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Protection from infection known as species resistance is a result of

both the absence of necessary receptors and lack of suitable environment in the body.

A response that is uniquely directed against pathogenic Bordetella pertussis would involve what component?


First line defenses have what aspect in common with each other?

They are physical barriers against invading pathogens.

Both the innate and adaptive defenses of the immune system work to prevent

the penetration and colonization by pathogens, and the diseases they cause.

If a new bacterial pathogen entered a human body through an accidental needle stick, the first cell that would try to kill the pathogen would likely be

a phagocyte.

T or F: Sweat contains lysozyme.


First line of defense may be described as

intact skin, sebum, tears, etc

The leukocytes called natural killer lymphocytes

are nonspecific leukocytes that secrete toxins onto the surface of virally infected cells.

Diapedesis is the process of

the squeezing of cells through the lining of capillaries to attack invading microbes.

The phenomenon know as chemotaxis is defined as

the movement of a cell toward or away from a chemical stimulus.

Which of the following is NOT one of the signs of inflammation?

swelling (tumor), heat (calor), redness (rubor), ODOR, pain (dolor)

Phagocytosis is defined as

the ingestion of solid material by a eukaryotic cell.

How is phagocytosis in the immune system different from protozoan phagocytosis?

Protozoan phagocytosis is used for feeding; phagocytosis by immune cells is used to fight infection.

An inflammatory response would result from which of the following?

jellyfish sting

If a person turns their ankle, how would one determine if damage to the tissue in the ankle has occurred?

The ankle is red, swollen, and warm to the touch.

What is the function of inflammation in response to a burn from a hot iron?

To repair the damaged tissue

Phagocytes release ________, which result in the production of fever.


The M protein on the surface of Streptococcus pyogenes

is part of the capsule and prevents adherence of phagocytes to its surface.

Which part of the adaptive immune response involves B cells?


Antibodies are a part of which type of immunity?


The primary immune response involves

a slow rise in the concentration of antibodies, followed by a gradual decline.

Which cells are involved in a secondary response?

Memory B cells and plasma cells

How is the secondary response different from the primary response in terms of antibody concentration in the blood?

The secondary response is faster and produces more antibodies than the primary response.

An anamnestic response is

another name for secondary response.

Antigens are

specific molecules, or parts of molecules, that the body recognizes as foreign.

Which receptor on the helper T-cell recognizes the specific antigen from an antigen-presenting cell?


TH2 cells produce cytokines that activate

B cells

Which proteins on the antigen-presenting cell are recognized by the helper T-cell?

MHC proteins

When do helper T-cells develop into TH1 or TH2 cells?

After proliferation into a clonal population

Natural killer cells are activated by

TH1 cells.

Which type of cell directly attacks infected cells?

Cytotoxic T-cells

Cytokines are produced by which of the following cells?

Helper T-cells

HIV directly infects T-cells. Why is this problematic for cell-mediated immunity?

Cytotoxic T-cells begin to attack the virally infected T-cells, reducing the number of T-cells in the body.

How do helper T-cells and cytotoxic T-cells work together?

Helper T-cells produce cytokines to activate other cells of the immune system.

What makes agglutination by antibodies possible?

Each antibody has at least two antigen-binding sites.

What is the role of plasma cells in humoral immunity?

Plasma cells produce antibodies.

How might a pathogenic bacterium be affected by antibodies?

The antibodies may block proteins necessary for binding the pathogen to the host, may opsonize the bacterium, or may agglutinate bacteria.

Where are MHC molecules located on a cell?

On the surface of the cell

What is a feature of the small fragments presented by MHC-I proteins?

They are small peptides, roughly 8-10 amino acids long.

Which organelle assists directly with the presentation of MHC-I antigens?

the endoplasmic reticulum

When does MHC-II loading occur?

During the fusion of vesicles containing MHC-II proteins with vesicles containing digested pathogens.

Which of the cells listed below can present antigens on Class II MHC proteins?


Antigen processing and presentation

is a way for a cell to give information about its activities.

Why would a body cell that is not a phagocyte need to present antigens?

Non-phagocytic body cells can become infected with a virus.

How do phagocytes communicate to other cells what they have captured?

They present antigens from engulfed foreign cells.

What is apoptosis?

The process of programmed cell death.

What is the function of the CD8 receptor?

Bind to MHC molecules

What is the fate of activated cytotoxic T-cells?

They proliferate into a clone of cells specific to the same antigen; some of these cells then differentiate into long-lived memory T-cells, while others mature to attack infected cells.

Which molecule triggers apoptosis?


Which event happens first during cytotoxic T-cell activation?

CD8 binds to MHC molecules of infected cells

Enhanced immune responses to subsequent exposures to an antigen to which the body has already been exposed are known as

memory responses

Which of the following best characterizes clonal selection?

The production of identical B cells producing the same antibody

What is produced by the process of clonal expansion?

plasma cells and memory B cells

An antigen that is potent enough to activate a B cell on its own is known as

T-independent antigens.

T cells recognized the antigen displayed by what protein of the B cell?


How can a sufficient humoral immune response occur if a plasma cell only lives for a few days?

Each plasma cell can produce up to 2000 antibodies every second.

BCG is a vaccine against Mycobacterium tuberculosis. The vaccine is composed of a live Mycobacterium bovis variant called bacillus of Calmette and Guérin. This is an example of which type of vaccine?

attenuated whole agent vaccine

To vaccinate children against the bacterial infection diphtheria, pure diphtheria toxin is chemically modified and injected as a vaccine. This is an example of which type of vaccine?

toxoid vaccine

Patients can receive one of two different types of influenza vaccine, both of which use whole viruses. The nasal spray uses live virus and is an example of a(n) ________ vaccine, while the injection uses killed virus and is an example of a(n)___________ vaccine.

attenuated whole agent, inactivated whole agent

Antivenin is

an antitoxin used to treat snakebites.

The vaccine to prevent tetanus is a(n) __________ vaccine.


A(n) __________ vaccine to prevent cervical cancer was recently developed.


Exposure to HIV can be verified using a(n) __________ assay.

western blot

Titration is a serological procedure that

determines the amount of an antibody in the blood.

Tuberculosis may be diagnosed using

a direct fluorescent antibody test.

A vaccine is currently available against which of the following microbes?


Which of the following would be most affected by treatment with an antihistamine?

mast cells and basophils

Which of the following would NOT be an example of a common allergen?

HAY FEVER, dust mites, pollen, peanuts

A patient enters the emergency room with itchy, swollen hives. This is an example of a ___________ allergic response called __________.

localized; urticaria

The tuberculin response is mediated by

memory T cells

How can type I allergic reactions be diagnosed?

by injecting very small quantities of dilute solutions of suspected allergens under the skin

Which of the following would test positive for the tuberculin response?

someone who has been immunized with the tuberculosis vaccine or has previously had tuberculosis

Primary immunodeficiency diseases

are detectable close to birth

What is the underlying problem in most acquired immunodeficiencies?

declining cell-mediated immunity

Opportunistic infections typical of AIDS but rare otherwise include

Pneumocystis pneumonia and Kaposi's sarcoma.

Type I diabetes is a(n) __________ .

autoimmune disease

The glycoprotein and glycolipid molecules on the surface of red blood cells

stimulate the production of antibodies that contribute to the development of a transfusion reaction.

The skin is an effective barrier against invading microbes because

the outer layers are dead and covered in salt.

A pigment produced by an opportunistic pathogen that contributes to tissue damage is


"Pox" is a term synonymous with which of the following?

a pustule

Which of the following can cause birth defects?


"Ringworm" is caused by

dermatophytes growing in the upper dead tissue layers of the skin.

Which of the following forms of leishmaniasis is typically fatal?


Transovarian transmission is a process by which

an infected female vector transmits a pathogen to the eggs in its ovaries.

Cat scratch disease is caused by

Bartonella henselae.

Functions of the meninges include

support for the brain and spinal cord and protection from external shock.

The optic nerves are an example of which of the following?

sensory nerves

How does tetanospasmin act?

It blocks the release of inhibitory neurotransmitters in the CNS.

Which of the following produces the most deadly toxins known?

Clostridium botulinum

Listeria monocytogenes pathogenesis is directly related to its ability to

live and reproduce inside its host's cells.

Endocytosis of Streptococcus pneumoniae by various body cells is triggered by


Slow deterioration of muscle function occurring over many years occurs in

postpolio syndrome

Poliovirus is most often transmitted via

contaminated water.

The least common type of polio is

paralytic polio

The disease known as cryptococcal meningitis

results from exposure to bird droppings and begins as a lung infection.

Tsetse flies transmit

African sleeping sickness.

Which of the following is classified as a spongiform encephalopathy?

variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

The condition known as "pinkeye" may be the result of infection with

Haemophilus influenzae.

Whole blood with the formed elements and clotting proteins removed is called


A patient exhibiting arthritis secondary to Lyme disease is likely in which phase of the infection?


Lyme disease is caused by ____________ and is transmitted by __________.

B. burgdorferi; Ixodes

Which of the following must happen during Lyme disease?

There is an adaptive immune response.

The causative agent of bubonic and pneumonic plague is

Yersinia pestis.

An indication of infection with Human herpesvirus 4 is

high fever and sore throat.

A bull's-eye rash is associated with infections of which of the following?

Borrelia burgdorferi

Which of the following types of bacterial toxins is associated exclusively with Gram-negative bacteria?


Dengue hemorrhagic fever is actually

a hyperimmune response to reinfection with dengue virus.

Ebola hemorrhagic fever is caused by which of the following virus types?


Which of the following diseases is a major problem for AIDS patients?


Trypanosoma cruzi is transmitted by which of the following?

Triatoma bugs

nfection with which of the following species of Plasmodium is most likely to be fatal?

P. falciparum

Which of the following is part of the upper respiratory system?


The majority of adult cases of pneumonia are caused by

Streptococcus pneumoniae.

Pathogenic streptococci of the upper respiratory tract (such as Streptococcus pyogenes) are distinguished from non-pathogenic streptococci by

beta hemolytic activity.

The majority of cases of otitis media are caused by

Streptococcus pneumoniae.

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the common cold?

Cold viruses are frequently spread by contaminated fomites.

Tuberculosis is the name of the ___________ caused by the _________ Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

disease; bacterium

What can you deduce from the treatment strategy for M. tuberculosis infection?

The organism has some innate resistance to antibiotics.

Which of the following could be true of tuberculosis of the kidney?

The patient would likely be infected with MDR TB or XDR TB.
The disease could be subsequent to a normal primary infection.
The patient would likely have a positive skin test.
The disease could be subsequent to a reactivated latent infection.

Pneumocystis jiroveci is

a common member of the respiratory microbiota in humans.

Limiting exposure to rodents and their waste materials is an important means of controlling

Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome.

The typical signs and symptoms of flu are a result of

cytokines released as part of the immune response.

Which of the following diseases is considered diagnostic for AIDS?

Pneumocystis pneumonia

Which of the following factors is primarily responsible for the ability of Mycobacterium tuberculosis to survive long periods of time in dried droplets of respiratory aerosols?

the presence of mycolic acid in the cell wall

Legionella pneumophila is an opportunistic pathogen that

survives in the environment as an intracellular parasite of a protozoan.

Which of the following vessels carries blood from the heart to the rest of the body?

the aorta

Another name for brucellosis is

undulant fever.

Which of the following diseases is currently vaccine-preventable in humans?

yellow fever

Encephalitis is an infection of

the brain

Which of the following causative agents of bacterial meningitis is transmitted by contaminated food?

Listeria monocytogenes

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