One compound that is a product of the Calvin cycle is ___.
A) NADPH B) G3P C) O2 D) ATP E) All of the above
The first step of the Calvin Cycle is the incorporation of ___into___.
A) O2...G3P B) RuBP...O2 C) CO2...RuBP D) G3P...RuBP E) G3P...C6H12O6
the last stage of one complete turn of the Calvin cycle involves
A) G3P production B) reduction of CO2 C) oxidation of CO2 D) regeneration of RuBP E) sugar production
D) regeneration of RuBP
If an herbicide blocked the Calvin cycle before the generation of glyceradlehyde 3-phosphate (G3P), which of the following statements would be true?
A) The plant would need more carbon dioxide. B) The plant would still be able to make sugar, just a lot less. C) No oxygen would be released by the plant. D) No sugar would be made by the plant E) Only RuBP wold be recycled.
D) No sugar would be made by the plant.
The Calvin cycle makes direct use of ___ to make___.
A) light energy and CO2...sugar B) CO2, ATP, and NADPH...sugar and O2 C) light energy, CO2, and water...sugar and O2 D) CO2, ATP, and NADPH...sugar E) sugar and O2...CO2, NADPH, and ATP
D) CO2, ATP, and NADPH...sugar
Which of the following is found in both cellular respiration and in the light reactions of photosynthesis?
A) citric acid cycle B) lactic acid fermentation C) glycolysis D) Calvin cycle E) electron transport chain
E) electron transport chain
___is the source of the oxygen gas released by a photosystem.
A) NADPH B) H2O C) Chlorophyll a D) CO2 E) C6H12O6
Which of the following is the source of electrons for the light reactions?
A) C6H12O6 B) CO2 C) NADPH D) NADH E) H2O
Where are photosystems located?
A) inner chloroplast membrane B) chlorophyll C) thylakoid membrane D) cristae E) stroma
C) thylakoid membrane
What compound is found at the reaction center of a photosystem?
A) chlorophyll c B) chlorophyll b C) carotenoids D) xanthrophylls E) chlorophyll a
E) chlorophyll a
The light reactions of a photosynthesis take place ___.
A) in the stroma B) on the cristae C) in the thylakoid membrane D) in the cytosol E) in the inner membrane
C) in the thylakoid membrane
When a chlorophyll A absorbs a photon, one of its electrons is raised to the ___ state.
A) energetic B) ground C) quantum D) higher E) excited
Which of the following is a way that a molecule releases energy gained by absorption of a photon?
A) heat B) fluorescence C) light D) loss of an electron E) all of the above
E) all of the above
If a plant appears blue to us what wavelength of light is being reflected?
A) blue B) green C) red D) yellow E) orange
The energy of wavelengths that appear ___ is least useful to photosynthesis.
A) violet B) red C) green D) blue E) orange
What is responsible for the yellow-orange coloration of leaves in the fall?
A) RuBP B) chlorophyll a C) phycoerythrin D) carotenoids E) chlorophyll b
What is one reason why plants have accessory pigment molecules, like chlorophyll b and carotenoids?
A) to reflect more energy B) to absorb energy in parts of the electromagnetic spectrum that chlorophyll a cannot C) to give them different colors D) because plants cannot make enough chlorophyll a for all of their energy needs E) because chlorophyll a can get burnt out by intense sunlight during the summer
B) to absorb energy in parts of the electromagnetic spectrum that chlorophyll a cannot
What name is given to a discrete packet of light?
A) phaser B) wavelength C) spectrum D) photon E) quantum
The products of the light reactions of photosynthesis are ___.
A) ATP and NADH B) ATP and NAD+ C) ATP and NADPH D) RuBP and O2 E) ATP and NADP+
C) ATP and NADPH
In photosynthesis, redox reactions ultimately transfer electrons from ___to____.
A) O2...CO2 B) C6H12O6...O2 C) CO2...O2 D) H2O...C6H12O6 E) H2O...CO2
The light reactions of photosynthesis convert ___ energy to ___ energy.
A) solar...chemical B) chemical...electrical C) electrical ... solar D) proton gradient...chemical E) ATP...NADPH
The Calvin cycle requires ___ and ___ from the light-dependent reactions in order to operate.
A) glucose...carbon dioxide B) electrons...NADH C) ATP...NADPH D) oxygen...carbon dioxide E) RuBP...NADP+
What name is given to the membranous sacs found within a chloroplast?
A) stroma B) cristae C) reaction centers D) thylakoids E) vesicles
What are grana?
A) thick fluids inside chloroplasts B) convolutions of the inner chloroplast membrane C) stacks of membranous sacs D) pigments found in chloroplasts E) sacs that surround the stroma
C) stacks of membranous sacs
Which of the following equations best summarizes photosynthesis?
A) 6 CO2 + 6 H20 + 6 O2 --> C6H12O6 B) 6 CO2 + 6 H2O --> C6H12O6 + 6 O2 C) 6 CO2 + 6 O2 --> C6H12O6 + 6 H2O D) C6H12O6 + 6 O2 --> 6 CO2 + 6 H2O E) 6 O2 + 6 H2O --> C6H12O6 + 6 CO2
B) 6 CO2 + 6 H2O --> C6H12O6 + 6 O2
In which organelle does photosynthesis take place?
A) mitochondrion B) nucleus C) chloroplast D) rough endoplasmic reticulum E) vacuole
Which of the following is an autotroph?
A) human B) mushroom C) pine tree D) fish E) porcupine
C) pine tree
The best definition of a true-breeding plant is one that___
A) cannot be cross-fertilized B) self-fertilized to produce offspring identical to the parent C) produces sterile offspring when cross-fertilized D) becomes sterile after three generations
B) self-fertilized to produce offspring identical to the parent
Mendel discovered that a mating between a true-breeding purple-flowered pea plant seeds and a true-breeding white-flowered pea plant seeds produced____.
A) only true-breeding varieties B) inbred organisms C) hybrids D) P generations E) F2 generations
Alleles are described as ___.
A) homologous chromosomes B) environmental factors that affect gene expression C) alternate versions of a gene D) Punnet squares E) alternate phenotype
C) alternate versions of a gene
A true-breeding plant that produces yellow seeds is crossed with a true-breeding plant that produces greed seeds. The seeds of all of the offspring are yellow. Why?
A) The yellow allele is recessive to the green allele. B) All of the offspring are homozygous yellow. C) The yellow allele is dominat to the green allele. D) The alleles are codominant E) Yellow is an easier color to produce
C) The yellow allele is dominat to the green allele.
A true-breeding plant that produces yellow seeds is crossed with a true-breeding plant that produces green seeds. The F1 plants have yellow seeds. What is the expected phenotypic ratio of seed color of the offspring of an F1 x F1 cross?
A) 1:2:1 B) 2:1 C) 3:1 D) 9:3:3:1 E) 1:1
According to Mendel's law of segregation, ___.
A) two alleles segregate into each gamete B) homologous chromosomes move to the same gamete C) more gametes carrying the dominant allele are produced than gametes carrying the recessive allele D) gametes have one copy of each allele E) gametes are diploid
D) gametes have one copy of each allele
Attached earlobes are recessive to free earlobes. What genotypic ratio is expected when an individual with attached earlobes mates with an individual heterozygous for free earlobes?
A) 2:1 B) 9:3:31 C) 1:1 D) 1:2:1 E) 3:1
Mendel's Law of Independent assortment states that if you have two pairs of alleles, one pair will segregate into one sperm or egg cell while the other pair will separate into the other sperm or egg cell.
A) True B) False
Red-green color blindness is inherited as a sex-linked recessive trait. The gene is found on the X chromosome. How can a man with normal color vision father a daughter who is red-green color-blind?
A) The woman with whom he mates is red-green color-blind. B) The man is heterozygous for red-green color blindness C) Though he has normal color vision, the man is actually homozygous for red-green color blindness D) he cant (unless there is a mutation) E) the mans mother carries an allele for red-green color blindness, and the expression fo the trait skipped a generation
D) he cant (unless there is a mutation)
Chromosomes that are not sex chromosomes are called____.
A) centrosomes B) allosomes C) nonsexosomes D) autosomes
____genes violate Mendel's principle of independent assortment.
A) Codominat B) Dominant C) Linked D) Recessive E) Pleiotropic
In humans, the inheritance of ___ is best explained as being polygenic.
A) cystic fibrosis B) height C) Huntington's disease D) blood type E) sickle-cell disease
An individual with (naturally) curly hair and an individual with (naturally) straight hair mate; all of their offspring have (naturally) wavy hair. If an individual with wavy hair mates with an individual with straight hair, what is the probability that thier child will have curly hair?
A) 0% B) 25% C) 50% D) 75% E) 100%
Which of the following techniques is used to collect fetal cells during pregnancy for genetic testing?
A) testcross B) dihybrid cross C) amniocentesis D) pedigree analysis E) monohybrid cross
The____is most commonly found in nature
A) recessive trait B) wild-type trait C) parental D) dominant trait E) F1
B) wild-type trait
A couple has two female children. What is the probability that their next child will be male?
A) 25% B) 50% C) 75% D) 33% E) 67%
In humans, the presence or absence of dimples is a trait controlled by a single gene. What is the genotype of an individual who is heterozygous for dimples?
A) dimples B) DD C) Dd D) dd E) DI
An individual who is homozygous___.
A) expresses the dominant trait B) carries two different alleles for a gene C) is a carrier of a genetic disorder D) carries two copies of the same allele for a gene E) expresses the recessive trait
D) carries two copies of the same allele for a gene
Which of these crosses will only produce heterozygous offspring?
A) AA x aa B) AA x Aa C) Aa x Aa D) aa x aa E) Aa x aa
A) AA x aa
DNA & RNA are polymers composed of ____ monomers.
the backbone of DNA consists of ____.
C) a repeating sugar-phosphate-sugar-phosphate pattern
the DNA double helix is ____.
A) made up of two polynucleotide strands
RNA contains the nitrogenous base ___ instead of ___, which is only found in DNA.
If adenine makes up 20% of the bases in a DNA double helix, what percent of the bases are guanine?
In a DNA double helix, adenine pairs with ___ and guanine pairs with ____.
IF one strand of DNA double helix has the sequence GTCCAT, what is the sequence of the other strand?
Who discovered the structure of DNA?
B) Watson & Crick
Evidence for the spiral nature of DNA came from ____.
A) X-ray crystallography studies
What type of chemical bond joins the bases of complementary DNA strands?
After replication, ____.
B) each new DNA double helix consists of one old strand and one new strand
During replication, ____ are the enzymes responsible for joining the nicks of a new DNA strand together.
B) DNA ligases
How many amino acids are common to all living systems?
How many nucleotides make up a codon?
The mutation would be most harmful to the cells if it resulted in ____.
A) a single nucleotide insertion near the start of the coding sequence
HIV (human immunodeficiency virus) must use its own ____ to reproduce.
B) reverse transcriptase
How can bacteriophage DNA be spread from cell to cell without causing cell death?
D) via a lysogenic cycle
Viruses that infect bacteria are ____.
A mutation within a gene that will insert a premature stop codon in mRNA would _____.
B) result in a shortened polypeptide chain
Translation converts the information stored in ____ to ____.
B) RNA ... a polypeptide
The RNA that is translated into polypeptide is ____ RNA.
What protects mRNA from attack by cellular enzymes?
E) a cap and tail
The region of DNA where RNA synthesis begins is the ___.
The correct sequence of events occurring during transcription is ____.
B) initiation, elongation, termination
Which of the following enzymes is responsible for RNA synthesis?
E) RNA polymerase
The process by which genotype becomes expressed as phenotype is ___.
C) gene expression
In bacteria, what name is given to a cluster of genes with related functions, along with their control sequences?
Bacterial RNA polymerase binds to the ____.
Repressors act by blocking the binding of ____ to the operator.
E) RNA polymerase
What is the first level of control of eukaryotic gene transcription?
D) DNA packing & unpacking
Which of these plays a role in the regulation of transcription in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?
B) attachment of RNA polymerase to the promoter
Introns are ___.
A) noncoding DNA sequences
Cells communicate with one another via ___.
C) signal transduction pathways
Which of these techniques could tell you how gene expression differs between individuals with and without cystic fibrosis?
B) DNA microarray
How is it that the cells in different body tissues are able to perform different functions?
A) The cells exhibit different patterns of gene expression
To make a clone, a genetically identical organism, from a mammalian cell, the cell must ____.
D) be dedifferentiated
Possible uses of reproductive cloning include___.
A) the production of genetically identical animals for experimentation B) the production of potentially valuable drugs C) the production of organs in pigs for transplant into humans D) restocking populations of endangered animals E) all the above
E) all the above
What is a difference between embryonic and adult stem cells?
C) Embryonic stem cells are undifferentiated; adult stem cells are partially differentiated.
What name is given to a gene that causes cancer?
Which of these is most likely to cause the development of a six - legged frog?
A) mutation of homeotic genes
Which of the following is the best definition for recombinant DNA?
C) DNA that carries genes from two different sources
Which of these is a genetically modified organism?
A) an organism carrying a gene that was acquired by artificial means
The world's first genetically engineered pharmaceutical product was ____.
A vaccine works by ___.
B) stimulating the immune system to develop lasting defenses
Transgenic animals are currently used___.
A) to produce potentially useful proteins
Which of these can act as a vector to introduce new genes into a cell?
Of these steps, which occurs first in the production of a recombinant plasmid?
D) isolation of a plasmid from a bacterium
When plasmids are used to produce a desired protein, the ___.
D) desired gene is inserted into the plasmid and the plasmid is taken up by the bacterium
The human genome contains approximately ____ genes.
Approximately what percentage of the human genome consists of noncoding DNA?