperoxidase reaction "
D. Reduction of a chromogen

19. The purpose of performing an albuminzcreatinine ratio is to

A. Estimate the glomerular filtration rate
B. Correct for hydration in random specimens —•~•
C. Avoid interference for alkaline urines
D. Correct for abnonnally colored urines

20. A patient with a normal blood glucose and a positive urine glucose should be further checked for

A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Renal disease ~
C. Gestational diabetes
D. Pancreatitis

21. The principle of the reagent strip tests for glucose is the

A. Peroxidase activity of glucose
B. Glucose oxidase reaction
C. Double sequential enzyme reaction r`
D. Dye—binding of glucose and chromogen

22. All of the following may produce false-negative glucose reactions except

A. Detergent contamination
B. Ascorbic acid
C. Unpreserved specimens
D. Low urine temperature

23. A positive Clinitest and a negative reagent strip glucose are indicative of

A. Low levels of glucose
B. Nonglucose reducing substances
C. High levels of glucose
D. Both A and B

24. The primary reason for performing a Clinitest is to

A. Check for high ascorbic acid levels
B. Confirm a positive reagent strip glucose
C. Check for newborn galactosuria
D. Confirm a negative glucose reading

25. The three intermediate products of fat metabolism include all of the following except

A. Acetoacetic acid
B. Ketoacetic acid
C. Beta-hydroxybutyric acid
D. Acetone

26. The most significant reagent strip test that is associated with a positive ketone result is

A. Glucose
B. Protein
C. pH
D. Specific gravity

27. The primary reagent in the reagent strip test for ketones is

A. Glycine
B. Lactose
C. Sodium hydroxide
D. Sodium nitroprusside

28. Ketonuria may be caused by all of the following except

A. Bacterial infections
B. Diabetic acidosis
C. Starvation
D. Vomiting

29. Urinalysis on a patient with severe back and abdominal pain is frequently perfonned to check for

A. Glucosuria
B. Proteinuria
C. Hematuria ~»
D. Hemoglobinuria

30. Place the appropriate number or numbers in front of each of the following statements. Use both numbers for an answer if needed

l. Hemoglobinuria
2. Myoglobinuiia
A. Associated with transfusion reactions l. Hemoglobinuria
B. Clear, red urine and pale yellow plasma 2. Myoglobinuiia
C. Clear, red urine and red plasma l. Hemoglobinuria
D. Associated with rhabdomylosis 2. Myoglobinuiia
E. Precipitated by ammonium sulfate l. Hemoglobinuria
F. Not precipitated by ammonium sulfate 2. Myoglobinuiia
G. Produced hemosiderin granules in urinary sediments l. Hemoglobinuria
H. Associated with acute renal failure l. Hemoglobinuria 2. Myoglobinuiia

31. The principle of the reagent strip test for blood is based on the

A. Binding of heme and a chromogenic dye
B. Peroxidase activity of heme
C. Reaction of peroxide and chromogen
D. Diazo activity of heme

32. A speckled pattern on the blood pad of the reagent strip indicates

A. Hematuria
B. Hemoglobinuria
C. Myoglobinuria
D. All of the above

33. List the following products of hemoglobin degradation in the corrct order by placing numbers 1-4 in front of them

2 A. Conjugated bilirubin
3 B. Urobilinogen and stercobiligen
4 C. Urobilin
1 D. Unconjugated bilirubin

34. The principle of the reagent strip test for bilirubin is the

A. Diazo reaction •
B. Ehrlich reaction
C. Greiss reaction
D. Peroxidase reaction

35. An elevated urine bilirubin with a normal urobilinogen is indicative of

A. Cirrhosis of the liver
B. Hemolytic disease
C. Hepatitis
D. Biliary obstruction

36. The primary cause of a false-negative bilirubin reaction is

A. Highly pigmented urine
B. Specimen contamination
C. Specimen exposure to light T
D. Excess conjugated bilirubin

37. The purpose of the special mal supplied with the lctotest tablets is that

A. Bilirubin remains on the surface of the mat. T
B. It contains the dye needed to produce color.
C. lt removes interfering substances.
D. Bilirubin is absorbed into the mat.

38. The reagent in the Multistix reaction for urobilinogen is

A. A diazonium salt
B. Tetramethylbenzidine
C. p-dimethylaminobenzaldehyde ••
D. Hoesch reagent

39. The primary problem with urobilinogen tests using Ehrlich reagent is

A. Positive reactions with porphobilinogen
B. Lack of sensitivity
C. Positive reactions with Ehrlich reactive substances
D. Both A and C »-~

40. In the Watson-Schwartz differentiation test, the substance(s) not extracted into butanol is/are

A. Urobilinogen
B. Porphobilinogen
C. Ehrlich reactive substances
D. All of the above

41. The Hoesch test is used to monitor or screen patient for the presence of

A. Urobilinogen
B. Nitrite
C. Porphobilinogen tr
D. Leukocyte esterase

42. The reagent strip test for nitrite used the

A. Greiss reaction ''''
B. Hoesch reaction
C. Peroxidase reaction
D. Pseudoperoxidase reaction

43. All of the following can cause a negative nitrite reading except

A. Gram-positive bacteria
B. Gram-negative bacteria r
C. Random urine specimens
D. Heavy bacterial infections

44. A positive nitrite test and a negative leukocyte esterase test is an indication of a

A. Dilute random specimen
B. Specimen with lyzed leukocytes
C. Vaginal yeast infection
D. Specimen older than 2 hours ••'

45. All of the following can be detected by the leukocyte esterase reaction except

A. Neutrophils
B. Eosinophils
C. Lymphocytes A
D. Basophils

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