BAT Challenger 604 Complete Card Set
Terms in this set (91)
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What are the respective maximum ramp and takeoff weights of the Challenger 604 aircraft?
48,300 lb/48,200 lb
What is the maximum landing weight of the Challenger 604 aircraft?
Which publications are required onboard during flight?
FCOM 1 and 2
Flight Planning and Cruise Control Manual
Weight and Balance Manual
QRH 1 and 2
MEL (if applicable)
List the possible entry and exit points in the aircraft
Which bleed-air manifold supplies air to operate the packs?
What percentage of conditioned air is distributed to the cabin and cockpit from the left and right packs?
Left pack: 60% cockpit / 40% cabin
Right pack: 100% cabin
In flight, in which mode do the packs normally operate?
In flight, under which conditions do the packs automatically operate in high mode?
Overpressure or overtemperature
Under which conditions would
ram air be used?
Smoke clearing or
How is cabin pressure in the aircraft normally controlled?
Automatically through the cabin pressure controller (CPC) that electrically controls the primary and secondary outflow valves
In flight, at what differential pressure will the outflow valves automatically open?
-0.5 psid or 9.1 ±0.1 psid
When the EMER DEPRESS switch is pressed, what prevents the cabin altitude from reaching an excessive value?
Cabin altitude limiters calibrated at 14,500 ±500 ft
What immediate actions must be taken when the L JETPIPE OVHT message displays on the EICAS and a "JETPIPE OVERHEAT" aural warning sounds?
1. Disconnect ATS
2. CONFIRM and RETARD L thrust lever slowly until message goes out
Which conditions are required for data concentrator units (DCUs) to inhibit noncritical EICAS caution messages during takeoff?
A/C on ground, both N1 > 79%, airspeed >80 kt
What does the "CAVALRY CHARGE" aural tone indicate?
What is disabled when the DCU 1 (2) switch/light on the AUDIO WARNING panel is pressed and the DISABLE light comes on?
Aural warnings from the selected DCU only
What happens when you press the XFR button on the FCP?
It couples the autopilot to the
copilot side flight director
Name the three modes in which the flight directors (FDs) operate independently.
TO, GA, APPR
Which AFCS operates on emergency power only?
AFCS 1 (FCC 1A and 2A)
What happens if you engage A/P without first selecting a lateral and vertical mode?
A/P engages in
PITCH and ROLL modes
How many yaw dampers and inertial reference systems (IRSs) are needed for autopilot engagement?
At least one yaw damper / 2 IRS
Which conditions cause an automatic disengagement of the autothrottle system (ATS)?
N1 split of 13% or greater,
either thrust reverser unlocks,
N1 speed > 98.4% detected
While climbing, what is the difference between the flight level change (FLC) mode and the vertical speed (VS) mode if the autothrottle system (ATS) is engaged?
FLC: ATS will go into N1 mode;
VS: ATS will go into SPEED mode
What does it mean when a flashing amber AOALIMIT message displays on the mode status display (MSD)?
Indicated airspeed is below 1.2 VS for the selected flap configuration
Using the APU battery, how many APU starts are permissible and what are the limitations when starting the APU with the APU battery?
3 - each of 30-sec continuous cranking, followed by a 20-min wait; followed by 2 further attempts - each of 30-sec continuous cranking.
If still unsuccessful start, no further attempt within 35 min.
What indications will alert that an APU overtemperature has occurred?
APU OVERTEMP warning message displays, aural warning system sounds "APU", APU automatically shuts down
What happens when EMER (on the EMER/NORM switch) on the audio control panel is selected?
Each pilot microphone, headset,
and speaker is connected to the onside radio, bypassing the audio control panel
What is the function of the R/T I/C switch on the audio control panel?
Select between cold or hot mic (respectively)
What are the five sources of AC power for the Challenger 604 aircraft?
What actions must be taken immediately after the EMER PWR ONLY message displays?
1. Pull the ADG manual deploy handle for at least 1 sec, then stow,
2. Check AC ESS BUS is powered,
3. Engage STAB TRIM CH 2,
4. Verify engine instruments (N1, N2, ITT)
What is the bus priority logic for a main AC bus?
Onside GEN, APU GEN,
cross-side GEN, EXT AC
Which buses are powered before/after the BATT MASTER switch on the ELECTRICAL POWER panel has been turned on?
Before: APU BATT DIR BUS, MAIN BATT DIR BUS, EMER BUS
After: APU BATT DIR BUS, MAIN BATT DIR BUS, EMER BUS and BATT BUS
What are the load limits on the main generators and the APU generator?
Main generators: 30 KVA to 35,000 ft then 25 KVA;
APU GEN: 30 KVA
In flight, with battery power only, which bus(es) will be powered?
DC ESS, EMER, BATT, APU BATT DIR, MAIN BATT DIR
Where do oxygen pressure indications display?
EICAS, SUMMARY page, and
oxygen servicing panel
What is the function of the
FDR EVENT switch?
Commands DCUs to place a marker in the FDR memory
for quick data retrieval
At which cabin altitude
do the passenger masks automatically deploy?
14,500 ft ±500 ft
What immediate actions must be taken when a MLG BAY OVHT warning message displays
on the EICAS?
1. Do not exceed 197 KIAS
2. LDG GEAR lever DN
What actions occur when either the LH (RH) ENG FIRE PUSH switch/light is pressed?
Associated engine-driven generator shuts down; Fuel, hydraulic and bleed-air (10th and 14th stages) SOVs close; Igniters on the associated engine are disabled; Engine FIREX bottle 1 and 2 squibs are armed; BOTTLE 1 and 2 ARMED PUSH TO DISCH switch/lights illuminate
Which electrical buses power the fire and overheat protection system?
DC BATT BUS
Which electrical buses power the
fire extinguishing system?
DC EMER BUS
What does it mean when the
L (R) ENG SOV message displays
on the EICAS after pressing the
respective ENG FIRE PUSH switch/light?
Associated engine fuel SOV
failed to close
Which EICAS messages display
when there is a short in
an overheat detection loop?
L (R) JETPIPE OVHT FAIL or
L (R) FIRE FAIL or
APU FIRE FAIL
On which side are the aileron/elevator autopilot servos located?
Right side/left side (same as the associated "PULL AND TURN" handle)
What is the purpose of the flight spoiler detent mechanism?
To prevent a "split" greater than 20° between sides in case of input linkage disconnect with spoilers deployed greater than 20°
What is the airspeed limitation for flight spoiler deployment?
No maximum speed for spoiler deployment; min speed for deployment is Vapproach + 10 kt
What is the altitude limitation for flight spoiler deployment?
300 ft AGL
Are the primary flight controls manually or hydraulically actuated? Is there any manual backup?
What aids the crew in directional control during a jammed rudder condition?
Anti-jam breakout mechanism
Which indications tell the pilot there is an aileron power control unit (PCU) dual control valve jam?
AILERON PCU CAS message and an amber "half-moon" symbol on the affected aileron on the FLIGHT CONTROLS synoptic page
What are the static sources for the integrated standby instrument (ISI)?
L and R static ports (S3)
What are the consequences of a total IRS failure on the AFCS and the ATS?
A/C equipped with 3 IRSs: no consequences on AFCS;
A/C equipped with 2 IRSs: loss of autopilot;
If total failure of IRS #1: loss of ATS (regardless of number of IRS equipped)
Which indications display when there is a total single air data computer (ADC) failure?
Airspeed, altitude, and
VSI indications lost and replaced
by red air data flags;
EFIS COMP INOP CAS msg
What is the fuel capacity
of each fuel tank?
MAIN 4860 lbs per wing;
AUX 7168 lb;
TAIL 3112 lb
What does an AUTO TAIL XFER INHIBIT CAS message indicate?
Automatic fuel transfer from TAIL tank to AUXILIARY tank disabled
due low nitrogen pressure in the rotor-burst protection shroud
What are the fuel imbalance limitations for wing tanks in flight, during taxi, takeoff and landing, and for fueling?
In flight: 800 lb;
For taxi, takeoff and landing: 400 lb;
For fueling: 2500 lb
How is fuel from the collector tanks supplied to each
Via L/R main ejectors and/or DC electric boost pumps
Which conditions need to be met for the DC boost pumps to run?
Low pressure detected at the output of a MAIN EJECTOR and affected side BOOST PUMP switch ARMED
What is the purpose of the guarded DUMP switch/light
on the FUEL panel?
To prevent an excessive aft center of gravity if unable to transfer fuel from TAIL tank to AUXILIARY tank
How many hydraulic pumps are on the Challenger 604 aircraft?
With the B pump switches in AUTO, which conditions are required for pumps to operate?
Flaps not at zero and cross-side generator is online (1B and 2B) or either generator 1 or 2 is online (3B)
Which hydraulic system is used to extend and retract the landing gear?
With regards to 1B and 2B pumps, what does load shedding mean?
Either 1B or 2B pump will be automatically disabled in case of a cross-side engine driven generator (EDG) failure to prevent overloading the remaining EDG
During a walkaround with the 3A pump on, what should the accumulator pressure be for hydraulic systems 1, 2, and 3 respectively?
1500 psi, 1500 psi, and 3000 psi
How does the wing anti-ice system operate when in NORM mode and STBY mode?
NORM: anti-ice controller regulates valves to maintain leading edge at 88°C;
STBY: anti-ice controller is bypassed,
valves independently open or close fully; temperature ranges from 49° to 82°C
Which anti-ice ducts trigger
an ANTI-ICE DUCT warning message on the EICAS?
Which conditions indicate
icing in flight?
TAT less than 10°C and
On a walkaround, when there is AC power on the aircraft, what are the safety considerations for the ice detector heaters?
With AC power on the aircraft, ice detector heaters will activate if detector touched
When the manual gear extension handle is pulled,
what lowers the gear?
Nose landing gear:
gravity and airload;
Main landing gear: gravity
What ensures full gear extension?
Nose landing gear: downlock assist springs;
Main landing gear: downlock assist actuators powered by hydraulic system 2
What is the default mode of the proximity sensor electronic unit (PSEU), air or ground? How does the PSEU determine that the aircraft is on the ground?
When 3 of 4 main gear WOW proximity sensors are 'target near'
What is the gear extension
197 kt IAS
Following a loss of pressure in hydraulic systems 2 or 3, the brake accumulators provide pressure for how many brake applications?
With the aircraft unpowered, what is required before the parking brake will hold? Which wheels are braked?
Hydraulic pressure is required
in the inboard brake accumulator;
Inboard main wheels
Which light(s) controlled via the LANDING / TAXI LTS PANEL does(do) not have a ground operation limitation?
NOSE landing light
What do you have to do if you forget to turn off the EMER LTS before APU shutdown at the end of the flight?
Restore AC power,
then turn off EMER LTS
Which indications display on the PFDs to differentiate between an increasing and a decreasing performance windshear?
Increasing = amber;
Decreasing = red
What action must be taken when
the "LPV NOT AVAILABLE" displays
on the CDU?
Select BARO on the ARRIVAL DATA page and use LNAV/VNAV minima
Where must the
altitude pre-selector be to enable
the capture of a VNAV descent?
Below the current aircraft altitude
What is the function of 14th-stage bleed air? What is the function of 10th-stage bleed air?
14th: wing and cowl anti-ice or thrust reversers operation;
10th: packs or engine starting
When is the APU LCV interlock protection function activated?
APU LCV selected open and either left 10TH SOV switch/light pressed in OR right 10TH SOV switch/light pressed in with ISOL valve selected open
What are the fail-safe positions
of the 14th-stage SOVs?
What is the minimum air pressure needed from an external air cart?
What does the REVERSER UNLOCK CAS message indicate?
Reverser has moved more than
1/4 in. out of stowed position
Under which conditions must continuous ignition be used?
Takeoffs with high crosswind, takeoffs and landings on contaminated runways, flight through moderate to severe turbulences, moderate to heavy rain, vicinity of thunderstorm
Below 79% N1, is the engine
in N1 or N2 speed control?
What does that mean?
N2 control; matched thrust lever settings produce matched N2 RPM
Engine air starts should not be attempted above which altitude?
What could be expected if an
ENGINE SPEED switch is moved from ON to OFF at high power settings?
Engine will immediately revert to N2 speed control; Rapid increase in engine acceleration will occur, and N1, N2, and ITT temperature limits may be exceeded
What are the limitations on the use of thrust reversers?
Do not use to back up; Ground use only—60% below 60 KIAS on landing; Max crosswind component of 24 kt approved for use; No takeoff with REV icon or UNLOCKED/UNSAFE EICAS message
Which procedure must be followed under cold soak conditions?
Motor the engines for 60 sec and confirm fan rotation before attempting a start; Deploy and stow the TRs until each cycle is 5 sec or less
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