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A&P Exam1 Review Ch 1-16

STUDY
PLAY
Each of the following is a function of the nervous system except
directing activities that continue for extended periods, such as growth and pregnancy
Voluntary control of skeletal muscles is provided by the ____________ nervous system
Somatic
The part of the peripheral nervous that brings information to the central nervous system is
Afferent
Functions of astrocytes include all of the following except
functioning in action potential transmission
The myelin sheaths that surround the axons of some of the neurons in the CNS are formed by
oligodendrocytes
The type of glial cells that's found lining the ventricles and spinal canal are the
ependymal cells
At the normal resting potential of a typical neuron, its ion exchange pump transports
3 intracellular sodium ions for 2 extracellular potassium ions
The sodium-potassium exchange pump
requires ATP to function
Interneurons
are found only in the central nervous system
All of the following are functions of cerebral spinal fluid, except that it
transports oxygen
The dorsal root of a spinal nerve contains
axons of sensory neurons
The ventral root of a spinal nerve contains
axons of motor neurons
Spinal nerves are __________ nerves
mixed
Which of the following pairs is not properly matched?
lumber spinal nerves: 4
Sensory and motor innervation of the skin of the sides and front of the body are provided by the
ventral ramus
Which of the following is true regarding an epidural block?
- it can be difficult to achieve in the upper cervical and midthoracic region
- it is commonly used as method of pain control during labor and delivery
- if affects only the spinal nerves in the immediate area of the injection
- it provides mainly sensory anesthesia
The middle layer of the spinal nerve is termed the
perineurium
The horns of the spinal cord contain
nerve cell bodies
During embryonic development, which of the following brain vesicles will form the cerebrum?
telencephalon
Visual and auditory information are processed by the
diencephalon
Major centers concerned with autonomic control of breathing, blood pressure, heart rate & digestive activities are located in the
medulla oblongata
Which of the following represents a link between the nervous and endocrine systems?
hypothalamus
The pons contains
tracts that link the cerebellum with the brain stem
Overseeing the postural muscles of the body and making rapid adjustments to maintain balance and equilibrium are functions of the
cerebellum
Auditory information from the medulla is received by the
inferior colliculi
Motor nuclei that control reflex movements associated with eating are located in the
mamillary bodies
Stimulation of the reticular formation results in
increased consciousness
The ___________ appear(s) to be important in learning and the storage of long-term memories
hippocampus
Regions of the brain that are involved in interpreting data or coordinating motor responses are called __________ areas.
association
The highest levels of information processing occur in the
cerebrum
Higher-order functions
- are subject ot adjustments and modification over time
- involve both conscious and unconscious information processing
- involve complex interactions between areas of the cortex and other areas of the brain
The cerebral nuclei
provide the general pattern and rhythm for movements such as walking
The respiratory rhythmicity center is found in
the medulla oblongata
Two terms that are used in reference to gray matter are _______ and ___________
nuclei, horns
Two terms that are used in reference to white matter are _________ and ___________
tracts, columns
The brain alters spinal reflexes by
- "sending" the reflexes to higher centers in the brain
- reinforcing or facilitating reflexes
- stimulating "inhibiting neurons" and suppressing postsynaptic neurons
A muscle spindle is
innervated by both sensory and motor neurons
Vestibulospinal, tectospinal and reticulospinal are three ___________
motor pathways of the spinal cord
Receptor specificity can be the result of all of the following except
tissue location of the receptor cell
Our perception of our environment is incomplete because of all of the following , except that
receptors respond in an all-or-nothing manner
Harry has a biking accident and injures his back. He is examined by a doctor who noticed that Harry cannot feel pin pricks in his right foot but can feel the sensation in his left foot as well as his right and lift and thorax. There appear to be no problems with the motor activity in any of his appendages. The physician tells Harry that he thinks a portion of the spinal cord may be compressed and is causing these symptoms. Where the problem is probably located?
The right lateral spinothalamic tract at the L2 level
Damage to the tectospinal tracts would interfere with the
ability to position the eyes, head and neck in response to bright lights
Sensations of burning or aching pain
cause a generalized activation of the reticular formation and the thalamus
The ability to localize a specific stimulus depends on the organized distribution of sensory information to the
primary sensory cortex
Related to the medial and lateral pathways: The ________ pathway controls ________ movements of ______ limb muscles.
medial; gross; proximal OR lateral; precise, distal
The cerebellum monitors
- sensations from the inner ear as movements are under way
- proprioceptive sensations
- visual information from the eyes
Conscious and subconscious motor commands control skeletal muscles by traveling over the
- corticospinal pathway
- lateral pathway
- medial pathway
_________ are receptors in the lung that monitor the degree of lung expansion
Baroreceptors
Peripheral adaption _____ the amount of information hat reaches the CNS
decreases
Proprioceptors are to __________ as exteroreceptors are to ____________
skeletal muscles; external environment
Somatic sensory information is distributed to sensory processing centers in the
brain
Visceral sensory information is distributed to sensory processing centers primarily in the
brain stem and diencephalon
An autonomic motor neuron whose cell body lies in the CNS is called _______ neuron
a preganglionic
The cerebellum adjusts voluntary and involuntary motor activity in response to all of the following, except
touch sensations
Complex motor activities such as riding a bicycle or eating
require the coordinated activity of several regions of the brain
The cerebral nuclei
provide a background pattern and rhythm for movement
Processing centers of the extrapyramidal system include all of the following, except
mamillary bodies
Spinal tracts of the extrapyrmidal system include all of the following, except _______ tracts
spinothalamic
Axons that decussate in the region of the pyramids of the medulla form the _______ tracts
lateral corticospinal
Voluntary control of skeletal muscles is provided by the
pyramidal system
The pyramidal system provides
voluntary control over skeletal muscles
The spinal tract that controls involuntary regulation of reflex activity and autonomic function is the ___________ tract
reticulospinal
The spinal tract that controls involuntary regulation of eye, head, neck, and arm position in response to visual and auditory stimuli is the ______ tract
tectospinal
The spinal tract that regulates voluntary motor control of skeletal muscle on the same side of the body is the _______ tract
anterior corticospinal
We can distinguish between sensations that originate in different areas of the body because
sensory neurons from each body region synapse in specific brain regions
The spinal tract that relays information concerning pain and temperature to the CNS is the
lateral spinothalamic
The spinal tract that relay information concerning crude touch and pressure to the CNS is the
anterior spinothalamic
The spinal tract that carries sensory information concerning fine touch and pressure is the
fasciculus gracilis
Fine touch and pressure receptors provide detailed information about all of the following, except the
time of the stimulus
In the autonomic nervous system
the lower motor neurons directly innervate effector organs
Second-order neurons of the autonomic nervous system are located in
- the posterior gray horns of the spin cord
- the brain
Postganglionic axons of autonomic neurons are usually
unmyelinated
Preganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system are located in the
lateral gray horns of segments T1 to L2 of the spinal cord
Preganglionic fibers of the sympathetic nervous system that carry motor impulses to targets in the body wall or thoracic cavity synapse in a(n)
chain ganglion
Each of the following effects is associated with the action of postganglionic sympathetic fibers, except
decreased heart rate
Splanchnic nerves
carry fibers that synapse in collateral ganglia
Almost 75 percent of all parasympathetic outflow travels along the
vagus nerve
Postganglionic neurons in the adrenal gland
release epinephrine into blood capillaries
Muscarinic receptors
are activated by acetylcholine
Increased parasympathetic stimulation
increases gastric motility
A patient is about to undergo major surgery for a tumor in the chest. Two hours before the surgery the patient experiences "jitters," an elevated heart and blood pressure, increased rate of breathing, cold sweats and an urge to urinate. These symptoms are the results of
sympathetic activation
Tom suffers from hypertension (high blood pressure). Which of the following might help deal with his problem? A drug that
blocks beta receptors in cardiac muscle tissue
Mary accidentally ingests a toxin that binds to muscarinic receptors. What symptoms would you expect to observe?
diarrhea
Hallucinogenic drugs, like LSD, function by
stimulating serotonin receptors
The neurotransmitter that may be linked to schizophrenia is
dopamine
Hypersecretion of GABA (gamma aminobutyric acid) by the neurons of the cerebral nuclei would result in
flaccidity of skeletal muscles
What symptoms would you expect to observe in a person who is taking a drug that blocks secretion of norepinephrine in the CNS?
depression
Parasympathetic blocking agents would be useful in treating
diarrhea
Bill suffers a blow tot he neck that causes edema that compresses the ventral roots of spinal nerves C2 to C4 on the right side of his body. What symptoms would you expect to observe as a result of the injury?
difficulty in stabilizing the right shoulder joint
Drugs known as beta-blockers would be useful for treating
high blood pressure
Drugs that stimulate alpha receptors causing constriction of peripheral vessels are
sympathomimetic
A neuron with nicotenic receptors is stimulated by an acetylcholine agonist (molecule that acts the same as acetylcholine). This will cause
an increase in intracellular sodium ion
Close examination of an effector organ shows that it receives innervation by way of two neurons. The first is located in the cord and synapses with a second in a chain ganglion. Chemical analysis indicates that the postsynaptic neuron releases acetylcholine and that the effector has many cholinergic receptors. The effector is probably
a sweat gland
Epinephrine and norepinephrine released from the adrenal glands affect target tissue for a longer period of tme that the same substance when released from neurons at their peripheral receptors. Why?
There are no enzymes to break down epinephrine and norepinephrine in the blood and few enzymes in peripheral tissues
Drugs that have effects similar to those of norephinephrine and epinephrine are called sympathomimetic drugs. Which of the following symptoms would you not expect to observe in a person who has taken an excess of sympathomimetic drugs?
decreased blood pressure
Injury to the neurons of a collateral ganglion would affect the function of the
digestive tract
Damage to the ventral root of the first five thoracic spinal nerve on the right side of the body would interfere with the ability to
dilate the right pupil
Autonomic tone in autonomic motor neurons exist because ANS neurons
from both divisions commonly innervate the same organ
The chief difference between plasma and interstitial fluid involves the
concentration of dissolved oxygen and proteins
Red blood cell production is regulated by the hormone
erythropoietin
A red blood cell that contains normal amounts of hemoglobin would be called
normochromic
In adults, erythropoiesis primarily takes place in
myeloid tissue
Erythrocytes are formed from stem cells called
myeloid cells
Eryopoiesis increases when
oxygen levels in the blood increase
Platelets function in all of the following, except
dissolving a formed clot
The main event of the platelet phase is
formation of a platelet plug
The common pathway of coagulation begins with the
activating of a clotting factor that converts prothrombin to thrombin
Tissue thromboplasting is formed in the _________ pathway.
extrinsic
Which of the following drives a continuous exchange of fluids between the tissues and the blood
osmosis and diffusion
Your patient is on coumadin therapy (an anticoagulant) for a blood clot in the leg. Which type of plasma protein would you suspect is low?
fibrinogen
Eleen is a a strict vegetarian who's experiencing erythropenia, a deficiency in the number of red blood cells. This condition is most likely the result of which of the following?
lack of intrinsic factor
The disease sickle cell anemia is a good example of what can happen when
the amino acid sequence of normal globin is altered
When a person who lives in a city at sea level vacations in the Rocky Mountains , you would expect to observe an increase in
their red blood cell count
The level of erythropoietin in the blood would rise due to all of the following, except
during periods of fasting
People who suffer from hemophilia A fail to produce a functional factor VIII; as a result
they do not have a functional intrinsic pathway
A digestive disorder that impairs a person's ability to digest and absorb fats would interfere with
the common pathway of clotting
The myocardium is primarily composed of _________ tissue
cardiac muscle
The plateau phase of the cardiac muscle action potential is due to
the calcium channels remaining open longer that the sodium channels
In cardiac muscle
at least half of the calcium ion required for contraction comes from outside the cell
Cardiac muscle cells and skeletal muscle cells are different in a few ways. Which of the following is not true?
Skeletal muscle cells have only one nucleus
Cardiac muscle cells are
aerobic
The structure that permits blood flow from the right atrium to the left atrium while the lungs are developing before birth is the
foramen ovale
Drugs known as calcium channel blockers can be used to
decrease the force of cardiac contraction
If the connections between the vagus nerve and the heart are severed, the
none of the above
Which of the following is greater?
heart rate when norepinephrine is released at the SA node
Compared to arteries, veins
have thinner walls
Blood flow through a capillary is regulated by the
precapillary sphincter
Blood moves forward through beins by all of the following, except
because of contraction-relaxation pumping of the smooth muscle in the wall of the vein
As blood travels from the aorta toward the capillaries, the
resistance increases
Blood flow to a tissue will increase if the
level of carbon dioxide at the tissue increases
Blood pressure increases with all of the following, except increased
parasympathetic innervation
The blood osmotic pressure is most affected by changes in the
concentration of plasma proteins
Each of the following will lead to a decrease in blood pressure except
increased levels of aldosterone
Elderly individuals are more pprone than are younger individuals to have all of the following except
air embolisms
Arterial pressure is equal to
blood pressure
Elevated levels of the hormones ANP and BNP will produce increased
fluid loss through the kidneys
The secretion of ADH and aldosterone is typical of the body's long-term compensation following
a serious hemorrhage
Each of the following will cause an increase in blood pressure, except
increased levels of ANF (atrial natriuretic factor)
Activation of the intrinsic pathway of coagulation is initiated by:
blood contact with injured vascular endothelium
Fibrinolysis is characterized by
conversion of plasminogen to plasmin
Deficient production of blotting factors would occur if
an individual suffered from cirrhosis of the liver
All of the following are true regarding primary hemostatsis except
fibrin clots retract and solidify
Clotting factors are essential for successful hemostasis. Which of the following statements is true concerning the clotting factors?
Most clotting factors circulate in inactive form
Blood pressure is highest in the
aorta
A common cause of edema (swelling) is
decreased plasma colloid osmotic pressure
Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system caues constriction of
arterioles
During which period are Ca2+ slow channels open in cardiac cells' plasma membranes?
plateau
Given an end-diastolic volume of 150 mL, an end systolic volume of 50 mL, and a heart rate of 60 b[m, the cardiac output is:
6 Liters/min
The statement "strength of contraction increases intrinsically due to increased stretching of the heart wall" is best attributed to"
Frank-Starling Law of the Heart
A rise in blood pressure causes the heart rate to ______ because of the activation of the _______ nervous system
decrease, parasympathetic
Arteries Q: Two paired arteries serving the brain
External & Internal carotid
Arteries Q: supplies the diaphragm
Phrenic
Arteries Q: splits to form the radial and ulnar arteries
Brachail
Arteries Q: external iliac become this artery on entering the thigh
Femoral
Arteries Q: Terminal branches of the dorsal, or descending, aorta
Common iliac
Arteries Q: Artery generally used to feel the pulse at the wrist
Radial
Veins: drains the dural sinuses of the brain
Internal jugular
Veins: join to become the superior vena cava
Brachiocephalic
Veins: carries nutrient-rich blood from the digestive organs
Hepatic Portal
Veins: drains the ovaries or testes
Gonadal
Veins: longest superficial vein of the body
Great Saphenous
Veins: formed by the union of the external and internal iliac veins
Common iliac
Veins: deep vein of the thigh
Deep femoral
Large quantities of keratin are found in the epidermal layer called the
A: Stratum Lucidum
B: Stratum Spinosum
C: Stratum Germinativum
D: Stratum Granulosum
E: Stratum Corneum
stratum corneum
Tactile receptors composed of capsules that surround a core of collagen fibers intertwined with dendrites are called
A: root hair plexuses
B: ruffini corpuscles
C: tactile discs
D: tactile (Meissner) corpuscles
E: lamellated corpuscles
Ruffini corpuscles
All of the following compose the epithelial projections found on the tongue, except
A: filiform papillae
B: circumvallate papillae
C: fungiform papillae
D: gustatory papillae
E: none of the above
gustatory papillae
The brain waves produced by normal adults while resting with their eyes closed are__ waves.
A: delta
B: beta
C: alpha
D: theta
E: gamma
alpha
When all three cone populations are stimulated equally, we perceive
A: red
B: blackness
C: green
D: white
E: blue
white
The ______ ear collects sounds waves and transmits them to the _____ ear, which contains auditory ossicles
A: inner; middle
B: middle; inner
C: outer; middle
D: outer; inner
E: either B or D
outer; middle
The _____ covers most of the exposed surface of the eye
A: Cornea
B: Conjunctiva
C: Cathus
D: Iris
E: Anterior Chamber
conjunctiva
Almost 75% of all parasympathetic outflow travels along the
A: facial nerves
B: splanchnic nerves
C: vagus nerves
D: trigeminal nerve
E: glossopharyngeal nerve
vagus nerve
An albino individual lacks the ability to produce
A: keratin
B: eleidin
C: melanin
D: perspiration
E: carotene
melanin
Mechanoreceptors that respond to changes in blood pressure called
A: chemoreceptors
B: theromoreceptors
C: nociceptors
D: baroreceptors
E: proprioceptors
baroreceptors
The celiac ganglion innervates the
A: stomach
B: pancreas
C: liver
D: all of the above
E: A and C only
All of the above : stomach, pancreas, liver
Postganglionic axons usually are
A: larger than preganglionic fibers
B: unmyelinated
C: myelinated
D: located in the spinal cord
E: located in the brain
unmyelinated
Accessory structures of the skin include all of the following, except
A: hair follicles
B: nails
C: epidermis
D: sweat glands
E: sebaceous glands
epidermis
Clusters of ganglionic sympathetic neurons that innervate organs in the abdominopelvic region are called___ ganglia.
A: collateral
B: suprarenal
C: chain
D: collateral
E: prevertebral
collateral ganglia
The part of the eye that determines eye color is the
A: pupil
B: iris
C: conjunctiva
D: cornea
E: canal of schlemm
iris
The vibrations received by the tympanic membrane are transferred to the oval window by the
A: stapedius muscle
B: tensor tympani
C: cochlea
D: oval window
E: auditory ossicles
auditory ossicles
Clusters of ganglionic sympathetic neurons lying along either side of the spinal cord are called sympathetic ___ ganglia.
A: intramural
B: suprarenal
C: chain
D: collateral
E: prevertebral
chain ganglia
Earwax is produced by ___ glands
A: merocrine sweat
B: apocrine sweat
C: ceruminous
D: sebaceous
E: eccrine sweat
ceruminous glands
Which of the following is true of the vascular tunic of the eye
A: regulates the amount of light entering the eye
B: secretes and reabsorbs the aqueous humor
C: controls the shape of the lens
D: provides a routh for blood vessels and lymphatics that supply tissue of the eye.
E: All of the above
All of the Above: regulates the amount of light entering the eye, secretes and reabsorbs the aqueous humor, controls the shape of the lens, provides a route for blood vessels and lymphatics that supply tissues of the eye
The palpebrae
A: contain tarsal glands
B: are controlled by cranial nerves
C: cover and protect the eye
D: support the lateral rectus muscle of the eye
E: A, B, and C
contain tarsal glands, are controlled by cranial nerves, cover and protect the eye, support the lateral rectus muscles of the eye
Changes in the CNS that accompany aging include
A: decreased blood flow to the brain
B: reduction in brain size and weight
C: decrease in the number of neurons
D: all of the above
E: B and C only
All of the above: decreased blood flow to the brain, reduction in brain size and weight, decrease in the number of neurons
A tactile receptor composed of highly coiled dendrites that are surrounded by modified Schwann cells and a fibrous capsule is a
A: lamellated corpuscle
B: ruffini corpuscle
C: root hair plexus
D: tactile (meissner) corpuscle
E: tactile (merkel) disc
tactile (Meissner) corpuscle
Which of the following is NOT one of the special senses
A: smell
B: hearing
C: vibration
D: taste
E: vision
vibration
Examples of sensory modalities include
A: smell
B: vibration
C: touch
D: warmth
E: all of the above
All of the above: smell, vibration, touch, warmth
The suprarenal medullae secrete
A: medullin
B: epinephrine
C: norepinephrine
D: renin
E: both B and C
epinephrine & norepinephrine
Only about ______ of the info provided by afferent fibers reaches the cerebral cortex and our awareness
A: 50
B: 10
C: 25
D: 95
E: 1
1%
The layer of the skin that provides a barrier against bacteria as well as chemical and mechanical injuries is the
A: subcutaneous layer
B: epidermis
C: stratum corneum
D: sebum layer
E: dermis
epidermis
The human lens focuses light on the photoreceptor cells by
A: changing shape
B: moving in and out
C: opening and closing
D: dilating and contricting
E: moving up and down
changing shape
A highly sensitive tactile receptor composed of dendritic processes of a single myelinated fiber that makes contact with specialized cells of the stratum germinativum is a
A: tactile (Meissner) corpuscle
B: tactile (Merkel) disc
C: Ruffini corpuscle
D: root hair plexus
E: lamellated corpuscle
tactile (Merkel) disc
Gustatory receptors are located
A: in the eye
B: on the surface of the tongue
C: in the ear
D: in the nose
E: on the skin
on the surface of the tongue
The basal nuclei
A: initiate conscious motor activity
B: provide the backgroud patterns of movement involved in voluntary motor activities.
C: exert direct control over lower motor neurons
D: act as gatekeepers, filtering out unneccesary sensorimotor activity.
E: activate spinal reflexes.
provide the background patterns of movement involved in voluntary motor activities
Treatment of full-thickness burns includes which of the following
A: assist tissue repair
B: increase caloric intake
C: prevent infection
D: replace fluids
E: all of the above
All of the above: assist tissue repair, increase caloris intake, prevent infection, replace fluids
Which of the following is essential for memory consolidation
A: basal nuclei
B: hippocampus
C: occipital lobe
D: insula
E: prefrontal lobe
hippocampus
Sound waves are converted into mechanical movements by the
A: cochlea
B: round window
C: auditory ossicles
D: tympanic membrane
E: oval window
tympanic membrane
Olfactory glands
A: support the olfactory epithelium
B: react to aromatic molecules
C: group as olfactory bulbs
D: coat the olfactory epithelium with a pigmented mucus.
E: house the sense of smell
coat the olfactory epithelium with a pigmented mucus
Our perception of our environment is imperfect for all of the following reasons, except that
A: receptors respond in an all-or-nothing manner
B: abnormal receptor function can produce sensations that have no basis in fact.
C: humans lack receptors for every possible stimulus.
D: not all sensations lead to a perception
E: our receptors have limited sensitivity
receptors respond in an all-or-nothing manner ???
The external ear ends at the
A: ossicles
B: cochlea
C: tympanic membrane
D: vestibule
E: pinna
tympanic membrane
The gelatinous material that gives the eyeball its base shape is the
A: posterior cavity
B: aqueous humor
C: ora serrata
D: perilymph
E: vitreous humor
vitreous humor
The largest number of taste buds in adults are associated with the
A: fungiform papillae
B: filiform papillae
C: circumvallate papillae
D: pharynx
E: larynx
circumvallate papillae
The middle ear communicates with the nasopharynx through the
A: auricle
B: membranous labyrinth
C: auditory tube
D: bony labyrinth
E: auditory meatus
auditory tube
A very large, fast-adapting tactile receptor that is compsoed of a single dendrite enclosed by concentric layers of collagen is a
A: root hair plexus
B: ruffini corpuscle
C: tactile (Merkel) disc
D: lamellated corpuscle
E: tactile (Meissner) corpuscle
lamellated corpuscle
Sensible perspiration is produced by___ glands
A: apocrine sweat
B: mammary
C: sebaceous
D: merocrine sweat
E: ceruminous
merocrine sweat glands
The layer of skin that contains the blood vessels and nerves that are closest to the surface of the skin is the___ layer
A: papillary
B: reticular
C: epidermal
D: subcutaneous
E: hypodermal
papillary layer
Which of the following is an example of a visceral reflex
A: pupillary reflex
B: defecation reflex
C: ejaculation in response to tactile stimuli
D: vomitting reflex
E: all of the above
All of the above: pupillary reflex, defecation reflex, ejaculation in response to tactile stimuli, vomiting reflex
Olfactory receptors send axons through the cribiform plate. They synapse on neurons in the
A: cerebral cortex
B: medial geniculate
C: olfactory tract
D: medulla oblongata
E: olfactory bulb
olfactory bulb
Collateral ganglia contain neurons that innervate tissues and organs in which cavity
A: thoracic
B: craniosacral
C: lumbar
D: abdominopelvic
E: both B and C
abdominopelvic
The auditory ossicles connect the
A: tympanic membrane to the round window
B: tympanic membrane to the oval window
C: oval window to the round window
D: otitis to the media
E: stapedius to the tympanic membrane
tympanic membrane to the oval window
Glands that discharge an oily secretion into hair follicles are____ glands
A: merocrine sweat
B: ceruminous
C: mammary
D: sebaceous
E: apocrine sweat
sebaceous glands
The two components of the integumentary system are the
A: cutaneous membrane and hypodermis
B: integument and hypodermis
C: cutaneous membrane and accessory structures
D: epidermis and superficial fascia
E: epidermis and dermis
cutaneous membrane and accessory structures
Autonomic tone is an important aspect of ANS function because it
allows ANS neurons to increase or decrease their activity, providing a range of control options
An important vitamin that is formed in the skin when it is exposed to sunlight is
Vitamin D
A fast-adapting tactile receptor that monitors movements across the body surface is a
A: tactile (Merkel) disc
B: Ruffini corpuscle
C: root hair plexus
D: lamellated corpuscle
E: tactile (Meissner) Corpuscle
root hair plexus
The opening in the iris through which light passes is the
pupil
Motor neurons whose cell bodies are within the spinal cord are called
lower motor neurons
Thermoreceptors
are found within the dermis & are free nerve endings
An age-related decline in mental function characterized by difficulties with spatial orientation, memory, language, and personality is called
senile dementia
The layer of hard keratin that coats the hair is termed the
cuticle
Variations in hair color reflect differences in the pigment produced by
melanocytes
Movement of the endolymph in the semicircular canals
signals rotational movements
A state of unconsciousness in which an individual can be aroused by a normal stimuli is
sleep
The term general senses refers to the sensitivity to all of the following, EXCEPT
taste
A state of unconsciousness in which an individual cannot be aroused even by strong stimuli is
coma
The ______ glands in the axilla become active at the time of puberty
apocrine sweat
Conversion of a short-term memory to a long-term memory is called
memory consolidation
In general, parasympathetic preganglionic fibers are _______ and postganglionic fibers are _______
myelinated, long; unmyelinated, short
Long-term memories that are with you for a lifetime are called
tertiary memories
The layer of the skin that contains bundles of collagen and elastic fibers responsible for the strength of the skin is the
reticular layer
During sympathetic activation, ________ occurs
elevated BP, heart rate, blood glucose and sweating
A child who skins his knee in a fall has an
abrasion
Which of the following is NOT an effect of ultraviolet radiation
vitiligo
An adult has approximately ______ taste buds
3000
Taste receptors are distributed in which of the following places
portions of the larynx, pharynx and surface of the tongue
The type of cells that form the strate (stratum corneum) in the epidermis are
keratinocytes
Mechanoreceptors might detect which of the following sensations
muscle length, pressure, vibration, touch
The parasympathetic nervous system in especially active during which physiological state
digestion
Receptors that monitor the position of joints belong to the category called
proprioceptors
The nail body covers the
nail bed
Olfactory information is first received by which part of the brain
cerebrum
The sympathetic division of the ANS is also known as which of the following
thorcolumbar division
The tough "horny" superficial layer of the epidermis is known as the
stratum corneum
Complex motor activities such as riding a bicycle
require the coordinated activity of several regions of the brain
Taste buds are monitored by which of the cranial nerves
glossopharyngeal nerve (IX) and facial nerve (VII)
An area of the retina that contains only cones and is the site of sharpest vision is the
fovea
The mucus that covers the olfactory epithelium does all of the following, EXCEPT that is
dissolves unwanted chemicals and washes them away
The effects of aging on the skin include
a decline in the activity of sebaceous glands
Which of the following is sometimes called "prickling pain"
fast pain
The transparent portion of the fibrous tunic is the
cornea
The layer of dividing cells at the base of the epidermis is the
stratum germinativum
Alzheimer disease is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT that is
has a clear genetic basis
Endorphins can reduce perception of sensations initiated by
nociceptors (pain)
Which of the following would be an example of higher-level control of autonomic function
increased heart rate when you see a person you fear
We can localized sensations that originate in different areas of the body because
sensory neurons from specific body regions project to specific cortical regions
The _____ division of the autonomic nervous system is said to function during "rest and digest"
parasympathetic
Preganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system are located in the
lateral gray horns of segments T1 to L2 of the spinal cord
In the sympathetic nervous system, where are preganglionic neurons located
thoracic and lumbar segments of the spinal cord
The function of gustatory receptors parallels that of
olfactory receptors
Which of the following is a function of tear
provide oxygen, wash away debris, lubricate the eye, nourish the cornea and conjunctiva
Parasympathetic functions include all of the following, EXCEPT
dilation of the airways
A fast-adapting mechnoreceptor in the papillary layer of the dermis that responds to fine touch is a
tactile (Meissner) corpuscle
Dual innervation refers to an organ receiving
both sympathetic and parasympathetic innervation
urinary bladder
composed of transitional epithelium
Angiotensin II
will cause _________
plasma cells
release antibodies - that will then act upon a particular foreign substance
impairements to coagullation
- vit D deficinency
- severe hypocalcium (low levels of calcium)
-hepatitis
- lacking gene coding factor IX
path of urine
1. nephron 2. collecting duct 3. minor calyx 4. major calyx 5. ureter 6. urethra
blood flow through urinary sys
step 1 renal artery
step 2 segmental arteries
step 3 interlobar arteries
step 4 arcuate arteries
step 5 interlobular arteries
***step 6 afferent arterioles
*** step 7 glomerular capillaries
***step 8 efferent arterioles
*** step 9 splits to peritubular capillaries and vasa recta
step 10 comes back together in the interlobular veins
step 11 arcuate veins
step 12 interlobar veins
step 13 segmental veins
step 14 renal veins
baroreceptor
are sensors located in the blood vessels - are a type of mechanoreceptor that detects the pressure of blood flowing through them, and can send messages to the central nervous system to increase or decrease total peripheral resistance and cardiac output.
influences BP
_________
coagulation
1. prothrombin --> thrombin (phase 1 & 2)
2. fibrinogen -- fibrin (phase 3)
3. clot retraction
4. fibrolysis
reticular tissue
spleen & lymph nodes
white pulp of the spleen
forms cuffs around the central artery of the spleen
__________ mechanism
helps erythrocytes (RBCs) to generate ATP
RBCs
dont have mitochrondria
BP
is maintained with cooperation of the blood vessels, heart & _______
EPO
is released by the kidneys - targets the bone marrow stimulating RBC production
pernicious anemia
anemia results when the paritel cells of the stomach dont product the INTRINSIC FACTOR = cannot absorb vit B12
urination/micturition
1. the detrusor muscle contract
2. the internal urethral sphincter must open
3. external urethral spincter must open
urine
95% water, 5 % solutes. Largest compound found here is UREA (derived from the normal breakdown of amino acids). NITROGENOUS WASTES are URIC ACID & CREATININE. There is Na+, K+, PO4 3-, SO4 2-
glomerular filtration
functions as a filters. 1/5 of the plasma from the kidneys is filtered to the renal tubules. Pressure is altered by the arterioles which feed and drain the glomerli. Glomerfular filtration rate (GFR) is directly proportional to the net filtration pressure
mechanisms of urine formation
functions of the nephron include glomerrular filtration, tubular reabsorption, and tubular secretion. Via these functional processes, the kidneys regulate the volume, composition, and pH of the blood, and eliminate nitrogenous metabolic wastes (urine)
tubular reabsorption
(kidney physiology) needed substances are removed from the filtrate by the TUBULE CELLS & returned to the peritubular capillary blood. The primary active transport of Na+ by a Na+K- ATPase pump at the basolateral mem account for Na+ reabsorption & establishes the electrolchemical gradient that drives the reabsorption of most other solutes & H2O.
- Na+ enters at the LUMINAL SURFACE of the tubule cell via FACILITATED DIFFUSION through channels or as a part of a CONTRANSPORT MECHANISM
-PASSIVE TUBULAR REABSORPTION is driven by ELECTROCHEMICAL GRADIENTS
-the PROXIMAL TUBULE CELLS are most active in reabsorption
- reabsorption of additional sodium ions & water occurs in the DISTAL TUBULES & COLLECTING TUBULES & is HORMONALLY CONTROLLED.
tubular secretion
(kidney physiology) is means of adding substances to the filtrate (from blood or tubule cell). It is an ACTIVE PROCESS that is important in eliminating drugs, certain wastes, and excess ions and in maintaining the ACID-BASE BALANCE OF BLOOD
proximal convoluted tubule
substance reabsorbed: sodium ions, nutrients, glucose, amino acids, vitamins, water, urea, small proteins, lipid-soluable solutes, cations, HCO3-
Mechanisms:
-primary active transport via basolateral Na+-K+ pump
- passive paracellular diffusion by electrochemical gradient
- secondary active transport
- osmosis
- passive diffusion
-endocytosis
loop of henle
substance reabsorbed: water, Na+, Cl+, K+, Ca2+, Mg2+
Mechanisms:
-osmosis
- secondary active transport
- paracellular diffusion
-passive paracellular diffusion
distal convoluted tubule
substance reabsorbed: Na+, Cl-, Ca2+
mechanisms:
- primary active Na+ transport at basolateral mem
- secondary active transport at luminal mem
- passive uptake via PTH-modulated channel in luminal mem
- primary & secondary active transport in basolateral mem
collecting duct
substance reabsorbed: Na+, H+, K+, HCO3-, Cl-, water, urea
mechanisms:
- primary active transport of Na+
- passive paracellular diffusion of Cl-
- contrasport of H+, Cl- & HCO3-
*** K+ is both reabsorbed & secreted
- osmosis
- facilitated diffusion
kidney
function:
1. filtration of blood removing toxins, wastes products, urea, uric acid
2. regulation of pH & electrolyte levels
3. hormones released EPO & renin
4. vit D activation by converting it to vit D3 so it can play its role
proximal convoluted tubule
function: reabsorbs water & solutes from filtrate & secrete substances into it
distal convulted tubule
function: more in secretion then reabsorption
collecting tubules
function: water & sodium reabsorption
- acid-base balance & secretion of ions
glomerulus
main funtion: filtration
peritubular beds
main function: reabsorption
proximal convoluted tubule
- primary site of reabsorption of solutes & water
1. Na+-K+ pump (Na+ out of tubule cell & K+ into tubule cell - needs ATP)
2. Symport glucose, amino acids, vitamins, cations, HCO3-
3. Passive reabsoption of K+, Ca2+, Mg2+, Cl-
- osmosis of H2O follows Na+
proximal convoluted tubule reabsorption
- proteins are specific to what they carry
- HCO3- is important for maintaining pH
- Cl- moves across, and its charge follows
- solutes move across & water naturally follow
- Na+ allows other substances to join it and enter the cell
- water uses a protein (aquaporin) & osmosis
- peritubular capillary has low concentration so everything diffuses back into it
*increased osmotic pressure draws fluids back into the circulatory sys
distal convoluted tubule
-Na+-K+ pump
- hormonally regulated (aldosterone in adrenal cortex)
collecting duct
absorbs: water, urea
is hormone regulated by antidiurectic hormone ADH
ADH
the collecting duct is regulated by this antidiurectic hormone (____) = cells to increase in # of aquaporins = more reabsorption of fluid
- alcohol inhibits its production = no aquaporins = more urine
aldosterone
the distal convoluted tubule is hormonally regulated by ____ in adrenal cortex. Without ADH it is relatively impreamable to water. _____ fine tunes reabsorption of the remaining Na+. ______ targets principle cells making them synthesize & retain more luminal Na+ and K+ channels & more basolateral Na+-K+ ATPases
Proteinuria
means the presence of an excess of serum proteins in the urine.
glucosuria
is the excretion of glucose into the urine.
Oliguria
is the low output of urine,
dysuria
refers to painful urination
Anuria
means nonpassage of urine
Enuresis
refers to an inability to control urination
nocturia
need to urinate at night
polyuria
is a condition usually defined as excessive or abnormally large production and/or passage of urine
hematuria
is the presence of red blood cells in the urine.
infants
are 73% or more water
aged adult
body is 45% water
male
body is 60% water (if healthy)
female
body is 50% water (if healthy)
- because they have more body fat & less skeletal muscle then males (adipose tissue is the least hydrated of all the tissues)
adipose tissues
is the least hydrated - about 20% water
skeletal muscle
is about 75% water
fluid compartments in the body
2 main:
-2/3 by volume is in the INTRACELLUAR FLUID COMPARTMENT
-1/3 of body water is outside the cells in the EXTRACELLULAR FLUID COMPARTMENT
INTRACELLULAR FLUID COMPARTMENT
(fluid compartments in the body)
- 2/3 by volume
- consists of trillions of tiny individual "compartments"
- accounts for 25 - 40 L of body water
extracellular fluid compartment
(fluid compartments in the body)
- 1/3 of body water is outside the cell
-constitutes the bodys "internal environment'
- 2 subcompartments:
1. plasma - the fluid portion of the blood
2. interstitial fluid - the fluid in the microscopic places bet cells
nonelectrolytes
have bonds (usually covalent bonds) that prevent them from dissociating in solution = electrically charged species are created when they dissolve in water.
- DONT dissociate in water
- most are organic molecules eg glucose, lipids, creatinine & urea
- have a LOWER ossmotic power
electrolytes
are CHEMICAL COMPOUNDS that DO dissociate into IONS in water
- typically inorganic salts
- have a GREATER OSSMOTIC POWER because they dissociate into at least 2 ions
plasma
(a subcompartment of the extracellular fluid compartment) ______- contains fewer Cl- ions than interstitial fluid = is electrically neutral. otherwise extracellular fluids are similar. the most abundant EFC electrolytles are sodium, chloride, & bicarbonate ions.
intracellular fluids
_________ contain large amounts of protein anions & potassium, phosphate, and magnesium ions.
fluid movement among compartments
-substances usually pass through the plasma & interstitial fluid to reach the intracellular level
- fluid exchange bet compartments are regulated by OSMOTIC & HYDROSTATIC PRESSURES
(a) filtrate is forced out of the capillaries by HP & pulled back in by OP
(b) water moves freely bet compartments by osmosis, but solute movements are restricted by size, charge & dependance on transport proteins
(c) water flows always follow changes in ECF osmolarity
increase in ADH production
an increase in the permeability of the cells of the collecting tubule to water is due to __________
hypothalamic-hypophyseal tract
is the neutral connection bet the hypothalamus & the posterior pituitary gland
alcohol
acts as a diuretic because it inhibits the release of ADH
humoral
when the pancreas releases INSULIN in direct response to BLOOD GLUCOSE, this is an example of ________ stimulation
neural
epinephrine & norepinephrine are examples of ________ stimulation
hormonal
thyroid homone is a example of ________ stimulation
increased K+ & angiotensin II
____________ triggers secretion of ALDOSTERONE
hyperthyroidism
loosing weight rapidly, sweating profusely & anxious are symptoms of ________
autonomic nervous system
functions:
- innnervation of smooth muscle of the digestive tract
- innervation of cardiac muscle
- innnervation of glands
arachoid & pia matter
the subarachnoid space lies between ______&_______ (layers of meninges)
juxtaglomerular apparatus
is made up of granular cells which use RENIN to increase BP
juxtaglomerular apparatus
FUNCTION: regulating the rate of filtrate formation & controlling systemic BP
K+
is mainly in cells
Na+
is mainly in the body fluids
Na+-K+ pump
is important for reabsorption in the proximal convoluted tubule because it creates a Na+ concentration gradient bet the filtrat and the inside of the tubule cell
aldosterone
role in sodium & water balance is that it target the distal convoluted tubules of the nephron which moves Na+ across with aquaporins (proteins) and water naturally follows across as well
- increase in K+ triggers the production of ________
diabetes mellitus
"sweet" excessive urination - from a seditary lifestyle, obestity etc
diabetes insipidus
"tastless" urine. no ADH = excessive amounts. Treated with insulin shot
type I diabetes
(type of diabetes) pancreas's Beta cells dont take up glucose from the urine = keto bodies = ketoacidosis
type II diabetes
(type of diabetes) cells dont recognize insulin
neuroglial cells
- astrocytes
- microglial cells
- ependymal cells
- oligodendrocytes
- satellite cells
astrocytes
(type of neuroglial cell) anchors neurons to capillaries
microglial cells
(type of neuroglial cell) phagocytize microorganisms
ependymal cells
(type of neuroglial cell) help circulate cerebral spinal fluid
oligodendrocytes
(type of neuroglial cell) form the myelin sheath of the central nervous system
satellite cells
(type of neuroglial cell) surround cell bodies of the peripheral nervous system
regulation of water intake
increased plasma osmolarity triggers the THIRST MECHANISM, mediated by hypothalamic osmoreceptors. Thirst, inhibted by distension of the gastrointestinal tract by ingested water & then by reduced osmolarity, may be damped before body needs for water are met.
regulation of water output
-obligatory water loss is unavoidable & includes insensible water losses from the lungs, skin & feces, & about 500 mL of urine output daily
- beyond obligatory water loss, the volume of urinary output depends on water intake & loss via other route & reflects the influence of ANTIDIRUECTIC HORMONE on the renal collecting ducts
Thirst mechanism
is the driving force for water intake - stimulated when 1% of body`s water is lost
Feedback signals that inhibit the thirst mechanism:
- Moistening mucosa in the mouth & throat
- Activation of stomach & intestinal receptors
water intake
is typically 2500 ml a day
ADH
causes AQUAPORINS to be inserted in the cell mem of the collecting ducts, so that most filtered wateris REABSORBED. _____ release is triggered if the extracellular fluid osmolarity is HIGH, or if a large drop in blood volume or pressure occurs
aquaporins
"water channels"
dehydration
(imbalances of fluid homeostasis) occurs when water loss exceeds water intake over time. Symptoms: dry skin, thirst, decreased urine ouput.
A serious consequence is HYPOVOLEMIC SHOCK
hypotonic hydration
(imbalances of fluid homeostasis) occurs when body fluids are excessively diluted & cells become swollen by water entry.
Most serious consequence is CEREBAL EDEMA
edema
(imbalances of fluid homeostasis) is an abnormal accumulation of fluid in the interstitial space (increased intracellular fluid), which may impair blood circulation
ADH
- Water reabsorption in collecting ducts is proportional to____ release
- Low ____ levels produce dilute urine & reduced volume of body fluids
- High _____ levels produce concentrated urine
- Hypothalamic osmoreceptors trigger or inhibit ____ release - detect changes in ECF osmolarity
- Factors that specifically trigger ____ release include: decrease in blood volume, decrease in BP, sweating, vomiting & diarrehea
aldosterone
regulates Na+ excretion
Hyponatremia
(electolyte imbalance - increase in H2O) most common electrolyte disorder. Causes: solute loss or water retension, deficiency in aldosterone, excessive ADH release.
Hypernatremia
(electolyte imbalance - decrease in H2O) cause: excessive water loss by evaporation
Hypokalemia
electolyte imbalance - (decrease in K+). Cause: diet deficint in K+, vomiting, chronic laxatix abuse, chronic renal disease, alkalosis (H+ are reabsorbed, K+ is excreted)
Hyperkalemia
electolyte imbalance (increase in K+). Causes: renal failure, severe tissue injury (K+ leaves damaged cells)
Hypomagnesemia
electolyte imbalance (decrease in magnesium). Cause: severe malnutrition, impaired absorption of magnesium in intestine.
Hypermagnesemia
electolyte imbalance (increase in magnesium). Cause: renal disorder, magnesium not excreted, use of milk magnesia (laxative)
Hypocalcemia:
electolyte imbalance (decrease in calcium), causes: burns, hypothyroidism, inadequate intake of calcium & vit D, diarrhea, renal failure
Hypercalcemia:
electolyte imbalance (increase in calcium), cause: tumors that destroy bone, hyperthyroidism, hypervitaminosis D.
Concerns: drowsiness, bone pain, decreased neuromusucular excitability, cardiac arrhythmia (problem with the rate or rhythm of the heartbeat), kidney stones
nervous sys
cheif functions: maintaining body homeostasis - monitor, integrate & respond to info in the environment
nervous sys
is divided into:
1. central nervous system (brain & the spinal cord)
2. peripheral nervous system (mainly cranial & spinal nerves)
peripheral nervous system
division of the nervous sys - mainly cranial & spinal nerves
majoral functional divisions: sensory (afferent) division & the motor (efferent) division
central nervous system
division of the nervous sys - brain & the spinal cord
sensory (afferent) division
(division of the PNS) conveys impulses TO the CNS
motor (efferent) division
(division of the PNS) conveys impulses FROM the CNS
neuroglial cells
are supporting cells. CNS ones are: astrocytes, microglial, ependymal ells & oligodendrocytes.
PNS ones: Schawnn cells & satellite cells
neuroglial cells
(supporting cells) segregate & insulate neursons & assist neurons in various other ways
neuroglial cells in the CNS
astrocytes, microglial, ependymal ells & oligodendrocytes.
neuroglial cells in the PNS
Schawnn cells & satellite cells
microglial
(neuroglial cells in the CNS) are small ovoid cells w relatively long `thorny` processes which touch nearby neurons & monitor their health. Phagocytize microorganisms
ependymal cells
(neuroglial cells in the CNS) line the central brain cavities & the spinal cord, help circulate CSF
olgiodendrocytes
(neuroglial cells in the CNS) LINE UP ALONG THE thicker neuron fibers & wrap their processes around the fibers producing myelin sheath
astrocytes
(neuroglial cells in the CNS) are the most abundant & most versatile glial cells. anchor neurons to capillaries
satellite cells
(neuroglial cells in the PNS) surround neuron cell bodies. Resemble a moon & surround cell bodies
schawnn cells
(neuroglial cells in the PNS) surround & form myelin sheath around the larger nerve fibers. Regenerate damaged nerve fibers.
neurons
have a cell body & a cytoplasmic processes called axons & dendrites
tract
a bundle of nerve fibers in the CNS or PNS
nucleus
a collection of cell bodies in the CNS.
Called a ganglion in the PNS
- is biosynthetic & the receptive center of a neuron
ganglion
a collection of cell bodies in the PNS.
dendrites
(most neurons have these) receptive processes that conduct signals from other neurons toward the nerve cell body.
axons
(all neurons have 1 of these - with a few exceptions) generates & conducts nerve impulses away from the nerve cell body.
terminal endings
end of the axon - releases neurotransmitters
bidirectional transport
_______ along axons uses ATP-dependant motor proteins
large nerve fibers (axons)
are myelinated. the myelin sheath is formed in the PNS by schawnn cells & in the CNS by oligodendrocytes.
myelin sheath
is formed in the PNS by schawnn cells & in the CNS by oligodendrocytes.
- has gaps called NODES OF RANVIER.
unmyelinated fibers
are surrounded by SUPPORTING CELLS - membrane wrapping process does not occur
neurons
(anatomically) are classified according to their number of processes issuing from the cell body as: multipolar, bipolar, or unipolar
neurons
(functionally) are classified according to the direction of nerve impulse conduction. Sensory neurons (toward CNS), motor neurons (away from CNS), interneurons (neural pathways)
Sensory neurons
nerve impulse moves toward CNS
motor neurons
nerve impulse moves away from CNS
interneurons
have neural pathways
myelin
protects & electrically insulates fibers = increases the speed of transmission of nerve impulses
myelinated neurons
conduct nerve impulses rapidly
UNMYELINATED NEURONS
conduct nerve impulses quite slow
spinal cords gross anatomy
- 2 way conduction pathway & reflex center
- resides within the vertebral column
- protected by MENINGES & CEREBROSPINAL FLUID
- extends from the FORAMEN MAGNUM to the end of the 1st lumbar vertebrae
- 31 pairs of spinal nerves come off of it
- is enlarged at cervical & lumbar regions where limbs arise
cervical enlargment
where upper limbs arise
lumbar enlargement
where the lower limbs arise
spinal cord cross-section anatomy
- central grey matter is H shaped
- ventral horns mainly contain somatic motor neurons
- lateral horns contain viscerl (autonomic) motor neurons
- dorsal horns contain interneurons
- axons emerge via the ventral root
- white matter has dorsal, lateral & ventral columns (funiculi)
- ascending (sensory) tracts include FASICULI GRACILIS & CUNEATUS
- dorsal column consists of: dorsal white column & medial lemniscus
- antrolateral pathways (mostly spinothalamic tracts) are multidimesional pathways
- descending tracts include pyramidal tracts & a number of motor tracts
spinal cord
protected by MENINGES & CEREBROSPINAL FLUID
lateral horns
(spinal cord cross-section anatomy) contain viscerl (autonomic) motor neurons
dorsal horns
(spinal cord cross-section anatomy) contain interneurons
white matter
(spinal cord cross-section anatomy) has dorsal, lateral & ventral columns (funiculi)
FASICULI GRACILIS & CUNEATUS
(spinal cord cross-section anatomy) ascending (sensory) tracts iNCLUDE _______
dorsal column
(spinal cord cross-section anatomy) consists of: dorsal white column & medial lemniscus. which are concerned with straight through, precise transmission of 1 or a few related sensory modalities
antrolateral pathways
(spinal cord cross-section anatomy) (mostly spinothalamic tracts) are multidimesional pathways that permit brain stem processing of ascending impulses.
spinothalamic tracts
(antrolateral pathways - spinal cord cross-section anatomy) terminate in the cerellum, serve muscle sense, not conscious sensory perception
descending tracts
(spinal cord cross-section anatomy) include pyramidal tracts (ventral & lateral corticospinal tracts) & a number of motor tracts originating from subcortical motor nuclei. These descending fibers issue from the brain stem motor areas [indirect (extrapyramidal) systems] & cortical motor areas [direct (pyramidal) system]
spinal dura mater
(gross anatomy of spinal cord) single layered ______ is not attached to the bony walls of the vertebral column.
epidural space
(gross anatomy of spinal cord) found bet the bony vertebrae & the spinal dura mater - is filled with soft padding of fat & a network of veins
subarachnoid space
(gross anatomy of spinal cord) is filled with cerebrospinal fluid, is found between the arachnoid & pia mater meniges
spinal cord
(gross anatomy of spinal cord) 42 cm long, 1.8 cm thick, glistening white_____ serves as a 2 way conduction pathway to and from the brain . it is a major reflex center
spinal reflexes
are initiated & completed at the spinal cord level.
conus medullaris
(gross anatomy of spinal cord) inferiorly, the spinal cord terminates at this tapering cone shaped structure
filum terminale
(gross anatomy of spinal cord) is a fibrous extension of the conus covered by pia mater, extends inferiorly from the conus medullaris to the coccyz, where it anchors the spinal cord in place
denticulate ligaments
(gross anatomy of spinal cord) the spinal cord is secured to the tough dura mater meninx throughout its length by saw-toothed shelves of pia mater called ______
spinal nerves
found in humans - attached to the spinal cord in paired roots
- each exits from the vertebral column by passing superior to its corresponding vertebae via intervertebral foramen
caude equina
(gross anatomy of spinal cord) the collection of nerve roots at the inferior end of the vertebral canal is called ________
gray commissure
(part of the gray matter) connecting cross bar of gray matter, encloses the central canal
lateral horns
(part of the grey matter) found in the thoracic & superior lumbar segments of the spinal cord
ventral roots
(a spinal root) motor neurons send their axons out to the skeletal muscles via ventral rootlets which fuse together to form the ____
dorsal roots
(a spinal root) afferent fibers carrying impulses from the PNS recpetors form the ________ that fan out as dorsal rootlets before they enter the spinal cord
dorsal root ganglion or spinal ganglion
(a spinal root) enlarged region of the dorsal root
spinal gray matter
is divided accoding to its neurons involvement in the innervation of the somatic & visceral regions of the body... 4 zones:
- somatic sensory
- visceral (autonomic) sensory
- visceral motor
- somatic motor
meninges
are 3 connective tissue membranes that lie just exernal to the CNS organs.
-cover & protect the CNS
- protect blood vessels & enclose venous sinuses
- contain CSF
-form partitions in the skull
--- external to internal: dura mater, arachnoid mater & pia mater
dura mater
``tough mother`` strongest meninx. surrounds the brain, 2 layer fibrous connective tissue
arachnoid mater
middle meninx, forms a loose brain covering, separated by the subdural space. Underneath is the subaracnoid space. Has knoblike projections called ARACHNOID VILLI
white matter of the spinal cord
is composed of myelinated & unmyelinated nerve fibers that allow communication bet different parts of the spnial cord & bet the spinal cord & the brain. Fibers run in 3 different directions:
- acsending - up to the higher centers (sensory imputs)
- descending - down to the cord from the brain OR within the cord to lower levels (motor outputs)
- transversly - across from 1 side of the cord to the other (commissural fibers)
acsending
(direction of the white matter of the spinal cord) - up to the higher centers (sensory imputs)
descending
(direction of the white matter of the spinal cord) - down to the cord from the brain OR within the cord to lower levels (motor outputs)
transversly
(direction of the white matter of the spinal cord) - across from 1 side of the cord to the other (commissural fibers)
ascending & descending
________ tracts make up most of the white matter
white columns or funiculi
the white matter on each side of the cord is divided into 3 _______, which are named according to their position as DORSAL (POSTERIOR), LATERAL (& VENTRAL (ANTERIOR)
white matter of the spinal cord pathways
1. decussation
2. relay
3. somatotopy
4. symmetry
decussation
(white matter of the spinal cord pathways) most pathways cross from one side of the CNS to the other at some point of their journey, this is referred to as ________
RELAY
(white matter of the spinal cord pathways) most pathways consist of a chain of 2 or 3 neurons that contribute to successive tracts of the pathway, this is referred to as a ___________
somatotopy
(white matter of the spinal cord pathways) most pathways exhibit ________, a precise spatial relationship among the tract fibers that reflects the orderly mapping of the body
symmetry
(white matter of the spinal cord pathways) all pathways & tracts are paired _____________ (right & left), with a member of the pair present on each side of the spinal cord or brain
spinal nerves
- 31 pairs
- are formed by the union of dorsal & ventral roots of the spinal cord & are short, confined to intervertbral foramina
- have branches & plexus
cervical plexus
(spinal nerves) (c1-c4) innervates muscles & skin of the neck & shoulders. its phrenic nerve serves the diaphragm.
brachial plexus
(spinal nerves) serves the shoulders, some thorax muscles & the upper limbs. Arises from C5-T1. Main nerves: axillary, musculocutaneous, median, radial & ulnar
lumbar plexus
(spinal nerves) (L1-L4) provides the motor supply to anterior & medial thigh muscles & the cutaneous supply to the anterior thigh & part of the leg. Main nerves are femoral & obturator
sacral plexus
(spinal nerves) (L4-S4) supplies the posterior muscles & skin of the lower limbs. Main nerve is the sciatic nerve (largest & longest) which is composed of the tibial & common fibular nerve
joints
are innervated by the same nerves that serve the muscles acting at the joint. all spinal nerves except C1 innervate specific segments of the skin called dermatomes
nerve
is a bundle of axons in the PNS. each fiber is enclosed by an endoeurium, fasicles of fibers are wrapped by a perineurium, and the whole nerve is bundled by the epineurium. * endo-peri-epi*
nerves
are classified according to the direction of impulse conduction as sensory, motor or mixed... most nerves are mixed. The efferent fibers may be somatic or autonomic.
ganglia
are collections of neuron cell bodies associated with nerves in the PNS. EG dorsal root (sensory) _______ & autonomic (motor) ______
endoneurium
(part of a nerve) each axon is surrounded by _______, which is a delicate layer of loose connective tissye that also encloses the fibers associated with myelin sheath.
perineurium
(part of a nerve) coarser connective tissue wrapping of a group of fibers or fasicles
fasicles
(part of a nerve) group of fibers are found in bundles called ________
epineurium
(part of a nerve) fasicles are enclosed by this tough fibrous sheath which forms the nerve
mixed nerves
nerves containing both sensory & motor fibers & transmitting impulses to both & from the CNS
sensory (afferent) nerves
nerves carrying impulses only towards the CNS
motor (efferent) nerves
nerves carrying impulses only away from the CNS
reflex arch
a reflex is a rapid, involuntary motor response to a stimulus. the ________ has 5 elements: receptor, sensory neuron, integration center, motor neuron & effector
reflex
is a rapid, involuntary motor response to a stimulus.
receptor
(components of a reflex arch) site of stimulus action
sensory neuron
(components of a reflex arch) transmits affect impulses to the CNS
integration center
(components of a reflex arch)
-simple reflex arches: may be a single synapse bet a sensory neuron & a motor neuron (monosynaptic reflex).
- complex reflex arches: involve multiple synapses with chains of interneuons (polysynaptic reflex)
simple reflex arches:
(components of a reflex arch - integration center) may be a single synapse bet a sensory neuron & a motor neuron (monosynaptic reflex).
complex reflex arches:
(components of a reflex arch - integration center) - involve multiple synapses with chains of interneuons (polysynaptic reflex)
motor neuron
(components of a reflex arch) conducts efferent impulses that respond from the integration center to an effector organ
effector
(components of a reflex arch) muscle fiber or gland cell that responds to the efferent impulses (by contracting or secreting)
parasympathetic (craniosacral) division
(division of the ANS)
- preganglionic regions arise from the brain stem & from the sacral (S2-S4) regions of the spinal cord
-- fibers synapse w ganglionic neurons in terminal ganglia located in (intramural ganglia) or close to their effector organs.
- cranial fibers arise in the brain stem nuclei of cranial nerves III, VII, IX & X & synapse in ganglia of the head, thorax, & abdomen. The vagus nerve (CN X) serves virtually ALL organs of the thoracic & abdomen cavities
- sacral fibers (S2-S4) issue from the lateral region of the cord & form pelvic splanchnic nerves that innervate the pelvic viscera. the preganglionic axons do not travel within rami communicantes
preganglionic
_______ fibers are long (part of the parasympathetic (craniosacral) division - division of the ANS)
postganglionic
______ fibers are short (craniosacral) division - division of the ANS)
preganglionic regions
________ arise from the brain stem & from the sacral (S2-S4) regions of the spinal cord (craniosacral) division - division of the ANS)
cranial fibers
_____ arise in the brain stem nuclei of cranial nerves III, VII, IX & X & synapse in ganglia of the head, thorax, & abdomen. The vagus nerve (CN X) serves virtually ALL organs of the thoracic & abdomen cavities (craniosacral) division - division of the ANS)
sacral fibers
_______ (S2-S4) issue from the lateral region of the cord & form pelvic splanchnic nerves that innervate the pelvic viscera. the preganglionic axons do not travel within rami communicantes (craniosacral) division - division of the ANS)
Nervous tissue
types of cells:
Nerve cells & neurons
Neuroglia
(nerve glue)
Neurons-
-Live long
-Amitotic - do not undergo mitosis (a few can)
-Have the ability to repair themselves (takes a long time)
-High metabolic rate - take in a lot of nutrients
-Can be very long!
Unipolar
(neuron classification) - mainly a sensory neuron - action potential is being produced by dendrite which is unusual. Axon is in central end. Dendrites are in the peripheral ends.
Bipolar
- vision & sense of smell (neuron classification)
Multipolar
- a lot of dendrites, 1 axon(neuron classification)
Schwann cell:
- Has a nucleus
- Wraps around the axon several times
- Concentric layers of membrane that make up the myelin sheath
- Neurilemma - remaining nucleus and cytoplasm
Neurilemma
- remaining nucleus and cytoplasm of a Schwann cell
action potential
When adequately stimulated, an electrical impulse is generated and transferred along the axon
Voltage
- potential energy generated by separated charge - Is always measured between two points and is referred to as potential
voltage gated channel
-Electrical current in the body reflects the flow of ions
-There is potential across the membrane (charge separation)
-Ions flow through channels (large proteins embedded in the plasma membrane)
resting membrane potential
Voltage across the plasma membrane is approximately -70 mV - referred to as ___________ and the membrane is said to be POLARIZED
sodium potassium pump
- K+ diffuses out of the cell causing the inside of the cell to be slightly negative
- Some Na+ entering
- Also add the effect of the Na+-K+ pump
- 3 Na+ out and 2 K+ in
graded potentials
- Short-lived, local changes in membrane potential - Decrease in intensity with distance
- Magnitude varies directly with the strength of the stimulus
- Current is quickly dissipated due to the leaky plasma membrane
- Only travel over short distances
- Sufficiently strong graded potentials can initiate action potentials
- Graded potential is short lived, wont travel far (mm)
Depolarization
- reduction in membrane potential
Hyperpolarization
- increase in membrane potential
generating an action potential
1. resting stage
2. depolarization
3. repolarization
4. hyperpolarization
Generating an action potential with a stimulus
sodium ions go into the cell = increase in voltage (+30 - depolarization because of the sodium flooding into the cell - inside of cell is slightly +). Na+ leaves the cell = voltage goes down (repolarization) = past -70mv (hyperpolarization), Na+ channels close, Na+K+ pump kicks in and brings everything back to.
Threshold stimulus changes the shape and opens voltage gated channels = repolarization = Na+ channels open = +30mv = Na+ gated channels close = K+ gated channels open = repolarization! Membrane potential briefly hyperpolarizes = membrane potential reaches resting potential = Membrane potential goes beyond the resting state = beyond -70mv. Ions then only move through leaked channels = neuron fires another action potential.
absolute refractory period
is shown on a graph, is when the Na+ enters and depolarization occurs
Multiple sclerosis (MS)
(nervous system disorder) short circuiting of the CNS - means multi leisions
- Demyelinating disease
- Autoimmune disease affecting mostly young adults
- Myelin sheath of the CNS reduced to non-functioning hardened lesions (scleroses)
- Axons not damaged and generate new Na+ channels
- Symptoms - visual disturbance, neck pain, disturbance in speech
- Administration of drugs to modify immune system's activities
- 20-40 year olds
- Affects more women than men
- 70 mV
Voltage across the plasma membrane is approximately ________
synapse
Is A junction that mediates information transfer from one neuron to the next (or to a effector organ)
presynaptic neuron
contain synaptic vesicles - contain neurotransmitters
leg falls asleep
- Pressure has cut off blood supply to the neurons
- No oxygen or nutrients
- Pressure removed- impulses are sent again (prickly feeling)
adipose layer
Epidural space of the spinal cord is an ________
hydrostatic & osmotic pressures
fluid exchange between cellular compartments is regulated by _________&_______
antidiuretic hormone (ADH).
Increase in permeability of the cells of the collecting tubule to water is due to an increase in the production of ________
Potassium
Immediately after an action potential has peaked which cellular gates open?
bone & skeletal muscles
growth hormones major targets are _________&__________
hypothalamic-hypophyseal tract
is the neural connection that connects the posterior pituitary gland to the hypothalamus
alcohol
affects ADP production = no aquaporins (diruetic)
caffeine
(diruetic) inhibits sodium reabsorption
Na
____ ions are actively transported through the cells membrane to begin the resting action potential
hypothalamic-hypophyseal portal system
hormones are synthesized in the hypothalamus & transported by the _________ to the antieror pituitary gland.
juxtaglomerular apparatus
is responsible for: regulating the rate of filtrate formation and controlling systemic blood pressure
parathyroid glands
maintain adequate levels of blood calcium by: It increases blood calcium levels by stimulating osteoclasts to break down bone and release calcium.
dorsal
sensory (afferent) neurons enter the spinal cord at the ______ root
synapse
The point at which an impulse from one nerve cell is communicated to another nerve
Adrenal gland
________ in the medulla - Secrete epinephrine and norepinephrine for "Fight or Flight" =
-Blood glucose levels to rise
-Blood vessels to constrict
-The heart to beat faster
-Blood to be diverted to the brain, heart, and skeletal muscle
Gluconeogenesis
is the synthesis of glucose molecues. Normally, cells catabolize glucose into these metabolic products to produce energy in the form of ATP. However, the body must maintain a blood glucose concentration of approx. 5 mM. If glucose concentrations fall below this, the liver is signaled to make and release glucose into the blood stream for use in the brain and other tissues.
autonomic nervous system
is divided into:
- parasympathetic (craniosacral)
- sympathetic (thorcolumbar)
parasympathetic (craniosacral)
(division of the autonomic nervous system) conserves body energy & maintains body activities at a basal level. Include pupillary constriction, glandular secretion, increased digestive tract motility, smooth muscle activity leading to elimination of feces & urine.
sympathetic (thorcolumbar)
(division of the autonomic nervous system) prepares the body for activity & is called the fight or flight system. Include: dilated pupils, increased heart rate, increased BP, dilation of the brochioles of the lungs, increased blood glucose levels & sweating.
sympathetic vasoconstriction
during exersice ____________ shunts blood from the skin & digestive viscera to the heart, brain, & skeletal muscles
parasympathetic preganglionic neurons
arise from the brain stam & sacral (S2-S4) region of the spinal cord
preganglionic sympathetic neurons
arise from the lateral horns of the spinal cord from the level T1 though L2
autonomic neurons
release 2 major neutransmitters: acetylcholine (ACh) & norepinephrine
major endocrine structures
pituitary gland, hypothalamus, thyroid gland, parathyroid gland, & pineal gland
pituitary gland
(major endocrine structure) hangs from the base of the brain by a salk that in enclosed by bone. The anterior portion is glandular & the neural porton is an extension of the hypothalamus.
Anterior: 4/6 are tropic hormones that regulate the function of other endocrine organs.
- growth hormone
- thyroid-stimulating hormone
- adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
- gonadotropins - follicle stimulating hormone
- prolactin
Posterior: stores & releases 2 hypothalamic hormones: oxytocin & antidiruetic hormone (ADH)
hypothalamus
(major endocrine structure) regulated hormonal output of the anterior pituitary via releasing & inhibiting hormones & synthesizing 2 hormones that it exports to the posterior pituitary gland for storage & later release
growth hormone
(anterior pituitary gland) is an anabolic hormone that stimulates growth of all body tissues but especially skeletal muscles & bone. Mobilizes fat, stimulates protein synthesis & inhibits glucose uptake & metabolism.
thyroid-stimulating hormone
(anterior pituitary gland) promotes normal developement & actiivty of the thyroid gland
adrenocotricotropic hormone
(anterior pituitary gland) stimulates the adrenal cortex to release corticosteroids.
gonadrotropins- follicle stimulating hormone & leteinizing hormone
(anterior pituitary gland) regulate function of the gonads in both sexes, stimulates sex cell production
prolactin
(anterior pituitary gland) promotes milk production in humans
oxytocin
(posterior pituitary gland) stimulates powerful uterine contractions, which triggers labor & delivery of an infant, & milk ejection in nursing women. Its release is mediated reflexively by the hypothalamus & represents a + feedback mechanism
antidiurectic hormone
(posterior pituitary gland) stimulates kidney tubules to reabsorb & conserve water, resulting in small volumes of highly concentrated urine & decreased plasma osmolarity. Is released in response to high solute concentration in the blood & inhibited by low soluted concentrations in the blood. Hyposecretion results in diabetes insipidus
thyroid gland
(major endocrine structure) located in the anterior neck, follicles store colloid containing thyroglobin, a glycoprotein from which the ______ hormone is delivered.
- hormone includes: thyroxine (T4), triiodothyronine (T3), TSH
- calcitonin is produced by the parafollicular cells
thyroxine & triiodothyronine homones
(thyroid gland) increase rate of cellular metabolism = O2 use & heat production rise.
graves disease
is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism
hypothyroidism
(hyposecretion of thyroid hormone) causes cretinism in infants *+& myxedema in adults.
calcitonin
(produced by the parafolliuclar cells of the thyroid gland) respone to rising blood calcium levels, inhibit bone matrix reorption & enhancres calcium deposit on bone.
parathyroid gland
(major endocrine structure) located on the dorsal aspect of the thyroid gland, secretes a _______ hormone = increase in blood calcium levels, targets bone, the kidneys, & the intestines, key in calcium homeostasis. Release is triggered by a falling blood calcium levels & inhibited by increasing blood calcium levels.
hyperparathyroidism
(parathyroid) results is hypercalcemia & all of its effects & in extreem bone wasting
hypoparathyroidism
(parathyroid) leads to hypocalcemia
adrenal (suprarenal) glands
(major endocrine structure) the paired glands sit atop the kidneys, each has 2 functional portions, the cortex & medulla.
adrenal cortex
(adrenal glands) produces 3 groups of steroid hormones from cholesterole
- mineralocorticoids (primarily aldosterone)
- glucocorticoids (primarily corisol)
- gonadocorticoids (mainly androgens)
* hypoactivity = Addison's disease
* hypersecretion = Cushing's syndrome
mineralcorocoids
(adrenal cortex) primarily aldosterone - regulated Na+ reabsorption & K+ excreition in the kidneys.
glucocorticoids
(adrenal cortex) primarily cortisol - are important in metabolic hormones that help the body resist stressors by increasing blood glucose, fatty acids, amino acids, & BP.
gonadocorticoids
(adrenal cortex) mainly androgens - are produced in small amounts throughout life
adrenal medulla
(adrenal gland) produces catecholamines (epinephrine & norepinephrine) in response to the sympathetic nervous stimulation. Enhances prolonged fight or flight response to short term stressors
pineal gland
(major endocrine structure) is located in the diencephalon. Primary hormone is melatonin, which influences daily rhythms & may have an antigonadotropic effect.
pancrease
(endocrine & exocrine gland) located in the abdomen close to the stomach.
Endo- releases insulin & glucagon
glucagon
(pancrease) released by the alpha cells when blood levels of glucose are low, stimulates liver to releaase glucose in the blood
insulin
(pancreas) is released by the beta cells when blood levels of glucose (& amino acids) are rising. It increases the rate of glucose uptake & metabolism
- hypoactivity = diabetes mellitus
diabetes mellitus
results from hyposecretion OR hyperactivity of insulin.
-sugars cannot b used as fuel = high fatty acid levels in the blood
- fatty acids metabolize in severe cases = ketones/ketone bodies
caridinal signs: polyuria, polydipsia & polyphagia
diabetes insipidus
result of antidiurectic hormone deficiency
- huge amounts of urine
- can be caused by a blow to the head that damages the hypothalamus/posterior pituitary gland
resting membrane potential
as a neuron exhibits -70mV inside, it is due to both differences in Na+ & K+ concentrations inside & outside the cell & differences in permeability of the membrane to these ions.
- the ionic concentration differences result from the operation of the Na+ K+ pump which ejects 3Na+ from the cell for each 2K+ transported in.
membrane potentials act as signals
-depolarization is a reduction in membrane potential (inside becomes less negative)
-hyperpolarization is an increase in membrane potential (inside becomes more negative)
-graded potentials are small, brief, local changes in mem potential that act as short distance signals, the current produced dissipates w distance
- action potential or nerve impulse is a large, but brief, depolarization signal that underlies long distance neural communication. it is an all or none phrenomenun
depolarization
is a reduction in membrane potential (inside becomes less negative)
hyperpolarization
is an increase in membrane potential (inside becomes more negative)
graded potentials
are small, brief, local changes in mem potential that act as short distance signals, the current produced dissipates w distance
action potential or nerve impulse
is a large, but brief, depolarization signal that underlies long distance neural communication. it is an all or none phrenomenun.
Phases:
1. increase in Na+ permability: local depolarization opens gated Na+ channels, mem potential is approx +30mV
2. decrease in Na+ permability = repolarizzation
3. increase in K+ permability. repolarization
threshold
when depolarization at the stimulation site reaches a certain critical level it is called a ________. Typically is reached when the membrane has been depolarized 15-20mV from resting value. Phase 2 of generating an action potential.
graded potentials
local depolarization. threshold stimuli produce depolarizing currents that push the mem potential toward & beyond the treshold voltage. = Na+ permability is increased to such an extent that entering Na+ exceed the outward movement of K+, allowing + feedback cycle to become established & generating an ATP
threshold & all or none phenomenon
the depolarization must reach threshold values if an axon is to fire. threshold mem potential at which the outward current created by K+ movement is exactly equal to the inward moving current created by Na+ movement.
absolute refractory period
(refractory period) Na+ channels are opened until they begin to reset to their original resting state. it ensures that each action potential is a separate, all or none event & enforces one way transmission of the action potential.
relative refractory period
(refractory period) is the interval following the absolute refractory period. most Na+ channels have returned to their resting state, some K+ channels are still open, & repolarization is occurring. The axon threshold for action potential generations is substantially elevated. strong stimuli cause more frequent generations of action potential by intruding into this period.
synapse
is a functional junction bet neurons. the info tranmitting neuron is the presynaptic neuron; the info recieving neuron is the postsynaptic neuron
postsynaptic neuron
is the info recieving neuron
presynaptic neuron
is the info tranmitting neuron
electrical synapses
allow ions to flow directly from 1 neuron to another; the cells are electrically coupled
chemical synapses
are sites of neurotranmitter release & binding. when the impulse reaches the presynaptic axon terminals, voltage gated Ca2+ channels open, & Ca2+ enters the cell & mediates neurotrasmitter release. neurotransmitters diffuse across the synaptic cleft & attach to postsynaptic mem receptors, opening ion channels. after binding, the neurotransmitters are removed from the synapse by enzymatic breakdown or by reuptake into the presynpatic terminal or astrocytes.
blood pressure
the force per unit area exerted on a vessel wall by contained blood, expressed in mmHg
resistance
is opposition to flow & is a measure of the amount of friction blood encouters as it passes through the vessels
bp
is regulated by the medulla oblongata of the brain stem
factors that effect bp
-heredity
- diet
- obesity
- age
- diabete mellitus
- stress
- smoking
short term mechanisms: hormonal controls
(bp)
-adernal medulla hormones: renal gland releases norepinephrine & epipephrine to the blood, & both hormones enhance the sympathetic fight or flight
- angiotensis II: stimulates intense vasoconstriction, promoting a rapid rise in systemic bp
-atrial natiuretic peptide: causes blood volume & bp to decline
- ADH: stimulates the kidneys to conserve water, when bp is dangerously low, it restores arterial pressure
short term mechanisms: neural controls
(bp) mediated by the nervous sys & bloodborne chemicals, couteract moment to moment fluctuations in bp by altering PERIPHERAL RESISTANCE
- alters vessel diameter
- alters blood distribution to respond to specific demands of various organs
vasomotor center
(short term mechanisms: neural controls - bp) sees changes in the diamter of blood vessels, this & the CARDIAC CENTER = CARDIOVASCULAR CENTER, which integrates bp control by altering cardiac output & blood vessel diameter
baroreceptor-initiated reflexes
(short term mechanisms: neural controls - bp) when arterial bp rises it stretches the baroreceptors which are located in the carotid sinuses, provide major blood supply to the brain.
long term mechanisms: renal regulation
(bp) couteracts fluctuations in bp by altering blood volume. the kidneys act both directly & indirectly to regulate arterial bp.
- direct renal mechanism: alters blood volume independantly of hormones. when bp or blood volume rises = rate of fluid filtering from blood stream to kidney tubules speed up
- indirect renal mechanism: is the renin-angiotensin mechanism - when arterial bp drops the kidneys release renin into the blood, which triggers a series of reactions that produce angiotensin II
direct renal mechanism:
alters blood volume independantly of hormones. when bp or blood volume rises = rate of fluid filtering from blood stream to kidney tubules speed up
indirect renal mechanism:
is the renin-angiotensin mechanism - when arterial bp drops the kidneys release renin into the blood, which triggers a series of reactions that produce angiotensin II
angiotensis II
increase bp:
- is a vasoconstrictor, increasing bp by increasing peripheral resistance
- stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete ALDOSTERONE = increases renal absorption of Na+ = Na+ moves into blood steam & blood volume is conserved
- makes posterior pituitary release ADH = water reabsorption
respiration
is controlled by higher brain centers, chemoreceptors & other reflexes generated in the brain stem.
- medulla & pons
heart rate
is controlled by the brain stem
electrical currents pass through the body
body is made up of mostly water and electrolytes, so when electric current reach's enough voltage to pass through your skin the current usually flows along the nerves, being soaked in water and electrolytes, causing the characteristic pain of a shock along with conduction of current.
nose
PSCCE
conchae
of the nose help in reclaiming moisture & warmth as air is exhaled
inspiratory capacity
TV + IRV
FUNCTION RESIDUAL CAP
RV + ERV
VITAL CAP
TV + IRV + ERV
TOTAL LUNG CAP
IRV + TV + ERV + RV
respiration
- pulmonary ventilation: air to the lungs
- external respiration: CO2 from blood to alveoli, O2 from alveoli to blood
- transport of gases: via the blood
- internal respiration: O2 from blood to the cells, CO2 from cells to the blood
larynx
voice box - PSCCE - 2 thyroid cartilages - 2 cricoid cartilages (ring shaped) - 2 epiglottis cart - 2 cunieform (wedge) - 2 corniculate (horn) - 2 arytenoid (ladel) anchors vocal cords to thyroid cart
trachea
wind pipe - PSCCE - hyaline cartilage - trachealis muscle - carnia (spar of cart)
nasopharynx
adenoids
pharynx
1. nasopharynx - pharyngeal tonsils - PSCCE - connects pharynx to middle ear
2. oropharynx - palatine & linugial tonsils - respiration & digestion
3. laryngopharynx - continuous w esophagus - strat squam
bronchi
enters lungs at hilum
lobar: right 3, left 2
bronchioles 1/2mm in diameter
alveoli
site of gas exchange - small air filled chambers
respiratory mem
function: gas exchange
- O2 to blood
- CO2 enters the gas filled alveoli
type 1 cells
simple squa - majority of cells
type 2
secrete surfactant - reduced surface tnesion
lung pleurae
thin double layered serosa of the lungs
- parietal: covers thoracic walls & diapragm
- visceral: covers external surface of lungs
pulmonary vent - inspiration
1/ mucle contraction
2. vol of thoracic cavity increase
3. lungs are stretched
4. intrapulmonary press decreases
5. air flows into the lungs
tidal vol
normal quiet breathing (500mL)
inspiratory reserve vol
air forcefully exhaled (2100-3200mL)
expiratory reserve vol
air forcefull inhaled (1100-1200mL)
residual vol
air remaining in lungs (1200mL)
oxygen
4 _____ bind to hemoglobin which is a protein
transport of respiratory gases
1. CO2 diffuses into RBC
2. RBCs contain carbonic anhydrase
3. blood becomes slightly more acidic as it passes through the tissue
4. chloride shift
slow shallow
_______ breathing = CO2 accumulation in the blood = increase in H2CO3 = decrease in blood pH
rapid deep
______ breathing = flushes CO2 from blood = decrease in H2CO3 = increase in blood pH
false vocal cords
(larynx) mucosal folds superior - no part in sound production
true vocal cords
(larynx) made of elastic fibers - bet glottis - vibrates as air rushes into lungs = sound
factors influencing breathign
- brain stem
- aortic arch
- carotid artery
- changes in CO2, O2, & H+
-arterial pH
acclimatization
= increase in rate & depth of breathign
- increase in EPO = increase RBCs
- angiogenius (increases diffusing capacity)
The central nervous system consists of the brain and the
spinal cord
This part of a neuron carries the impulse towards the nucleus
dendrite
The phagocytic cells in the CNS are the
microglia
This cell provides a means of acquiring nutrients in the brain
astrocyte
The resting potential of a neuron is
-70mV
Which type of short neuron is found in the eye?
Bipolar
The PNS is comprised of the cranial nerves and
spinal nerves
The cells that produce myelin in the PNS are the
Schwann cells
The cells that conduct messages toward the brain are the
interneurons
Which of these is true when a neuron is at rest?
The outside is negative
The membrane closest to the brain is the
pia mater
To minimize trauma, a spinal tap is properly done below the level of
L3
The cerebral hemispheres are connected by a large white fiber pathway called the
corpus callosum
The cerebrospinal fluid is produce by the capillaries of the
choroid plexus
This has the main centers for breathing reflexes
medulla
The velocity of nerve impulse conductions is greatest in
heavily myelinated, large-diameter fibers
The part of the brain that functions to coordinate voluntary muscle movements is the
cerebellum
In the case of a subdural hematoma resulting from a blow to the head, blood accumulates between the
dura mater and the arachnoid matter
Sensory adaptation occurs when stimuli become
gradually ignored
Stimulation of this usually results in pain
free nerve ending
Meissner's and Pacinian corpuscles are sensitive to
touch and pressure
At a temperature of 50 degrees C, the most likely perception of a skin sensation is one of
pain
Pain in the left arm cause by lack of blood to the heart is a type of
referred pain
The receptors for taste and smell are examples of
chemoreceptors
Olfactory tract damage would probably affect your ability to
smell
Gustatory cells are stimulated by
substances dissolved in saliva
The first structure to vibrate in response to sounds is the
tympanic membrane
The function of the small bones of the middle ear is to
transmit and intensify vibrations transmitted to the inner ear
The portion of the inner ear that detects sound is the
cochlea
The process of adjusting vision from a near to a distant object is called
accommodation
The point of sharpest retinal vision is called the
fovea centralis
The maintenance of the shape of the eyeball is enabled by the
vitreous humor
Which of the following pairs is not correct?
Cone-rhodopsin
The blind spot of the eye is
where the optic nerve leaves the eye
Four refractory media of the eye, listed in sequence in which they refract light are
cornea, aqueous humor lens, vitreous humor
Why do odors sometimes alter your mood?
Because sensory input from olfaction is routed through the limbic system
The structures of the ear are responsible for the sense of balance or equilibrium as well as the sense of hearing.
True
The process that leads to perception of the sensation arising from the location of the stimulation is projection.
True
The two systems that act to control all body activities are the nervous and
endocrine
Which of the following glands does NOT belong to the endocrine system?
salivary
The action of a hormone is directed at
target cells
A major difference between steroids and other types of hormones is
steroid hormones are lipid soluble
Which of the following pituitary hormones regulate fluid balance?
ADH
Which part of the endocrine system has the major influence over other endocrine organs?
Hypothalamus
Which of the following is NOT produced by the anterior pituitary gland?
GnRH
The effect of parathyroid hormone (PTH) is to
stimulate the bone to release ionized calcium
The action of insulin that most directly leads to lowered blood sugar is
facilitating the transport of glucose across the cell membrane
Insulin secretion is regulated by a negative feedback system sensitive to
blood glucose concentration
The hormone melatonin is secreted from the
pineal gland
This gland is important for producing immunity
thymus
In the general stress syndrome, all of the following are increased EXCEPT which one?
digestion
. Drinking alcoholic beverages on hot days is not safe because alcohol inhibits the release of this, which normally helps to conserve water during dehydration
anti-diuretic hormone
Sex hormones are secreted by
the inner cortex of the adrenal gland and the gonads
The endocrine gland responsible for the body's circadian rhythm is the
pineal gland
In the second messenger theory, which is the first messenger?
hormone
A hypodermic injection of epinephrine would
increase heart rate, increase blood pressure, dilate the bronchi, and decrease peristalsis
Hormones
are carried to all parts of the body by the blood
Gluconeogenesis occurs in the liver due to the action of ________.
A) aldosterone
B) insulin
C) secretin
D) cortisol
D) cortisol
Normal development of the immune response is due in part to hormones produced by the ________.
A) adrenal medulla
B) pancreas
C) thyroid gland
D) thymus gland
D) thymus gland
Virtually all of the protein or amino acid-based hormones exert their effects through intracellular ________.
A) ions
B) deactivators
C) nucleotides
D) second messengers
D) second messengers
Which of the following is not a category of endocrine gland stimulus?
A) enzyme
B) humoral
C) neural
D) hormonal
A) enzyme
Chemical substances secreted by cells into the extracellular fluids and that regulate the metabolic function of other cells in the body are called ________.
A) enzymes
B) antibodies
C) proteins
D) hormones
D) hormones
The hypothalamic-hypophyseal tract ________.
A) connects the hypophysis to the pituitary gland
B) is partly contained within the infundibulum
C) conducts aldosterone to the hypophysis
D) is the site of prolactin synthesis
B) is partly contained within the infundibulum
Which of the following is not a cardinal sign of diabetes mellitus?
A) polyuria
B) polydipsia
C) polyphagia
D) All of these are signs.
D) All of these are signs.
Which of the choices below is not a factor required for target cell activation by hormone receptor interaction?
A) blood levels of hormone
B) type of hormone
C) number of receptors for that hormone
D) strength of the bond between the receptor and hormone
B) type of hormone
Oxytocin ________.
A) release is an example of a positive feedback control mechanism
B) is an adenohypophyseal secretion
C) exerts its most important effects during menstruation
D) controls milk production
A) release is an example of a positive feedback control mechanism
ADH ________.
A) increases urine production
B) promotes dehydration
C) is produced in the adenohypophysis
D) is inhibited by alcohol
D) is inhibited by alcohol
Thyroid hormone exerts its influence by ________.
A) entering some cells and binding to intracellular receptors within the nuclei
B) exerting only a minor effect on body metabolism
C) causing a reduction in the number of blood vessel adrenergic receptors, and therefore decreasing blood pressure
D) acting to decrease basal metabolic rate
A) entering some cells and binding to intracellular receptors within the nuclei
Gonadocorticoid(s) ________.
A) synthesized by the adrenal medulla are primarily androgens
B) production by the adrenal gland is insignificant compared with sex hormone release from the gonads during late puberty
C) secretion inhibition is highly dependent on a negative feedback loop involving ACTH
D) hypersecretion can result in adrenogenital syndrome, also called feminization
B) production by the adrenal gland is insignificant compared with sex hormone release from the gonads during late puberty
Sometimes prolonged excessive exposure to high hormone concentrations causes a phenomenon known as ________.
A) diabetes mellitus
B) cellular inhibition
C) down-regulation
D) metabolism of protein kinases
C) down-regulation
Which of the following is not a change that may be caused by hormonal stimulus?
A) a change in membrane potential
B) the stimulation of a genetic event resulting in protein synthesis
C) an increase in enzymatic activity
D) direct control of the nervous system
D) direct control of the nervous system
The ability of a specific tissue or organ to respond to the presence of a hormone is dependent on ________.
A) the location of the tissue or organ with respect to the circulatory path
B) the membrane potential of the cells of the target organ
C) the presence of the appropriate receptors on the cells of the target tissue or organ
D) nothingall hormones of the human body are able to stimulate any and all cell types because hormones are powerful and nonspecific
C) the presence of the appropriate receptors on the cells of the target tissue or organ
Several hormones are synthesized in the hypothalamus and transported to the anterior pituitary gland. The mechanism of transportation from hypothalamus to anterior pituitary gland is through the ________.
A) hepatic portal system
B) general circulatory system
C) hypophyseal portal system
D) feedback loop
C) hypophyseal portal system
The neurohypophysis or posterior lobe of the pituitary gland is not a true endocrine gland because ________.
A) it is strictly a part of the neural system and has little or nothing to do with hormonal release
B) embryonically it was an endocrine tissue, but in the adult human it is no longer functional
C) it is unable to function as an endocrine tissue because it is actually part of the neural system due to its location
D) it is only a hormone storage area that receives hormones from the hypothalamus for release
D) it is only a hormone storage area that receives hormones from the hypothalamus for release
Steroid hormones exert their action by ________.
A) entering the nucleus of a cell and initiating or altering the expression of a gene
B) finding an appropriate cell receptor and initiating cAMP activity
C) stimulating the synthesis of a glycogen
D) increasing blood pressure
A) entering the nucleus of a cell and initiating or altering the expression of a gene
The second-messenger mechanism of hormone action operates by ________.
A) synthesizing more of the hormone than is actually needed
B) increasing the basal metabolic rate in the target organ
C) not responding to a feedback mechanism
D) binding to specific receptors and employing the services of G proteins and cAMP
D) binding to specific receptors and employing the services of G proteins and cAMP
Hormones often cause a cell to elicit multiple responses; this is because ________.
A) there are thousands of receptors on the cell membrane
B) the receptors bind to several hormones at the same time
C) the protein kinases are rapidly metabolized
D) during protein kinase activation, enzymes phosphorylate many other enzymes
D) during protein kinase activation, enzymes phosphorylate many other enzymes
Cells that respond to peptide hormones usually do so through a sequence of biochemical reactions involving receptor and kinase activation. In order for cells to respond, it is necessary for first and second messengers to communicate. This is possible because ________.
A) peptide hormones always enter the cell membrane and elicit a response without assistance from other messengers
B) hormones alter cellular operations through stimulation of a gene directly
C) G protein acts as the link between first and second messengers
D) the hormone receptor complex moves into the cytoplasm as a unit
C) G protein acts as the link between first and second messengers
Thyroid hormone (a small iodinated amine) enters target cells in a manner similar to ________.
A) insulin, because insulin is a small peptide
B) steroid hormones, because both diffuse easily into target cells
C) growth hormone, because the thyroid works synergistically with thyroid hormone
D) glucagon, because the structure of glucagon is similar to that of thyroid hormone
B) steroid hormones, because both diffuse easily into target cells
When it becomes necessary to enlist the fight-or-flight response, a hormone that is released during the alarm phase of the general adaptation syndrome is ________.
A) estrogen
B) epinephrine
C) angiotensinogen
D) renin
B) epinephrine
One of the least complicated of the endocrine control systems directly responds to changing blood levels of ions and nutrients. Which of the following describes this mechanism?
A) the rapid oxidation of carbohydrates
B) catabolic inhibition
C) protein synthesis
D) humoral stimulation
D) humoral stimulation
The major targets of growth hormone are ________.
A) the blood vessels
B) the adrenal glands
C) the liver
D) bones and skeletal muscles
D) bones and skeletal muscles
The parathyroid glands maintain adequate levels of blood calcium. This is accomplished through ________.
A) blocking the action of growth hormone
B) targeting the bone and activating osteoclasts so that calcium will be released
C) antagonizing the synthesis of calcitonin
D) slowing the activity of tissues that require calcium for activity
B) targeting the bone and activating osteoclasts so that calcium will be released
Which organ is responsible for synthesizing ANP?
A) the heart
B) the kidney
C) the skin
D) the spleen
A) the heart
Mineralocorticoid is to aldosterone as glucocorticoid is to ________.
A) testosterone
B) estrogen
C) cortisol
D) epinephrine
C) cortisol
Leptin is secreted by ________.
A) lymphocytes
B) adipocytes
C) goblet cells
D) fibroblasts
B) adipocytes
The most important regulator of electrolyte concentrations in extracellular fluids is ________.
A) insulin
B) aldosterone
C) glucagon
D) cortisol
B) aldosterone
Which of the following is not a steroid-based hormone?
A) estrogen
B) aldosterone
C) epinephrine
D) cortisone
C) epinephrine
Which of the following would be associated with the action of steroids on cells?
A) extracellular receptors with a specificity for only a single amino acid sequence on the hormone
B) an enzyme that catalyzes the formation of cyclic AMP
C) second-messenger systems
D) a hormone-receptor complex that interacts directly with the cell's DNA
D) a hormone-receptor complex that interacts directly with the cell's DNA
Cellular responses to hormones that initiate second-messenger systems include ________.
A) possible activation of several different second-messenger systems
B) cyclic AMP phosphodiesterase formation of an active second messenger
C) formation of a specific protein kinase that acts on a series of extracellular intermediates
D) hormone binding to intracellular receptors
A) possible activation of several different second-messenger systems
Regulating hormones from the hypothalamus ________.
A) enter venous circulation and travel to the heart, which pumps the hormone-containing blood to the pituitary
B) enter the hepatic portal system, which feeds the pituitary
C) travel by arteries to the pituitary
D) first enter into the hypophyseal portal system
D) first enter into the hypophyseal portal system
ACTH ________.
A) is secreted by the posterior pituitary
B) secretion is regulated by a hypothalamic secretion
C) causes the release of hormones from the adrenal medulla
D) is not a tropic hormone
B) secretion is regulated by a hypothalamic secretion
Which of the following is true about calcium homeostasis?
A) Increased calcitonin levels will cause increased blood calcium levels.
B) High calcium levels cause bone resorption.
C) Parathyroid hormone causes an increase in osteoblast activity.
D) Parathyroid hormone is the single most important regulator of calcium levels in the blood.
D) Parathyroid hormone is the single most important regulator of calcium levels in the blood.
Aldosterone ________.
A) is secreted by the neurohypophysis
B) functions to increase sodium reabsorption
C) presence increases potassium concentration in the blood
D) production is greatly influenced by ACTH
B) functions to increase sodium reabsorption
The only amine hormone to act like a steroid is ________.
A) TH
B) ACTH
C) GH
D) ADH
A) TH
Which organ does not have hormone production?
A) heart
B) kidney
C) liver
D) skin
C) liver
In circumstances where the body requires prolonged or increased levels of a hormone the DNA of target cells will specify the synthesis of more receptors on the surface of the cells of the target organ. This is known as ________.
A) the cell's sensitivity reaction
B) cellular affinity
C) up-regulation
D) a reaction to a stressor
C) up-regulation
Eicosanoids do not include ________.
A) paracrines
B) leukotrienes
C) hydrocortisones
D) prostaglandins
C) hydrocortisones
A man has been told that he is not synthesizing enough follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), and for this reason he may be unable to father a child. Choose the correct statement to explain this problem.
A) FSH stimulates estrogen secretion by ovarian cells, therefore it is not synthesized by males.
B) The physician is wronga hormone made in the adenohypophysis could not influence fertility.
C) FSH stimulates sperm production in the testes.
D) The man must be producing progesterone, which inhibits the synthesis of FSH.
C) FSH stimulates sperm production in the testes.
Which of the following organs is affected by thyroid hormone in adults?
A) liver
B) spleen
C) thyroid gland
D) brain
A) liver
Thyroxine is a peptide hormone, but its mechanism is different from other peptide hormones. Which of the following statements is true concerning this difference?
A) It causes positive feedback.
B) It does not require a second messenger to effect a response.
C) It is very specific in the cell type it targets.
D) It is a stimulant of cellular metabolism and targets all cells.
B) It does not require a second messenger to effect a response.
How do glucocorticoids enable the body to deal appropriately with stress?
A) by increasing blood glucose, fatty acid, and amino acid levels and enhancing blood pressure
B) by decreasing the heart rate, thus decreasing blood pressure
C) by stimulating the pancreas to release insulin
D) by blocking the neurotransmitters that prepare the body for the stress response
A) by increasing blood glucose, fatty acid, and amino acid levels and enhancing blood pressure
What ion is sometimes used as a second messenger of amino acidbased hormones?
A) iron
B) calcium
C) sodium
D) chlorine
B) calcium
The secretions of the adrenal medulla act to supplement the effects of ________.
A) parasympathetic innervation
B) sympathetic stimulation
C) vagus nerve activity
D) neurosecretory substances
B) sympathetic stimulation
Which of the following does not describe the ANS?
A) a system of motor neurons that innervates smooth and cardiac muscle and glands
B) a system of motor neurons that innervates all muscle cells
C) involuntary nervous system
D) general visceral motor system
B) a system of motor neurons that innervates all muscle cells
Preparing the body for the "fight-or-flight" response is the role of the ________.
A) sympathetic nervous system
B) cerebrum
C) parasympathetic nervous system
D) somatic nervous system
A) sympathetic nervous system
The somatic and autonomic nervous systems differ in all of the following except ________.
A) their effectors
B) their efferent pathways
C) to some degree in target responses to their neurotransmitters
D) all of the neurotransmitters
D) all of the neurotransmitters
A drug that might be used specifically to reduce heart rate in cardiac patients could be ________.
A) anticholinesterase
B) epinephrine
C) norepinephrine
D) a beta-blocker
D) a beta-blocker
The parasympathetic ganglion that serves the eye is the ________.
A) ciliary ganglion
B) pterygopalatine ganglion
C) submandibular ganglion
D) otic ganglion
A) ciliary ganglion
Cardiovascular effects of the sympathetic division include all except ________.
A) constriction of most blood vessels
B) dilation of the vessels serving the skeletal muscles
C) increase of heart rate and force
D) dilation of the blood vessels serving the skin and digestive viscera
D) dilation of the blood vessels serving the skin and digestive viscera
Over 90% of all parasympathetic fibers are derived from cranial nerve number ________.
A) V
B) VII
C) X
D) XII
C) X
The "resting and digesting" division of the autonomic nervous system is the ________.
A) parasympathetic division
B) sympathetic division
C) somatic division
D) peripheral nervous system
A) parasympathetic division
Control of temperature, endocrine activity, and thirst are functions associated with the ________.
A) medulla
B) cerebellum
C) hypothalamus
D) thalamus
C) hypothalamus
Which of these effectors is not directly controlled by the autonomic nervous system?
A) smooth muscle
B) cardiac muscle
C) skeletal muscle
D) most glands
C) skeletal muscle
Which of the following is not a result of parasympathetic stimulation?
A) salivation
B) dilation of the pupils
C) increased peristalsis of the digestive viscera
D) elimination of urine
B) dilation of the pupils
Which of the following statements is not true?
A) Sympathetic origin is craniosacral, parasympathetic is thoracolumbar.
B) Sympathetic ganglia are within a few centimeters of the CNS, parasympathetic are close to visceral organs served.
C) Sympathetic division has short preganglionic and long postganglionic fibers, parasympathetic has long preganglionic and short postganglionic fibers.
D) Sympathetic has extensive branching of preganglionic fibers, parasympathetic has minimal branching of preganglionic fibers.
A) Sympathetic origin is craniosacral, parasympathetic is thoracolumbar.
Sympathetic responses generally are widespread because ________.
A) inactivation of ACh is fairly slow
B) NE and epinephrine are secreted into the blood as part of the sympathetic response
C) preganglionic fibers are short
D) preganglionic fibers are long
B) NE and epinephrine are secreted into the blood as part of the sympathetic response
Sympathetic nerves may leave the spinal cord at which vertebra?
A) second cervical
B) third lumbar
C) first coccyx
D) first thoracic
D) first thoracic
Autonomic ganglia contain ________.
A) an outer connective tissue capsule around the cell bodies of preganglionic motor neurons
B) synapses between postganglionic fibers and their effectors
C) the cell bodies of motor neurons
D) both somatic afferent and efferent neurons
C) the cell bodies of motor neurons
The parasympathetic fibers of the ________ nerves innervate smooth muscles of the eye that cause the lenses to bulge to accommodate close vision.
A) optic
B) oculomotor
C) trochlear
D) abducens
B) oculomotor
Fibers that enter and leave the sympathetic chain without synapsing form structures called ________.
A) white rami communicantes
B) gray rami communicantes
C) spinal nerves
D) splanchnic nerves
D) splanchnic nerves
Which of the following is not a plexus of the vagus nerve?
A) cardiac
B) pulmonary
C) celiac
D) esophageal
C) celiac
Visceral reflex arcs differ from somatic in that ________.
A) visceral arcs contain two sensory neurons
B) somatic arcs contain one additional component that visceral arcs do not possess
C) visceral arcs involve two motor neurons
D) visceral arcs do not use integration centers
C) visceral arcs involve two motor neurons
The parasympathetic tone ________.
A) prevents unnecessary heart deceleration
B) accelerates activity of the digestive tract
C) determines normal activity of the urinary tract
D) causes blood pressure to rise
C) determines normal activity of the urinary tract
Once a sympathetic preganglionic axon reaches a trunk ganglion, it can do all but which one of the following?
A) synapse with a parasympathetic neuron in the same trunk ganglion
B) synapase with a ganglionic neuron in the same trunk ganglion
C) ascend or descend the trunk to synapse in another trunk ganglion
D) pass through the trunk ganglion without synapsing with another neuron
A) synapse with a parasympathetic neuron in the same trunk ganglion
The white rami communicantes ________.
A) are found only in the - cord segments
B) are unmyelinated
C) carry preganglionic axons to the sympathetic chain
D) carry postganglionic fibers to the periphery
C) carry preganglionic axons to the sympathetic chain
Beta-blockers ________.
A) increase a dangerously low heart rate
B) decrease heart rate and blood pressure
C) have widespread sympathetic effects
D) are potent antidepressants
B) decrease heart rate and blood pressure
Erection of the penis or clitoris ________.
A) is primarily under sympathetic control
B) is primarily under parasympathetic control
C) is the result of coordinated activation by both sympathetic and parasympathetic input
D) depends very little on autonomic activation
B) is primarily under parasympathetic control
Which is a uniquely sympathetic function?
A) regulation of pupil size
B) regulation of cardiac rate
C) regulation of respiratory rate
D) regulation of body temperature
D) regulation of body temperature
Raynaud's disease ________.
A) is characterized by exaggerated vasoconstriction in the extremities
B) is induced by heat stress
C) occurs primarily in association with injury to the spinal cord
D) is frequently life threatening
A) is characterized by exaggerated vasoconstriction in the extremities
Autonomic dysreflexia ________.
A) is also known as autonomic areflexia
B) involves uncontrolled activation of autonomic neurons
C) usually precedes spinal shock
D) results from overexcitatory input from the cortex
B) involves uncontrolled activation of autonomic neurons
Which sympathetic fibers form the splanchnic nerve?
A) those that synapse with parasympathetic fibers
B) those that synapse in the same trunk ganglion they entered
C) those that synapse with somatic fibers
D) those that pass through the trunk ganglion to synapse in collateral or prevertebral ganglia
D) those that pass through the trunk ganglion to synapse in collateral or prevertebral ganglia
In aging, autonomic inefficiency is often due to ________.
A) clogging of preganglionic axon terminals with filaments
B) cerebral hemorrhage
C) major loss of axons
D) peripheral vascular changes
A) clogging of preganglionic axon terminals with filaments
Where would you not find an autonomic ganglion?
A) in the head
B) in the cervical region
C) close to the visceral effectors they serve
D) in the armpit
D) in the armpit
Sympathetic division stimulation causes ________.
A) decreased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure
B) increased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and decreased heart rate and blood pressure
C) increased blood glucose, decreased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure
D) decreased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and decreased heart rate and blood pressure
C) increased blood glucose, decreased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure
The smooth muscle of the digestive viscera is served largely by the ________.
A) lumbar splanchnic nerves
B) cephalic plexus
C) pelvic nerves
D) tenth cranial nerve
D) tenth cranial nerve
The route of major parasympathetic outflow from the head is via the ________.
A) sympathetic trunk
B) phrenic nerve
C) vagus nerve
D) sacral nerve
C) vagus nerve
Parasympathetic functions include ________.
A) a stimulation of heart rate and force of contraction
B) allowing the body to cope with an external threat
C) lens accommodation for close vision
D) mobilizing storage energy sources
C) lens accommodation for close vision
Emotions influence autonomic reactions primarily through integration in the ________.
A) lateral horn of the spinal cord
B) hypothalamus
C) lateral geniculate of the thalamus
D) inferior colliculus
B) hypothalamus
The possibility of some control over autonomic responses is demonstrated by ________.
A) split brain studies
B) stress-induced hypertension
C) biofeedback
D) nightmares
C) biofeedback
The vagus nerve does not innervate the ________.
A) pancreas
B) kidneys
C) parotid gland
D) gallbladder
C) parotid gland
The patellar "knee jerk" reflex is an example of a(n) ________.
A) extensor thrust reflex
B) stress reflex
C) crossed-extensor reflex
D) stretch reflex
D) stretch reflex
The ________ nerve is not a branch of the trigeminal nerve.
A) ophthalmic
B) maxillary
C) cervical
D) mandibular
C) cervical
Which of the following nerves does not arise from the brachial plexus?
A) median
B) phrenic
C) radial
D) ulnar
B) phrenic
Which of the following is not an example of an exteroceptor?
A) touch
B) pressure
C) pain
D) temperature
E) baroreceptor
E) baroreceptor
Which of the following is not a main level of neural integration in the somatosensory system?
A) receptor
B) circuit
C) segmental
D) perceptual
C) segmental
The posterior side of the thigh, leg, and foot is served by the ________ nerve.
A) obturator
B) common fibular
C) tibial
D) femoral
C) tibial
Starting at the spinal cord, the subdivisions of the brachial plexus are (in order):
A) roots, trunks, divisions, and cords
B) roots, divisions, cords, and trunks
C) divisions, roots, trunks, and cords
D) trunks, divisions, cords, and roots
A) roots, trunks, divisions, and cords
The cranial nerve with a dual origin (brain and spinal cord) is the ________.
A) hypoglossal
B) accessory
C) vagus
D) glossopharyngeal
B) accessory
Which of the following is an incorrect statement regarding the occurrence of a sensation?
A) The stimulus energy must match the specificity of the receptor.
B) The stimulus energy must occur within the receptor's receptive field.
C) The stimulus energy must be converted into the energy of a graded potential called a transduction potential.
D) A generator potential in the associated sensory neuron must reach threshold.
C) The stimulus energy must be converted into the energy of a graded potential called a transduction potential.
A major nerve of the lumbar plexus is the ________.
A) femoral
B) iliohypogastric
C) sciatic
D) ilioinguinal
A) femoral
Spinal nerves exiting the cord from the level of L4 to S4 form the ________.
A) lumbar plexus
B) femoral plexus
C) sacral plexus
D) thoracic plexus
C) sacral plexus
The abducens nerve ________.
A) supplies innervation to the lateral rectus muscle of the eye
B) relays sensory information from taste buds on the tongue
C) exits from the medulla
D) if paralyzed, exhibits Bell's palsy
A) supplies innervation to the lateral rectus muscle of the eye
Inborn or intristic reflexes are ________.
A) rapid, predictable, learned responses
B) involuntary, yet may be modified by learned behavior
C) autonomic only
D) always mediated by the brain
B) involuntary, yet may be modified by learned behavior
Which of the following is not an aspect of sensory perception?
A) magnitude estimation
B) spatial discrimination
C) feature attraction
D) quality estimation
E) pattern recognition
D) quality estimation
Striking the "funny bone" is actually stimulation of (or injury to) the ________.
A) radial nerve
B) sciatic nerve
C) ulnar nerve
D) median nerve
C) ulnar nerve
A reflex that causes muscle relaxation and lengthening in response to muscle tension is called a ________.
A) Golgi tendon reflex
B) flexor reflex
C) crossed-extensor reflex
D) plantar reflex
A) Golgi tendon reflex
Pressure, pain, and temperature receptors in the skin are ________.
A) interoceptors
B) exteroceptors
C) proprioceptors
D) mechanoreceptors
B) exteroceptors
Potentially damaging stimuli that result in pain are selectively detected by ________.
A) interoceptors
B) photoreceptors
C) nociceptors
D) proprioceptors
C) nociceptors
Which receptors adapt most slowly?
A) smell receptors
B) pressure receptors
C) nociceptors
D) touch receptors
C) nociceptors
The trochlear nerve conveys proprioceptor impulses from the ________ to the brain.
A) medial rectus muscle
B) lateral rectus muscle
C) superior rectus muscle
D) inferior rectus muscle
C) superior rectus muscle
Nerves that carry impulses toward the CNS only are ________.
A) afferent nerves
B) efferent nerves
C) motor nerves
D) mixed nerves
A) afferent nerves
After axonal injury, regeneration in peripheral nerves is guided by ________.
A) Wallerian cells
B) Schwann cells
C) dendrites
D) Golgi organs
B) Schwann cells
Regeneration within the CNS ________.
A) is more successful than with the PNS
B) typically allows axonal sprouting of 20 mm
C) is prevented due to growth-inhibiting proteins of oligodendrocytes
D) is promoted by growth inhibitors and glial scars
C) is prevented due to growth-inhibiting proteins of oligodendrocytes
In a crossed-extensor reflex, if the right arm was grabbed it would flex and the left arm would ________.
A) also flex
B) extend
C) abduct
D) adduct
B) extend
Select the correct definition.
A) Magnitude estimation is the simplest level of sensation.
B) Perceptual detection is the ability to detect how much stimulus is applied to the body.
C) Pattern recognition allows us to see a familiar face.
D) Spatial discrimination allows us to recognize textures.
C) Pattern recognition allows us to see a familiar face.
All processing at the circuit level going up to the perceptual level must synapse in the ________.
A) pons
B) thalamus
C) reticular formation
D) medulla
B) thalamus
The sciatic nerve is a combination of which two nerves?
A) pudendal and posterior femoral cutaneous
B) posterior femoral cutaneous and tibial
C) pudendal and common fibular
D) common fibular and tibial
D) common fibular and tibial
Irritation of a major nerve of this plexus may cause hiccups.
A) cervical plexus
B) lumbar plexus
C) sacral plexus
D) thoracic plexus
A) cervical plexus
Bell's palsy is ________.
A) characterized by partial paralysis of diaphragm muscles
B) characterized by loss of vision
C) often caused by inflammation of the trigeminal nerve
D) characterized by paralysis of facial muscles
D) characterized by paralysis of facial muscles
Which of the following is the correct simple spinal reflex arc?
A) effector, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, receptor
B) receptor, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, effector
C) effector, efferent neuron, integration center, afferent neuron, receptor
D) receptor, efferent neuron, integration center, afferent neuron, effector
B) receptor, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, effector
Mixed cranial nerves containing both motor and sensory fibers include all except which of the following?
A) oculomotor
B) olfactory
C) trigeminal
D) facial
B) olfactory
Transduction refers to conversion of ________.
A) presynaptic nerve impulses to postsynaptic nerve impulses
B) stimulus information to nerve impulses
C) receptor energy to stimulus energy
D) afferent impulses to efferent impulses
B) stimulus information to nerve impulses
The flexor muscles in the anterior arm (biceps brachii and brachialis) are innervated by what nerve?
A) radial
B) median
C) ulnar
D) musculocutaneous
D) musculocutaneous
The cranial nerves that have neural connections with the tongue include all except the ________.
A) trigeminal
B) facial
C) glossopharyngeal
D) trochlear
D) trochlear
Problems in balance may follow trauma to which nerve?
A) abducens
B) vestibulocochlear
C) trigeminal
D) accessory
B) vestibulocochlear
A fracture of the ethmoid bone could result in damage to which cranial nerve?
A) glossopharyngeal
B) vagus
C) olfactory
D) accessory
C) olfactory
Select the statement that is most correct.
A) Ganglia are collections of neuron cell bodies in the spinal cord that are associated with efferent fibers.
B) Ganglia associated with afferent nerve fibers contain cell bodies of sensory neurons.
C) The dorsal root ganglion is a motor-only structure.
D) The cell bodies of afferent ganglia are located in the spinal cord.
B) Ganglia associated with afferent nerve fibers contain cell bodies of sensory neurons.
A fall or an improperly delivered gluteal injection could result in ________.
A) neurofibromatosis
B) postpoliomyelitis muscular atrophy
C) paresthesia
D) sciatica
D) sciatica
Feeling a gentle caress on your arm would likely involve all of the following except ________.
A) Meissner's corpuscles
B) tactile discs
C) Pacinian corpuscles
D) hair follicle receptors
C) Pacinian corpuscles
A patient who received a blow to the side of the skull exhibits the following signs and symptoms on that side of the face: he is unable to close his eye, and the corner of his mouth droops. Which cranial nerve has been damaged?
A) facial
B) glossopharyngeal
C) hypoglossal
D) accessory
A) facial
If the ventral root of a spinal nerve were cut, what would be the result in the tissue or region that nerve supplies?
A) complete loss of sensation
B) a complete loss of voluntary movement
C) loss of neither sensation nor movement but only of autonomic control
D) a complete loss of sensation and movement
B) a complete loss of voluntary movement
The anteriolateral pathways ________.
A) are evolutionarily newer than the specific pathways
B) receive inputs from a single type of sensory receptor
C) are involved in the emotional aspects of perception
D) are also called the lemniscal system
C) are involved in the emotional aspects of perception
The suprachiasmatic nucleus is found in the ________.
A) pons
B) thalamus
C) hypothalamus
D) medulla
C) hypothalamus
Nuclei of cranial nerves V, VI, and VII are found in the ________.
A) midbrain
B) medulla
C) pons
D) cerebrum
C) pons
The arbor vitae refers to ________.
A) cerebellar gray matter
B) cerebellar white matter
C) the pleatlike convolutions of the cerebellum
D) flocculonodular nodes
B) cerebellar white matter
The brain stem consists of the ________.
A) cerebrum, pons, midbrain, and medulla
B) midbrain, medulla, and pons
C) pons, medulla, cerebellum, and midbrain
D) midbrain only
B) midbrain, medulla, and pons
The primary auditory cortex is located in the ________.
A) prefrontal lobe
B) frontal lobe
C) temporal lobe
D) parietal lobe
C) temporal lobe
Spinocerebellar tracts ________.
A) terminate in the spinal cord
B) carry proprioceptive inputs to the cerebellum
C) give rise to conscious experience of perception
D) are found in the dorsal columns of the spinal cord
B) carry proprioceptive inputs to the cerebellum
What cells line the ventricles of the brain?
A) ependymal cells
B) neurons
C) epithelial cells
D) astrocytes
A) ependymal cells
The subarachnoid space lies between what two layers of meninges?
A) arachnoid and epidura
B) arachnoid and pia
C) arachnoid and dura
D) dura and epidura
B) arachnoid and pia
The vital centers for the control of heart rate, respiration, and blood pressure are located in the ________.
A) pons
B) medulla
C) midbrain
D) cerebrum
B) medulla
Cell bodies of the sensory neurons of the spinal nerves are located in ________.
A) the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal cord
B) the ventral root ganglia of the spinal cord
C) the thalamus
D) sympathetic ganglia
A) the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal cord
Which fissure separates the cerebral hemispheres?
A) central fissure
B) longitudinal fissure
C) parieto-occipital fissure
D) lateral fissure
B) longitudinal fissure
Which of the following best describes the cerebrum?
A) motor command center
B) visceral command center
C) executive suite
D) decussation center
C) executive suite
A shallow groove on the surface of the cortex is called a ________.
A) sulcus
B) fissure
C) gyrus
D) furrow
A) sulcus
Which of the following generalizations does not describe the cerebral cortex?
A) The cerebral cortex contains three kinds of functional areas.
B) Each hemisphere is chiefly concerned with sensory and motor functions of the contralateral side of the body.
C) The hemispheres are exactly equal in function.
D) No functional area of the cortex works alone.
C) The hemispheres are exactly equal in function.
If the posterior portion of the neural tube failed to develop properly the ________.
A) spinal cord may be affected
B) cranial nerves would not form
C) hindbrain would not be present
D) telencephalon would cease development
A) spinal cord may be affected
The central sulcus separates which lobes?
A) frontal from parietal
B) parietal from occipital
C) temporal from parietal
D) frontal from temporal
A) frontal from parietal
Neural tracts that convey life-saving information to the brain concerning burning pain would be ________.
A) anterior spinothalamic
B) reticulospinal
C) lateral spinothalamic
D) posterior spinothalamic
C) lateral spinothalamic
Which of these would you not find in the cerebral cortex?
A) cell bodies
B) dendrites
C) unmyelinated axons
D) fiber tracts
D) fiber tracts
The hypothalamus ________.
A) is the thermostat of the body because it regulates temperature
B) is an important auditory and visual relay center
C) has the Pulvinar body as part of its structure
D) mediates sensations
A) is the thermostat of the body because it regulates temperature
The white matter of the spinal cord contains ________.
A) myelinated nerve fibers only
B) unmyelinated nerve fibers only
C) myelinated and unmyelinated nerve fibers
D) soma that have both myelinated and unmyelinated nerve fibers
C) myelinated and unmyelinated nerve fibers
Which of the following is not a role of the basal nuclei?
A) regulating attention and cognition
B) controlling starting and stopping movements
C) inhibiting unnecessary or antagonistic movements
D) initiating protective reflex actions
D) initiating protective reflex actions
An individual accidentally transected the spinal cord between T1 and L1. This would result in ________.
A) paraplegia
B) hemiplegia
C) quadriplegia
D) spinal shock only
A) paraplegia
Spastic paralysis suggests involvement of the ________.
A) upper motor neurons
B) lower motor neurons
C) spinal nerve roots
D) neuromotor junction
A) upper motor neurons
Ridges of tissue on the surface of the cerebral hemispheres are called ________.
A) gyri
B) sulci
C) fissures
D) ganglia
A) gyri
The frontal lobe is separated from the temporal lobe by the ________.
A) longitudinal fissure
B) lateral sulcus
C) central sulcus
D) cranial fossa
B) lateral sulcus
Which of the following statements is a false or incorrect statement?
A) Damage to the primary motor cortex results only in the loss of voluntary muscle control.
B) Damage to the premotor cortex results in loss of motor skills programmed in that area but movement is still possible.
C) Damage to the visual association area results in blindness.
D) Damage to the primary auditory cortex results in the inability to interpret pitch, loudness, and location.
A) Damage to the primary motor cortex results only in the loss of voluntary muscle control.
Two terms for the massive motor tracts serving voluntary movement are ________.
A) pyramidal and corticospinal
B) extrapyramidal and rubrospinal
C) segmental and nigrostriatal
D) supplementary and cerebellar-pontine
A) pyramidal and corticospinal
An individual who could trace a picture of a bicycle with his or her finger but could not recognize it as a bicycle is most likely to have sustained damage to the ________.
A) calcarine cortex
B) primary visual area
C) visual association area
D) lateral geniculate body
C) visual association area
Broca's area ________.
A) corresponds to Brodmann's area 8
B) is usually found in the right hemisphere
C) serves the recognition of complex objects
D) is considered a motor speech area
D) is considered a motor speech area
Which part of the cerebral cortex is involved in intellect, cognition, recall, and personality?
A) prefrontal cortex
B) posterior association area
C) limbic association area
D) combined primary somatosensory cortex and somatosensory association cortex
A) prefrontal cortex
The blood-brain barrier is effective against ________.
A) metabolic waste such as urea
B) nutrients such as glucose
C) alcohol
D) anesthetics
A) metabolic waste such as urea
Which of the following is not part of the basal nuclei?
A) putamen
B) lentiform nucleus
C) globus pallidus
D) substantia nigra
D) substantia nigra
All of the following are structures of the limbic system except the ________.
A) hippocampus
B) cingulate gyrus
C) amygdaloid nucleus
D) caudate nucleus
D) caudate nucleus
Which of the following is not a midbrain structure?
A) third ventricle
B) cerebral peduncles
C) corpora quadrigemina
D) red nucleus
A) third ventricle
The process of linking new facts with old facts already stored in the memory bank is called ________.
A) consolidation
B) automatic memory
C) long-term memory
D) rehearsal
A) consolidation
Which category of memory is involved when playing the piano?
A) declarative
B) procedural
C) motor
D) emotional
B) procedural
The brain area that regulates activities that control the state of wakefulness or alertness of the cerebral cortex is the ________.
A) thalamus
B) reticular formation
C) pyramids
D) limbic system
B) reticular formation
Which of the following would you not find in normal cerebrospinal fluid?
A) glucose
B) red blood cells
C) potassium
D) protein
B) red blood cells
REM sleep is associated with ________.
A) decreased vital signs, such as heart rate and blood pressure
B) decreased activity of the brain, especially the cerebral cortex
C) temporary skeletal muscle inhibition except for the extrinsic eye muscles
D) decreased oxygen use, especially in the cerebral cortex
C) temporary skeletal muscle inhibition except for the extrinsic eye muscles
Which of the following is not a function of the CSF?
A) reduction of brain weight
B) protection from blows
C) nourishment of the brain
D) initiation of some nerve impulses
D) initiation of some nerve impulses
Injury to the hypothalamus may result in all of the following except ________.
A) pathologic sleep
B) loss of body temperature control
C) production of excessive quantities of urine
D) loss of proprioception
D) loss of proprioception
Which association regarding the function and location of the cerebrum is most accurate?
A) sensory-anterior
B) motor-medial
C) sensory-medial
D) motor-anterior
D) motor-anterior
Brain wave amplitude ________.
A) reflects the number of neurons firing synchronously
B) is an average of about 1 V
C) results from subtraction of delta waves from theta waves
D) is the measure of activity of specific individual neurons
A) reflects the number of neurons firing synchronously
Important nuclei of the indirect (multineural) system that receive impulses from the equilibrium apparatus of the inner ear and help to maintain balance by varying muscle tone of postural muscles are the ________.
A) red nuclei
B) vestibular nuclei
C) reticular nuclei
D) superior colliculi
B) vestibular nuclei
Which of the following structures is probably not directly involved in memory?
A) hippocampus
B) medulla
C) amygdala
D) prefrontal cortex
B) medulla
The area of the cortex that is responsible for sensations of the full bladder and the feeling that your lungs will burst when you hold your breath too long is the ________.
A) olfactory cortex
B) gusatory cortex
C) vestibular cortex
D) visceral sensory area
D) visceral sensory area
Which statement about coma is true?
A) Coma is defined as total unresponsiveness to stimuli for a long period of time.
B) During coma, brain oxygen consumption resembles that of a waking state.
C) Coma is neurologically identical to syncope.
D) Coma is rarely caused by damage to brain stem structures.
A) Coma is defined as total unresponsiveness to stimuli for a long period of time.
Tremor at rest, shuffling gait, stooped posture, and expressionless face are characteristics of ________.
A) Huntington's disease
B) Parkinson's disease
C) cerebellar disease
D) spinal cord disease
B) Parkinson's disease
Which of the following is the mildest consequence of traumatic brain injury?
A) contusion
B) concussion
C) hemorrhage
D) swelling
B) concussion
Declarative memory ________.
A) is the ability to learn specific information
B) is best remembered in the doing
C) is hard to unlearn when learned once
D) usually involves motor skills
A) is the ability to learn specific information
Which of the following is (are) involved with motor activity (either initiation or coordination)?
A) postcentral gyrus
B) gustatory cortex
C) red nuclei
D) Wernicke's area
C) red nuclei
Which statement is not true?
A) Sleep requirements decline from infancy to early adulthood, level off, then decline again in old age.
B) Half of infant sleep is composed of REM sleep.
C) Ten-year-olds are in REM sleep about 1.5-2 hours per night.
D) Stage 4 sleep increases in old age.
D) Stage 4 sleep increases in old age.
Which statement about epilepsy is most accurate?
A) During seizures, sensory messages are processed normally but responses are blocked.
B) Absence seizures typically begin in adolescence and is often severely disabling.
C) Epilepsy is often genetically induced but also frequently caused by head trauma, stroke, infection, and tumor.
D) The aura in tonic-clonic seizures typically occurs as the patient regains consciousness.
C) Epilepsy is often genetically induced but also frequently caused by head trauma, stroke, infection, and tumor.
White matter (myelinated fibers) is found in all of the following locations except the ________.
A) corpus callosum
B) cerebral cortex
C) corticospinal tracts
D) outer portion of the spinal cord
B) cerebral cortex
Second-order neurons of both the specific and nonspecific ascending pathways terminate in the ________.
A) spinal cord
B) medulla
C) thalamus
D) somatosensory cortex
C) thalamus
Loss of ability to perform skilled motor activities such as piano playing, with no paralysis or weakness in specific muscles, might suggest damage to the ________.
A) spinal cord
B) premotor cortex
C) primary motor cortex
D) rubrospinal tracts
B) premotor cortex
Which brain waves are not normal for awake adults but are common for children?
A) Alpha
B) Beta
C) Delta
D) Theta
D) Theta
Which of the following is not a function of astrocytes?
A) support and brace neurons
B) anchor neurons to blood vessels
C) guide the migration of young neurons, synapse formation, and helping to determine capillary permeability
D) control the chemical environment around neurons
E) provide the defense for the CNS
E) provide the defense for the CNS
Which of the choices below describes the ANS?
A) motor fibers that conduct nerve impulses from the CNS to smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands
B) motor fibers that conduct nerve impulses from the CNS to skeletal muscles
C) sensory neurons that convey information from somatic receptors in the head, body wall, and limbs and from receptors from the special senses of vision, hearing, taste, and smell to the CNS
D) sensory and motor neurons that supply the digestive tract
A) motor fibers that conduct nerve impulses from the CNS to smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands
What are ciliated CNS neuroglia that play an active role in moving the cerebrospinal fluid called?
A) ependymal cells
B) Schwann cells
C) oligodendrocytes
D) astrocytes
A) ependymal cells
The sheath of Schwann is also called the ________.
A) myelin sheath
B) axolemma
C) neurilemma
D) white matter
C) neurilemma
Bipolar neurons are commonly ________.
A) motor neurons
B) called neuroglial cells
C) found in ganglia
D) found in the retina of the eye
D) found in the retina of the eye
Which of the following is an excitatory neurotransmitter secreted by motor neurons innervating skeletal muscle?
A) cholinesterase
B) norepinephrine
C) acetylcholine
D) gamma aminobutyric acid
C) acetylcholine
Which of the following describes the nervous system integrative function?
A) senses changes in the environment
B) analyzes sensory information, stores information, makes decisions
C) responds to stimuli by gland secretion or muscle contraction
B) analyzes sensory information, stores information, makes decisions
The period after an initial stimulus when a neuron is not sensitive to another stimulus is the ________.
A) resting period
B) repolarization
C) depolarization
D) absolute refractory period
D) absolute refractory period
Which of the following is not a special characteristic of neurons?
A) They conduct impulses.
B) They have extreme longevity.
C) They are mitotic.
D) They have an exceptionally high metabolic rate.
C) They are mitotic.
The part of a neuron that conducts impulses away from its cell body is called a(n) ________.
A) axon
B) dendrite
C) neurolemma
D) Schwann cell
A) axon
Which ion channel opens in response to a change in membrane potential and participates in the generation and conduction of action potentials?
A) mechanically gated channel
B) voltage-gated channel
C) leakage channel
D) ligand-gated channel
B) voltage-gated channel
An impulse from one nerve cell is communicated to another nerve cell via the ________.
A) cell body
B) synapse
C) receptor
D) effector
B) synapse
What is the role of acetylcholinesterase?
A) act as a transmitting agent
B) amplify or enhance the effect of ACh
C) destroy ACh a brief period after its release by the axon endings
D) stimulate the production of serotonin
C) destroy ACh a brief period after its release by the axon endings
Which of the following is not a function of the autonomic nervous system?
A) innervation of smooth muscle of the digestive tract
B) innervation of cardiac muscle
C) innervation of glands
D) innervation of skeletal muscle
D) innervation of skeletal muscle
Collections of nerve cell bodies outside the central nervous system are called ________.
A) nuclei
B) nerves
C) ganglia
D) tracts
C) ganglia
The term central nervous system refers to the ________.
A) autonomic nervous system
B) brain, spinal cord, and peripheral nerves
C) brain and spinal cord
D) spinal cord and spinal nerves
C) brain and spinal cord
The substance released at axon terminals to propagate a nervous impulse is called a(n) ________.
A) ion
B) cholinesterase
C) neurotransmitter
D) biogenic amine
C) neurotransmitter
A neuron that has as its primary function the job of connecting other neurons is called a(n) ________.
A) efferent neuron
B) afferent neuron
C) association neuron
D) glial cell
C) association neuron
Saltatory conduction is made possible by ________.
A) the myelin sheath
B) large nerve fibers
C) diphasic impulses
D) erratic transmission of nerve impulses
A) the myelin sheath
Which of the following is not a chemical class of neurotransmitters?
A) acetycholine
B) amino acid
C) biogenic amine
D) ATP and other purines
E) nucleic acid
E) nucleic acid
Which of the following is false or incorrect?
A) An excitatory postsynaptic potential occurs if the excitatory effect is greater than the inhibitory effect but less than threshold.
B) A nerve impulse occurs if the excitatory and inhibitory effects are equal.
C) An inhibitory postsynaptic potential occurs if the inhibitory effect is greater than the excitatory, causing hyperpolarization of the membrane.
B) A nerve impulse occurs if the excitatory and inhibitory effects are equal.
Select the correct statement regarding synapses.
A) Cells with interconnected cytoplasm are chemically coupled.
B) The release of neurotransmitter molecules gives cells the property of being electrically coupled.
C) Neurotransmitter receptors are located on the axons of cells.
D) The synaptic cleft prevents an impulse from being transmitted directly from one neuron to another.
D) The synaptic cleft prevents an impulse from being transmitted directly from one neuron to another.
Ependymal cells ________.
A) are a type of neuron
B) are a type of macrophage
C) are the most numerous of the neuroglia
D) help to circulate the cerebrospinal fluid
D) help to circulate the cerebrospinal fluid
Neuroglia that control the chemical environment around neurons by buffering potassium and recapturing neurotransmitters are ________.
A) astrocytes
B) oligodendrocytes
C) microglia
D) Schwann cells
A) astrocytes
Schwann cells are functionally similar to ________.
A) ependymal cells
B) microglia
C) oligodendrocytes
D) astrocytes
C) oligodendrocytes
Immediately after an action potential has peaked, which cellular gates open?
A) sodium
B) chloride
C) calcium
D) potassium
D) potassium
Nerve cell adhesion molecules (N-CAMs) ________.
A) release nerve growth factor
B) are found on "pathfinder" neurons
C) are crucial in the production of neurotransmitters
D) are crucial for the development of neural connections
D) are crucial for the development of neural connections
An inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) is associated with ________.
A) a change in sodium ion permeability
B) hyperpolarization
C) opening of voltage-regulated channels
D) lowering the threshold for an action potential to occur
B) hyperpolarization
Which of the following will occur when an excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) is being generated on the dendritic membrane?
A) Specific sodium gates will open.
B) Specific potassium gates will open.
C) Sodium gates will open first, then close as potassium gates open.
D) A single type of channel will open, permitting simultaneous flow of sodium and potassium.
D) A single type of channel will open, permitting simultaneous flow of sodium and potassium.
When a sensory neuron is excited by some form of energy, the resulting graded potential is called a(n) ________.
A) postsynaptic potential
B) excitatory potential
C) action potential
D) generator potential
D) generator potential
Which of the following is not true of graded potentials?
A) They are short-lived.
B) They can form on receptor endings.
C) They increase amplitude as they move away from the stimulus point.
D) They can be called postsynaptic potentials.
C) They increase amplitude as they move away from the stimulus point.
Which of the following is true about the movement of ions across excitable living membranes?
A) Ions always move actively across membranes through leakage channels.
B) Some ions are prevented from moving down their concentration gradients by ATP-driven pumps.
C) Sodium gates in the membrane can open in response to electrical potential changes.
D) The bulk of the solutions inside a cell are negatively charged.
B) Some ions are prevented from moving down their concentration gradients by ATP-driven pumps.
A second nerve impulse cannot be generated until ________.
A) the membrane potential has been reestablished
B) the Na ions have been pumped back into the cell
C) proteins have been resynthesized
D) all sodium gates are closed
A) the membrane potential has been reestablished
In what way does the interior surface of a cell membrane of a resting (nonconducting) neuron differ from the external environment? The interior is ________.
A) positively charged and contains less sodium
B) negatively charged and contains less sodium
C) negatively charged and contains more sodium
D) positively charged and contains more sodium
B) negatively charged and contains less sodium
If a motor neuron in the body were stimulated by an electrode placed about midpoint along the length of the axon ________.
A) the impulse would move to the axon terminal only
B) muscle contraction would occur
C) the impulse would spread bidirectionally
D) the impulse would move to the axon terminal only, and the muscle contraction would occur
C) the impulse would spread bidirectionally
Neurons may be classified according to several characteristics. Which of the following is correct?
A) Group A fibers are mostly somatic sensory and motor and are the smallest in diameter.
B) Group B fibers are highly myelinated and have the highest conduction velocities.
C) Group C fibers are not capable of saltatory conduction.
D) A small cross-sectional area allows shorter conduction times.
C) Group C fibers are not capable of saltatory conduction.
Select the correct statement about serial processing.
A) Spinal reflexes are an example of serial processing.
B) Input travels along several different pathways.
C) Smells are processed by serial pathways.
D) Memories are triggered by serial processing.
A) Spinal reflexes are an example of serial processing.
Which type of lever is demonstrated by using scissors?
A) a first-class lever
B) a second-class lever
C) a third-class lever
D) a fourth-class lever
A) a first-class lever
What muscle is responsible for keeping your toes from dragging when walking?
A) extensor digitorum
B) tibialis anterior
C) extensor hallucis longus
D) fibularis tertius
D) fibularis tertius
What is the major factor controlling how levers work?
A) the structural characteristics of the muscles of the person using the lever
B) the weight of the load
C) the direction the load is being moved
D) the difference in the positioning of the effort, load, and fulcrum
D) the difference in the positioning of the effort, load, and fulcrum
Which of the following describes fascicle arrangement in a pennate muscle?
A) The fascicles are short and attach obliquely to a central tendon that runs the length of a muscle.
B) The fascicular pattern is circular.
C) The fascicles form a triangle.
D) The fascicles are in a fusiform arrangement.
A) The fascicles are short and attach obliquely to a central tendon that runs the length of a muscle.
What is the main factor that determines the power of a muscle?
A) the length
B) the shape
C) the number of neurons innervating it
D) the total number of muscle cells available for contraction
D) the total number of muscle cells available for contraction
What is a muscle that provides the major force for producing a specific movement called?
A) a synergist
B) an agonist
C) an antagonist
D) a fixator
B) an agonist
When the term biceps, triceps, or quadriceps forms part of a muscle's name, what does it tell you about the muscle?
A) The muscle has two, three, or four origins, respectively.
B) The muscle is able to change direction twice, three times, or four times faster than other muscles, respectively.
C) The muscle has two, three, or four functions, respectively.
D) The muscle has two, three, or four insertions, respectively.
A) The muscle has two, three, or four origins, respectively.
Which of the following statements is true regarding the total number of skeletal muscles in the human body?
A) There are approximately the same number of muscles as bones: 206.
B) There are approximately 350 muscles in the body.
C) There are over 600 muscles in the body.
D) If one considers the very tiny, insignificant muscles, there are over 1000 muscles in the body.
C) There are over 600 muscles in the body.
The names of muscles often indicate the action of the muscle. What does the term levator mean?
A) The muscle flexes and rotates a region.
B) The muscle is a fixator and stabilizes a bone or joint.
C) The muscle elevates and/or adducts a region.
D) The muscle functions as a synergist.
C) The muscle elevates and/or adducts a region.
Which of the following describes the suprahyoid muscles?
A) They depress the larynx and hyoid bone if the mandible is fixed.
B) They are a group of muscles that lie superior to the hyoid bone and help form the floor of the oral cavity.
C) They move the pharynx superiorly during swallowing.
D) They are often called strap muscles.
B) They are a group of muscles that lie superior to the hyoid bone and help form the floor of the oral cavity.
The supraspinatus is named for its location on the posterior aspect of the scapula above the spine. What is its action?
A) to help hold the head of the humerus in the glenoid cavity and rotate the humerus laterally
B) to stabilize the shoulder joint and help prevent downward location of the humerus and to assist in abduction
C) to extend and medially rotate the humerus and to act as a synergist of the latissimus dorsi
D) to flex and adduct the humerus and to act as a synergist of the pectoralis major
B) to stabilize the shoulder joint and help prevent downward location of the humerus and to assist in abduction
The extensor carpi radialis brevis ________.
A) extends and abducts the wrist and is short
B) extends and adducts the wrist and has a small tendon
C) supinates the forearm and is a superficial muscle
D) extends the thumb and is a deep muscle
A) extends and abducts the wrist and is short
What are the muscles that are found at openings of the body collectively called?
A) convergent muscles
B) circular muscles
C) parallel muscles
D) divergent muscles
B) circular muscles
Which of the following muscles is involved in producing horizontal wrinkles in the forehead?
A) the medial pterygoid
B) the zygomaticus major
C) the frontal belly of the epicranius
D) the temporalis
C) the frontal belly of the epicranius
A cute, little curly-haired child is sitting behind you in church. You turn around for a moment and she sticks her tongue out at you. Which tongue muscle did she use?
A) orbicularis oris
B) stylohyoid
C) hyoglossus
D) genioglossus
D) genioglossus
Which group of muscles flexes and rotates the neck?
A) the scalenes
B) the iliocostalis
C) the spinalis
D) the splenius
A) the scalenes
Which of the following muscles is involved in crossing one leg over the other while in a sitting position?
A) the gastrocnemius
B) the sartorius
C) all of the hamstrings
D) the quadriceps femoris
B) the sartorius
Which of the following muscles inserts by the calcaneal tendon?
A) the semitendinosus
B) the sartorius
C) the tibialis anterior
D) the gastrocnemius
D) the gastrocnemius
If a lever operates at a mechanical disadvantage, it means that the ________.
A) load is far from the fulcrum and the effort is applied near the fulcrum
B) lever system is useless
C) effort is farther than the load from the fulcrum
D) load is near the fulcrum and the effort is at the distal end
A) load is far from the fulcrum and the effort is applied near the fulcrum
Which of the following does not compress the abdomen?
A) internal oblique
B) external oblique
C) transversus abdominis
D) coccygeus
D) coccygeus
A muscle group that works with and assists the action of a prime mover is a(n) ________.
A) antagonist
B) fixator
C) synergist
D) protagonist
C) synergist
What type of muscle assists an agonist by causing a like movement or by stabilizing a joint over which an agonist acts?
A) an antagonist
B) a prime mover
C) a synergist
D) an agonist
C) a synergist
Which of the following is not a member of the hamstrings?
A) gracilis
B) semitendinosus
C) semimembranosus
D) biceps femoris
A) gracilis
A nursing infant develops a powerful sucking muscle that adults also use for whistling. What is this muscle called?
A) platysma
B) masseter
C) zygomaticus
D) buccinator
D) buccinator
Spasms of this straplike muscle often result in wryneck or torticollis.
A) serratus anterior
B) zygomaticus
C) platysma
D) sternocleidomastoid
D) sternocleidomastoid
Which generalization concerning movement by skeletal muscles is not true?
A) Muscles produce movement by pulling on bones.
B) The bones serve as levers.
C) During contraction the two articulating bones move equally.
D) The movements produced may be of graded intensity.
C) During contraction the two articulating bones move equally.
Which of these is not a way of classifying muscles?
A) muscle location
B) the type of muscle fibers
C) the type of action they cause
D) muscle shape
B) the type of muscle fibers
Which of the choices below is the major muscle for breathing?
A) diaphragm
B) rectus abdominis
C) latissimus dorsi
D) temporalis
A) diaphragm
Which of the following best describes the orbicularis oris?.
A) It closes, purses, and protrudes the lips.
B) It pulls the lower lip down and back.
C) It draws the eyebrows together.
D) It allows blinking, squinting, and various other protective mechanisms for the eye.
A) It closes, purses, and protrudes the lips.
In a pennate muscle pattern ________.
A) muscles appear to be straplike
B) there is a narrow origin diverging to a broad insertion
C) there is a broad origin and fascicles converge toward a single tendon
D) muscles look like a feather
D) muscles look like a feather
What are the levers that operate at a mechanical advantage called?
A) speed levers
B) power levers
C) functional levers
D) dysfunctional levers
C) functional levers
Tennis players often complain about pain in the arm (forearm) that swings the racquet. What muscle is usually strained under these conditions?
A) the triceps brachii
B) the anconeus
C) the brachioradialis
D) the flexor digitorum profundus
C) the brachioradialis
Which muscles is (are) contracted to exhale forcibly?
A) diaphragm alone
B) internal intercostals and rectus abdominus
C) external intercostals and diaphragm
D) rectus abdominis and diaphragm
B) internal intercostals and rectus abdominus
Paralysis of which of the following would make an individual unable to flex the thigh?
A) biceps
B) vastus medialis
C) soleus
D) iliopsoas and rectus femoris
D) iliopsoas and rectus femoris
First-class levers ________.
A) have load at one end of the lever, fulcrum at the other, and effort applied somewhere in the middle
B) are typified by tweezers or forceps
C) in the body can operate at a mechanical advantage or mechanical disadvantage, depending on specific location
D) are the type found in the joints forming the ball of the foot as used in raising the body on the toes
C) in the body can operate at a mechanical advantage or mechanical disadvantage, depending on specific location
What do the geniohyoid, hyoglossus, and stylohyoid muscles have in common?
A) All names reflect direction of muscle fibers.
B) Each acts synergistically to elevate the jaw.
C) All act on the tongue.
D) All names indicate the relative size of the muscle.
C) All act on the tongue.
Adductor magnus, adductor longus, and adductor brevis are parts of a large muscle mass of the ________.
A) lateral rotators
B) anterior compartment of the thigh
C) posterior muscle group of the thigh
D) medial compartment of the thigh
D) medial compartment of the thigh
If L = load, F = fulcrum, and E = effort, what type of lever system is described as LEF?
A) first-class lever
B) second-class lever
C) third-class lever
D) fourth-class lever
C) third-class lever
Which of the following muscles is a flexor of the thigh?
A) tibialis posterior
B) vastus lateralis
C) adductor magnus
D) gluteus maximus
C) adductor magnus
Which of the following muscles is involved in inversion at the ankle joint?
A) tibialis anterior
B) extensor digitorum longus
C) peroneus tertius
D) peroneus longus
A) tibialis anterior
Which of the following muscles serves as a common intramuscular injection site, particularly in infants?
A) the vastus intermedius
B) the vastus medialis
C) rectus femoris
D) the vastus lateralis
D) the vastus lateralis
Paralysis of which of the following muscles would make an individual unable to flex the knee?
A) hamstring muscles
B) gluteal muscles
C) brachioradialis
D) soleus
A) hamstring muscles
Which of the following muscles does not act in plantar flexion?
A) popliteus
B) tibialis posterior
C) flexor digitorum longus
D) gastrocnemius and soleus
A) popliteus
What is the role of tropomyosin in skeletal muscles?
A) Tropomyosin is the name of a contracting unit.
B) Tropomyosin serves as a contraction inhibitor by blocking the myosin binding sites on the actin molecules.
C) Tropomyosin serves as a contraction inhibitor by blocking the actin binding sites on the myosin molecules.
D) Tropomyosin is the receptor for the motor neuron neurotransmitter.
B) Tropomyosin serves as a contraction inhibitor by blocking the myosin binding sites on the actin molecules.
Which muscle cells have the greatest ability to regenerate?
A) skeletal
B) cardiac
C) smooth
D) no muscle can regenerate
C) smooth
Most skeletal muscles contain ________.
A) muscle fibers of the same type
B) a mixture of fiber types
C) a predominance of slow oxidative fibers
D) a predominance of fast oxidative fibers
B) a mixture of fiber types
Fatigued muscle cells that recover rapidly are the products of ________.
A) intense exercise of long duration
B) intense exercise of short duration
C) slow exercise of long duration
D) slow exercise of short duration
B) intense exercise of short duration
The strongest muscle contractions are normally achieved by ________.
A) increasing stimulus above the threshold
B) increasing stimulus above the treppe stimulus
C) increasing the stimulation up to the maximal stimulus
D) recruiting small and medium muscle fibers
C) increasing the stimulation up to the maximal stimulus
Which of the following would be recruited later in muscle stimulation when contractile strength increases?
A) motor units with the longest muscle fibers
B) many small motor units with the ability to stimulate other motor units
C) large motor units with small, highly excitable neurons
D) motor units with larger, less excitable neurons
D) motor units with larger, less excitable neurons
Which of the following is not a usual result of resistance exercise?
A) increase in the efficiency of the respiratory system
B) increase in the efficiency of the circulatory system
C) increase in the number of muscle cells
D) increase in the number of myofibrils within the muscle cells
C) increase in the number of muscle cells
Excitation-contraction coupling requires which of the following substances?
A) Ca2+ and ATP
B) Ca2+ only
C) ATP only
D) ATP and glucose
A) Ca2+ and ATP
Which of the following is a factor that affects the velocity and duration of muscle
contraction?
A) number of muscle fibers stimulated
B) size of the muscle fibers stimulated
C) load on the fiber
D) muscle length
C) load on the fiber
Myoglobin ________.
A) breaks down glycogen
B) is a protein involved in the direct phosphorylation of ADP
C) stores oxygen in muscle cells
D) produces the end plate potential
C) stores oxygen in muscle cells
What structure in skeletal muscle cells functions in calcium storage?
A) sarcoplasmic reticulum
B) mitochondria
C) intermediate filament network
D) myofibrillar network
A) sarcoplasmic reticulum
What does oxygen deficit represent?
A) amount of energy needed for exertion
B) the difference between the amount of oxygen needed for totally aerobic muscle activity and the amount actually used
C) the amount of oxygen taken into the body prior to the exertion
D) the amount of oxygen taken into the body immediately after the exertion
B) the difference between the amount of oxygen needed for totally aerobic muscle activity and the amount actually used
Immediately following the arrival of the stimulus at a skeletal muscle cell there is a short period called the ________ period during which the events of excitation-contraction coupling occur.
A) contraction
B) relaxation
C) latent
D) refractory
C) latent
Creatine phosphate functions in the muscle cell by ________.
A) forming a temporary chemical compound with myosin
B) forming a chemical compound with actin
C) inducing a conformational change in the myofilaments
D) storing energy that will be transferred to ADP to resynthesize ATP
D) storing energy that will be transferred to ADP to resynthesize ATP
What controls the force of muscle contraction?
A) wave summation
B) multimotor unit summation
C) treppe
D) concentric contractions
B) multimotor unit summation
The major function of the sarcoplasmic reticulum in muscle contraction is to ________.
A) make and store phosphocreatine
B) synthesize actin and myosin myofilaments
C) provide a source of myosin for the contraction process
D) regulate intracellular calcium concentration
D) regulate intracellular calcium concentration
What produces the striations of a skeletal muscle cell?
A) a difference in the thickness of the sarcolemma
B) the arrangement of myofilaments
C) the sarcoplasmic reticulum
D) the T tubules
B) the arrangement of myofilaments
Which of the following are composed of myosin?
A) thick filaments
B) thin filaments
C) all myofilaments
D) Z discs
A) thick filaments
During muscle contraction, myosin cross bridges attach to which active sites?
A) myosin filaments
B) actin filaments
C) Z discs
D) thick filaments
B) actin filaments
Which of the following surrounds the individual muscle cell?
A) perimysium
B) endomysium
C) epimysium
D) fascicle
B) endomysium
Smooth muscles that act like skeletal muscles but are controlled by autonomic nerves and hormones are ________.
A) single-unit muscles
B) multiunit muscles
C) red muscles
D) white muscles
B) multiunit muscles
Rigor mortis occurs because ________.
A) the cells are dead
B) sodium ions leak out of the muscle
C) no ATP is available to release attached actin and myosin molecules
D) proteins are beginning to break down, thus preventing a flow of calcium ions
C) no ATP is available to release attached actin and myosin molecules
Which of the choices below does not describe how recovery oxygen uptake (oxygen deficit) restores metabolic conditions?
A) converts lactic acid back into glycogen stores in the liver
B) resynthesizes creatine phosphate and ATP in muscle fibers
C) increases the level of lactic acid in the muscle
D) replaces the oxygen removed from myoglobin
C) increases the level of lactic acid in the muscle
The term aponeurosis refers to ________.
A) the bands of myofibrils
B) a sheetlike indirect attachment to a skeletal element
C) the rough endoplasmic reticulum
D) the tropomyosin-troponin complex
B) a sheetlike indirect attachment to a skeletal element
The oxygen-binding protein found in muscle cells is ________.
A) hemoglobin
B) ATP
C) myoglobin
D) immunoglobin
C) myoglobin
The contractile units of skeletal muscles are ________.
A) microtubules
B) mitochondria
C) T tubules
D) myofibrils
D) myofibrils
Which of the following is not a way muscle contractions can be graded?
A) changing the frequency of stimulation
B) changing the strength of the stimulus
C) changing the type of muscle fibers involved in the contraction
D) changing the type of neurotransmitter released by the motor neuron
C) changing the type of muscle fibers involved in the contraction
What is the functional unit of a skeletal muscle called?
A) a sarcomere
B) a myofilament
C) a myofibril
D) the sarcoplasmic reticulum
A) a sarcomere
What is the functional role of the T tubules?
A) stabilize the G and F actin
B) enhance cellular communication during muscle contraction
C) hold cross bridges in place in a resting muscle
D) synthesize ATP to provide energy for muscle contraction
B) enhance cellular communication during muscle contraction
What is the role of calcium ions in muscle contraction?
A) form hydroxyapatite crystals
B) reestablish glycogen stores
C) bind to regulatory sites on troponin to remove contraction inhibition
D) increase levels of myoglobin
C) bind to regulatory sites on troponin to remove contraction inhibition
The warm-up period required of athletes in order to bring their muscles to peak performance is called ________.
A) twitch
B) wave summation
C) treppe
D) incomplete tetanus
C) treppe
The main effect of the warm-up period of athletes, as the muscle contractions increase in strength, is to ________.
A) increase the myoglobin content
B) convert glycogen to glucose
C) tone the muscles and stabilize the joints for the workout
D) enhance the availability of calcium and the efficiency of enzyme systems
D) enhance the availability of calcium and the efficiency of enzyme systems
During vigorous exercise, there may be insufficient oxygen available to completely break down pyruvic acid for energy. As a result, the pyruvic acid is converted to ________.
A) a strong base
B) stearic acid
C) hydrochloric acid
D) lactic acid
D) lactic acid
When a muscle is unable to respond to stimuli temporarily, it is in which of the following periods?
A) relaxation period
B) refractory period
C) latent period
D) fatigue period
B) refractory period
In an isotonic contraction, the muscle ________.
A) changes in length and moves the "load"
B) does not change in length but increases tension
C) never converts pyruvate to lactate
D) rapidly resynthesizes creatine phosphate and ATP
A) changes in length and moves the "load"
The muscle cell membrane is called the ________.
A) endomysium
B) sarcolemma
C) perimysium
D) epimysium
B) sarcolemma
Which of the following is the correct sequence of events for muscle contractions?
A) motor neuron action potential, neurotransmitter release, muscle cell action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, ATP-driven power stroke, sliding of myofilaments
B) neurotransmitter release, muscle cell action potential, motor neuron action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, sliding of myofilaments, ATP-driven power stroke
C) muscle cell action potential, neurotransmitter release, ATP-driven power stroke, calcium ion release from SR, sliding of myofilaments
D) neurotransmitter release, motor neuron action potential, muscle cell action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, ATP-driven power stroke
A) motor neuron action potential, neurotransmitter release, muscle cell action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, ATP-driven power stroke, sliding of myofilaments
The mechanism of contraction in smooth muscle is different from skeletal muscle in that ________.
A) actin and myosin interact by the sliding filament mechanism
B) the trigger for contraction is a rise in intracellular calcium
C) the site of calcium regulation differs
D) ATP energizes the sliding process
C) the site of calcium regulation differs
Which of the following describes the cells of single-unit visceral muscle?
A) They contract all at once.
B) They are chemically coupled to one another by gap junctions.
C) They exhibit spontaneous action potentials.
D) They consist of muscle fibers that are structurally independent of each other.
C) They exhibit spontaneous action potentials.
Which of the following is not a role of ionic calcium in muscle contraction?
A) triggers neurotransmitter secretion
B) promotes breakdown of glycogen and ATP synthesis
C) removes contraction inhibitor
D) activates epinephrine released from adrenal gland
D) activates epinephrine released from adrenal gland
Which of the following is true about smooth muscle contraction?
A) Certain smooth muscle cells can actually divide to increase their numbers.
B) Smooth muscle, in contrast to skeletal muscle, cannot synthesize or secrete any connective tissue elements.
C) Smooth muscle cannot stretch as much as skeletal muscle.
D) Smooth muscle has well-developed T tubules at the site of invagination.
A) Certain smooth muscle cells can actually divide to increase their numbers.
Smooth muscle is characterized by all of the following except ________.
A) it appears to lack troponin
B) there are more thick filaments than thin filaments
C) there are no sarcomeres
D) there are noncontractile intermediate filaments that attach to dense bodies within the cell
B) there are more thick filaments than thin filaments
Muscle tissue has all of the following properties except ________.
A) secretion
B) contractility
C) extensibility
D) excitability
A) secretion
The giant protein titin maintains the organization of the ________ assisting in muscle stretching.
A) A band
B) I band
C) Z disc
D) M line
A) A band
Which of the following statements is true?
A) Cardiac muscle cells have many nuclei.
B) Smooth muscle cells have T tubules.
C) Striated muscle cells are long and cylindrical with many nuclei.
D) Cardiac muscle cells are found in the heart and large blood vessels.
C) Striated muscle cells are long and cylindrical with many nuclei.
An anaerobic metabolic pathway that results in the production of two net ATPs per glucose plus two pyruvic acid molecules is ________.
A) the citric acid cycle
B) glycolysis
C) hydrolysis
D) the electron transport chain
B) glycolysis
Muscle tone is ________.
A) the ability of a muscle to efficiently cause skeletal movements
B) the feeling of well-being following exercise
C) a state of sustained partial contraction
D) the condition of athletes after intensive training
C) a state of sustained partial contraction
The sliding filament model of contraction involves ________.
A) actin and myosin sliding past each other and partially overlapping
B) the shortening of thick filaments so that thin filaments slide past
C) actin and myosin shortening but not sliding past each other
D) the Z discs sliding over the myofilaments
A) actin and myosin sliding past each other and partially overlapping
After nervous stimulation stops, what prevents ACh in the synaptic cleft from continuing to stimulate contraction?
A) calcium ions returning to the terminal cisternae
B) the tropomyosin blocking the myosin once full contraction is achieved
C) acetylcholinesterase destroying the ACh
D) the action potential stops going down the overloaded T tubules
C) acetylcholinesterase destroying the ACh
Which of the following statements is most accurate?
A) Muscle tension remains relatively constant during isotonic contraction.
B) T tubules may be sliding during isotonic contraction.
C) The I band lengthens during isotonic contraction.
D) Myofilaments slide during isometric contractions.
A) Muscle tension remains relatively constant during isotonic contraction.
What is the most distinguishing characteristic of muscle tissue?
A) the design of the fibers
B) the sarcoplasmic reticulum
C) the diversity of activity of muscle tissue
D) the ability to transform chemical energy into mechanical energy
D) the ability to transform chemical energy into mechanical energy
Three discrete types of muscle fibers are identified on the basis of their size, speed, and endurance. Which of the following athletic endeavors best represents the use of red fibers?
A) a sprint by an Olympic runner
B) a long, relaxing swim
C) playing baseball or basketball
D) mountain climbing
B) a long, relaxing swim
Of the following muscle types, which has only one nucleus, no sarcomeres, and rare gap junctions?
A) visceral smooth muscle
B) multiunit smooth muscle
C) cardiac muscle
D) skeletal muscle
B) multiunit smooth muscle
Hypothetically, if a muscle were stretched to the point where thick and thin filaments no longer overlapped, ________.
A) cross bridge attachment would be optimum because of all the free binding sites on actin
B) no muscle tension could be generated
C) maximum force production would result because the muscle has a maximum range of travel
D) ATP consumption would increase because the sarcomere is "trying" to contract
B) no muscle tension could be generated
What part of the sarcolemma contains acetylcholine receptors?
A) motor end plate
B) end of the muscle fiber
C) part adjacent to another muscle cell
D) any part of the sarcolemma
A) motor end plate
Which of the following statements is false or incorrect?
A) Cardiac muscle contracts when stimulated by its own autorhythmic muscle cells.
B) Under normal resting conditions, cardiac muscle tissue contracts and relaxes about 75 times per minute.
C) Cardiac muscle fibers depend mostly on anaerobic cellular respiration to generate ATP.
D) Cardiac muscle fibers can use lactic acid to make ATP.
C) Cardiac muscle fibers depend mostly on anaerobic cellular respiration to generate ATP.
What is the main function of the rods in the eye?
A) depth perception
B) color vision
C) vision in dim light
D) accommodation for near vision
C) vision in dim light
What structure regulates the amount of light passing to the visual receptors of the eye?
A) aqueous humor
B) lens
C) cornea
D) iris
D) iris
Receptors for hearing are located in the ________.
A) cochlea
B) semicircular canals
C) tympanic membrane
D) vestibule
A) cochlea
Which of the follow types of neurons are replaced throughout adult life?
A) olfactory receptor cells
B) retinal bipolar cells
C) retinal ganglion cells
D) auditory outer and inner hair cells
A) olfactory receptor cells
The oil component found in tears is produced by the ________.
A) lacrimal glands
B) ciliary gland
C) conjunctiva
D) tarsal glands
D) tarsal glands
The receptor for static equilibrium is the ________.
A) semicircular canals
B) macula
C) utricle
D) cochlear duct
B) macula
Farsightedness is more properly called ________.
A) myopia
B) hypopia
C) hyperopia
D) presbyopia
C) hyperopia
Seventy percent of all sensory receptors are located in the ________.
A) eye
B) ears
C) skin
D) nose
A) eye
Which of the following structures is not part of the external ear?
A) pinna
B) external acoustic meatus
C) tympanic membrane
D) pharyngotympanic tube
D) pharyngotympanic tube
Nerve fibers from the medial aspect of each eye ________.
A) go to the superior colliculus only
B) pass posteriorly without crossing over at the chiasma
C) divide at the chiasma, with some crossing and some not crossing
D) cross over to the opposite side at the chiasma
D) cross over to the opposite side at the chiasma
Ordinarily, it is not possible to transplant tissues from one person to another, yet corneas can
be transplanted without tissue rejection. This is because the cornea ________.
A) is not a living tissue
B) has no nerve supply
C) has no blood supply
D) does not contain connective tissue
C) has no blood supply
The oval window is connected directly to which passageway?
A) scala vestibuli
B) external acoustic meatus
C) pharyngotympanic tube
D) scala tympani
A) scala vestibuli
There are three layers of neurons in the retina. The axons of which of these neuron layers form the optic nerves?
A) bipolar cells
B) ganglion cells
C) cone cells
D) rod cells
B) ganglion cells
The first "way station" in the visual pathway from the eye, after there has been partial
crossover of the fibers in the optic chiasma, is the ________.
A) superior colliculi
B) lateral geniculate body of the thalamus
C) visual cortex
D) temporal lobe
B) lateral geniculate body of the thalamus
As sound levels increase in the spiral organ (of Corti), ________.
A) outer hair cells stiffen the basilar membrane
B) outer hair cells bend the cilia away from the kinocilium
C) inner hair cells stiffen the basilar membrane
D) inner hair cells bend the cilia away from the kinocilium
A) outer hair cells stiffen the basilar membrane
Which of the following is true about gustatory receptors?
A) In order for a chemical to be sensed, it must be hydrophobic.
B) The receptors generate an action potential in response to chemical stimuli.
C) Complete adaptation occurs in about one to five minutes.
D) All gustatory receptors have the same threshold for activation.
C) Complete adaptation occurs in about one to five minutes.
Taste buds are not found ________.
A) in fungiform papillae
B) in filiform papillae
C) in circumvallate papillae
D) lining the buccal cavity
B) in filiform papillae
Select the correct statement about olfaction.
A) Olfactory receptors have a high degree of specificity toward a single type of chemical.
B) Some of the sensation of olfaction is actually one of pain.
C) Substances must be volatile and hydrophobic in order to activate olfactory receptors.
D) Olfactory adaptation is only due to fading of receptor cell response.
B) Some of the sensation of olfaction is actually one of pain.
What prevents the eyelids from sticking together when the eyes close?
A) lacrimal fluid
B) ciliary gland secretions
C) tarsal gland secretions
D) conjunctival fluid
C) tarsal gland secretions
Which of the following taste sensations is incorrectly matched to the chemicals that produce it?
A) sweetorganic substances such as sugar and some lead salts
B) souracids
C) saltymetal ions
D) bitteralkaloids
E) umamiamino acids glutamate and lysine
E) umamiamino acids glutamate and lysine
U.S. employees must wear hearing protection at ________ dB or above.
A) 100
B) 90
C) 80
D) 70
B) 90
What is a modiolus?
A) bone in the center of a semicircular canal
B) bone around the cochlea
C) a bone pillar in the center of the cochlea
D) a bony area around the junction of the facial, vestibular, and cochlear nerves
C) a bone pillar in the center of the cochlea
Which statement about malnutrition-induced night blindness is most accurate?
A) The most common cause is vitamin D deficiency.
B) Vitamin supplements can reverse degenerative changes.
C) Visual pigment content is reduced in both rods and cones.
D) The impaired vision is caused by reduced cone function.
B) Vitamin supplements can reverse degenerative changes.
Dark adaptation ________.
A) is much faster than light adaptation
B) results in inhibition of rod function
C) involves improvement of acuity and color vision
D) involves accumulation of rhodopsin
D) involves accumulation of rhodopsin
Conscious perception of vision probably reflects activity in the ________.
A) thalamus
B) occipital lobe of the cortex
C) chiasma
D) superior colliculus
B) occipital lobe of the cortex
In the visual pathways to the brain, the optic radiations project to the ________.
A) medial retina
B) lateral geniculate body
C) primary visual cortex
D) optic chiasma
C) primary visual cortex
Visual inputs to the ________ serve to synchronize biorhythms with natural light and dark.
A) pretectal nuclei
B) lateral geniculate body
C) superior colliculi
D) suprachiasmatic nucleus
D) suprachiasmatic nucleus
Information from balance receptors goes directly to the ________.
A) motor cortex
B) visual cortex
C) brain stem reflex centers
D) back muscles
C) brain stem reflex centers
Motion sickness seems to ________.
A) respond best to medication taken after salivation and pallor begins
B) respond best to medication that "boosts" vestibular inputs
C) result from activation of nausea centers in the brain stem
D) result from mismatch between visual and vestibular inputs
D) result from mismatch between visual and vestibular inputs
In the uterus ________.
A) the fetus cannot see and therefore visual cortical connections are not made
B) the fetus can see only light and shadow, but not forms, so partial visual connections are made
C) despite the fact that the fetus cannot see, functional visual cortical connections are established
D) scanty visual connections are made that proliferate greatly during infancy
C) despite the fact that the fetus cannot see, functional visual cortical connections are established
Most newborns ________.
A) are myopic
B) often use only one eye at a time
C) see in tones of red and green only
D) cry with copious tears
B) often use only one eye at a time
The blind spot of the eye is where ________.
A) more rods than cones are found
B) the macula lutea is located
C) only cones occur
D) the optic nerve leaves the eye
D) the optic nerve leaves the eye
The first vestiges of eyes in the embryo are called ________.
A) mesenchyme
B) optic discs
C) optic vesicles
D) optic cups
C) optic vesicles
Which pairing of terms is incorrectly related?
A) frequency: loudness
B) quality: frequency number
C) amplitude: sound intensity
D) frequency: wavelength number
A) frequency: loudness
Olfactory cells and taste buds are normally stimulated by ________.
A) substances in solution
B) stretching of the receptor cells
C) the movement of otoliths
D) movement of a cupula
A) substances in solution
Which of the following could not be seen as one looks into the eye with an ophthalmoscope?
A) macula lutea
B) optic chiasma
C) fovea centralis
D) optic disc
B) optic chiasma
The cells of the retina in which action potentials are generated are the ________.
A) rods and cones
B) bipolar cells
C) ganglion cells
D) amacrine cells
C) ganglion cells
During dark adaptation ________.
A) the sensitivity of the retina decreases
B) the rate of rhodopsin breakdown is accelerated
C) rhodopsin accumulates in the rods
D) the cones are activated
C) rhodopsin accumulates in the rods
Tinnitis, vertigo, and gradual hearing loss typify the disorder called ________.
A) Ménière's syndrome
B) conjunctivitis
C) strabismus
D) motion sickness
A) Ménière's syndrome
Which of the following is not a characteristic of olfactory receptor cells?
A) They are ciliated.
B) They are unipolar neurons.
C) They are chemoreceptors.
D) They have a short life span of about 60 days.
B) They are unipolar neurons.
An essential part of the maculae involved in static equilibrium is (are) the ________.
A) spiral organ (of Corti)
B) cupula
C) scala media
D) otoliths
D) otoliths
Which of the following is true about light and vision?
A) Human photoreceptors respond to light in the 100-300 nm range.
B) When we see the color of an object, all light is being absorbed by that object except for the color being experienced.
C) Light is a form of electromagnetic radiation that slows down as it enters a medium of relatively less density.
D) The greater the incident angle of light striking a refractive surface, the less the amount of light bending.
B) When we see the color of an object, all light is being absorbed by that object except for the
color being experienced.
The tarsal plate of the eyelid ________.
A) is composed of connective tissue surrounding a thin cartilage plate
B) is connected to the superior rectus muscle
C) is connected to the levator palpebrae
D) assists in the act of winking
C) is connected to the levator palpebrae
Which of the following is true about photoreceptors?
A) Rods absorb light throughout the visual spectrum but confer only gray tone vision.
B) In dim light, images are focused directly on the rods in the fovea centralis.
C) Three types of color-sensitive photoreceptors exist: red, green, and yellow.
D) If all cones are stimulated equally, all colors are absorbed by the cones and the color perceived is black.
A) Rods absorb light throughout the visual spectrum but confer only gray tone vision.
Select the correct statement about equilibrium.
A) The weight of the endolymph contained within the semicircular canals against the maculae is responsible for static equilibrium.
B) Cristae respond to angular acceleration and deceleration.
C) Hair cells of both types of equilibrium hyperpolarize only, resulting in an increased rate of impulse transmission.
D) Due to dynamic equilibrium, movement can be perceived if rotation of the body continues at a constant rate.
B) Cristae respond to angular acceleration and deceleration.
The eye muscle that elevates and turns the eye laterally is the ________.
A) lateral rectus
B) superior oblique
C) inferior oblique
D) medial rectus
C) inferior oblique
The receptor membranes of gustatory cells are ________.
A) basal cells
B) gustatory hairs
C) fungiform papillae
D) taste buds
B) gustatory hairs
Light passes through the following structures in which order?
A) vitreous humor, lens, aqueous humor, cornea
B) cornea, aqueous humor, lens, vitreous humor
C) cornea, vitreous humor, lens, aqueous humor
D) aqueous humor, cornea, lens, vitreous humor
B) cornea, aqueous humor, lens, vitreous humor
Damage to the medial recti muscles would probably affect ________.
A) refraction
B) accommodation
C) convergence
D) pupil constriction
C) convergence
Which statement about sound localization is not true?
A) It requires processing at the cortical level.
B) It requires input from both ears.
C) It uses time differences between sound reaching the two ears.
D) It is difficult to discriminate sound sources in the midline.
A) It requires processing at the cortical level.
Which of the following is not a possible cause of conduction deafness?
A) impacted cerumen
B) middle ear infection
C) cochlear nerve degeneration
D) otosclerosis
C) cochlear nerve degeneration
Visual processing in the thalamus does not contribute significantly to ________.
A) depth perception
B) high-acuity vision
C) night vision
D) movement perception
C) night vision
Visible light fits between ________.
A) X rays and UV
B) gamma rays and infrared
C) microwaves and radio waves
D) UV and infrared
D) UV and infrared
Ceruminous glands are ________.
A) saliva glands found at the base of the tongue
B) modified apocrine sweat glands
C) glands found in the lateral corners of your eye
D) modified taste buds
B) modified apocrine sweat glands
Histology would be best defined as a study of ________.
A) cells
B) tissues
C) cell chemistry
D) the gross structures of the body
B) tissues
The study of the heart may incorporate many aspects of anatomy but as a whole you would say it is __________ anatomy.
A) microscopic
B) gross
C) developmental
D) systemic
B) gross
An increased rate of breathing as a result of an increased buildup of carbon dioxide in the bloodstream would be best described as an example of ________.
A) maintaining boundaries
B) excretion of metabolic waste
C) responsiveness
D) metabolism
B) excretion of metabolic waste
Average body temperature is ________ degrees centigrade.
A) 98
B) 68
C) 47
D) 37
D) 37
If you consider your home air conditioner in terms of homeostasis, then the wall thermostat would be the ________.
A) control center
B) receptor
C) effector
D) variable
A) control center
What is the main, general purpose of negative feedback?
A) to control all body system tissues
B) to maintain homeostasis
C) to keep the body's sugar high
D) to regulate excretion
B) to maintain homeostasis
What is the specific name for the hip region?
A) manus
B) inguinal
C) pedal
D) coxal
D) coxal
An oblique cut is one that is cut ________.
A) horizontal right and left
B) diagonally between the vertical and horizontal
C) vertical right and left
D) perpendicular to vertical and horizontal
B) diagonally between the vertical and horizontal
The heart lies in the ________ cavity.
A) superior mediastinal
B) pleural
C) dorsal
D) pericardial
D) pericardial
The cavities housing the eyes are called __________ cavities.
A) frontal
B) cranial
C) nasal
D) orbital
D) orbital
A structure that is composed of two or more tissues would be a(n) ________.
A) complex tissue
B) organ system
C) organ
D) complex cell
C) organ
________ cavities are spaces within joints.
A) Nasal
B) Synovial
C) Orbital
D) Oral
B) Synovial
Which of the following would not be a functional characteristic of life?
A) movement
B) responsiveness to external stimuli
C) maintenance of boundaries
D) decay
D) decay
Which term means toward or at the back of the body, behind?
A) anterior
B) lateral
C) distal
D) dorsal
D) dorsal
The single most abundant chemical substance of the body, accounting for 60% to 80% of body weight, is ________.
A) oxygen
B) protein
C) water
D) hydrogen,
C) water
What is the posterior side of the patella called?
A) sural
B) crural
C) antecubital
D) popliteal
D) popliteal
Which of the following statements is true concerning feedback mechanisms?
A) Positive feedback mechanisms always result in excessive damage to the host.
B) Negative feedback mechanisms tend to increase the original stimulus.
C) Negative feedback mechanisms work to prevent sudden severe changes within the body.
D) Blood glucose levels are regulated by positive feedback mechanisms.
C) Negative feedback mechanisms work to prevent sudden severe changes within the body.
The anatomical position is characterized by all of the following except ________.
A) body erect
B) arms at sides
C) palms turned posteriorly
D) thumbs pointed laterally
C) palms turned posteriorly
A good example of a positive feedback mechanism would be ________.
A) body temperature regulation
B) regulating glucose levels in the blood
C) enhancement of labor contractions
D) blood calcium level regulation
C) enhancement of labor contractions
Which of the following describes a parasagittal plane?
A) a transverse cut just above the knees
B) two cuts dividing the body into left and right halves
C) any sagittal plane except the median
D) any cut dividing the body into anterior and posterior
C) any sagittal plane except the median
Which of the following organs or structures would be found in the left iliac region?
A) appendix
B) stomach
C) liver
D) intestines
D) intestines
The parietal pleural would represent a serous membrane ________.
A) covering individual lungs
B) lining the thoracic cavity
C) covering the heart
D) lining the abdominal cavity
B) lining the thoracic cavity
Which one of the following systems responds to environmental stimuli?
A) muscular
B) lymphatic
C) immune
D) nervous
D) nervous
Choose the anatomical topic and definition that is not correctly matched.
A) Gross anatomy: study of structures visible to the eye.
B) Microscopic anatomy: study of structures too small to be seen by the naked eye.
C) Cytology: study of the structures in a particular region.
D) Embryology: study of the changes in an individual from conception to birth.
C) Cytology: study of the structures in a particular region.
Homeostasis is the condition in which the body maintains ________.
A) the lowest possible energy usage
B) a relatively stable internal environment, within limits
C) a static state with no deviation from preset points
D) a dynamic state within an unlimited range
B) a relatively stable internal environment, within limits
In which cavities are the lungs located?
A) pleural ventral, and thoracic
B) mediastinum, thoracic, and ventral
C) pleural, dorsal, and abdominal
D) pericardial, ventral, and thoracic
A) pleural, ventral, and thoracic
Choose the following statement that is not completely correct regarding serous membranes.
A) Serosa are very thin, double-layered structures.
B) Serous membranes are divided into parietal and visceral membranes with a potential space between the two.
C) Visceral pericardium covers the surface of the heart, and parietal pericardium lines the walls of the heart.
D) Serous membranes secrete a watery lubricating fluid.,
C) Visceral pericardium covers the surface of the heart, and parietal pericardium lines the walls of the heart.
Place the following in correct sequence from simplest to most complex:
1. molecules
2. atoms
3. tissues
4. cells
5. organ

A) 1-2-3-4-5
B) 2-1-4-3-5
C) 2-1-3-4-5
D) 1-2-4-3-5
B) 2-1-4-3-5
Which of the following imaging devices would best localize a tumor in a person's brain?
A) X ray
B) DSA
C) PET
D) MRI
D) MRI
Which of these is not part of the dorsal cavity?
A) cranial cavity
B) thoracic cavity
C) spinal cord
D) vertebral cavity
B) thoracic cavity
In which abdominopelvic cavity is the stomach located?
A) right upper
B) right lower
C) left upper
D) left lower
C) left upper
Which of the following statements is the most correct regarding homeostatic imbalance?
A) It is considered the cause of most diseases.
B) The internal environment is becoming more stable.
C) Positive feedback mechanisms are overwhelmed.
D) Negative feedback mechanisms are functioning normally.
A) It is considered the cause of most diseases.
Subdivisions of anatomy include which of the following?
A) gross, macroscopic, visual, and microscopic
B) gross, regional, dissection, and surface
C) regional, surface, visual, and microscopic
D) gross, regional, systemic, and surface
D) gross, regional, systemic, and surface
The term pollex refers to the ________.
A) great toe
B) calf
C) fingers
D) thumb
D) thumb
The dorsal body cavity is the site of which of the following?
A) intestines
B) brain
C) lungs
D) liver
B) brain
Select the most correct statement.
A) The immune system is closely associated with the lymphatic system.
B) Organ systems operate independently of each other to maintain life.
C) The endocrine system is not a true structural organ system.
D) Organ systems can be composed of cells or tissues, but not both.
A) The immune system is closely associated with the lymphatic system.
One of the functional characteristics of life is irritability. This refers to ________.
A) indigestible food residues stimulating the excretory system
B) sensing changes in the environment and then reacting or responding to them
C) the nervous system causing all living things to sometimes experience anger
D) the necessity for all organisms to reproduce
B) sensing changes in the environment and then reacting or responding to them
Which of the following are survival needs of the body?
A) nutrients
water, movement, and reproduction
B) nutrients, water, growth, and reproduction
C) water, atmospheric pressure, growth, and movement
D) nutrients, water, atmospheric pressure, and oxygen, D) nutrients, water, atmospheric pressure, and oxygen
The anatomical position is used ________.
A) rarely
because people don't usually assume this position
B) as a standard reference point for directional terms regardless of the actual position of the body
C) only when a body is lying down
D) as the most comfortable way to stand when dissecting a specimen, B) as a standard reference point for directional terms regardless of the actual position of the body
What is a vertical section through the body
dividing it into left and right, called?
A) frontal
B) regional
C) sagittal
D) transverse, C) sagittal
What is a vertical section through the body
dividing it into anterior and posterior regions called?
A) frontal
B) median
C) sagittal
D) transverse, A) frontal
Which body cavity protects the nervous system?
A) cranial
B) dorsal
C) vertebral
D) thoracic
B) dorsal
Which of the following describes the operation of the heart and blood vessels?
A) systemic anatomy
B) cardiovascular anatomy
C) systemic physiology
D) cardiovascular physiology
B) cardiovascular anatomy
Which of the following elements is necessary for proper conduction of nervous impulses?
A) Fe
B) I
C) P
D) Na
D) Na
Choose the statement that is false or incorrect.
A) In chemical reactions, breaking old bonds requires energy and forming new bonds releases energy.
B) Exergonic reactions release more energy than they absorb.
C) Endergonic reactions absorb more energy than they release.
D) A key feature of the body's metabolism is the almost exclusive use of exergonic reactions by the body.
D) A key feature of the body's metabolism is the almost exclusive use of exergonic reactions by the body.
In general, the lipids that we refer to as oils have ________.
A) a high water content
B) long fatty acid chains
C) a high degree of saturated bonds
D) a high degree of unsaturated bonds
D) a high degree of unsaturated bonds
The genetic information is coded in DNA by the ________.
A) regular alteration of sugar and phosphate molecules
B) sequence of the nucleotides
C) three-dimensional structure of the double helix
D) arrangement of the histones
B) sequence of the nucleotides
Which of the following is not true of proteins?
A) They may be denatured or coagulated by heat or acidity.
B) Some types are called enzymes.
C) They appear to be the molecular carriers of the coded hereditary information.
D) Their function depends on the three-dimensional shape.
C) They appear to be the molecular carriers of the coded hereditary information.
The single most abundant protein in the body is ________.
A) DNA
B) hemoglobin
C) collagen
D) glucose
C) collagen
Carbohydrates are stored in the liver and muscles in the form of ________.
A) glucose
B) triglycerides
C) glycogen
D) cholesterol
C) glycogen
Which of the following describes coenzymes?
A) organic molecules derived from vitamins
B) two enzymes that perform the same function
C) metal ions
D) enzymes that work together
A) organic molecules derived from vitamins
Which of the following is not a role of molecular chaperonins?
A) prevent accidental, premature, or incorrect folding of polypeptide chains
B) aid the desired folding and association process of polypeptides
C) help to translocate proteins and certain metal ions across cell membranes
D) promote the breakdown of damaged or denatured proteins
E) act as a biological catalyst
E) act as a biological catalyst
A chemical reaction in which bonds are broken is usually associated with ________.
A) the release of energy
B) the consumption of energy
C) a synthesis
D) forming a larger molecule
A) the release of energy
Salts are always ________.
A) ionic compounds
B) single covalent compounds
C) double covalent compounds
D) hydrogen bonded
A) ionic compounds
The numbers listed represent the number of electrons in the first, second, and third energy levels, respectively. On this basis, which of the following is an unstable or reactive atom?
A) 2, 8, 8
B) 2, 8
C) 2
D) 2, 8, 1
D) 2, 8, 1
A solution that has a pH of 2 could best be described as being ________.
A) acidic
B) basic
C) neutral
D) slightly acidic
A) acidic
Which of the following is the major positive ion outside cells?
A) nitrogen
B) hydrogen
C) potassium
D) sodium
D) sodium
Which of the following would be regarded as an organic molecule?
A) H2O
B) NaCl
C) NaOH
D) CH4
D) CH4
What is a chain of 25 amino acids called?
A) polypeptide
B) nucleotide
C) protein
D) starch
A) polypeptide
Which of the following constitutes a long chain of simple sugars?
A) monosaccharide
B) polysaccharide
C) protein
D) nucleic acid
B) polysaccharide
What level of protein synthesis is represented by the coiling of the protein chain backbone into an alpha helix?
A) primary structure
B) secondary structure
C) tertiary structure
D) quaternary structure
B) secondary structure
Carbohydrates and proteins are built up from their basic building blocks by the ________.
A) addition of a water molecule between each two units
B) addition of a carbon atom between each two units
C) removal of a water molecule between each two units
D) removal of a nitrogen atom between each two units
C) removal of a water molecule between each two units
Which statement about enzymes is false?
A) Enzymes raise the activation energy needed to start a reaction.
B) Enzymes are composed mostly of protein.
C) Enzymes are organic catalysts.
D) Enzymes may be damaged by high temperature.
A) Enzymes raise the activation energy needed to start a reaction.
Which of the following statements is false?
A) Chemical reactions proceed more quickly at higher temperatures.
B) Chemical reactions progress at a faster rate when the reacting particles are present in higher numbers.
C) Larger particles move faster than smaller ones and thus collide more frequently and more forcefully.
D) Catalysts increase the rate of chemical reactions.
C) Larger particles move faster than smaller ones and thus collide more frequently and more forcefully.
Which of the following is true regarding the concentration of solutions?
A) Percent solutions are parts per 1000 parts.
B) Molarity is one mole of solute per 1000 ml of solution.
C) To calculate molarity, one must know the atomic number of the solute.
D) To calculate molarity, one must know the atomic weight of the solvent.
B) Molarity is one mole of solute per 1000 ml of solution.
Select the statement about mixtures that is correct.
A) A solution contains solvent in large amounts and solute in smaller quantities.
B) Solutions contain particles that settle out in time.
C) Suspensions can change reversibly from liquid to solid.
D) Suspensions are homogeneous mixtures of two or more components.
A) A solution contains solvent in large amounts and solute in smaller quantities.
Choose the answer that best describes HCO3-.
A) a bicarbonate ion
B) common in the liver
C) a weak acid
D) a proton donor
A) a bicarbonate ion
Select which reactions will usually be irreversible regarding chemical equilibrium in living systems.
A) glucose to CO2 and H2O
B) ADP + Pi to make ATP
C) H2O + CO2 to make H2CO3
D) glucose molecules joined to make glycogen
A) glucose to CO2 and H2O
What happens in redox reactions?
A) both decomposition and electron exchange occur
B) the electron acceptor is oxidized
C) the electron donor is reduced
D) the reaction is always easily reversible
A) both decomposition and electron exchange occur
Choose the answer that best describes fibrous proteins.
A) rarely exhibit secondary structure
B) are very stable and insoluble in water
C) are usually called enzymes
D) are cellular catalysts
B) are very stable and insoluble in water
Which of the following does not describe the ATP molecule?
A) chemical work
B) mechanical work
C) transport
D) pigments
D) pigments
Select the most correct statement regarding nucleic acids.
A) Three forms exist: DNA, RNA, and tDNA.
B) DNA is a long, double-stranded molecule made up of A, T, G, and C bases.
C) RNA is a long, single-stranded molecule made up of the bases A, T, G, and C.
D) TDNA is considered a molecular slave of DNA.
B) DNA is a long, double-stranded molecule made up of A, T, G, and C bases.
Which of the following is an example of a suspension?
A) cytoplasm
B) salt water
C) rubbing alcohol
D) blood
D) blood
Select the correct statement about isotopes.
A) Isotopes of the same element have the same atomic number but differ in their atomic masses.
B) All the isotopes of an element have the same number of neutrons.
C) All the isotopes of an element are radioactive.
D) Isotopes occur only in the heavier elements.
A) Isotopes of the same element have the same atomic number but differ in their atomic masses.
The four elements that make up about 96% of body matter are ________.
A) carbon, oxygen, phosphorus, calcium
B) nitrogen, hydrogen, calcium, sodium
C) carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, nitrogen
D) sodium, potassium, hydrogen, oxygen
C) carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, nitrogen
An example of a coenzyme is ________.
A) copper
B) riboflavin (vitamin B2)
C) iron
D) zinc
B) riboflavin (vitamin B2)
________ is fat soluble, produced in the skin on exposure to UV radiation, and necessary for normal bone growth and function.
A) Vitamin K
B) Cortisol
C) Vitamin A
D) Vitamin D
D) Vitamin D
In liquid XYZ, you notice that light is scattered as it passes through. There is no precipitant in the bottom of the beaker, though it has been sitting for several days. What type of liquid is this?
A) solution
B) suspension
C) colloid
D) mixture
C) colloid
Atom X has 17 protons. How many electrons are in its valence shell?
A) 3
B) 5
C) 7
D) 10
C) 7
Which protein types are vitally important to cell function in all types of stressful circumstances?
A) structural proteins
B) molecular chaperones
C) catalytic proteins
D) regulatory proteins
B) molecular chaperones
If atom X has an atomic number of 74 it would have which of the following?
A) 37 protons and 37 neutrons
B) 37 electrons
C) 74 protons
D) 37 protons and 37 electrons
D) 37 protons and 37 electrons
What does the formula C6H12O6 mean?
A) There are 6 calcium, 12 hydrogen, and 6 oxygen atoms.
B) There are 12 hydrogen, 6 carbon, and 6 oxygen atoms.
C) The molecular weight is 24.
D) The substance is a colloid.
B) There are 12 hydrogen, 6 carbon, and 6 oxygen atoms.
Two good examples of a colloid would be Jell-O® and ________.
A) blood
B) toenails
C) urine
D) cytosol
D) cytosol
An atom with a valence of 3 may have a total of ________ electrons.
A) 3
B) 8
C) 13
D) 17
C) 13
Which of the following is a neutralization reaction?
A) HCl → H+ + Cl-
B) NaOH → Na+ + OH-
C) NH3 + H+ → NH4+2
D) HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H2O
D) HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H2O
The chemical symbol OO means ________.
A) zero equals zero
B) both atoms are bonded and have zero electrons in the outer orbit
C) the atoms are double bonded
D) this is an ionic bond with two shared electrons
C) the atoms are double bonded
What is a dipole?
A) a type of bond
B) a polar molecule
C) a type of reaction
D) an organic molecule
B) a polar molecule
What does CH4 mean?
A) There is one carbon and four hydrogen atoms.
B) There are four carbon and four hydrogen atoms.
C) This is an inorganic molecule.
D) This was involved in a redox reaction.
A) There is one carbon and four hydrogen atoms.
Amino acids joining together to make a peptide is a good example of a(n) ________ reaction.
A) synthesis
B) decomposition
C) exchange
D) reversible
A) synthesis
Which of the following is not considered a factor in influencing a reaction?
A) temperature
B) concentration
C) particle size
D) time
D) time
Which of the following is not an electrolyte?
A) HCl
B) Ca2CO3
C) H2O
D) NaOH
C) H2O
Which property of water is demonstrated when we sweat?
A) high heat capacity
B) high heat of vaporization
C) polar solvent properties
D) reactivity
E) cushioning
B) high heat of vaporization
Sucrose is a ________.
A) monosaccharide
B) disaccharide
C) polysaccharide
D) triglyceride
B) disaccharide
What is the ratio of fatty acids to glycerol in neutral fats?
A) 1:1
B) 2:1
C) 3:1
D) 4:1
C) 3:1
In a DNA molecule, the phosphate serves ________.
A) as a code
B) to hold the molecular backbone together
C) to bind the sugars to their bases
D) as nucleotides
B) to hold the molecular backbone together
Heat shock proteins (hsp) are a type of protein called ________.
A) coenzymes
B) cofactors
C) eicosanoids
D) chaperonins
D) chaperonins
Which bonds often bind different parts of a molecule into a specific three-dimensional shape?
A) Carbon
B) Hydrogen
C) Oxygen
D) Amino acid
B) Hydrogen
Which of the following is true regarding the generation of a membrane potential?
A) Both potassium and sodium ions can "leak" through the cell membrane due to diffusion.
B) In the polarized state, sodium and potassium ion concentrations are in static equilibrium.
C) The maintenance of the potential is based exclusively on diffusion processes.
D) When the sodium-potassium pump is activated, potassium is pumped into the cell twice as fast as the sodium is pumped out, thus causing the membrane potential.
A) Both potassium and sodium ions can "leak" through the cell membrane due to diffusion.
Which statement best describes transcytosis?
A) combining an endosome with a lysosome and degrading or releasing the contents
B) transporting an endosome from one side of a cell to the other and releasing the contents by exocytosis
C) recycling the contents of the endosome back to the surface of the cell
D) storing the contents of the endosome
B) transporting an endosome from one side of a cell to the other and releasing the contents by exocytosis
In certain kinds of muscle cells, calcium ions are stored in ________.
A) the smooth ER
B) the rough ER
C) both smooth and rough ER
D) the cytoplasm
A) the smooth ER
The RNA responsible for bringing the amino acids to the "factory" site for protein formation is ________.
A) rRNA
B) mRNA
C) tRNA
D) ssRNA
C) tRNA
A red blood cell placed in pure water would ________.
A) shrink
B) swell initially, then shrink as equilibrium is reached
C) neither shrink nor swell
D) swell and burst
D) swell and burst
Which of the following describes the plasma membrane?
A) a single-layered membrane that surrounds the nucleus of the cell
B) a double layer of protein enclosing the plasma
C) the phospholipid bilayer surrounding the cell
D) a membrane composed of tiny shelves or cristae
C) the phospholipid bilayer surrounding the cell
Which of these is not a function of the plasma membrane?
A) It is selectively permeable.
B) It prevents potassium ions from leaking out and sodium ions from crossing into the cell.
C) It acts as a site of cell-to-cell interaction and recognition.
D) It encloses the cell contents.
B) It prevents potassium ions from leaking out and sodium ions from crossing into the cell.
Which structures are fingerlike projections that greatly increase the absorbing surface of cells?
A) stereocilia
B) microvilli
C) cilia
D) flagella
B) microvilli
Which of the following statements is correct regarding diffusion?
A) The rate of diffusion is independent of temperature.
B) The greater the concentration of gradient, the faster the rate of diffusion.
C) Molecular weight of a substance does not affect the rate of diffusion.
D) The lower the temperature, the faster the diffusion rate.
B) The greater the concentration of gradient, the faster the rate of diffusion.
Cell junctions that promote the coordinated activity of cells by physically binding them together into a cell community include all of the following except ________.
A) gap junctions
B) desmosomes
C) peroxisomes
D) tight junctions
C) peroxisomes
If cells are placed in a hypertonic solution containing a solute to which the membrane is impermeable, what could happen?
A) The cells will swell and ultimately burst.
B) The cells will lose water and shrink.
C) The cells will shrink at first, but will later reach equilibrium with the surrounding solution and return to their original condition.
D) The cells will show no change due to diffusion of both solute and solvent.
B) The cells will lose water and shrink.
Which of the following is not a subcellular structure?
A) intercellular material
B) membranes
C) cytoplasm
D) organelles
A) intercellular material
Once solid material is phagocytized and taken into a vacuole, which of the following statements best describes what happens?
A) A ribosome enters the vacuole and uses the amino acids in the "invader" to form new protein.
B) A lysosome combines with the vacuole and digests the enclosed solid material.
C) The vacuole remains separated from the cytoplasm and the solid material persists unchanged.
D) Nitrogen enters the vacuole and "burns" the enclosed solid material.
B) A lysosome combines with the vacuole and digests the enclosed solid material.
Riboswitches are folded RNAs that act as switches to turn protein synthesis on or off in response to _________.
A) changes in the environment
B) specific tRNAs
C) specific codes from the DNA
D) the presence or absence of ubiquitins
A) changes in the environment
Which of the following is a function of a plasma membrane protein?
A) circulating antibody
B) molecular transport through the membrane
C) forms a lipid bilayer
D) oxygen transport
B) molecular transport through the membrane
Which of the following statements is correct regarding RNA?
A) Messenger RNA, transfer RNA, and ribosomal RNA play a role in protein synthesis.
B) If the base sequence of DNA is ATTGCA, the messenger RNA template will be UCCAGU.
C) There is exactly one specific type of mRNA for each amino acid.
D) rRNA is always attached to the rough ER.
A) Messenger RNA, transfer RNA, and ribosomal RNA play a role in protein synthesis.
Which of the following would not be a constituent of a plasma membrane?
A) glycolipids
B) messenger RNA
C) glycoproteins
D) phospholipids
B) messenger RNA
Mitosis ________.
A) is the formation of sex cells
B) produces nucleus replication
C) creates diversity in genetic potential
D) always results in division of a cell
B) produces nucleus replication
The electron microscope has revealed that one of the components within the cell consists of microtubules arranged to form a hollow tube. This structure is a ________.
A) centrosome
B) centriole
C) chromosome
D) ribosome
B) centriole
Which of these is an inclusion, not an organelle?
A) melanin
B) lysosome
C) microtubule
D) cilia
A) melanin
Which of the following is not a factor that binds cells together?
A) glycoproteins in the glycocalyx
B) glycolipids in the glycocalyx
C) wavy contours of the membranes of adjacent cells
D) special membrane junctions
B) glycolipids in the glycocalyx
If the nucleotide or base sequence of the DNA strand used as a template for messenger RNA synthesis is ACGTT, then what would be the sequence of bases in the corresponding mRNA?
A) TGCAA
B) ACGTT
C) UGCAA
D) GUACC
C) UGCAA
Which transport process is the main mechanism for the movement of most macromolecules by body cells?
A) phagocytosis
B) pinocytosis
C) receptor-mediated endocytosis
D) secondary active transport
C) receptor-mediated endocytosis
Caveolae are closely associated with all but which of the following?
A) lipid rafts
B) receptors for hormones
C) enzymes involved in cell regulation
D) enzymes involved in cell metabolism
D) enzymes involved in cell metabolism
Passive membrane transport processes include ________.
A) movement of a substance down its concentration gradient
B) movement of water from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration
C) consumption of ATP
D) the use of transport proteins when moving substances from areas of low to high concentration
A) movement of a substance down its concentration gradient
Enzymes called _________ destroy the cell's DNA and cytoskeleton, producing a quick death of the cell.
A) ubiquitins
B) cyclins
C) caspases
D) DNA polymerase III
C) caspases
Mitochondria ________.
A) are always the same shape
B) are single-membrane structures involved in the breakdown of ATP
C) contain some of the DNA and RNA code necessary for their own function
D) synthesize proteins for use outside the cell
C) contain some of the DNA and RNA code necessary for their own function
Ribosomes, endoplasmic reticulum, and the Golgi apparatus functionally act in sequence to synthesize and modify proteins for secretory use (export) only, never for use by the cell. This statement is ________.
A) false, proteins thus manufactured are for use inside the cell only
B) false, integral cell membrane proteins are also synthesized this way
C) false, lipids, not proteins, are synthesized this way
D) true
B) false integral cell membrane proteins are also synthesized this way
Peroxisomes ________.
A) are also called microbodies, and contain acid hydrolases
B) are able to detoxify substances by enzymatic action
C) function to digest particles ingested by endocytosis
D) sometimes function as secretory vesicles
B) are able to detoxify substances by enzymatic action
DNA replication ________.
A) can also be called mitosis
B) is spontaneous, not requiring enzyme action
C) takes place during interphase of the cell cycle
D) occurs only in translationally active areas
C) takes place during interphase of the cell cycle
Which statement is the most correct regarding transcription/translation?
A) The nucleotide sequence in a mRNA codon is an exact copy of the DNA triplet that coded for it.
B) The nucleotide sequence in a mRNA codon is an exact copy of the DNA triplet that coded for it except that uracil is substituted for thymine.
C) The nucleotide sequence in a tRNA anticodon is an exact copy of the DNA triplet that coded for it.
D) The nucleotide sequence in a tRNA anticodon is an exact copy of the DNA triplet that coded for it except that uracil is substituted for thymine.
D) The nucleotide sequence in a tRNA anticodon is an exact copy of the DNA triplet that coded for it except that uracil is substituted for thymine.
In the maintenance of the cell resting membrane potential ________.
A) extracellular sodium levels are high
B) cells are more permeable to Na+ than K+
C) the steady state involves only passive processes in all cells
D) the inside of the cell is positive relative to its outside
A) extracellular sodium levels are high
Which of the following is a concept of the cell theory?
A) Simple cells can arise spontaneously from rotting vegetation.
B) A cell is the basic structural and functional unit of living organisms.
C) The subcellular organelle is the basic unit of life.
D) Only higher organisms are composed of cells.
B) A cell is the basic structural and functional unit of living organisms.
Which of the following does not serve as a signal for cell division?
A) repressor genes
B) joining of cyclins and Cdks
C) contact inhibition
D) surface-to-volume ratio
A) repressor genes
Which of the following is a principle of the fluid mosaic model of cell membrane structure?
A) Phospholipids form a bilayer that is largely impermeable to water-soluble molecules.
B) Phospholipids consist of a polar head and a nonpolar tail made of three fatty acid chains.
C) The lipid bilayer is a solid at body temperature, thus protecting the cell.
D) All proteins associated with the cell membrane are contained in a fluid layer on the outside of the cell.
A) Phospholipids form a bilayer that is largely impermeable to water-soluble molecules.
Which of the following statements is most correct regarding the intracellular chemical signals known as "second messengers"?
A) Second messengers act through receptors called K-proteins.
B) Second messengers usually inactivate protein kinase enzymes.
C) Cyclic AMP and calcium may be second messengers.
D) Second messengers usually act to remove nitric oxide (NO) from the cell.
C) Cyclic AMP and calcium may be second messengers.
The main component of the cytosol is ________.
A) proteins
B) sugars
C) salts
D) water
D) water
Lysosomes ________.
A) are always used for the cell to "commit suicide"
B) contain acid hydrolases that are potentially dangerous to the cell
C) maintain a highly alkaline internal environment
D) are the major site of protein synthesis
B) contain acid hydrolases that are potentially dangerous to the cell
The endomembrane system is ________.
A) a system by which cells are riveted together by desmosomes
B) an interactive system of organelles whose membranes are physically or functionally connected
C) the process by which bacteria took up residence in ancient cells
D) a system of hydrophilic lipid monolayers that surround many cell organelles
B) an interactive system of organelles whose membranes are physically or functionally connected
The functions of centrioles include ________.
A) organizing the mitotic spindle in cell division
B) providing a whiplike beating motion to move substances along cell surfaces
C) serving as the site for ribosomal RNA synthesis
D) producing ATP
A) organizing the mitotic spindle in cell division
A gene can best be defined as ________.
A) a three-base triplet that specifies a particular amino acid
B) noncoding segments of DNA up to 100,000 nucleotides long
C) a segment of DNA that carries the instructions for one polypeptide chain
D) an RNA messenger that codes for a particular polypeptide
C) a segment of DNA that carries the instructions for one polypeptide chain
Extracellular matrix is ________.
A) composed of strands of actin protein
B) the most abundant extracellular material
C) a type of impermeable cell junction found in epithelia
D) not present in connective tissue
B) the most abundant extracellular material
Crenation is likely to occur in blood cells in ________.
A) an isotonic solution
B) a hypotonic solution
C) a hypertonic solution
D) blood plasma
C) a hypertonic solution
Some hormones enter cells via ________.
A) exocytosis
B) endocytosis
C) pinocytosis
D) receptor-mediated endocytosis
D) receptor-mediated endocytosis
If a tRNA had an AGC anticodon, it could attach to a(n) ________ mRNA codon.
A) AUG
B) UCG
C) TCG
D) UGA
B) UCG
Which of the following is not found in the matrix of cartilage but is in bone?
A) live cells
B) lacunae
C) blood vessels
D) organic fibers
C) blood vessels
The reason that intervertebral discs exhibit a large amount of tensile strength to absorb shock is because they possess ________.
A) hydroxyapatite crystals
B) collagen fibers
C) reticular fibers
D) elastic fibers
B) collagen fibers
What tissue has lacunae, calcium salts, and blood vessels?
A) cartilage tissue
B) fibrocartilaginous tissue
C) osseous tissue
D) areolar tissue
C) osseous tissue
How is hyaline cartilage different from elastic or fibrocartilage?
A) It is more vascularized.
B) It contains more nuclei.
C) Fibers are not normally visible.
D) It has more elastic fibers.
C) Fibers are not normally visible.
Epithelial tissue ________.
A) is highly vascularized
B) has a basement membrane
C) is usually acellular
D) contains a number of neuron types
B) has a basement membrane
Which of the following would be of most importance to goblet cells and other glandular epithelium?
A) microvilli
B) Golgi bodies
C) lysosomes
D) multiple nuclei
B) Golgi bodies
Mammary glands exhibit a glandular type called ________.
A) simple tubular
B) compound tubular
C) simple alveolar
D) compound alveolar
D) compound alveolar
What feature characterizes simple columnar epithelium of the digestive tract?
A) dense microvilli
B) a rich vascular supply
C) fibroblasts
D) cilia
A) dense microvilli
Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium ________.
A) lines the respiratory tract
B) aids in digestion
C) possesses no goblet cells
D) is not an epithelial classification
A) lines the respiratory tract
Which of the following is a single-celled layer of epithelium that forms the lining of serous membranes?
A) simple transitional
B) simple columnar
C) simple squamous
D) simple cuboidal
C) simple squamous
Which statement best describes connective tissue?
A) usually contains a large amount of matrix
B) always arranged in a single layer of cells
C) primarily concerned with secretion
D) usually lines a body cavity
A) usually contains a large amount of matrix
Matrix is composed of ________.
A) cells and fibers
B) fibers and ground substance
C) ground substance and cells
D) all organic compounds
B) fibers and ground substance
Cell types likely to be seen in areolar connective tissue include all except ________.
A) chondrocytes
B) fibroblasts
C) macrophages
D) mast cells
A) chondrocytes
Which tissue type arises from all three embryonic germ layers?
A) epithelial tissue
B) connective tissue
C) nervous tissue
D) muscle tissue
A) epithelial tissue
The fiber type that gives connective tissue great tensile strength is ________.
A) elastic
B) collagen
C) reticular
D) muscle
B) collagen
Organized groups of cells (plus their intercellular substances) that have a common purpose form a(n) ________.
A) organ
B) tissue
C) organism
D) organ system
B) tissue
The shape of the external ear is maintained by ________.
A) adipose tissue
B) elastic cartilage
C) hyaline cartilage
D) fibrocartilage
B) elastic cartilage
Inability to absorb digested nutrients and secrete mucus might indicate a disorder in which tissue?
A) simple squamous
B) transitional
C) simple columnar
D) stratified squamous
C) simple columnar
Glands, such as the thyroid, that secrete their products directly into the blood rather than through ducts are classified as ________.
A) exocrine
B) endocrine
C) sebaceous
D) ceruminous
B) endocrine
Which of the following is true about epithelia?
A) Simple epithelia are commonly found in areas of high abrasion.
B) Stratified epithelia are associated with filtration.
C) Endothelium provides a slick surface lining all hollow cardiovascular organs.
D) Pseudostratified epithelia are commonly keratinized.
C) Endothelium provides a slick surface lining all hollow cardiovascular organs.
Chondroblasts ________.
A) are mature cartilage cells located in spaces called lacunae
B) within the cartilage divide and secrete new matrix
C) located deep to the perichondrium divide and secrete new matrix on the internal portions of the cartilage
D) never lose their ability to divide
B) within the cartilage divide and secrete new matrix
________ epithelium appears to have two or three layers of cells but all the cells are in contact with the basement membrane.
A) Stratified cuboidal
B) Stratified columnar
C) Transitional
D) Pseudostratified columnar
D) Pseudostratified columnar
A multilayered epithelium with cuboidal basal cells and flat cells at its surface would be classified as ________.
A) simple cuboidal
B) simple squamous
C) transitional
D) stratified squamous
D) stratified squamous
An epithelial membrane ________.
A) usually involves transitional epithelium
B) is formed of epithelium and smooth muscle
C) contains simple or stratified epithelia and a basement membrane
D) never contains mucus-forming cells
C) contains simple or stratified epithelia and a basement membrane
Multicellular exocrine glands can be classified ________.
A) structurally into alveolar and acinar types
B) structurally into vascular and avascular types
C) functionally into merocrine, holocrine, and apocrine divisions
D) functionally into secreting or nonsecreting types
C) functionally into merocrine, holocrine, and apocrine divisions
Which of the following is true about the mode of secretion of exocrine glands?
A) Merocrine glands are not altered by the secretory process.
B) Apocrine cells are destroyed, then replaced, after secretion.
C) Holocrine cells are slightly damaged by the secretory process, but repair themselves.
D) These glands are ductless.
A) Merocrine glands are not altered by the secretory process.
Which of these is not considered connective tissue?
A) cartilage
B) adipose
C) muscle
D) blood
C) muscle
What are glycosaminoglycans?
A) positively charged proteins
B) negatively charged proteins
C) positively charged polysaccharides
D) negatively charged polysaccharides
D) negatively charged polysaccharides
Which is true concerning muscle tissue?
A) highly cellular and well vascularized
B) cuboidal shape enhances function
C) contains contractile units made of collagen
D) is a single-celled tissue
A) highly cellular and well vascularized
The first step in tissue repair involves ________.
A) replacement of destroyed tissue by the same kind of cells
B) proliferation of fibrous connective tissue
C) inflammation
D) formation of scar tissue
C) inflammation
Select the correct statement regarding multicellular exocrine glands.
A) Compound glands are so called because they are constructed from more than one cell type.
B) The secretory cells of holocrine glands release their product by rupturing.
C) Exocrine glands always lack ducts.
D) Merocrine glands release their secretion by pinching off part of the cell.
B) The secretory cells of holocrine glands release their product by rupturing.
What are the three main components of connective tissue?
A) ground substance, fibers, and cells
B) alveoli, fibrous capsule, and secretory cells
C) collagen, elastin, and reticular fibers
D) fibroblasts, chondroblasts, and osteoblasts
A) ground substance, fibers, and cells
Which of the following statements is true of connective tissue?
A) Elastin fibers are sometimes called white fibers.
B) When connective tissue is stretched, collagen gives it the ability to snap back.
C) Collagen fibers provide high tensile strength.
D) Reticular fibers form thick, ropelike structures.
C) Collagen fibers provide high tensile strength.
Select the correct statement regarding the cells of connective tissue.
A) Connective tissue does not contain cells.
B) Connective tissue cells are nondividing.
C) Chondroblasts are the main cell type of connective tissue proper.
D) "Blast" cells are undifferentiated, actively dividing cells.
D) "Blast" cells are undifferentiated, actively dividing cells.
Select the correct statement regarding tissue repair.
A) Granulation tissue is highly susceptible to infection.
B) Inflammation causes capillaries to dilate and become permeable.
C) Granulation tissue is another name for a blood clot.
D) The clot is formed from dried blood and transposed collagen fibers.
B) Inflammation causes capillaries to dilate and become permeable.
Select the correct statement regarding epithelia.
A) Simple epithelia form impermeable barriers.
B) Stratified epithelia are tall, narrow cells.
C) Stratified epithelia are present where protection from abrasion is important.
D) Pseudostratified epithelia consist of at least two layers of cells stacked on top of one another.
C) Stratified epithelia are present where protection from abrasion is important.
Select the correct statement regarding adipose tissue.
A) It is composed mostly of extracellular matrix.
B) Its primary function is nutrient storage.
C) Mature adipose cells are highly mitotic.
D) Most of the cell volume is occupied by the nucleus.
B) Its primary function is nutrient storage.
Which cells are commonly found wedged between simple columnar epithelial cells?
A) goblet cells
B) mast cells
C) macrophages
D) cilia
A) goblet cells
Select the correct statement regarding factors that affect the tissue repair process.
A) The type of tissue injured is not an important factor.
B) Nutrition does not seem to influence tissue repair.
C) The age of the person is a factor in the repair process.
D) The health of an individual does not seem to make any difference in the speed of repair.
C) The age of the person is a factor in the repair process.
In adults, new surface epithelial cells and the epithelial cells lining the intestine are derived from _________.
A) mitotic division of existing epithelial cells
B) stem cells
C) underlying epithelial cells
D) components of the connective tissue
B) stem cells
Mesenchymal cells are most commonly found in ________ connective tissue.
A) areolar
B) dense regular
C) embryonic
D) reticular
C) embryonic
Select the most correct statement concerning skin cancer.
A) Most tumors that arise on the skin are malignant.
B) Squamous cell carcinomas arise from the stratum corneum.
C) Basal cell carcinomas are the least common but most malignant.
D) Melanomas are rare but must be removed quickly to prevent them from metastasizing.
D) Melanomas are rare but must be removed quickly to prevent them from metastasizing.
________ is an inherited condition that affects the heme pathway, it leaves the skin scarred and gums degenerated, and may have led to the folklore about vampires.
A) Porphyria
B) Decubitus ulcer
C) Impetigo
D) Rosacea
A) Porphyria
A needle would pierce the epidermal layers of the forearm in which order?
A) basale, spinosum, granulosum, corneum
B) basale, spinosum, granulosum, lucidum, corneum
C) granulosum, basale, spinosum, corneum
D) corneum, granulosum, spinosum, basale
D) corneum, granulosum, spinosum, basale
The major regions of a hair shaft include all of the following except ________.
A) medulla
B) cortex
C) external root sheath
D) cuticle
C) external root sheath
Acne is a disorder associated with ________.
A) sweat glands
B) sebaceous glands
C) Meibomian glands
D) ceruminous glands
B) sebaceous glands
The dermis ________.
A) is an avascular connective tissue layer
B) has two layers
C) lacks sensory corpuscles and glands
D) is where melanocytes are found
B) has two layers
Which muscles attached to the hair follicles cause goose bumps?
A) arrector integument
B) arrector pili
C) levator folliculi
D) arrector folliculi
B) arrector pili
If a splinter penetrated the skin into the second epidermal layer of the sole of the foot, which cells would be damaged?
A) granulosum
B) basale
C) lucidum
D) spinosum
C) lucidum
Which of the following cutaneous receptors is specialized for the reception of touch or light pressure?
A) Meissner's corpuscles
B) Pacinian corpuscles
C) free nerve endings
D) Krause's end bulbs
A) Meissner's corpuscles
Which of the following is a skin sensory receptor for touch?
A) Pacinian corpuscle
B) Meissner's corpuscle
C) Ruffini body
D) free nerve ending
B) Meissner's corpuscle
Which statement correctly explains why hair appears the way it does?
A) Kinky hair has flat, ribbonlike hair shafts.
B) Perfectly round hair shafts result in wavy hair.
C) Air bubbles in the hair shaft cause straight hair.
D) Gray hair is the result of hormonal action altering the chemical composition of melanin.
A) Kinky hair has flat, ribbonlike hair shafts.
Sudoriferous glands vary in distribution over the surface of the body. Which of the following is correct?
A) Eccrine are the most numerous, being found primarily in the axillary regions.
B) Apocrine glands are larger than eccrine, and empty secretions directly to the surface of the skin.
C) Ceruminous glands secrete cerumen, which is thought to deter insects.
D) Mammary glands are not considered a modified sweat gland.
C) Ceruminous glands secrete cerumen, which is thought to deter insects.
Although the integument is a covering, it is by no means simple, and some of its functions include ________.
A) the dermis providing the major mechanical barrier to chemicals, water, and other external substances
B) resident macrophage-like cells whose function is to ingest antigenic invaders and present them to the immune system
C) cooling the body by increasing the action of sebaceous glands during high-temperature conditions
D) epidermal blood vessels serving as a blood reservoir
B) resident macrophage-like cells whose function is to ingest antigenic invaders and present them to the immune system
The function of the root hair plexus is to ________.
A) serve as a source for new epidermal cells for hair growth after the resting stage has passed
B) bind the hair root to the dermis
C) cause apocrine gland secretion into the hair follicle
D) allow the hair to assist in touch sensation
D) allow the hair to assist in touch sensation
Vernix caseosa is a ________.
A) substance contributing to acne during adolescence
B) whitish material produced by fetal sebaceous glands
C) coat of fine, downy hair on the heads of balding men
D) cheesy-looking sudoriferous secretion on the skin of newborns
B) whitish material produced by fetal sebaceous glands
The ________ gland is a modified sudoriferous gland that secretes wax.
A) eccrine
B) apocrine
C) ceruminous
D) mammary
C) ceruminous
Nutrients reach the surface of the skin (epidermis) through the process of ________.
A) absorbing materials applied to the surface layer of the skin
B) utilizing the products of merocrine glands to nourish the epidermis
C) filtration
D) diffusing through the tissue fluid from blood vessels in the dermis
D) diffusing through the tissue fluid from blood vessels in the dermis
The reason the hypodermis acts as a shock absorber is that ________.
A) it is located just below the epidermis and protects the dermis from shock
B) it has no delicate nerve endings and can therefore absorb more shock
C) the major part of its makeup is adipose, which serves as an effective shock absorber
D) the cells that make up the hypodermis secrete a protective mucus
C) the major part of its makeup is adipose, which serves as an effective shock absorber
Which type of skin cancer appears as a scaly reddened papule and tends to grow rapidly and metastasize?
A) Melanoma
B) Squamous cell carcinoma
C) Basal cell carcinoma
D) Adenoma
B) Squamous cell carcinoma
Keratinocytes are an important epidermal cell because they ________.
A) produce a fibrous protein that gives the skin much of its protective properties
B) are able to transform from living cells to plasma membranes and still function
C) are able to reproduce sporadically as needed
D) are a powerful defense against damaging UV rays
A) produce a fibrous protein that gives the skin much of its protective properties
Melanocytes and keratinocytes work together in protecting the skin from UV damage when keratinocytes ________.
A) provide the melanocyte with a protective shield against abrasion
B) accumulate the melanin granules on their superficial portion, forming a UV-blocking pigment layer
C) maintain the appropriate pH in order for the melanocyte to synthesize melanin granules
D) maintain the appropriate temperature so the product of the melanocyte will not denature
B) accumulate the melanin granules on their superficial portion, forming a UV-blocking pigment layer
The epidermis consists of five layers of cells, each layer with a distinct role to play in the health, well-being, and functioning of the skin. Which of the following layers is responsible for cell division and replacement?
A) stratum corneum
B) stratum granulosum
C) stratum basale
D) stratum lucidum
C) stratum basale
The integumentary system is protected by the action of cells that arise from bone marrow and migrate to the epidermis. Which of the following cells serve this function?
A) cells found in the stratum spinosum
B) macrophages called epidermal dendritic cells
C) keratinocytes, because they are so versatile
D) tactile cells
B) macrophages called epidermal dendritic cells
Water loss through the epidermis could cause a serious threat to health and well-being. Which of the following protects us against excessive water loss through the skin?
A) Lamellated granules of the cells of the stratum granulosum, a glycolipid that is secreted into extracellular spaces.
B) The size and shape of the cells that make up the stratum spinosum, as well as the thick bundles of intermediate filaments.
C) The dermis is the thickest portion of the skin and water cannot pass through it.
D) Fat associated with skin prevents water loss.
A) Lamellated granules of the cells of the stratum granulosum, a glycolipid that is secreted into extracellular spaces.
The dermis is a strong, flexible connective tissue layer. Which of the following cell types are likely to be found in the dermis?
A) goblet cells, parietal cells, and Kupffer cells
B) monocytes, reticulocytes, and osteocytes
C) fibroblasts, macrophages, and mast cells
D) osteoblasts, osteoclasts, and epithelial cells
C) fibroblasts, macrophages, and mast cells
The dermis has two major layers, which of the following constitutes 80% of the dermis and is responsible for the tension lines in the skin?
A) the reticular layer
B) the subcutaneous layer
C) the hypodermal layer
D) the papillary layer
A) the reticular layer
Despite its apparent durability, the dermis is subject to tearing. How might a person know that the dermis has been stretched and/or torn?
A) The pain is acute due to the large number of Meissner's corpuscles.
B) The appearance of visible, silvery-white scars is an indication of stretching of the dermis.
C) The blood vessels in the dermis rupture and the blood passes through the tissue, causing "black-and-blue marks."
D) The stretching causes the tension lines to disappear.
B) The appearance of visible, silvery-white scars is an indication of stretching of the dermis.
The papillary layer of the dermis is connective tissue heavily invested with blood vessels. The superficial surface has structures called:
A) dermal papillae.
B) hair follicles.
C) ceruminous glands.
D) reticular papillae.
A) dermal papillae.
The design of a person's epidermal ridges is determined by the manner in which the papillae rest upon the dermal ridges to produce the specific pattern known as handprints, footprints, and fingerprints. Which of the following statements is true regarding these prints or ridges?
A) Every human being has the same pattern of ridges.
B) They are genetically determined, therefore unique to each person.
C) Because we are constantly shedding epithelial cells, these ridges are changing daily.
D) Identical twins do not have the same pattern of ridges.
B) They are genetically determined, therefore unique to each person.
Which of the following statements indicates the way in which the body's natural defenses protect the skin from the effects of UV damage?
A) The skin is protected by the synthesis of three pigments that contribute to the skin's color.
B) Carotene, which accumulates in the stratum corneum and hypodermal adipose tissue, is synthesized in large amounts in the presence of sunlight.
C) The skin is protected by increasing the number of epidermal dendritic cells, which help to activate the immune system.
D) Prolonged exposure to the sun induces melanin dispersion, which in turn acts as a natural sunscreen.
D) Prolonged exposure to the sun induces melanin dispersion, which in turn acts as a natural sunscreen.
Changes in the color of skin are often an indication of a homeostatic imbalance. Which of the following changes would suggest that a patient is suffering from Addison's disease?
A) The skin takes on a bronze or metallic appearance.
B) Black-and-blue marks become evident for no apparent cause.
C) The skin appears to have an abnormal, yellowish tint.
D) It is impossible to suggest Addison's disease from an inspection of a person's skin.
A) The skin takes on a bronze or metallic appearance.
An epidermal dendritic cell is a specialized ________.
A) squamous epithelial cell
B) phagocytic cell
C) nerve cell
D) melanocyte
B) phagocytic cell
What are the most important factors influencing hair growth?
A) sex and hormones
B) age and glandular products
C) the size and number of hair follicles
D) nutrition and hormones
D) nutrition and hormones
Which of the following statements best describes what fingernails actually are?
A) Fingernails are a modification of the epidermis.
B) Fingernails are derived from osseous tissue.
C) Fingernails are extensions of the carpal bones.
D) Fingernails are a separate tissue from the skin, formed from a different embryonic layer.
A) Fingernails are a modification of the epidermis.
Sudoriferous (sweat) glands are categorized as two distinct types. Which of the following are the two types of sweat glands?
A) sebaceous and merocrine
B) mammary and ceruminous
C) eccrine and apocrine
D) holocrine and mammary
C) eccrine and apocrine
The composition of the secretions of the eccrine glands is ________.
A) primarily uric acid
B) 99% water, sodium chloride, trace amounts of wastes, and vitamin C
C) fatty substances, proteins, antibodies, and trace amounts of minerals and vitamins
D) metabolic wastes
B) 99% water, sodium chloride, trace amounts of wastes, and vitamin C
Apocrine glands, which begin to function at puberty under hormonal influence, seem to play little role in thermoregulation. Where would we find these glands in the human body?
A) in all body regions and buried deep in the dermis
B) beneath the flexure lines in the body
C) in the axillary and anogenital area
D) in the palms of the hands and soles of the feet
C) in the axillary and anogenital area
The sebaceous glands are simple alveolar glands that secrete a substance known as sebum. The secretion of sebum is stimulated ________.
A) by high temperatures
B) when the air temperature drops
C) by hormones
especially androgens
D) as a protective coating when one is swimming, C) by hormones, especially androgens
In addition to protection (physical and chemical barrier)
the skin serves other functions. Which of the following is another vital function of the skin?
A) It converts modified epidermal cholesterol to a vitamin D precursor important to calcium metabolism.
B) It aids in the transport of materials throughout the body.
C) The cells of the epidermis store glucose as glycogen for energy.
D) It absorbs vitamin C so that the skin will not be subject to diseases., A) It converts modified epidermal cholesterol to a vitamin D precursor important to calcium metabolism.
Burns are devastating and debilitating because of loss of fluids and electrolytes from the body. How do physicians estimate the extent of burn damage associated with such dangerous fluid loss?
A) by measuring urinary output and fluid intake
B) by observing the tissues that are usually moist
C) through blood analysis
D) by using the "rule of nines"
D) by using the "rule of nines"
What is the first threat to life from a massive third-degree burn?
A) infection
B) catastrophic fluid loss
C) unbearable pain
D) loss of immune function
B) catastrophic fluid loss
Male pattern baldness has a genetic switch that turns on in response to ________.
A) age
B) size
C) weight
D) male hormones
D) male hormones
Eyebrow hairs are always shorter than hairs on your head because ________.
A) they grow much slower
B) eyebrow follicles are only active for a few months
C) the vascular supply of the eyebrow follicle is one-tenth that of the head hair follicle
D) hormones in the eyebrow follicle switch the growth off after it has reached a predetermined length
B) eyebrow follicles are only active for a few months
The structure of bone tissue suits the function. Which of the following bone tissues is adapted to support weight and withstand tension stress?
A) spongy bone
B) irregular bone
C) compact bone
D) trabecular bone
C) compact bone
Yellow bone marrow contains a large percentage of ________.
A) fat
B) blood-forming cells
C) elastic tissue
D) Sharpey's fibers
A) fat
The cell responsible for secreting the matrix of bone is the ________.
A) osteocyte
B) osteoblast
C) osteoclast
D) chondrocyte
B) osteoblast
What kind of tissue is the forerunner of long bones in the embryo?
A) elastic connective tissue
B) dense fibrous connective tissue
C) fibrocartilage
D) hyaline cartilage
D) hyaline cartilage
What can a deficiency of growth hormone during bone formation cause?
A) inadequate calcification of bone
B) decreased osteoclast activity
C) decreased proliferation of the epiphyseal plate cartilage
D) increased osteoclast activity
C) decreased proliferation of the epiphyseal plate cartilage
A fracture in the shaft of a bone would be a break in the ________.
A) epiphysis
B) metaphysis
C) diaphysis
D) articular cartilage
C) diaphysis
The term diploë refers to the ________.
A) double-layered nature of the connective tissue covering the bone
B) fact that most bones are formed of two types of bone tissue
C) internal layer of spongy bone in flat bones
D) two types of marrow found within most bones
C) internal layer of spongy bone in flat bones
Which of the following is a bone marking name that indicates a projection that helps to form joints?
A) meatus
B) ramus
C) foramen
D) fossa
E) epicondyle
B) ramus
Factors in preventing (or delaying) osteoporosis include ________.
A) drinking fluoridated water
B) decreasing weight-bearing exercise
C) increasing dietary vitamin C
D) decreasing exposure to the sun
A) drinking fluoridated water
Ossification of the ends of long bones ________.
A) is a characteristic of intramembranous bone formation
B) involves medullary cavity formation
C) is produced by secondary ossification centers
D) takes twice as long as diaphysis
C) is produced by secondary ossification centers
Which structure allows the diaphysis of the bone to increase in length until early childhood
as well as shaping the articular surfaces?
A) lacunae
B) Haversian system
C) epiphyseal plate
D) epiphyseal line, C) epiphyseal plate
The most abundant skeletal cartilage type is ________.
A) hyaline
B) elastic
C) fibrocartilage
D) epiphyseal
A) hyaline
Which of the following is not a function of the skeletal system?
A) support
B) storage of minerals
C) production of blood cells (hematopoiesis)
D) communication
D) communication
What is the structural unit of compact bone?
A) osseous matrix
B) spongy bone
C) lamellar bone
D) the osteon
D) the osteon
Bones are covered and lined by a protective tissue called periosteum. The inner (osteogenic) layer consists primarily of ________.
A) cartilage and compact bone
B) marrow and osteons
C) osteoblasts and osteoclasts
D) chondrocytes and osteocytes
C) osteoblasts and osteoclasts
The periosteum is secured to the underlying bone by dense connective tissue called ________.
A) Volkmann's canals
B) a bony matrix with hyaline cartilage
C) perforating (Sharpey's) fibers
D) the struts of bone known as spicules
C) perforating (Sharpey's) fibers
The canal that runs through the core of each osteon (the Haversian canal) is the site of ________.
A) cartilage and interstitial lamellae
B) osteoclasts and osteoblasts
C) yellow marrow and spicules
D) blood vessels and nerve fibers
D) blood vessels and nerve fibers
What are the small spaces in bone tissue that are holes in which osteocytes live called?
A) lacunae
B) Volkmann's canals
C) Haversian canals
D) trabeculae
A) lacunae
For intramembranous ossification to take place
which of the following is necessary?
A) A bone collar forms around the cartilage model.
B) An ossification center forms in the fibrous connective tissue.
C) The cartilage matrix begins to deteriorate.
D) A medullary cavity forms., B) An ossification center forms in the fibrous connective tissue.
The process of bones increasing in width is known as ________.
A) closing of the epiphyseal plate
B) long bones reaching adult length and width
C) appositional growth
D) concentric growth
C) appositional growth
21) Bones are constantly undergoing resorption for various reasons. Which of the following cells accomplishes this process?
A) osteoclast
B) osteocyte
C) osteoblast
D) stem cell
A) osteoclast
Which hormone increases osteoclast activity to release more calcium ions into the bloodstream?
A) calcitonin
B) thyroxine
C) parathyroid hormone
D) estrogen
C) parathyroid hormone
The universal loss of mass seen in the skeleton
which begins about the age of 40, ________.
A) is slower in females than in males
B) is absolutely uniform throughout the skeleton
C) reflects incomplete osteon formation and mineralization
D) is greater in African Americans than in Northern Europeans, C) reflects incomplete osteon formation and mineralization
Wolff's law is concerned with ________.
A) vertical growth of bones being dependent on age
B) the thickness and shape of a bone being dependent on stresses placed upon it
C) the function of bone being dependent on shape
D) the diameter of the bone being dependent on the ratio of osteoblasts to osteoclasts
B) the thickness and shape of a bone being dependent on stresses placed upon it
Cranial bones develop ________.
A) from cartilage models
B) within fibrous membranes
C) from a tendon
D) within osseous membranes
B) within fibrous membranes
Which of the following glands or organs produces hormones that tend to decrease blood calcium levels?
A) pineal gland
B) thyroid
C) parathyroid
D) spleen
B) thyroid
Osteomyelitis is ________.
A) partially due to insufficient dietary calcium
B) literally known as "soft bones"
C) due to pus-forming bacteria
D) caused by altered vitamin D metabolism
C) due to pus-forming bacteria
Cartilage grows in two ways
appositional and interstitial. What is appositional growth?
A) growth at the epiphyseal plate
B) the secretion of new matrix against the external face of existing cartilage
C) along the edges only
D) the lengthening of hyaline cartilage, B) the secretion of new matrix against the external face of existing cartilage
Which of the following statements best describes interstitial growth?
A) Growth occurs in the lining of the long bones.
B) Fibroblasts give rise to chondrocytes that differentiate and form cartilage.
C) Unspecialized cells from mesenchyme develop into chondrocytes
which divide and form cartilage.
D) Chondrocytes in the lacunae divide and secrete matrix, allowing the cartilage to grow from within., D) Chondrocytes in the lacunae divide and secrete matrix, allowing the cartilage to grow from within.
In the epiphyseal plate
cartilage grows ________.
A) by pulling the diaphysis toward the epiphysis
B) by pushing the epiphysis away from the diaphysis
C) from the edges inward
D) in a circular fashion, B) by pushing the epiphysis away from the diaphysis
Spongy bones are made up of a framework called ________.
A) osteons
B) lamellar bone
C) trabeculae
D) osseous lamellae
C) trabeculae
Osteogenesis is the process of ________.
A) making a cartilage model of the fetal bone
B) bone destruction to liberate calcium
C) bone formation
D) making collagen fibers for calcified cartilage
C) bone formation
Lengthwise
long bone growth during infancy and youth is exclusively through ________.
A) interstitial growth of the epiphyseal plates
B) the secretion of bone matrix into the medullary cavity
C) differentiation of osteoclasts
D) calcification of the matrix, A) interstitial growth of the epiphyseal plates
Growth of bones is controlled by a symphony of hormones. Which hormone is important for bone growth during infancy and childhood?
A) thyroid hormone
B) somatomedins
C) growth hormone
D) prolactin
C) growth hormone
In some cases the epiphyseal plate of the long bones of children closes too early. What might be the cause?
A) overproduction of thyroid hormone
B) elevated levels of sex hormones
C) too much vitamin D in the diet
D) osteoblast activity exceeds osteoclast activity
B) elevated levels of sex hormones
Normal bone formation and growth are dependent on the adequate intake of ________.
A) calcium
phosphate, and vitamin D
B) potassium, phosphate, and vitamin D
C) sodium, calcium, and vitamin E
D) vitamin D, phosphate, and chloride, A) calcium, phosphate, and vitamin D
Ostealgia is ________.
A) a defect called clubfoot
B) a disease of the bone
C) pain in a bone
D) fractured bone
C) pain in a bone
Which forms the largest portion of the coxal bone?
A) ischium
B) pubis
C) ilium
D) pelvic
C) ilium
The membranous areas between the cranial bones of the fetal skull are called ________.
A) areolas
B) foramina
C) sutures
D) fontanelles
D) fontanelles
What makes up the axial skeleton?
A) the skull
vertebral column, and pelvis
B) arms, legs, hands, and feet
C) the skull, vertebral column, and rib cage
D) shoulder and pelvic girdles, C) the skull, vertebral column, and rib cage
The ethmoid bone is composed of all of the following except the ________.
A) superior nasal concha
B) crista galli
C) cribriform plate
D) inferior nasal concha
D) inferior nasal concha
Which vertebra does not have a body?
A) last lumbar
B) axis
C) atlas
D) last cervical
C) atlas
The suture that connects the two parietal bones together is the ________.
A) coronal
B) sagittal
C) lambdoid
D) squamosal
B) sagittal
The pituitary gland is housed in the ________.
A) vomer
B) sinuses of the ethmoid
C) sella turcica of the sphenoid
D) foramen lacerum
C) sella turcica of the sphenoid
The hyoid bone is unique because it ________.
A) is the only bone of the body that does not articulate with any other bone
B) is shaped like a plow
C) is covered with mucosa
D) has no specific function
A) is the only bone of the body that does not articulate with any other bone
Along with support
the anterior ligament of the vertebral column also acts to ________.
A) hold the discs in place
B) prevent hyperextension of the spine
C) hold the spine erect
D) protect the spinal cord, B) prevent hyperextension of the spine
What is the major function of the intervertebral discs?
A) absorb shock
B) string the vertebrae together
C) prevent injuries
D) prevent hyperextension
A) absorb shock
Paranasal sinuses are found in which of these facial bones?
A) zygomatic
B) nasal conchae
C) vomer
D) maxillae
D) maxillae
Which of the following is an abnormal lateral curvature of the vertebral column often seen in the thoracic region?
A) kyphosis
B) scoliosis
C) lordosis
D) swayback
B) scoliosis
Which of the following phrases best describes the function of the vertebral curves?
A) to provide resilience and flexibility
B) to accommodate muscle attachment
C) to improve cervical center of gravity
D) to accommodate the weight of the pelvic girdle
A) to provide resilience and flexibility
Which part of the vertebral column receives the most stress by bearing most of the weight of the body?
A) the sacrum
B) the cervical region
C) the lumbar region
D) the sacral promontory
C) the lumbar region
Which of the following statements is true regarding the location of the center of gravity of the body?
A) It is 1 cm posterior to the sacral promontory.
B) It is 2 cm anterior to the sacral foramina.
C) It is 1 cm lateral to the sacroiliac joints of the pelvis.
D) It is 1 cm superior to the median sacral crest.
A) It is 1 cm posterior to the sacral promontory.
Thoracic vertebrae differ from the other vertebrae in that they have ________.
A) no transverse processes
B) facets for attachment of ribs
C) transverse foramina
D) no intervertebral discs
B) facets for attachment of ribs
What is the major function of the axial skeleton?
A) give the body resilience
B) provide an attachment point for muscles that allow movement
C) provide central support for the body and protect internal organs
D) provide a space for the major digestive organs
C) provide central support for the body and protect internal organs
The antebrachium is composed of which of the following two bones?
A) the radius and the ulna
B) the humerus and the clavicle
C) the scapula and the clavicle
D) the humerus and the radius
A) the radius and the ulna
The "true wrist" or carpus consists of ________.
A) a group of eight short bones united by ligaments
B) the phalanges
C) the styloid processes of the radius and ulna
D) the metacarpals
A) a group of eight short bones united
Which bone is in direct contact with the first metatarsal?
A) medial cuneiform
B) lateral cuneiform
C) cuboid
D) calcaneus
A) medial cuneiform
Choose the statement that is most correct about orbits.
A) The orbits are formed of both facial and cranial bones.
B) The orbits contain only facial bones.
C) The orbits contain only cranial bones.
D) The orbits are made entirely of cartilage.
A) The orbits are formed of both facial and cranial bones.
Which of the following is true about paranasal sinuses?
A) Paranasal sinuses open into the oral cavity.
B) Paranasal sinuses enhance the resonance of the voice and lighten the skull.
C) Paranasal sinuses contain passages acting as one-way valves.
D) Paranasal sinuses are found in maxillary
ethmoid, and lacrimal bones., B) Paranasal sinuses enhance the resonance of the voice and lighten the skull.
The superior orbital fissure is formed in the sphenoid bone
whereas the inferior orbital fissure is formed between the sphenoid and ________.
A) maxilla
B) zygomatic
C) ethmoid
D) lacrimal, A) maxilla
Which of the following is the abnormal curve often seen in pregnant women as they attempt to preserve their center of gravity toward the end of the pregnancy?
A) kyphosis
B) hunchback
C) scoliosis
D) lordosis
D) lordosis
How are thoracic vertebrae 11 and 12 different from the other vertebrae?
A) The orientation of the articular processes is different from all the other thoracic vertebrae.
B) The transverse processes do not have facets that articulate with the tubercles of the ribs.
C) There are two foramina on vertebrae 11 and 12.
D) The spinous processes are directed parallel with the centrum.
B) The transverse processes do not have facets that articulate with the tubercles of the ribs.
Which bone contains diaphysis and epiphysis areas
a tuberosity near its middle, and is proportionally more compact than spongy bone?
A) parietal bone
B) talus
C) humerus
D) cervical vertebra, C) humerus
The superior nasal concha is a part of which bone?
A) vomer
B) ethmoid
C) sphenoid
D) maxilla
B) ethmoid
The articulation that most closely resembles a hinge in the body involves which bones?
A) humerus-ulna
B) humerus-radius
C) femur-tibia
D) femur-fibula
A) humerus-ulna
The pelvic girdle does not include the ________.
A) sacrum
B) ilium
C) ischium
D) pubis
A) sacrum
Which of the following bones is not weight bearing?
A) femur
B) tibia
C) fibula
D) talus
C) fibula
Which portion of the fibula articulates with the talus?
A) calcaneus
B) head
C) medial maleolus
D) lateral maleolus
D) lateral maleolus
A fibrous joint that is a peg-in-socket is called a ________ joint.
A) syndesmosis
B) suture
C) synchondrosis
D) gomphosis
D) gomphosis
The cruciate ligaments of the knee ________.
A) tend to run parallel to one another
B) are also called collateral ligaments
C) prevent hyperextension of the knee
D) assist in defining the range of motion of the leg
C) prevent hyperextension of the knee
Articular cartilage found at the ends of the long bones serves to ________.
A) attach tendons
B) produce red blood cells (hemopoiesis)
C) provide a smooth surface at the ends of synovial joints
D) form the synovial membrane
C) provide a smooth surface at the ends of synovial joints
A joint united by dense fibrocartilaginous tissue that usually permits a slight degree of movement is a ________.
A) suture
B) syndesmosis
C) symphysis
D) gomphosis
C) symphysis
On the basis of structural classification
which joint is fibrous connective tissue?
A) symphysis
B) synchondrosis
C) pivot
D) syndesmosis, D) syndesmosis
Connective tissue sacs lined with synovial membranes that act as cushions in places where friction develops are called ________.
A) menisci
B) bursae
C) ligaments
D) tendons
B) bursae
Articulations permitting only slight degrees of movement are ________.
A) amphiarthroses
B) synarthroses
C) diarthroses
D) synovial joints
A) amphiarthroses
________ are cartilaginous joints.
A) Syndesmoses
B) Sutures
C) Synchondroses
D) Gomphoses
C) Synchondroses
The gliding motion of the wrist is accomplished because of the ________ joint.
A) hinge
B) plane
C) pivot
D) condyloid
B) plane
The ligaments that protect the alignment of the femoral and tibial condyles and limit the movement of the femur anteriorly and posteriorly are called ________.
A) cruciate ligaments
B) patellar ligaments
C) anterior ligaments
D) tibial collateral ligaments
A) cruciate ligaments
Bending your head back until it hurts is an example of ________.
A) flexion
B) extension
C) hyperextension
D) circumduction
C) hyperextension
In the classification of joints
which of the following is true?
A) Immovable joints are called amphiarthroses.
B) All synovial joints are freely movable.
C) Synarthrotic joints are slightly movable.
D) In cartilaginous joints, a joint cavity is present., B) All synovial joints are freely movable.
Synarthrotic joints ________.
A) are found at the junction of the epiphysis and diaphysis of growing bone
B) are cartilaginous joints
C) permit essentially no movement
D) have large joint cavities
C) permit essentially no movement
Fibrous joints are classified as ________.
A) pivot
hinge, and ball and socket
B) symphysis, sacroiliac, and articular
C) hinge, saddle, and ellipsoidal
D) sutures, syndesmoses, and gomphoses, D) sutures, syndesmoses, and gomphoses
In symphysis joints the articular surfaces of the bones are covered with ________.
A) hyaline cartilage
B) synovial membranes
C) fibrocartilage
D) tendon sheaths
A) hyaline cartilage
Synovial fluid is present in joint cavities of freely movable joints. Which of the following statements is true about this fluid?
A) It contains enzymes only.
B) It contains lactic acid.
C) It contains hyaluronic acid.
D) It contains hydrochloric acid.
C) It contains hyaluronic acid.
Which of the following statements defines synchondroses?
A) amphiarthrotic joints designed for strength and flexibility
B) interphalangeal joints
C) joints that permit angular movements
D) cartilaginous joints where hyaline cartilage unites the ends of bones
D) cartilaginous joints where hyaline cartilage unites the ends of bones
What are menisci?
A) cavities lined with cartilage
B) small sacs containing synovial fluid
C) semilunar cartilage pads
D) tendon sheaths
C) semilunar cartilage pads
Which of the following is a true statement regarding gliding movements?
A) Gliding movements occur at the intercarpal and intertarsal joints.
B) Gliding movements allow flexibility of the upper limbs.
C) Gliding movements are multiaxial.
D) An example of a gliding movement is nodding one's head.
A) Gliding movements occur at the intercarpal and intertarsal joints.
What is moving a limb away from the median plane of the body along the frontal plane called?
A) abduction
B) adduction
C) inversion
D) dorsiflexion
A) abduction
The terms inversion and eversion pertain only to the ________.
A) hands
B) feet
C) arms
D) hands and the feet
B) feet
The hip joint is a good example of a(n) ________ synovial joint.
A) nonaxial
B) uniaxial
C) biaxial
D) multiaxial
D) multiaxial
Movement allowed in a pivot joint is known as ________.
A) biaxial movement
B) flexion
C) uniaxial rotation
D) extension
C) uniaxial rotation
Compared to the shoulder
displacements of the hip joints are ________.
A) common due to the weight bearing the hip endures
B) rare because of the ligament reinforcement
C) common in all people who are overweight
D) rare because the rotator cuff stabilizes the hip joint, B) rare because of the ligament reinforcement
Which ligament holds the radius to the ulna at the proximal end?
A) anular
B) ulnar collateral
C) radial collateral
D) iliofemoral
A) anular
Which ligament of the knee initiates the knee-jerk reflex when tapped?
A) the patellar ligament
B) the medial patellar retinacula
C) the lateral patellar retinacula
D) the extracapsular ligament
A) the patellar ligament
Football players often sustain lateral blows to the extended knee. Which of the ligaments is (are) damaged as a result?
A) oblique popliteal and extracapsular ligament
B) suprapatellar
C) arcuate popliteal and the posterior cruciate
D) medial collateral
medial meniscus, and anterior cruciate, D) medial collateral, medial meniscus, and anterior cruciate
Which of the following conditions is generally considered a noninflammatory type of arthritis?
A) bursitis
B) tendonitis
C) osteoarthritis
D) rheumatoid arthritis
C) osteoarthritis
What can cause gouty arthritis?
A) excessive blood levels of uric acid deposited as crystals in the soft tissue joints
B) a disorder in the body's immune system resulting in destruction of joints
C) a thickening of the synovial membrane and a decrease in fluid production
D) a bacterial infection in the bursae
A) excessive blood levels of uric acid deposited as crystals in the soft tissue joints
Pointing the toes is an example of ________.
A) circumduction
B) plantar flexion
C) pronation
D) protraction
B) plantar flexion
Which of the following is a true statement?
A) The head of the humerus articulates with the acromion process.
B) The greater tubercle of the humerus articulates at the coracoid process of the scapula.
C) The rotator cuff is responsible for the flexible extensions at the elbow joint.
D) The anular ligament surrounds the head of the radius.
D) The anular ligament surrounds the head of the radius.
Multiaxial joints of the body include ________.
A) the knee and elbow
B) the ankle and wrist
C) the hip and shoulder
D) intercarpal and intertarsal joints
C) the hip and shoulder
Presence of a synovial cavity
articular cartilage, synovial membrane, and ligaments are characteristics of what type of joint?
A) suture
B) synchondrosis
C) symphysis
D) hinge joint, D) hinge joint
Extracapsular ligaments stabilizing the knee include ________.
A) the patellar ligament extending from femur to patella
B) lateral and medial collateral ligaments preventing lateral or medial angular movements
C) cruciate ligaments
which help secure the articulating bones together
D) the oblique popliteal crossing the knee anteriorly, B) lateral and medial collateral ligaments preventing lateral or medial angular movements
Which of the following is a correct statement about development of joints?
A) Joints develop in parallel with bones.
B) By the end of the fourth week
fetal synovial joints resemble adult joints.
C) All fibrous joints are in the adult form by the time of birth.
D) Joints develop independent of bone growth., A) Joints develop in parallel with bones.
An example of an interosseus fibrous joint is ________.
A) the clavicle and the scapula at the distal ends
B) the radius and ulna along its length
C) between the vertebrae
D) between the humerus and the glenoid cavity
B) the radius and ulna along its length
Which of the following statements best describes angular movements?
A) They allow movement only in one plane.
B) They allow movement in several planes.
C) They occur only between bones with flat articular processes.
D) They change (increase or decrease) the angle between two bones.
D) They change (increase or decrease) the angle between two bones.
Saddle joints have concave and convex surfaces. Name the two bones of the hand that articulate to form a saddle joint.
A) The scaphoid of the index finger and the triquetrum of the middle finger.
B) The trapezium of the ring finger and the capitate of the fourth finger.
C) The scaphoid of the middle finger and lunate of the index finger.
D) The trapezium of the carpal bone and the thumb's metacarpal.
D) The trapezium of the carpal bone and the thumb's metacarpal.
Tendon sheaths ________.
A) act as friction-reducing structures
B) are lined with dense irregular connective tissue
C) form channels for tendons
D) help anchor the tendon to the muscle
A) act as friction-reducing structures
Which of the following is not a part of the synovial joint?
A) joint cavity
B) tendon sheath
C) articular cartilage
D) articular capsule
B) tendon sheath
Which of the following is not a factor that contributes to keeping the articular surfaces of diarthroses in contact?
A) structure and shape of the articulating bone
B) arrangement and tension of the muscles
C) strength and tension of joint ligaments
D) number of bones in the joint
D) number of bones in the joint