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Instrument Theory- Arrival and Approach
Terms in this set (67)
How is your flight plan closed when your destination airport has IFR conditions and there is no control tower or flight service station (FSS) on the field?
Upon landing, you must close your flight plan by radio or by telephone to any FSS or ATC facility.
When may a pilot cancel the IFR flight plan prior to completing the flight?
Only in VFR conditions when not in Class A airspace.
What does the Runway Visual Range (RVR) value, depicted on certain straight-in IAP Charts, represent?
The horizontal distance a pilot should see when looking down the runway from a moving aircraft.
When are ATIS broadcasts updated?
Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported values.
What is the rule for a pilot receiving a 'Land and Hold Short Operation (LAHSO) clearance?
The pilot has the option to accept or reject all LAHSO clearances regardless of the meteorological conditions.
Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast specifically implies that
the ceiling is more than 5,000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more.
The operation of an airport rotating beacon during daylight hours may indicate that
the ground visibility is less than 3 miles and/or the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet in Class B, C, or D airspace.
When are you required to establish communications with the tower, (Class D airspace) if you cancel your IFR flight plan 10 miles from the destination?
Before entering Class D airspace.
What does the symbol T within a black triangle in the minimums section of the IAP for a particular airport indicate?
Takeoff minimums are not standard and/or departure procedures are published.
If only one missed approach procedure is available, which of the following conditions is required when conducting 'timed approaches from a holding fix'?
The reported ceiling and visibility minimums must be equal to or greater than the highest prescribed circling minimums for the IAP.
Prior to conducting 'timed approaches from a holding fix,' which one of the following is required?
The airport where the approach is to be conducted must have a control tower in operation.
When making a 'timed approach' from a holding fix at the outer marker, the pilot should adjust the
holding pattern to leave the final approach fix inbound at the assigned time.
If the pilot loses visual reference while circling to land from an instrument approach and ATC radar service is not available, the missed approach action should be to
make a climbing turn toward the landing runway and continue the turn until established on the missed approach course.
When the approach procedure involves a procedure turn, the maximum speed should not be greater than
200 knots IAS.
What does the absence of the procedure turn barb on the plan view on an approach chart indicate?
A procedure turn is not authorized.
Which is true regarding STARs?
STARs are established to simplify clearance delivery procedures.
While being radar vectored, an approach clearance is received. The last assigned altitude should be maintained until
established on a segment of a published route or IAP.
If an early missed approach is initiated before reaching the MAP, the following procedure should be used unless otherwise cleared by ATC.
Proceed to the missed approach point at or above the MDA or DH before executing a turning maneuver.
When simultaneous approaches are in progress, how does each pilot receive radar advisories?
On tower frequency.
Precision Runway Monitoring (PRM) is
a radar system for monitoring approaches to closely spaced parallel runways.
During an instrument approach, under what conditions, if any, is the holding pattern course reversal not required?
When radar vectors are provided.
During an instrument precision approach, terrain and obstacle clearance depends on adherence to
minimum altitude shown on the IAP.
Which of the following statements is true regarding Parallel ILS approaches?
Parallel ILS approaches provide aircraft a minimum of 1-1/2 miles radar separation between successive aircraft on the adjacent localizer course.
A pilot is making an ILS approach and is past the OM to a runway which has a VASI. What action should the pilot take if an electronic glide slope malfunction occurs and the pilot has the VASI in sight?
The pilot may continue the approach and use the VASI glide slope in place of the electronic glide slope.
What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period of time?
Light quartering tailwind.
Wake turbulence is near maximum behind a jet transport just after takeoff because
of the high angle of attack and high gross weight.
What effect would a light crosswind of approximately 7 knots have on vortex behavior?
The upwind vortex would tend to remain over the runway.
When landing behind a large jet aircraft, at which point on the runway should you plan to land?
Beyond the jet's touchdown point.
Where may you use a surveillance approach?
At airports for which civil radar instrument approach minimums have been published.
You arrive at your destination airport on an IFR flight plan. Which is a prerequisite condition for the performance of a contact approach?
Clear of clouds and at least 1 SM flight visibility.
Which procedure should be followed by a pilot who is circling to land in a Category B airplane, but is maintaining a speed 5 knots faster than the maximum specified for that category?
Use the approach minimums appropriate for Category C.
How can an IAF be identified on a Standard Instrument Approach Procedure (SIAP) Chart?
All fixes that are labeled IAF.
RVR minimums for landing are prescribed in an IAP, but RVR is inoperative and cannot be reported for the intended runway at the time. Which of the following would be an operational consideration?
RVR minimums which are specified in the procedures should be converted and applied as ground visibility.
Aircraft approach categories are based on
1.3 times the stall speed in landing configuration at maximum gross landing weight.
What are the main differences between a visual approach and a contact approach?
The pilot must request a contact approach; the pilot may be assigned a visual approach and higher weather minimums must exist.
You are being vectored to the ILS approach course, but have not been cleared for the approach. It becomes evident that you will pass through the localizer course. What action should be taken?
Continue on the assigned heading and query ATC.
How is ATC radar used for instrument approaches when the facility is approved for approach control service?
Course guidance to the final approach course, ASR and PAR approaches, and the monitoring of nonradar approaches.
Which pilot action is appropriate if more than one component of an ILS is unusable?
Use the highest minimum required by any single component that is unusable.
Which substitution is permitted when an ILS component is inoperative?
A compass locator or precision radar may be substituted for the ILS outer or middle marker.
What facilities, if any, may be substituted for an inoperative middle marker during an ILS approach without affecting the straight-in minimums?
Substitution not necessary, minimums do not change.
When being radar vectored for an ILS approach, at what point may you start a descent from your last assigned altitude to a lower minimum altitude if cleared for the approach?
When established on a segment of a published route or IAP.
What are the requirements for a contact approach to an airport that has an approved IAP, if the pilot is on an instrument flight plan and clear of clouds?
The pilot must request the approach, have at least 1-mile visibility, and be reasonably sure of remaining clear of clouds.
Under which conditions is hydroplaning most likely to occur?
During conditions of standing water, slush, high speed, and smooth runway texture.
When cleared to execute a published sidestep maneuver for a specific approach and landing on the parallel runway, at what point is the pilot expected to commence this maneuver?
As soon as possible after the runway or runway environment is in sight.
Which information, in addition to headings, does the radar controller provide without request during an ASR approach?
When to commence descent to MDA, the aircraft's position each mile on final from the runway, and arrival at the MAP.
Which of these facilities may be substituted for an MM during a complete ILS IAP?
Compass locator and precision radar.
What conditions are necessary before ATC can authorize a visual approach?
You must have the airport in sight or a preceding aircraft to be followed, and be able to proceed to the airport in VFR conditions.
If all ILS components are operating and the required visual references are not established, the missed approach should be initiated upon
arrival at the DH on the glide slope.
Which fixes on the IAP Charts are initial approach fixes?
Any fix that is identified by the letters IAF.
When may a pilot make a straight-in landing, if using an IAP having only circling minimums?
A straight-in landing may be made if the pilot has the runway in sight in sufficient time to make a normal approach for landing, and has been cleared to land.
A contact approach is an approach procedure that may be used
in lieu of conducting a SIAP.
Under which condition does ATC issue a STAR?
When ATC deems it appropriate, unless the pilot requests 'No STAR.'
If the RVR is not reported, what meteorological value should you substitute for 2,400 RVR?
A ground visibility of 1/2 SM.
While being vectored, if crossing the ILS final approach course becomes imminent and an approach clearance has not been issued, what action should be taken by the pilot?
Maintain the last assigned heading and query ATC.
The RVR minimums for takeoff or landing are published in an IAP, but RVR is inoperative and cannot be reported for the runway at the time. Which of the following would apply?
RVR minimums which are specified in the procedure should be converted and applied as ground visibility.
If the RVR equipment is inoperative for an IAP that requires a visibility of 2,400 RVR, how should the pilot expect the visibility requirement to be reported in lieu of the published RVR?
As a ground visibility of 1/2 SM.
If during an ILS approach in IFR conditions, the approach lights are not visible upon arrival at the DH, the pilot is
required to immediately execute the missed approach procedure.
How can the pilot determine, for an ILS runway equipped with MALSR, that there may be penetration of the obstacle identification surfaces (OIS), and care should be taken in the visual segment to avoid any obstacles?
The published visibility for the ILS is no lower than 3/4 SM.
Immediately after passing the final approach fix inbound during an ILS approach in IFR conditions, the glide slope warning flag appears. The pilot is
permitted to continue the approach and descend to the localizer MDA.
Where a holding pattern is specified in lieu of a procedure turn, the holding maneuver must be executed within
the 1 minute time limitation or DME distance as specified in the profile view.
Which of the following conditions is required before 'timed approaches from a holding fix' may be conducted?
If more than one missed approach procedure is available, none may require a course reversal.
Which substitution is appropriate during an ILS approach?
LOC minimums should be substituted for ILS minimums whenever the glide slope becomes inoperative.
Assume this clearance is received:
'CLEARED FOR ILS RUNWAY 07 LEFT APPROACH, SIDE-STEP TO RUNWAY 07 RIGHT.'
When would the pilot be expected to commence the side-step maneuver?
As soon as possible after the runway environment is in sight.
During a 'no-gyro' approach and prior to being handed off to the final approach controller, the pilot should make all turns
standard rate unless otherwise advised.
After being handed off to the final approach controller during a 'no-gyro' surveillance or precision approach, the pilot should make all turns
one-half standard rate.
When may you obtain a contact approach?
ATC will assign a contact approach only upon request if the reported visibility is at least 1 mile.
A Precision Runway Monitoring (PRM) approach may require
monitoring of two communication frequencies simultaneously.
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