Enlisted Aviation Warfare Specialist: Intro/Phase I
Terms in this set (...)
Enlisted Aviation Warfare Specialist
What does EAWS stand for?
EAWS (Enlisted Aviation Warfare Specialist)
What was established to recognize enlisted personnel who acquired the specific professional skills, knowledge, and military experience?
When was EAWS established?
When did EAWS become mandatory?
Standard Organization and Regulations Manual
What does SORM stand for?
Unity of command, span of control, and delegation of authority
What are the principles applicable to developing an organization?
The authority which a commander in the military service lawfully exercises over his or her subordinates by rank or assignment
Unity of command
Ensures that a member reports directly to and receives orders from only one individual
Motivating force which leads to coordinated action and unity of effort
Extra Military Instruction
What does EMI stand for?
Intended to correct deficiency
What is EMI intended for?
Prevent further injury, infection, and loss of life
What are the 3 objectives of First Aid?
8 main areas
How many categories of First Aid are there?
Bleeding, burns, fractures, electric shock, obstructed airways, heat related injuries, heat stroke, cold weather injuries, and shock
What are the 8 main categories of First Aid?
Direct pressure, elevation, pressure points, and tourniquet as a last resort
What are the 4 method of controlling bleeding?
Point on the body where a main artery lies near the skin surface and over a bone.
11 principle pressure points
How many principle pressure points are on each side of the body?
How many classifications of burns are there?
First degree, second degree, and third degree
What are the 3 classifications of burns?
BURN: Produces redness, warmth, and mild pain
BURN: Causes red, blistered skin, and severe pain
BURN: Destroys tissue, skin, and bone in severe cases; however severe pain may be absent due to nerve endings being destroyed.
How many types of fractures are there?
FRACTURE: A broken bone without a break in the skin
FRACTURE: Has a break in the skin with possible bone protrusion
This type of incident can range from little or no evidence of injury to severe trauma with associated.
This type of incident includes the victim having an inability to talk, grasping and pointing to the throat, exaggerated breathing efforts, and the skin turning a bluish color.
HEAT RELATED INJURY: Skin is cool, moist, and clammy and the pupils are dilated. Body temp may be normal or high; victim is usually sweating profusely.
HEAT RELATED INJURY: Breakdown of the sweating mechanism of the body. Victim may experience hot and/or dry skin, uneven pupil dilation, and a weak, rapid pulse.
Hypothermia, superficial, and deep frostbite
What are the 3 types of cold weather injuries?
COLD WEATHER INJURY: General cooling of the whole body caused by exposure to low or rapidly falling temperature, cold moisture, snow or ice. Victim may appear pale and unconscious, and may even be taken for dead. Breathing is slow and shallow, pulse faint or even undetectable. The body tissues feel semi-rigid, and the arms and legs may feel stiff.
COLD WEATHER INJURY: Ice crystals are forming in the upper skin layers after exposure to a temperature of 32 degrees or lower.
COLD WEATHER INJURY: Ice crystals are forming in the deeper tissues after exposure to a temperature of 32 degrees or lower.
This condition is where the body suffers from insufficient blood flow throughout the body as a result of severe injury or illness.
SHOCK: Results from bacteria multiplying in the blood and releasing toxins.
SHOCK: A type of severe hypersensitivity or allergic reaction.
SHOCK: Occurs when the heart is damaged and unable to supply sufficient blood to the body. This could be the end result of a heart attack or congestive heart failure.
SHOCK: Caused by severe blood and fluid loss, such as from traumatic bodily injury, which makes the heart unable to pump enough blood to the body.
SHOCK: Caused by spinal cord injury, usually as a result of a traumatic accident or injury.
What does CPR stand for?
What are the steps for CPR?
Recognition/activation of CPR
What is the 1st step in the survival chain?
What is the 2nd step in the survival chain?
What is the 3rd step in the survival chain?
What is the 4th step in the survival chain?
Effective advanced life support (EMT's, ambulance)
What is the 5th step in the survival chain?
Integrated post-cardiac arrest care
What is the 6th step in the survival chain?
Operational Risk Management
What does ORM stand for?
Systematic, decision-making process used to identify and manage hazards that endanger naval resources
What is ORM?
What is the 1st step in ORM?
What is the 2nd step in ORM?
Make risk decisions
What is the 3rd step in ORM?
What is the 4th step in ORM?
What is the 5th step in ORM?
Class A mishap
MISHAP: Reportable material property damage is $2,000,000 or more; or injury or occupational illness results in a fatality or permanent total disability.
Class B mishap
MISHAP: Reportable material or property damage is $500,000 or more, but less than $2,000,000; or an injury or occupational illness results in permanent partial disability; or three or more personnel are inpatient hospitalized.
Class C mishap
MISHAP: Reportable material or property damage is $50,000 or more, but less that $500,000; a non-fatal injury that causes any loss of time beyond the day or shift on which it occurred; or a non-fatal illness or disease that causes loss of time from work or disability at any time (lost time case).
CHEMICAL WARFARE: Gaseous casualty agents that attack the enzymes carrying oxygen in the blood stream. Rapid breathing or choking may occur due to lack of oxygen in the blood.
Examples of blood agents
Hydrogen cyanide (AC), Cyanogen chloride (CK), and Arsine (SA)
CHEMICAL WARFARE: Gaseous or liquid casualty agents with initial symptoms that include; tears, dry throat, nausea, vomiting, and headache. The lungs can become filled with fluid, making the victim feel as if they are drowning, causing breathing to become rapid and shallow.
Examples of choking agents
Phosgene (CG) and Disphogene
M9 Chemical agent detector paper
This paper detects the presence of liquid chemical agents by turning a red or reddish color, it does not detect chemical agent vapors.
Atropine/2-PAM-chloride auto injector
This is used as specific therapy for nerve agents casualties, they are issued for intramuscular injection, self-aid or first aid.
The use of agents to cause disease, sickness, or death to reduce the effectiveness of opposing combatant forces.
Bacteria, rickettsia, viruses, fungi, protozoa, and prions are categorized as what?
The categorization of this is based on the organisms (source) that produce them and the physiological affects the toxins cause in humans.
Individual Protective Equipment
What does IPE stand for?
IPE for chemical/biological agent environment
Protective mask MCU-2P with components (C-2 canister filter), Advanced chemical protective garment (ACPG), Chemical protective gloves and liner, Chemical protective overboots and laces, Skin decontamination kit
Deliberate use of radiological weapons to produce widespread injury and death of all life.
High altitude air burst
NUCLEAR EXPLOSION: Occurs at altitudes in excess of 100,000 feet with ionosphere disruptions and EMP.
NUCLEAR EXPLOSION: Where fireball does not reach the surface, the vacuum created collects debris caused by the severe blast damage resulting in radiation fallout.
NUCLEAR EXPLOSION: Has the worst fallout due to the fireball touching the surface which results in massive radioactive fallout.
Shallow underwater burst
NUCLEAR EXPLOSION: Has a small fireball and blast wave however, it causes large waves and water contamination.
Deep underwater burst
NUCLEAR EXPLOSION: Similar to the shallow underwater burst but with less visual effect and yields greater contaminated water.
Just inside of the weather envelope, with access to deep shelter. They provide minimum shielding from nuclear radiation and allow the crew to remain close to battle stations.
Low in the ship and near the centerline. They provide maximum shielding from nuclear radiation, often requiring personnel to be far removed from battle stations.
This device is a non-self reading high range casualty dosimeter.
Mission Orientated Protective Posture
What does MOPP stand for?
Coordinate the use of systems and equipment in chemical or biological environment
What does MOPP do?
How many levels of MOPP are there?
MOPP Level 0
MOPP: Issue IPE, accessible within 5 minutes.
MOPP Level 1 (afloat)
MOPP: JSLIST, MASK, gloves readily accessible
MOPP Level 1 (ashore)
MOPP: Don protective equipment, M9 tape.
MOPP Level 2 (afloat)
MOPP: Mask carried, decon supplies stage.
MOPP Level 2 (ashore)
MOPP: Additional to level 1 is don protective over-boots.
MOPP Level 3 (afloat)
MOPP: GQ, install filters, don over-boots.
MOPP Level 3 (ashore)
MOPP: Fill canteens, activate decon stations.
MOPP Level 4 (afloat)
MOPP: Don mask/hood, gloves, Circle William, countermeasure wash down.
MOPP Level 4 (ashore)
MOPP: Gloves with liners, untie bow in retention cord, loop between legs and secure to web belt.
What is the primary duty of firefighting?
What is the secondary duty of firefighting?
Heat, fuel, and oxygen are all apart of what?
Heat, fuel, oxygen, and the chemical chain reaction are all apart of what?
How many classes of fires are there?
Class Alpha fires
FIREFIGHTING: Occur in combustible materials that produce an ash such as burning wood and wood products, cloth, textiles, fibrous materials, and paper products
Extinguish agents for class alpha fires
FIREFIGHTING: Water (H2O) or AFFF
Class Bravo fires
FIREFIGHTING: Occur with flammable liquid substances such as gasoline, jet fuels, oil, and other petroleum based products.
Extinguish agents for class bravo fires
FIREFIGHTING: AFFF, Halon 1211, PKP, and CO2
Class Charlie fires
FIREFIGHTING: Energized electrical fires that are attacked by using non-conductive agents.
Extinguish agents for ENERGIZED class charlie fires
FIREFIGHTING: CO2, Halon 1211, PKP, and H2O in fog patterns with a minimum distance of 4 feet.
Extinguish agents for DE-ENERGIZED class charlie fires
FIREFIGHTING: Treat as a Class A, B, or D fire.
Class Delta fires
FIREFIGHTING: Combustible metals such as magnesium and titanium.
Extinguish agents for class delta fires
FIREFIGHTING: H2O in large quantities in high velocity fog, apply water from a safe distance or from behind shelter as small explosions can occur.
Aqueous Film Forming Foam
What does AFFF stand for?
This agent contains liquid concentrates that consist primarily of synthetic fluorocarbon surfactant materials that are noncorrosive and have an unlimited shelf life when stored in a protective area.
What percent of AFFF concentrate is approved for Naval use?
This agent is generally not considered to be a suitable agent for use in combating large aircraft fuel fires without the addition of either foam agents or surfactants.
This agent is otherwise known as Bromochlorodifluoromethane. Colorless, faintly sweet smelling, electrically nonconductive gas that leaves no residue to clean up.
Carbon dioxide (CO2)
This agent comes in 15 lb. portable units and 50 lb. wheeled extinguisher units. Colorless, odorless, gas that is approximately 1 1/2 times heavier than air.
This agent is commonly known as Purple K Powder, and otherwise known as Potassium Bicarbonate. It contains a dry chemical that extinguishes the flame by breaking down the combustion chain.
This is important for personnel learning how to perform their duties for their personal safety and the safety of the aircrew.
Cranial, eye goggles, leather gloves, and steel-toed boots
What are 4 required flight line PPE?
AIRFIELD/FLIGHT DECK: Paved areas that are used for aircraft takeoff and landing.
AIRFIELD/FLIGHT DECK: These are parallel stripes on the ends of runways. They are 12 feet wide by 150 feet long and designate the landing area.
AIRFIELD/FLIGHT DECK: Paved or un-paved section on the ends of the runways that provide a reasonable effective deceleration areal for aborting or overshooting aircraft.
MA-1 Series overrun barrier
AIRFIELD/FLIGHT DECK: Designed to stop tricycle landing gear equipped aircraft not equipped with tail hooks.
Emergency shore based recovery equipment
AIRFIELD/FLIGHT DECK: Used during in-flight emergencies that require stopping the aircraft during landing in the shortest distance possible to minimize the chance of injury to pilot or aircrew and damage to the aircraft.
AIRFIELD/FLIGHT DECK: Paved areas for aircraft to move between parking aprons, runways, and airfield services.
AIRFIELD/FLIGHT DECK: Open paved areas adjacent to hangers, fuel, services often called the flight line.
Compass calibration pad (compass rose)
AIRFIELD/FLIGHT DECK: A paved area in a magnetically quiet area where the aircraft compass is calibrated.
Runway numbering system
AIRFIELD/FLIGHT DECK: Runways are normally numbered in relation to their magnetic heading rounded off to the nearest 10 degrees.
Airfield rotating beacon
AIRFIELD/FLIGHT DECK: When the airport is below VFR weather conditions, day or night, this is used to identify the airport's location.
2 white lights and 1 green light
AIRFIELD/FLIGHT DECK: What color lights and how many of each do the military use in their rotating beacon?
Cranial, eye goggles, jersey, leather gloves, and steel-toed boots
FLIGHT DECK: Name the 5 types of required PPE for the flight deck.
FLIGHT DECK: Aircraft handling officer, flight deck officer, catapult officer, air bos'n, arresting gear officer, and plane directors wear this color jersey...
FLIGHT DECK: Safety department, air transport officer, landing signal officer, squadron plane inspectors (troubleshooters) and medical wear this color jersey...
FLIGHT DECK: Plane captains wear this color jersey...
FLIGHT DECK: Aircraft handling and chock crewman (chocks, chains, and tractors) and elevator operators wear this color jersey...
FLIGHT DECK: Catapult and arresting gear personnel, squadron aircraft maintenance personnel. helicopter landing signal enlisted-man and photographers wear this color jersey...
FLIGHT DECK: Crash and salvage, explosive ordnance handling personnel wear this color jersey...
FLIGHT DECK: Aviation fuel crew wear this color jersey...
Purple K Powder (PKP)/CO2 symbol
FLIGHT DECK: 12-inch wide red stripe with a white 3-inch high ___ stenciled in the center of the stripe on the wheel stop coaming.
FLIGHT DECK: 18-inch wide red stripe with a yellow 3-inch high _ stenciled in the center of the wheel stop coaming.
FLIGHT DECK: 18-inch wide green stripe with white 3-inch high ____ stenciled in the center of the wheel stop coaming.
Bomb jettison ramp
FLIGHT DECK: Ramps designated to eliminate loose ordinance will have a yellow stripe painted up and over the deck edge at both ends of the ramp opening.
FLIGHT DECK: 18-inch black stripe with a 3-inch white _____ stenciled in the center of the stripe on the wheel stop coaming.
What does SE stand for?
Grounding strap to ground then to aircraft
How do you properly ground an aircraft?
Windshield static grounding
This is necessary because during flight a high voltage of 100,000 volts of static electrical charge may build up...
This determines which category of tie-down must be used for securing the aircraft...
AIRCRAFT HANDLING: Up to 45 knots, a minimum of 6 chains are required
Normal weather tie-down
AIRCRAFT HANDLING: Up to 45 knots, 9 chains required
AIRCRAFT HANDLING: These cannot be walked on and are identified by ||NO STEP|| markings
Aircraft hand signals
AIRCRAFT HANDLING: This is the way we communicate in the high tempo high noise environments of Naval Aviation...
AIRCRAFT HANDLING: When directing fixed wing aircraft this is the only mandatory signal regardless of aircraft type...
Wave-off and Hold
AIRCRAFT HANDLING: When directing rotary wing aircraft these 2 signals cannot be changed due to platform variations...
AIRCRAFT TOWING/HANDLING: Towing speed shall not exceed how many miles per hour?
AIRCRAFT TOWING/HANDLING: The movement of aircraft is accomplished by a team with a range of how many members?
AIRCRAFT TOWING/HANDLING: Overall responsible for assembling the move crew, ensuring they are properly qualified to perform their duties, pre move briefing, safe movement of the aircraft with an emphasis on safety.
AIRCRAFT TOWING/HANDLING: Conducts a pre-move inspection of brake system and aircraft to ensure it is mechanically sound and ready for movement.
AIRCRAFT TOWING/HANDLING: Responsible for removing, carrying and installing the wheel chocks. This individual escorts the aircraft while being moved and is always alert and ready to chock the aircraft.
AIRCRAFT TOWING/HANDLING: Primarily responsible for ensuring that the aircraft is ready to be towed and that there is ample clearance for the aircraft. They are positioned at the wing tips and tail of the aircraft.
AIRCRAFT TOWING/HANDLING: Responsible for the safe and slow movement of the aircraft from hook up to the final parking spot. This individual is responsible directly to the Move Director and must be fully qualified and licensed for the equipment they are operating.
Force Protection Condition
What does FPCON stand for?
Increase the level of a unit's defense against terrorist attacks.
What are FPCONs designed to do?
Commanders at any level
Who can set the FPCON level?
Who can set a higher FPCON if the local situation warrants?
FORCE PROTECTION MEASURE: Applies when a general global threat of possible terrorist activity exists and warrants a routine security posture.
FORCE PROTECTION MEASURE: Applies when there is an increased general threat of possible terrorist activity against personnel or facilities, the nature and extent of which are unpredictable.
FORCE PROTECTION MEASURE: Applies when an increased or more predictable threat of terrorist activity exists.
FORCE PROTECTION MEASURE: Applies when an incident occurs intelligence is received indicating some form of terrorist activity action or targeting against personnel or facilities is likely.
FORCE PROTECTION MEASURE: Applies in the immediate area where a terrorist attack has occurred or when intelligence is received that terrorist action against a specific location or person is imminent.
Defense Readiness Condition
What does DEFCON stand for?
An alert posture used by the United States Armed Forces
What is DEFCON?
Joint Chiefs of Staff, unified, and specified combatant commands
Who developed the DEFCON system?
How many levels of DEFCON are there?
Which DEFCON is the least severe?
Which DEFCON is the most severe?
Normal peacetime readiness
Describe DEFCON 5
DEFENSE READINESS CONDITION: Normal, increased intelligence and strengthened security measures
DEFENSE READINESS CONDITION: Increase in force readiness above normal readiness
DEFENSE READINESS CONDITION: Further increase in force readiness, but less than maximum
Maximum force readiness
Describe DEFCON 1
Naval Aviation Maintenance Program
What does NAMP stand for?
The objective the NAMP
Which programs objective involves achieving and continually improving aviation material readiness and safety standards established by the CNO/COMNAVAIRFOR?
What does MO stand for?
MO (Maintenance Officer)
AVIATION MAINTENANCE PERSONAL: As head of the Maintenance Department, this person manages the department and is responsible to the CO for the accomplishment of the department's mission.
Aircraft Maintenance Officer
What does AMO stand for ?
AMO (Aircraft Maintenance Officer)
AVIATION MAINTENANCE PERSONAL: Assistant head of the maintenance department. This person shall assist the MO in the performance of duties and keep the MO fully informed of matters concerning the department.
Maintenance/Material Control Officer
What does MMCO stand for?
MMCO (Maintenance/Material Control Officer)
AVIATION MAINTENANCE PERSONAL: Responsible for the overall production and material support of the department. This person coordinates and monitors the department workload while maintaining liaison with supporting activities and the Supply Department to ensure requirements and workload are known and satisfied.
Maintenance Master Chief Petty Officer
What does MMCPO stand for?
MMCPO (Maintenance Master Chief Petty Officer)
AVIATION MAINTENANCE PERSONAL: Senior enlisted advisor for the Maintenance Department, reports to the MO and advises the CO in all matters affecting aircraft operations, aircraft maintenance, and department personnel.
Quality Assurance Officer
What does QAO stand for?
QAO (Quality Assurance Officer)
AVIATION MAINTENANCE PERSONAL: Ensures that personnel assigned to perform QA functions receive continuous training in inspecting, testing, and quality control methods specifically applicable to their area of assignment.
Maintenance Control Officer
What does MCO stand for?
MCO (Maintenance control officer)
AVIATION MAINTENANCE PERSONAL: Supply corps officers assigned to a deployable squadron will be assigned as the MCO for the handling of finances, material requisition etc.
The NAMO is founded upon how many different levels of maintenance?
MAINTENANCE CONCEPTS: Maintenance which is performed by an operation unit on a day-to-day basis in support of its own operations. The main mission is to maintain assigned aircraft and aeronautical equipment in a full mission capable status.
MAINTENANCE CONCEPTS: Maintenance mission is to enhance and sustain the combat readiness and mission capability of supported activities by providing quality and timely material support at the nearest location with the lowest practical resource expenditure.
MAINTENANCE CONCEPTS: Performed at or by FRC sites to ensure continued flying integrity of airframes and flight systems during subsequent operational service periods. This level of maintenance is also performed on material requiring major overhaul or rebuilding of parts, assemblies, subassemblies, and end items.
MAINTENANCE CONCEPTS: Restorative or additive work performed on aircraft, aircraft equipment, and aircraft SE at FRC's, contractors' plants, and such other industrial establishments designated by TYCOMs (Type Commander).
MAINTENANCE CONCEPTS: Preventative, restorative, or additive work performed on aircraft, equipment, and SE by operating units and aircraft SE activities.
MAINTENANCE CONCEPTS: Conducted between flights to ensure the integrity of the aircraft for flight, verifies proper servicing, and detects degradation that may have occurred during the previous flights. Good for 24 hours, provided that no flight occurs during this period and no maintenance other than servicing was performed.
MAINTENANCE CONCEPTS: Conducted to inspect for defects to a greater depth than the turnaround inspection. It is valid for 72 hours without flight or major maintenance and the aircraft can be flown for 24 hours before another daily is needed as long as it doesn't surpass the 72 hour limit.
MAINTENANCE CONCEPTS: This inspection is a scheduled inspection with a prescribed interval other than daily or phase. The intervals are specified in the applicable PMS publication and are based on elapsed calendar time, flight hours, operating hours, or number of cycles or events.
MAINTENANCE CONCEPTS: Conditional maintenance requirements are unscheduled events required as the result of a specific over limit condition, or as a result of circumstances or events which create an administrative requirement for an inspection.
MAINTENANCE CONCEPTS: This inspection divides the total schedule maintenance requirement into smaller packages, or phases of the same work content. These are done sequentially and at specified intervals.
MAINTENANCE CONCEPTS: Performed at the time a reporting custodian accepts a newly assigned aircraft or support equipment from any source and on return of an aircraft from SDLM (Scheduled Depot Level Maintenance) or other major depot level maintenance.
MAINTENANCE CONCEPTS: Performed at the time a reporting custodian transfers an aircraft or support equipment.
Reliability Centered Maintenance
What does RCM stand for?
Process to ensure that assets continue to do what their users require in their present operating context.
MAINTENANCE & PRODCTION CONTROL: "The efficient attainment of objectives."
MAINTENANCE & PRODCTION CONTROL: "All actions taken to retain material in a serviceable condition or to restore it to serviceability."
MAINTENANCE & PRODCTION CONTROL: "The actions necessary to retain or restore material or equipment to a serviceable condition with minimum expenditure of resources."
The level of maintenance at which the duties are performed.
What is the main difference between maintenance control and production control?
Maintenance control is at this level...
Production control is at this level...
Release of an aircraft safe for flight and the acceptance of the aircraft.
What are the 2 most critical aspects in Naval Aviation?
Monthly Maintenance Plan
What does MMP stand for?
Provide scheduled control of the predictable maintenance workload.
What is the purpose of the MMP?
MAINTENANCE & PRODCTION CONTROL: Hardbound record of equipment, inspections, scheduled removal items, and installed equipment.
What does QA stand for?
This concept is fundamentally the prevention of the occurrence of defects.
Quality Assurance Representative
What does QAR stand for?
QAR (Quality Assurance Representative)
QUALITY ASSURANCE: The maintenance personnel assigned to QA are known as...
Collateral Duty QAR
What does CDQAR stand for?
CDQAR (Collateral Duty QAR)
QUALITY ASSURANCE: Although they are assigned to production work centers, they function in the same capacity as QARs and must meet the same qualifications...
Collateral Duty Inspector
What does CDI stand for?
CDI (Collateral Duty Inspector)
QUALITY ASSURANCE: Assigned to production work centers are to inspect all work and comply with the required QA inspections during all maintenance actions performed by their respective work centers...
QA (Quality Assurance)
They insure the workcenters and personnel are doing maintenance in accordance with the NAMP and all applicable instructions.
Central Technical Publications Library
What does CTPL stand for?
CTPL (Central Technical Publications Library)
QUALITY ASSURANCE: Provides a central source of up-to-date information for use by all personnel in the performance of their work.
Maintenance Department/Division Safety
QUALITY ASSURANCE: QA is assigned overall responsibility for this; however, the intent is not to conflict with any portion of the activity's overall safety program but to assist in coordination of the total safety effort.
Quality assurance audit program
QUALITY ASSURANCE: An assessment of the effectiveness of programs managed within the Maintenance Department.
What are the 2 types of QA audits?
At any time or when a new work supervisor is assigned.
When can a special audit by QA be requested?
When are workcenter audits conducted?
QUALITY ASSURANCE: These type of audits evaluate specific programs, providing a systematic and coordinated method of identifying deficiencies and determining adequacy of and adherence to technical publications and instructions...
Improper use of SE can result in this type of report...
Aircraft Confined Space Program
What does ACSP stand for?
ACSP (Aircraft Confined Space Program)
The objective of this program is to ensure a safe environment is maintained when working on aeronautical equipment fuel cells and tanks.
Naval Aviation Maintenance Discrepancy Reporting Program
QA maintains the program binder and assists with the reporting of substandard workmanship, improper QA procedures, and deficiencies in material and publications.
JDRS (Joint discrepancy reporting system)
What other program might QA use aside from NAMDRP?
Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures Standardization
What does NATOPS stand for?
Improving combat readiness and achieving a substantial reduction in the aircraft mishap rate
Describe the 2 main goals of NATOPS.
What year was NATOPS established in the United States Navy?
In 1950 the US Navy/Marine Corps lost how many aircraft? (HINT: roughly 2 airplanes per day or rate of 54 major mishaps per 10,000 flight hours.)
What year was the angled flight deck introduced into the US Navy?
19 major mishaps
By 1961 how many major mishaps occurred per 10,000 flight hours?
9 major mishaps
By 1970 how many major mishaps occurred per 10,000 flight hours?
In what year was the NAMP introduced into the US Navy?
FRS (Fleet Replacement Squadron)
This second standardization initiative began in 1961...
Before starting an engine
The wheels of the aircraft shall be chocked and the parking brake set unless a deviation from this requirement is specifically authorized by the applicable model NATOPS manual shall be done before doing what?
Foreign Object Damage
What does FOD stand for?
An operating procedure, practice, or condition, etc., that may result in INJURY OR DEATH if not carefully observed or followed.
An operating procedure, practice, or condition, etc., that may result in DAMAGE TO THE EQUIPMENT if not carefully observed or followed.
An operating procedure, practice, or condition, etc., that MUST BE EMPHASIZED.
Means a procedure that is MANDATORY.
Means a procedure that RECOMMENDED.
Means a procedure is OPTIONAL.
Indicates FUTURITY and never indicates any degree of requirement for application of a procedure.
(ATLANTIC) The first character shall be "A through M"; second character "A through Z"
(PACIFIC) The first character shall be "N through Z"; second character "A through Z"
(TRAINING) The first character shall be "A through G"; there is no second character
14 November 1910, Eugene Ely
NAVAL AVIATION HERITAGE: When did the first take-off from a ship occur, and who was the pilot?
NAVAL AVIATION HERITAGE: From which ship did Eugene Ely take off from?
8 May 1911
NAVAL AVIATION HERITAGE: What date is officially proclaimed as the birthday of Naval Aviation?
20 June 1913
NAVAL AVIATION HERITAGE: When was the first fatality of Naval Aviation?
22 October 1917
NAVAL AVIATION HERITAGE: When was the first Inspector School established?
20 March 1922
NAVAL AVIATION HERITAGE: The Jupiter, a former collier or coal-carrier, was re-commissioned after conversion to the Navy's first carrier, the USS LANGLEY (CV-1) on this date.
10 March 1948
NAVAL AVIATION HERITAGE: FJ-1 Fury, the first Navy jet made its first carrier landing on the USS BOXER (CV-21).
7-8 May 1942
NAVAL AVIATION HERITAGE: Battle at Coral Sea occurred on these days.
3-5 June 1942
NAVAL AVIATION HERITAGE: Battle of Midway, known as the turning point in the Pacific War, occurred on these days.
13-15 November 1942
NAVAL AVIATION HERITAGE: The Battle of Guadalcanal occurred during these days.
THE PHYSICS OF FLIGHT: The act, or process of changing place or position.
THE PHYSICS OF FLIGHT: The rate of change of the speed and or velocity of matter with time.
THE PHYSICS OF FLIGHT: The rate of MOVEMENT in terms of distance measured in an allotted amount of time.
THE PHYSICS OF FLIGHT: The QUICKNESS or speed of an object in a given time and direction.
Newton's First Law
THE PHYSICS OF FLIGHT: An object at rest will remain at rest, or an object in motion will continue in motion at the same speed and in the same direction, until acted upon by an outside force.
Newton's Second Law
THE PHYSICS OF FLIGHT: If an object moving with uniform speed is acted upon by an external force, the change of motion, or acceleration, will be directly proportional to the amount of force and inversely proportional to the mass of the object being moved.
Newton's Third Law
THE PHYSICS OF FLIGHT: (Action and Reaction) States that for every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.
THE PHYSICS OF FLIGHT: When a fluid flowing through a tube reaches a constriction or narrowing of the tube, the speed of the fluid passing through the constriction is increased and it s pressure decreased.
THE PHYSICS OF FLIGHT: The force that acts, in an upward direction, to support the aircraft in the air. It counteracts the effects of weight. Lift must be greater than or equal to weight if flight is to be sustained.
THE PHYSICS OF FLIGHT: The force of gravity acting downward on the aircraft and everything on the aircraft.
THE PHYSICS OF FLIGHT: The force that tends to hold an aircraft back. Drag is caused by the disruption of the air about the wings, fuselage or body, and all protruding objects on the aircraft. This resists motion.
THE PHYSICS OF FLIGHT: The force developed by the aircraft's engine, and it acts in the forward direction. Thrust must be greater than or equal to the effects of drag in order for flight to begin or be sustained.
THE PHYSICS OF FLIGHT: An imaginary reference line running down the center of the aircraft between the nose and tail.
THE PHYSICS OF FLIGHT: An imaginary reference line running parallel to the wings.
THE PHYSICS OF FLIGHT: An imaginary reference line running from the top to the bottom of the aircraft.
THE PHYSICS OF FLIGHT: (Roll) Longitudinal axis
THE PHYSICS OF FLIGHT: (Pitch) Lateral axis
THE PHYSICS OF FLIGHT: (Yaw) Vertical axis
THE PHYSICS OF FLIGHT: (Roll/pitch) Tilts the plane (angle) of the rotor blades forward, aft or sideways, giving the helicopter its directional motion by changing the direction of the lift; from vertical to a varying degree based on a 0 degree centerline.
THE PHYSICS OF FLIGHT: (Yaw) This component counteracts torque of the main rotor by increasing or decreasing the amount or horizontal thrust the tail rotor produces, this movement is around the vertical axis.
THE PHYSICS OF FLIGHT: (Leading/trailing edge) Creates extra lift by lengthening the top section of the wing resulting in maximum lift to reduce takeoff runs and landing rollout.
THE PHYSICS OF FLIGHT: Used to decrease or spoil wing lift by destroying the smooth flow of air over the wing surfaces, this creates a more predictable landing glideslope.
THE PHYSICS OF FLIGHT: Hinged or moveable control surfaces used for reducing the speed of aircraft. Location varies on the model of aircraft; however the purpose remains the same.
THE PHYSICS OF FLIGHT: Movable control surfaces attached to the leading edge of the wing.
THE PHYSICS OF FLIGHT: The main rotor of the helicopter consists of 2 or more rotor blades through the air at a high rate of speed.
Angle of Attack (AoA)
THE PHYSICS OF FLIGHT: The angle at which the airfoil or fuselage meets a flow of air.
THE PHYSICS OF FLIGHT: A method of allowing a helicopter to land safely form altitude without using engine power.
The following are components of what system? Reservoir, pump, tubing, selector valve, and an actuating unit.
Shock Strut Assembly
THE PHYSICS OF FLIGHT: Absorbs the shock that otherwise would be sustained by the airframe.
THE PHYSICS OF FLIGHT: Allows the aircraft to roll easily and provides traction during takeoff and landing.
Wheel Brake Assembly
THE PHYSICS OF FLIGHT: Used to slow and stop the aircraft. Also used to prevent the aircraft from rolling while parked.
Retracting and Extending Mechanism
THE PHYSICS OF FLIGHT: All the necessary hardware to electrically or hydraulically extend and retract the landing gear.
Side Struts and Supports
THE PHYSICS OF FLIGHT: Provides lateral strength/support for the landing gear.
Naval Aviation Logistics Command Management Information Systems
NALCOMIS and OOMA/OIMA: This program is a management tool that provides essential, real time information on a continuing basis through the online Visual Electronic Displays (VEDs) and MAINT-1 through -6 reports as well as Adhoc data extraction.
NALCOMIS and OOMA/OIMA: 9 character alphanumeric code that is the basis for data collection.
NALCOMIS and OOMA/OIMA: Prefilled based on the type of WO selected.
NALCOMIS and OOMA/OIMA: 2 character code that describes the type of maintenance to be performed.
Accumulated Job Status History
NALCOMIS and OOMA/OIMA: The history of the WO from start to finish.
NALCOMIS and OOMA/OIMA: To include the workers name, tools used, the QA/CDI that inspected them and the hours they worked.
NALCOMIS and OOMA/OIMA: This identifies the workcenter responsible to complete the maintenance action.
Work Unit Code
NALCOMIS and OOMA/OIMA: A numeric or alpha-numeric code that identifies the system or subsystem of the malfunction.
NALCOMIS and OOMA/OIMA: What does DM stand for?
NALCOMIS and OOMA/OIMA: What does TS stand for?
NALCOMIS and OOMA/OIMA: What does CM stand for?
NALCOMIS and OOMA/OIMA: What does AD stand for?
Facilitate Other Maintenance
NALCOMIS and OOMA/OIMA: What does FO stand for?
Conditional Look Phase
NALCOMIS and OOMA/OIMA: What does CL stand for?
Conditional Fix Phase
NALCOMIS and OOMA/OIMA: What does CF stand for?
Special Inspection One Workcenter
NALCOMIS and OOMA/OIMA: What does SX stand for?
Special Inspection Control
NALCOMIS and OOMA/OIMA: What does SC stand for?
NALCOMIS and OOMA/OIMA: What does TD stand for?
NALCOMIS and OOMA/OIMA: Accurate documentation must be a continuous concern throughout NALCOMIS is known as what?
PLATFORMS AND MISSIONS: Key capability that establishes maritime forces in regions throughout the world.
PLATFORMS AND MISSIONS: Aligned to the national belief that preventing wars is as important as winning wars.
PLATFORMS AND MISSIONS: Protects the ability to operate freely at sea and is an important enabler of joint and interagency operations.
PLATFORMS AND MISSIONS: The ability to project from the sea is the essential combat element of the Maritime Strategy.
PLATFORMS AND MISSIONS: The maintenance of security at sea and the mitigation of threats short of war.
Humanitarian Assistance/Disaster Relief
PLATFORMS AND MISSIONS: A human obligation and a foundation of human character.
Helicopter Sea Combat (HSC)
AVIATION COMMUNITIES: These units perform rescue, logistics, mine countermeasures, and eventually combat search-and-rescue missions.
Helicopter Maritime Strike (HSM)
AVIATION COMMUNITIES: Tasked with the primary roles of antisubmarine and anti-surface warfare, and secondary roles of logistics and rescue.
Helicopter Training (HT)
AVIATION COMMUNITIES: Provides basic and advanced training of student Naval Aviators in rotary wing aircraft.
Tactical Electronic Warfare (VAQ)
AVIATION COMMUNITIES: Fixed wing squadrons that tactically exploit, suppresses, degrade and deceive enemy electromagnetic defensive and offensive systems including communication, in support of air strike and fleet operations.
Carrier Airborne Early Warning (VAW)
AVIATION COMMUNITIES: Fixed wing carrier based squadrons that provide early warning against weather, missiles, shipping and aircraft.
Fleet Composite (VC)
AVIATION COMMUNITIES: Fixed wing utility squadrons providing air services for the fleet such as simulations and target towing.
Strike Fighter (VFA)
AVIATION COMMUNITIES: Fixed wing squadrons employed for both fighter and attack missions.
AVIATION COMMUNITIES: Fixed wing land based squadrons that perform anti-submarine warfare, anti-submarine warfare, anti-surface warfare, reconnaissance and mining.
Fleet Air Reconnaissance (VQ)
AVIATION COMMUNITIES: Fixed wing squadrons that provide electronic warfare support to include search, interception, recording, and analysis of radiated electromagnetic energy. Selected squadrons serve as elements of the Worldwide Airborne Command Post System and provide communications relay services.
Aircraft Logistics Support (VR)
AVIATION COMMUNITIES: Fixed wing squadrons that transport of personnel and supplies.
Carrier Logistics Support (VRC)
AVIATION COMMUNITIES: Fixed wing squadrons that transport personnel and supplies for carrier onboard delivery.
AVIATION COMMUNITIES: Fixed wing squadrons that provide basic and advanced training for student Naval Aviators and flight officers.
Air Test and Evaluation (VX/VXE)
AVIATION COMMUNITIES: Fixed wing squadrons that test and evaluate the operational capabilities of new aircraft and equipment in an operational environment. They develop tactic and doctrines for their most effective use.
AVIATION COMMUNITIES: How many Aviation Communities are there?
What does HAZMAT stand for?
Any material that, because of its quantity, concentration, or physical or chemical characteristics, may pose a substantial hazard to human healthy or the environment when purposefully released or accidentally spilled.
Weekly and quarterly
How often should HAZMAT stowage locations be inspected?
Material Safety Data Sheet
What does MSDS stand for?
This is the technical bulletins containing information about materials, such as composition, chemical and physical characteristics, health and safety hazards, and precautions for safe handling and use.
How many categories of HAZMAT are there?
Flammable or combustible materials, aerosol containers, toxic materials, corrosive materials (including acids and bases), oxidizing materials, and compressed gases
Name the 6 categories of HAZMAT.
Authorized User List
What does AUL stand for?
Planned Maintenance System
What does PMS stand for?
What are Type I maintenance hangars primarily designed for?
Type I maintenance hangar
HANGAR FAMILIARIZATION: 235 feet wide by 85 feet deep
Type II maintenance hangar
HANGAR FAMILIARIZATION: This hangar is primarily provided for US Marine Corps Aviation. It accommodates H-53 Helicopters, V-22 Ospreys and C-130 Hercules aircraft...
119 feet wide by 325 feet deep
HANGAR FAMILIARIZATION: What is the bay module for a Type II maintenance hangar?
Type III maintenance hangar
HANGAR FAMILIARIZATION: This hangar is principally designed for land based patrol and large transport aircraft...
165 feet wide by 165 feet deep
HANGAR FAMILIARIZATION: What is the bay module for a Type III maintenance hangar?
Enlisted Aviation Warfare Specialist (EAWS) Common Core390 terms