NASM Study Cards
Terms in this set (349)
When a person sees an exercise, they can then imitate the action
Two Test for Cardiorespiratory Efficiency
YMCA Step Test and Rockport Walk Test
Verbal descriptions and creative explanations
Example: placing hand on muscle needed to be worked
study of the cellular functions in the human body during and after exercise
Most basic unit of life
does not require oxygen to function
Phosphagen System (ATP/Creatine Phosphate)
Adenosine Triphosphate: body's currency for immediate energy, Anaerobic, fueled by creatine phosphate, lasts less than 10 seconds, 95-100% effort, no oxygen involved
Skeletal Muscle Tissue
attached to tendons, named based on location
Slow Twitch Fibers
type 1, fatigue resistant and how low glycotic capacity, red due to high blood vessel count
Fast Twitch Fibers
Type II: Type IIa - pink muscle fibers, Type IIb - white muscle fibers
Cardio Muscle System
Origin of Muscle
attachment nearest to the midline of the body and/or end attached to least movable bond
muscle responsible for causing desired motion, aka prime mover
muscles that directly oppose agonist muscle
contract isometrically at a joint but do not contribute to the motion
distal is close to joint axis, major rotary component: muscle crosses the joint it is moving
distal tendon far from joint axis and are joint stabilizers: lies against the bone it is moving
high in slow twitch fibers, penniform arrangement, deep placement and crosses one joint: joint stability
High in fast twitch fibers, parallel arrangement, superficial placement, crosses more than one joint: mobility
muscles that cross two joints are able to produce motion at more than one joint, more susceptible to active and passive insufficiency
shortening of muscle fibers: weakest contraction
Lengthening of muscle fibers: strongest contraction
contraction of muscle fibers with no visual movement: middle contraction
chemical messengers in endocrine glands
Testes and ovaries and minimal through adrenal gland: males have 40-60% more but females are more sensitive to the hormone
Growth Hormone (GH)
pituitary gland, at peak during adolescence
Adrenal gland, catabolic and causes a breakdown of protein in the muscle, greater effect in fast twitch
Fight or Flight Hormones
Epinephrine, norepinephrine and dopamine released by adrenal gland in response to stress
provides continuous influx of oxygen and nutrients and provides an outlet for carson dioxide and waste
pressure in the arteries during systole and disastole cycle
Systole or Systolic Phase
pressure of arteries during ventricle contraction
Diastole or Diastolic Phase
pressure of arteries in ventricle filling
result of stroke volume X heartbeats per minute
rate at which the heart pumps blood
quantity of blood ejected with each stroke
Max Heart Rate
Theoretical beats per minute a heart can pump (decreases with age)
MaxHR = 220-AGE = MHR (age predicted max heart rate)
Myocardium with four chambers: 2 atria and 2 ventricles
top chamber, serves as temporary storage for blood immediately before it is flushed into ventricles
bottom chamber, main heart pumps
main artery that supplies blood to the myocardium
abruptbly stopping rigorous activity resulting in polled blood in extremities
Systematic Effects of Cardio
increased stroke volume, increased oxygen utilization, decreased BP, and decreased resting HR
Peripheral Effects of Cardio
increased number and size of mitochondria, increased glycogen, increased release of fatty acids, and increased capacity to oxidize fat
Excess Post-exercise Oxygen Consumption (EPOC)
oxygen debt, body resorting itself to pre-exercise state, thusly consuming oxygen at an elevated rate
Common sign, resting with no activity is too high
Multiplanar single leg box hop
A stressor leading to injury
Seated Cables Rows are which type of exercise
What type of cardio exercise would you not do with a client with a low back arch
Recommended NASM cardio Warm up time
Recommended hold time for self-myfascial release
What muscle is under active when feet turn out during squats?
Which muscle is lengthened with lower crossed syndrome?
Which muscle is shortened with upper crossed syndrome?
What type of set increasing weight with each set
concentrically accelerates hip extension and external rotation
Shoulder extension, adduction and internal rotation
What is it called when the body uses path of least resistance?
Pushup position, touching other hand one at a time: upper extremity stability and agility
What do Beta-blockers do?
Example of a total body strength exercise
squat, curl to 2 arm press
An example of why Horizontal loading in bad
increased rest time
What % do should you increase weight after set
When to measure resting HR
What is the HR for zone 3
What type of exercise is a single-leg power step up?
What should you be assessing with a lateral view of a squat?
Lumbo pelvic hip complex and shoulder complex
What is a clients target HR for zone 2
220 - age X zone 2 (76-85%)
What type of set should you begin with new clients?
involves dynamic concentric and eccentric balance with full ROM
How should a foot land during speed, agility and quickness exercises?
Straight forward and dorsiflexed
What is the purpose of Phase 1 in NASM: Stability Training
What muscle concentrically accelerates plantar flexion?
Beginner core exercise
Floor prone cobra
What type of exercise is a standing cable row?
What is a full body stabilization exercise?
multi planar step to balance, curl to press
What is the best example to improve agility, speed and quickness?
ladder 1 ins
Pronated Distortion Syndrome
flat feet, adducted internally and rotated knees
Example of a core power exercise
rotation chest pass
Zone 3 Cardio example
What muscle supports the global stabilization system
Workout incorporating strength and cardio
tensor fasciae latae: hip abductor
Vastus médiales oblique
Peripheral heart action
A resistance training system that is a variation of circuit training and that alternates upper body and lower body exercises throughout the circuit is called?
A squat, curl, to two-arm press exercise is an example of an exercise from which phase in the OPT model?
The dividing of a training program into smaller, progressive stages is termed?
What is a goal of Phase Five: Power Training?
Enhance neuromuscular efficiency
What is the best definition of neuromuscular efficiency?
Ability of neuromuscular system to enable all muscles to efficiently work together in all planes of motion.
What is the best example of performing an exercise in a proprioceptively enriched environment?
DB Chest press on stability ball
What is the immediate progression of the two-arm ball squat, curl to press exercise?
Alternating-arm ball squat, curl to press
What is the proper method of progression for the stabilization phase?
Which of the following is a regression of the two-leg, alternating-arm standing cable row exercise?
Seated cable row
Which term refers to the energy demand placed on the body?
During a pushing assessment your client's shoulders elevate, which of the following muscles would most likely be underactive?
mid and lower traps
During a single-leg squat assessment your client's knees move inward, which of the muscles would most likely be overactive?
What describes the alignment of the musculoskeletal system that allows our center of gravity to be maintained over our base of support?
Which of the following would be for best for measuring body fat percentages in an obese client?
What is the gastrocnemius responsible for concentrically accelerating?
What muscle is responsible for concentrically accelerating hip extension and external rotation?
When performing the overhead squat assessment from the anterior view, which areas should the fitness professional focus on?
Feet, ankles and knees
Which of the following is considered objective information?
Body comp testing
Which of the following assessments is used to gauge lower extremity agility and neuromuscular control?
Shark skill tests
Shark Skill Test
9 square test on one leg
refers to a reduction in excitability of a contracting or stretched muscle, that in the past has been solely attributed to the increased inhibitory input arising from Golgi tendon organs (GTOs) within the same muscle.
describes the process of muscles on one side of a joint relaxing to accommodate contraction on the other side of that joint.
What is the best example of a zone two cardiorespiratory workout?
group exercise class
Low end of zone 3 HR
normal extensibility of soft tissues that allow full ROM
tendency of body to seek path of least resistance
Internal oblique is apart of?
local stabilization system
Altered Reciprocal Inhibition
is the concept of muscle inhibition caused by a tight agonist, which decreases neural drive of its functional antagonist
dynamically stabilize and generate force at more functionally applicable speeds
strengthening of the corset of muscles surrounding the back and abdomen: two leg floor bridge
With the movement compensation of arms fall forward, for what area would a client use foam rolling and static stretching techniques?
Acute variables determine which of the following?
amount of stress placed on body
During a Phase 3: Hypertrophy workout, what is the recommended rest interval?
During the stabilization phase, which tempo would be most appropriate for resistance training exercises?
In Phase 2: Strength Endurance, how many sets per exercise should be completed?
In Phase 3: Hypertrophy training, what is the appropriate tempo to use for a core exercise?
In the power phase, which of the following supersets would be the most appropriate?
Squat then tuck-jump
In the strength endurance phase, which exercise superset would be most appropriate?
bench press then push up
The adaptation of muscular endurance is achieved by which of the following?
1-3 sets, 12-20 reps at 50% to 70% of the 1RM
When working with loads exceeding 90 percent of maximum a client would not exceed a workout volume of?
When performing a Phase 4 workout, how many repetitions per exercise should be performed?
communication network for human body
ability of nervous system to sense changes to internal or external environment
ability of NS to analyze sensory info allowing for proper responses
Neuromuscular response to sensory info
cumulative sensory input to the central nervous system from mechanoreceptors that sense body position and limb movement
functional unit of the nervous system
Sensory (afferent) neurons
transmit impulses from effector sites (muscles and organs) via receptors to brain and spinal cord
transmit nerve impulses from one neuron to anoth er
Motor (efferent) neurons
transmit nerve impulses from brain and spinal cord to effector sites
Central Nervous System
consists of brain and spinal cord
Peripheral nervous system
cranial and spinal nerves that spread throughout the body
receptors sensitive to change in length of muscle and rate of change
Golgi Tendon Organs
Receptors sensitive to change in tension of the muscle and the rate of that change
receptors around joint that respond to pressure, acceleration and deceleration within joint
bones and joints
held together by joint capsule and ligaments
series of muscles that move skeleton
motor neuron and all muscle fibers it innervates
Chemical messengers that cross synapse to transmit electrical impulses from nerve to muscle
helps regulate energy and glucose metabolism
one of two hormones in pancreas that regulate blood glucose levels, works to raise glucose levels unlike insulin
heart, blood and blood vessels that transport blood from heart to tissues of body
superior heart chamber receiving blood and forcing into ventricles
Inferior heart chamber receiving blood and forces blood into arteries
Amount of blood pumped out of heart each contraction
heart rate X stroke volume
lungs and respiratory organs collecting oxygen from environment and transporting to bloodstream
V02 Max (Maximal Oxygen Consumption)
highest rate of oxygen transport and utilization achieved at maximal physical exertion
energy storage and transfer unit within the cells of the body
High-energy compound occurring in all cells from which ATP is formed
Excess post-exercise oxygen consumption = state in which the body's metabolism is elevated after exercise
Science of internal and external forces acting upon human body
above a reference point
below a point of reference
positioned nearest center of body or point of reference
Positioned farthest from the center of the body or point of reference
Front of the body
Back of body
Toward outside of body
Opposite side of the body
Same side of the body
Wall between front and back
Wall between right and left side
Wall between top and bottom
movement in frontal plane away from body midline
movement in frontal plane toward midline of body
joint toward middles of body
joint away from middle of body
shoulder blades move towards midline
shoulder blades move away from midline
Downward motion of scapula
Upward motion of scapula
Tension while lengthening
Shortening of muscle
branching blood vessel that form a network between the arterioles and venules
Where does reoxygenated blood leave the heart and go to the entire body?
Which of the following are the two most important functions of the skeletal system?
Leverage and support
Which of the following energy pathways is used for activities lasting between 30 and 50 seconds?
What is force-couple relationship?
Muscle groups moving together to produce movement around a joint
force that produces rotation of a bone around a joint
Which of the following is the outermost layer of muscular connective tissue?
Which of the following is the primary function of the muscular system?
command to move the skeletal system
Which of the following muscles aids in breathing after a set of max effort sprints?
During which of the following exercises is fat the preferred form of energy?
Obesity, insulin resistance, and hypertension are all symptoms of which of the following?
To be absorbed effectively, how should calcium supplements be taken?
With meals throughout the day
What is the best method of training for a client with obstructive lung disease?
Peripheral heart action
What should a trainer share with a client regarding carbohydrate intake and weight gain?
Excess intake of any nutrient will cause weight gain
When is it alright for a client to follow a diet that allows consumption of only 800 - 1000 calories per day?
Which of the following defines SMART?
Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Realistic, Timely
Which of the following factors is used to determine progression when working with a youth client?
Which of the following is a preferred exercise when working with a hypertensive client?
Standing torso cable iso-rotation
Which of the following is an example of a non-directive question?
What would you like to achieve?
Which of the following is the fourth step in the stages of change model?
You have a client with the goal of increasing his lean body mass; which of the following is the best recommendation for protein intake?
0.5 to 0.8 g/lb
3 Methods for Body Fat
Underwater, bioelectrical impedance, skin fold
measurable date: body comp, movement assessments and ability
What are the two main calf muscles that are responsible for concentrically accelerating plantar flexion
Gastronemuis and soleus
Name the muscle that is responsible for concentrically accelerating hip extension and external rotation.
Info from client like occupation, lifestyle and medical history
Overactive Muscles when feet turn out on Overhead Squat
Soleus, lateral gastrocnemius, and biceps femoris (short head)
Overactive Muscles when knees move inward on Overhead Squat
Adductor complex, biceps femoris (short head), tensor fascia latae, vastus lateralis
Overactive muscle with forward lean on Overhead Squat
Soleus, gastrocnemius, hip flexor complex, abdominal complex
Name three postural distortion patterns that might be seen during a static postural assessment.
Pronation distortion syndrome, lower crossed syndrome, upper crossed syndrome
Overactive muscle with arched lower back on Overhead Squat
Hip flexor complex, erector spinae, latissimus dorsi
Overactive muscle with arms falling forward on Overhead Squat
Latissimus dorsi, teres major, pectoralis major/minor
During a Pushing assessment, what are the probable overactive muscles when a client's shoulders elevate and/or the head moves forward?
Upper trapezius, sternocleidomastoid, and levator scapulae
Underactive Muscles when feet turn out on Overhead Squat
Medial gastrocnemius, medial hamstring complex, gracilis, sartorius, popliteus
Underactive muscle with arms falling forward on Overhead Squat
Middle/lower trapezius, rhomboids, rotator cuff
During an Overhead Squat assessment, what are the probable underactive muscles when a client shows an excessive forward lean?
Anterior tibialis, gluteus maximus, erector spinae
During an Overhead Squat assessment, what are the probable underactive muscles when a client's low back arches?
Gluteus maximus, hamstring complex, intrinsic core stabilizers
During a Pushing assessment, what are the probable underactive muscles when a client's shoulders elevate?
Middle/ lower trapezius
During a Pushing assessment, what are the probable underactive muscles when a client's head protrudes forward?
Deep cervical flexors
After assessing a client's Overhead Squat, which muscles should you have them foam roll and stretch?
After assessing a client's Overhead Squat, which muscles should you have them strengthen?
Name 2 conditions in which Beta-blockers might be prescribed.
High blood pressure and arrhythmias
Which muscles have decreased neural control once a client has had an ankle sprain?
Gluteus maximus and gluteus medius
Name the muscles involved in respiratory inspiration.
Diaphragm, external intercostals, scalenes, sternocleidomastoid, pectoralis minor
Diaphragm, external intercostals, scalenes, sternocleidomastoid, pectoralis minor
What are three guidelines for the health and fitness professional when taking the radial pulse of a client?
Touch should be gentle, take the pulse when the client is calm, take the pulse over the course of 3 days (at the same time each day) and average the results to ensure accuracy
What are the four skin-fold sites tested when using the Durnin-Womersley formula for body fat assessment?
Biceps, triceps, subscapular, iliac crest
What is the waist-to-hip ratio for males and females that puts them at a greater risk for disease?
A ratio greater than 0.95 for males and greater than 0.80 for females
Muscles that assist the prime movers.
Risk for disease with BMI over
Sensory receptors responsible for sensing distortion in body tissues.
What is the amount of time recovery pulse is taken after completing the YMCA 3- Minute Step Test?
with 5 seconds of completion for 60 seconds
What is the level that a client is instructed to squat to when performing the Overhead Squat assessment?
Golgi Tendon Organs
Receptors sensitive to change in tension of the muscle and the rate of that change
What is the functional unit of the nervous system?
The neuromuscular phenomenon that occurs when inappropriate muscles take over the function of a weak or inhibited prime mover
Compensations observed during the Overhead Squat assessment from the lateral view
Low back arches, excessive forward lean, arms fall forward
Compensations observed during the Overhead Squat assessment from the anterior view
Feet turn out and knees move inward
Name the agonist, synergist, stabilizer, and antagonist muscles activated during a squat exercise
Agonists: Gluteus maximus, quadriceps; Synergists: Hamstring complex; Stabilizer: Transversus abdominis; Antagonist: Psoas
What are some primary causes of muscle imbalance?
Postural stress, emotional duress, repetitive movement, cumulative
trauma, poor training technique
What are possible injuries associated with lower crossed syndrome?
Hamstring complex strain, anterior knee pain, low back pain
Name movement compensations observed during a Pushing assessment.
Low back arches, shoulder elevates, head migrates forward
A layer of connective tissue that is underneath the fascia, and surrounds the muscle.
Name possible injuries associated with pronation distortion syndrome.
Plantar fasciitis, shin splints, patellar tendonitis, low back pain
Average stroke volume of an adult.
Compensations observed during the Overhead Squat assessment from the lateral view.
Low back arches, excessive forward lean, arms fall forward
Name possible injuries associated with upper crossed syndrome.
Headaches, bicep tendonitis, rotator cuff impingement, and thoracic outlet syndrome
The type of flexibility training that applies gentle force to an adhesion, altering the elastic muscle fibers from a bundled position to a straighter alignment with the direction of the muscle and/or fascia.
Cumulative Injury Cycle
Dysfunction within the connective tissue of the kinetic chain that is treated by the body as an injury, initiating this repair process
What are four common ways a stressor causes breakdown or injury?
Stress fractures, muscle strains, joint pain, emotional fatigue
Law stating that soft tissue models along the lines of stress
It is critical that the core training program is designed to achieve these three functional outcomes in the right order.
1. Intervertebral stability, 2. Lumbo- pelvic stability, 3. Movement efficiency
Name five balance-stabilization exercises.
Single-leg Balance, Single-leg Balance Reach, Single-leg Hip Internal and External Rotation, Single-leg Lift and Chop, Single-leg Throw and Catch
Name five balance-strength exercises
Single-leg Squat, Single-leg Squat Touchdown, Single-leg Romanian Deadlift, Step-up to Balance, Multiplanar Lunge to Balance
Name three balance-power exercises.
Multiplanar Hop with Stabilization, Multiplanar Single-leg Box Hop-up with Stabilization, Multiplanar Single-leg Box Hop-down with Stabilization
What are four plyometric-stabilization exercises?
Squat Jump with Stabilization, Box Jump-up with Stabilization, Box Jump- down with Stabilization, Multiplanar Jump with Stabilization
Name four plyometric-strength exercises
Squat Jump, Tuck Jump, Butt Kick, Power Step-up
Name three plyometric-power exercises.
Ice Skater, Single-leg Power Step-up, Proprioceptive Plyometrics
Body position progressions in balance training.
Two-leg stable, single-leg stable, two- legs unstable, single-leg
What are the two techniques used in corrective flexibility according to the integrated flexibility continuum?
SMR (self-myofascial release) and static stretching
Give examples of total-body power exercises
Two-arm Push Press, Barbell Clean, Dumbbell Snatch, Squat Thrust, Kettlebell Hang, Clean and Jerk
Three types of core systems.
Local stabilization system, Global stabilization system, Movement system
What is the minimum duration pressure should be sustained on adhesions while performing self- myofascial release?
What are the seven methods for prescribing exercise intensity?
Peak VO2, VO2 reserve, Peak metabolic equivalent (MET), Peak maximal heart rate, Heart rate reserve, Rating of perceived exertion, Talk test
What are the acute variables for static stretching?
1-2 sets, hold for 30 seconds
When is the appropriate time to utilize dynamic stretching?
After self-myofascial release when training in Phase 5
How long should the cardiorespiratory portion of the warm-up last?
What does F.I.T.T.E. stand for?
Frequency, Intensity, Time, Type, Enjoyment
Name the structures that make up the core.
Lumbo-pelvic-hip complex, pelvic girdle, abdomen, and hip joint
Name the five muscles of the Local Stabilization System of the core.
Transverse abdominis, internal oblique, lumbar multifidus, pelvic floor muscles, diaphragm
Name the four muscles of the movement system of the core.
Latissimus dorsi, hip flexors, hamstring complex, quadriceps
SAID Principle or Principle of Specificity
The principle that states the body will adapt to the specific demands that are placed on it.
What does the acronym SAID in SAID Principle stand for?
Specific Adaptation to Imposed Demands
The three stages in the General Adaptation Syndrome.
Alarm reaction, resistance development, exhaustion
SAQ training can be used with what three nonathletic populations?
Youth, weight-loss clients, seniors
Give examples of total-body stabilization exercises.
Single-leg Squat Touchdown, Curl, to Overhead Press; Single-leg Romanian Deadlift, Curl, to Overhead Press; Single-leg Squat to Row; Ball Squat, Curl, to Press; Multiplanar Step-up Balance, Curl, to Overhead Press
Surface types for proprioceptive progressions during balance include.
Floor, sport beam, half foam roll, foam pad, balance disk, wobble board, BOSU ball
What are six ways to progress plyometric exercises?
Easy to hard, simple to complex, known to unknown, stable to unstable, body weight to loaded, activity-specific
Describe the five kinetic chain checkpoints?
Feet: shoulder-width apart, pointing straight ahead; Knees: in line with the second and third toes; Hips: level with lumbar spine in a neutral position; Shoulders: depressed and slightly retracted; and Head: cervical spine in a neutral position
The position of the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex during running movements.
A slight forward lean with neutral spine
What are the three phases of the integrated flexibility continuum?
Corrective flexibility, active flexibility, functional flexibility
What are the four Ps of marketing?
Product, price, place, promotion
How many calories are in a gram of fat?
Amino acids manufactured by the body from dietary nitrogen, fragments of carbohydrate, and fat
Nonessential amino acids
Name the five stages of change.
1. Precontemplation 2. Contemplation 3. Preparation 4. Action 5. Maintenance
The principles of effective goal setting as reflected by the acronym SMART.
Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Realistic, Timely
Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA)
The average daily nutrient intake level that is sufficient to meet the nutrient requirement of nearly all healthy individuals who are in a particular life stage and gender group.
What is one of the greatest contributions made by dietary complex carbohydrates that is also associated with a lower incidence of heart disease and certain types of cancer?
The daily recommended intake of fiber.
38g for men; 25g for women
What is the recommended protein intake for strength athletes?
1.2-1.7 g/kg (0.5-0.8 g/lb)
The number of amino acids the body uses.
Fatty acids considered to have favorable effects on blood lipid profiles and may play a role in the treatment and prevention of heart disease, hypertension, arthritis, and cancer.
Monounsaturated fatty acids and polyunsaturated fatty acids
What is the number of liters of water recommended for the average sedentary male?
What is the recommended percentage of dietary fat from daily total caloric intake?
Name the eight essential amino acids.
Isoleucine, leucine, lysine, methionine, phenylalanine, threonine, tryptophan, valine
How many calories are contained in 1 pound of body fat?
What three vitamins can cause serious adverse effects such as birth defects, calcification of blood vessels, and damage to sensory nerves.
A, D and B6
What are the risks of following an overly restrictive (very low calorie) diet?
Increased risk of malnutrition; poor energy; behavioral ''pendulum'' swings; minor side effects: fatigue, constipation, nausea, and diarrhea; major side effects: gallstone formation
What are the 10 nonessential amino acids?
Alanine, asparagine, aspartic acid, cysteine, glutamic acid, glutamine, glycine, proline, serine, tyrosine
What are the two semi-essential amino acids?
Arginine and histidine
What percentage of total caloric intake from protein defines a high protein diet?
More than 35%
Name three monosaccharides.
Glucose, fructose, and galactose
Name three disaccharides.
Sucrose, lactose, and maltose
What percentage of the human body by weight is comprised of water?
Name six functions that decrease as a result of dehydration.
Blood volume, performance, blood pressure, sweat rate, cardiac output, blood flow to skin
Name four functions that increase as a result of dehydration.
Core temperature, heart rate, perceived exertion, use of muscle glycogen
The fluid loss of even _____ percent will adversely affect circulatory functions and decrease performance levels.
Name two functions that are retained as a result of dehydration.
Water and Sodium
What is the duration of the post-workout window of opportunity for carbohydrate and protein ingestion?
Name the four nutrients that have the greatest potential for excess dosage in dietary supplements.
A, D, Iron & Zinc
What is a potential result of consuming an excessive amount of Vitamin D?
Calcification of blood vessels and eventually kidney, heart, and lung damage
What is a potential result of consuming an excessive amount of calcium?
What are potential results of consuming an excessive amount of iron?
Interference with absorption of other minerals and gastrointestinal irritation
What is the number of contact hours of continuing education necessary for NASM CPT credential renewal?
20 hours, which equals 2.0 CEUs
Recommended percentage of total caloric intake from carbohydrates.
What is the recommended amount of carbohydrate to be ingested within 30 minutes of exercise in order to maximize recovery?
Name five things carbohydrates provide for the body.
Nutrition, satiety, cellular fluid balance, blood sugar levels, protein conservation
Name four body function processes that are improved with adequate water consumption.
Endocrine gland function, liver function, metabolic function, body temperature regulation
Name three nutrients that should not be around 100% of the DV.
Vitamin A, beta-carotene (contraindicated for smokers), calcium
A unit of expression of energy equal to 1000 calories.
Kilocalorie or Calorie with capital C
How much extra fluid should a person consume for every 15 to 20 minutes of exercise?
Personal trainers have how much time to make a good first impression?
What is the amount of energy expended while at rest? It typically accounts for 70% of total energy expenditure (TEE).
Resting Metabolic Rate
The recommended rest intervals for resistance training in the Hypertrophy Phase of the OPT model.
The recommended reps and sets for resistance training in Phase 1 Stabilization Endurance Training of the OPT model
12-20 reps, 1-3 sets
The recommended rest intervals for resistance training in Phase 1 Stabilization Endurance Training of the OPT model.
What is the recommended number of reps and sets for resistance training in Phase 4 Maximal Strength Training of the OPT Model
1-5 reps, 4-6 sets
A resistance training system that alternates body parts trained from set to set, starting from the upper extremity and moving to the lower extremity.
The resistance training system where the client performs all sets of an exercise or body part before moving on to the next exercise or body part.
The enlargement of skeletal muscle fibers in response to overcoming force from high volumes of tension.
Name six benefits of vibration training.
Improved circulation and cardiovascular function, alleviation of muscle soreness, weight reduction and increased metabolism, increased bone density, increased flexibility and range of motion, improved overall well-being
Name benefits of suspension body- weight training.
Increased muscle activation, low compressive loads to the spine, increased performance, potential increase in caloric expenditure, improvements in cardiovascular fitness
Approximately, what percent recovery of ATP and PC will occur after 60 seconds?
Name the nine acute variables of training.
Repetitions, sets, training intensity, repetition tempo, training volume, rest interval, training frequency, training duration, exercise selection
The type of specificity that refers to the energy demand placed on the body
The type of specificity that refers to the speed of contraction and exercise selection
Name the seven performance benefits achieved when following the OPT model.
Strength, power, endurance, flexibility, speed, agility, and balance
Name six special considerations for clients with hypertension.
Avoid heavy lifting and Valsalva maneuvers, don't let clients over grip equipment, modify tempo to avoid extended isometric and concentric muscle action, perform exercises in standing or seated position, allow client to stand up slowly, progress client slowly
What are two methods of progression in the Maximal Strength Training level of the OPT model?
Increase volume and load
What are two methods of progression in the Power level of the OPT model?
Increase speed and load
What is the correct tempo for plyometric-stabilization exercises
Hold landing for 3-5 seconds
Chronic metabolic disorder, caused by insulin deficiency, which impairs carbohydrate usage and enhances usage of fat and protein
What blood pressure reading defines hypertension?
Greater than or equal to 140/90
Condition in which there is a decrease in bone mass and density as well as an increase in the space between bones, resulting in porosity and fragility.
What are the most appropriate phases of the OPT model to use with an obese client?
Phases 1 and 2
Name special consideration for training a client with arthritis.
Avoid heavy lifting and high repetitions, stay in pain-free ranges of motion, only use SMR if tolerated by the client, there may be a need to start out with just 5 minutes of exercise and progressively increase.
What are the acute variables for active-isolated stretching?
1-2 sets, hold 1-2 seconds, 5-10 repetitions
What are the acute variables for dynamic stretching?
1 set, 10 repetitions, 3-10 exercises
YOU MIGHT ALSO LIKE...
NASM CPT Final Exam 2018
NASM PRACTICE EXAM
Exam 1 Prep - UNCG Kin 265
THIS SET IS OFTEN IN FOLDERS WITH...
NASM STUDY COMPLETE
NASM Muscles (Naming)
NASM CPT Exercise Library