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NASM Review

NASM
Get Quizlet's official NASM - 1 term, 1 practice question, 1 full practice test
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Terms in this set (229)

A synergist muscle function is to
Assist prime mover
ATP stands for
Adenosine Triphosphate.
Force-couple is
Muscle groups moving together to produce movement around a joint
Receptors sensitive to change in length of the muscle and the rate of that change are
Muscle spindles
Peripheral nervous system is composed of the
Cranial and spinal nerves that spread throughout the body
The average resting heart rate for adults is
70-80 bpm
The change of having obesity-related health problems potentially increases when a person's BMI exceeds what number?
25
The average adult body has approximately how much blood in his or her body at any given time?
4-6 L
How many pounds do you add to the assessment when assessing upper extremity strength Bench Press?
10-20
During the YMCA three-minute step test and the Rockport walk test, what would be the appropriate zone to place your client in if he or she is in the average category?
Zone 2
Force is
An influence applied by one object to another, which results in an acceleration or deceleration of the second object
The Davies test assesses
Upper extremity agility and stabilization
The average resting heart rate for men is
70
How many phases of training are there?
5
Superior is
Above a reference point
Arthrokinematics is
Joint motion
Concentric is
The shortening of a muscle
Anaerobic means
Does not require oxygen
A proprioceptively enriched environment is
Unstable and controlled
Inspiration muscles consist of the
External intercostals
The central nervous system is composed of the
Brain and spinal cord
Internal feedback is
The process whereby sensory information is used by the body to reactively monitor movement and the environment
A state of lost physical fitness, which may include muscle imbalances, decreased flexibility, and lack of core and joint stability, is better known as
Deconditioned
Neuromuscular efficiency is
The ability of the neuromuscular system to enable all muscles to efficiently work together in all planes of motion.
The portion of the skeletal system that consists of the skull, rib cage, and vertebral column is
Axial skeleton
How many pounds do you add to the assessment when assessing lower extremity strength Squat?
30-40
The portion of the skeletal system that includes the upper and lower extremities is
Appendicular skeleton
Type II muscle fibers are
Fast twitch and larger
The average blood pressure is
120/80
Which type of muscle fibers are slow twitch?
Type I
Receptors that respond to pressure, acceleration, and deceleration in the joint are
Joint receptors
An antagonist muscle function is to
Oppose prime mover
During the overhead squat, you notice your client's low back arc, what would be the appropriate strengthening exercise?
Ball squats
Motor neurons are
Efferent; and transmit nerve impulses from the brain and spinal cord to the effector sites
It is a risk for women to have a waist to hip ratio larger than
0.80
During the overhead squat assessment when the feet turn out, which muscle(s) are likely to be overactive?
Soleus
Which phase of training enchances prime mover strength and improves the rate of force production concurrently?
Phase 5 Power Training
True or False : Veins carry blood toward the heart.
True
Sensory receptors responsible for sensing distortion in the body tissues are
Mechanoreceptors
Which energy pathways use the anaerobic energy system?
ATP-PC and Glycolysis
Aerobic...
Requires oxygen
A stabilizer muscle function is to
Stabilize while prime mover and synergist work
Does the left atrium gather reoxygenated or deoxygenated blood?
Reoxygenated
The frontal plane bisects the body into
Front and back halves
The transverse plane bisects the body into
Top and bottom halves
Which building block does the phase Hypertrophy training belong in?
Strength
An acceptable systolic blood pressure range is
Less than or equal to 120
Which energy pathway uses the aerobic system for lower intensity, longer duration activities such as walking on the treadmill for 20-30 minutes?
Oxidative
During the overhead squat assessment, when your low back arches, which muscle(s) are likely to be overactive?
Hip flexor complex
Anterior is
On the front of the body
Bioenergetics is defined as
the biology of energy transformations and exchanges within the body, and between it and the environment.
It is a risk for men to have a waist to hip ration larger than
0.95
During the overhead squat, you notice your client's arms fall forward, what would be the appropriate area to foam roll and static stretch?
Latissumus Dorsi
What is the top chamber of the heart?
Atrium
Inspiration (inhalation) is
The process of actively contracting inspiratory muscles to move air into the body
The sagittal plane bisects the body into
Right and left halves
True or False: Veins carry blood from the capillaries toward the heart.
True
Length-tension relationship is
The length at which a muscle can produce the greatest force
Ligaments connect
Bone to bone
Eccentric is
The lengthening of a muscle
How quickly a muscle can generate force is
Rate of force production
The kinetic chain is composed of
The nervous system, muscular system, & skeletal system
Which target heart rate training zone has the goal to build an aerobic base or aid in recovery?
Zone 1
When extending a muscle the angle of the joint
Increases
During the pushing assessment, when your shoulder elevate, which muscle(s) are likely to be underactive?
Mid/Lower trapezius
A muscle that acts as the initial and main source of motive power is
Prime Mover
Type I muscle fibers are
Slow twitch and smaller
Receptors sensitive to change in tension of the muscle and the rate of that change are
Golgi tendon organs
Sensory neurons are
Afferent; and transmit nerve impulses form effector sites to the brain or spinal cord
The average resting heart rate for women is
75
Expiration (exhalation) is
The process of actively or passively relaxing inspiratory muscles to move air out of the body
Biomechanics is a study that...
uses principles of physics to quantitatively study how forces interact within a living body.
Stabilization endurance uses the training strategy of
Low loads, high repetitions
The Shark skill test assesses
Lower extremity agility and neuromuscular control
Tendons connect
Muscle to bone
The 3 blocks (levels) of training are
Stabilization, Strength, Power
An agonist muscle function is to be
the prime mover
Frequency, in the FITTE Factors, stands for what?
The number of training sessions in a given time frame
What kind of exercises would you choose for a client if phase 3?
Balance-Strength
What are the 3 phases of flexibility training?
Corrective, active, functional
When refering to cardiorespiratory zone training, what heart rate max percentage range and RPE range should you have a client working in if they are in zone 2, the strength level?
76-85%, 14-16 RPE
Reactive Training is
exercises that use quick, powerful movements involving an eccentric immediately followed by an explosive concentric contraction.
Clients with an anterior pelvic tilt (low back arches) should stay away from what cardio machines?
Bikes
How many reps would you have your client perform if they were training in the core stabilization level?
12-20
How many minutes of aerobic activity is recommend minimally for the general population?
30 minutes a day, 5 days a week
When referring to cardioresiratory training, what RPE range would your client be working at in zone 1?
12-13
The F.I.T.T.E factors stand for
Frequency, Intensity, Time, Type, Enjoyment
Poor posture and repetitive movements create dysfunction within connective tissues of the kinetic chain. The body treats this dysfunction as an injury and the body will repair itself. This is known as
Cumulative injury cycle
The core is composed of
The Lumbo-Pelvic-Hip Complex, including the lumbar spine, the pelvic gridle, abdomen, and the hip joint
What are the three levels of core training?
Stabilization, Strength, Power
True or False: Pattern overload occurs when you consistently repeat the same pattern of motion, which may place abnormal stresses on the body.
True
What type of stretching would you have your client perform during corrective flexibility?
Static and Self-myofascial release
Intermuscular Coordination is
The ability of the neuromuscular system to allow all muscles to work together with proper activation and timing between them.
What is the tempo for Plyometric (reactive) Power Training?
As fast as possible
What type of stretching is in all 3 phases of flexibility?
Self-myofascial release
The Drawing-In maneuver is
The action of pulling the belly button toward the spine
What does EPOC stand for?
Excess post-exercise oxygen consumption
How many reps would you have your client preform while training in the plyometric (reactive) power level?
8-12
A muscle imbalance is
An alteration of muscle length surrounding a joint
A general warm up is
Low-intensity exercise consisting of movement that do not necessarily relate to the more intense exercise that is to follow
Synergistic dominance is
the neuromuscular phenomenon that occurs when inappropriate muscles take over the function of the weak or inhibitied prime mover.
A specific warm up is
Low intensity exercise consisting of movements that mimic those that will be included in the more intense exercise that is to follow
When refering to Zone 1 cardiorespiratory training, how many minutes should a client slowly and gradualy work up to while working in this zone?
30-60 minutes
What type of stretching is appropriate during a cardiovascular cool down?
Self-myofascial release and static
Intramuscular Coordination is
The ability of the neuromuscular system to allow optimal levels of motor unit recruitment and synchronization within a muscle.
How many reps would you have your client perform if they were training in the plyometric (reactive) stabilization level?
5-8
Postural distortion patterns are
Predictable patterns of muscle imbalances
What type of stretch would you have your client perform if they were doing active flexibility?
Active-isolated
Relative flexibility is
The tendency of the body to seek the path of least resistance during functional movement patterns
How many reps of a balance exercise would you have your client perform if they were training in the Strength Level?
8-12
During static stretching, you should have your client hold the stretch for a minimum of
30 seconds
When referring to cardiorespiratory training, what heart rate percentage range would your client be working in and what is a sample activity?
86-95%, Sprinting
The rate of precieved exertion (RPR), Borg scale, is based off of what number range?
6-20
Muscle imbalances can be caused by
Emotional stress Poor training technique Postural stress Repetitive movement
What type of Mechanism of Action does Active-Isolated Stretching use?
Reciprocal
How long does NASM suggest the cardiorespiratory portion of a warm-up at low to moderate intensity should last up to?
5-10 minutes
A prisoner squat is what type of stretch?
Dynamic
Integrated cardiorespiratory training is
Training that involves and places a stress on the cardiorespiratory system
During active-isolated stretching, you should have your client hold the stretch for _____ seconds and _____ repetitions.
1-2 seconds, 5-10 reps
Soft tissue models along the lines of stress is the definition of what term?
Davi's Law
What 2 types of stretching uses reciprocal inhibition?
Active-isolated & dynamic
When referring to cardiorespiratory training, what heart rate intensity range would you have your client work at when working in zone 1?
65-75%
During dynamic stretching, you should have your client preform ___ repetitions for ___ exercises.
10, 3-10
True or False: Dynamic balance is the ability to move and change directions under various conditions without falling.
True
A static latissimus dorsi ball stretch is what type of flexibility?
Static
Controlled Instability is ...
a training environment that is as unstable as can safely be controlled by an individual.
What type of stretching uses the mechanism of action Autogenic Inhibition or reciprocal Inhibition (depending on how the stretch is performed)?
Static
The internal oblique is part of what core system?
Local Stabilization System
When training an individual with diabetes what would be some special considerations?
Make sure the client has appropriate footwear
Avoid excessive reactive training
Advise client to keep a small snack with them to avoid hypoglycemia
The SAID principle stands for
Specific Adaption to Imposed Demands
Muscular endurance is...
The ability of the body to produce low levels of force and maintain them for extended periods
What are the correct progressions of stability?
Floor, Balance beam, Half foam roll, Balance disc, Bosu ball
A two arm push press is in what level of resistance training for the total body?
Power
What is the tempo of resistance training for Phase 1 Stabilization endurance of the OPT Model?
4/2/1
How many repetitions would you have your client perform for core, balance, and resistance training in the strength endurance phase?
8-12
A standing cable row is in what level of resistance training for the back?
Stabilization
A microcycle is a/an
Weekly Plan
True or False: Vertical loading alternates body parts trained form set to set, starting from the upper extremity and moving to the lower extremity.
True
True or False : Clients who take a B-blocker may display a skewed heart rate response.
True
Mechanical Specificity refers to
To the weight and movements placed on the body
Hypertrophy is defined as
Enlargement of skeletal muscle fiber in response to overcoming force from high volumes of tension
Stability is...
the ability of the body to maintain postural equilibrium and support joints during movements.
Stride length is defined as
The distance covered with each stride
Neuromuscular Specificity refers to
To the speed of contraction and exercise selection
How many repetitions would you have your client perform for core, balance, and resistance training in the stabilization endurance phase?
12-20
Strength is defined as
The ability of the neuromuscular system to produce internal tension to overcome an external force
A macrocycle is a/an
Annual Plan
Quickness is
The ability to react and change body position with maximum rate of force production, in all planes of motion, from all body positions, during functional activities.
In overweight or obease adults, exercise intensity should be no greater than
60-80% of maximum heart rate
Metabolic Specificity refers to
The energy demand placed on the body
True or False: A circuit training program is defined as performing a series of exercises one after the other with maximal rest.
False
A mesocycle is a/an
Monthly Plan
A dumbbell chest press is in what level of resistance training for the chest?
Strength
What intensity would you be working at in the power phase?
30-45%
When training seniors what special considerations do you want to be aware of?
Progressions should be slow, well monitored, and based on postural control
The exhaustion stage of The General Adaption Syndrome has which reaction?
A prolonged intolerable stressor produces fatigue and leads to a breakdown in the system or injury
What type of training may further help the nervous system to respond or react more efficiently to demands placed on it and enhance muscular recruitment and coordination when performed with correct mechanics?
SAQ Drills
Training volume is always inversely related to______.
Intensity
How many repetitions of resistance training would you have your client perform in the maximal strength phase?
1-5
The repetition tempo for strength exercises is
2/0/2
What intensity would you be working at in the maximal strength phase?
85-100%
How many repetitions of resistance would you have your client perform if they were in the power phase?
8-10
Strength endurance is defined as
The ability of the body to repeatedly produce high levels of force for prolonged periods
Power is defined as
Ability of the neuromuscular system to produce the greatest force in the shortest time
What intensity would you be working at in the hypertrophy phase?
75-85%
How many seconds will replenish 50% of ATP and CP?
20-30 seconds
How many minutes will it take to approximately replenish 100% of ATP and CP?
3 minutes
How many repetitions of resistance training would you have your client perform in the hypertrophy phase?
6-12
In youth populations, the progression of aerobic training volume should not exceed what percentage per period of adaption?
10%
The alarm reaction stage of The General Adaption Syndrome has which of the following reactions?
The initial reaction to stressor such as an increased oxygen and blood supply to the necessary areas
Speed is defined as
The ability to move the body in one intended direction as fast as possible.
What intensity would you be working at in the strength endurance phase?
70-80%
Periodization is...
a type of training program split into smaller, progressive stages.
Maximal strength is defined as
The maximum force that a muscle can produce in a single, voluntary effort, regardless of velocity
What is the method of progression for power training?
Speed & Load
General adaption syndrome is...
the kinetic chain's ability to adapt to stresses placed on it.
How many seconds will it take to approximately replenish 85-90% of ATP and CP?
60 seconds
A push up is in what level of resistance training for the chest?
Stabilization
Which phase(s) of training uses superset techniques?
Phase 2 & Phase 5
In the stabilization phase of SAQ how many sets would be performed?
1-2
In The General Adaption Syndrome, Resistance development has which reaction?
Increased functional capacity to adapt to stressor such as increasing motor unit recruitment.
What does SAQ stand for?
Speed, Agility, Quickness
The definition of agility is
The ability to accelerate, decelerate, stabilize, and change direction quickly, while maintaining proper posture
How many seconds will it take to approximately replenish 75% of ATP and CP?
40 seconds
A cable pushdown is in what level of resistance training for the triceps?
Strength
During proper sprint mechanics, back side mechanic motions are?
Knee extension
The body is approximately made up of how much water?
60% water
If a food source is low or lacking in one or more essential amino acid, it is called?
Incomplete protein
The 9 essential amino acids are:
histidine, isoleucine, leucine, lysine, methionine, phenylalanine, threonine, tryptophan, and valine.
High protein diets, greater than 3 times the RDA, can lead to
Calcium depletion
Slower Metabolism
Energy Loss
Lipids are a group of compounds that include
Phospholipids
Triglycerides
Sterols
The essential amino acid that is missing or present in the smallest amount is called?
Limiting factor
There are ___ essential amino acids.
8
Excessive amounts of vitamin B6 can cause
Permanent damage to sensory nerves
Disaccharides include
Lactose
Sucrose
Maltose
Excess amounts vitamin A can cause
Birth defects when a women is taking too much at conception and during early pregnancy.
Cognitive Strategies aim to change a client's thoughts and attitudes toward exercise and physical activity. What are the three cognitive strategies?
Positive self talk, Psyching up, & Imagery
What is the sum of the processes by which an animal or plant takes in and uses food substances.
Nutrition
What is the process created to produce internalized experiences to support or enhance exercise participation?
Exercise imagery
Fat recommendations are
20-35% of daily diet
Monosaccharides include...
glucose (dextrose), fructose, galactose, and ribose
The RDA stands for what?
Recommended dietary allowance
_____________ are the chief source of energy.
Carbohydrates
True or False: Excess calcium consumed with other minerals inhibits the absorption of some important trace minerals.
True
On average how much water should an individual consume?
3.0 Liters for men & 2.2 Liters for women
Excessive amounts of vitamin D can cause
Calcification of blood vessels and eventually damage the function of the kidneys, heart, and lungs.
One gram of protein yields___ calories.
4
What percentage does the RDA recommend for total protein consumption per day?
10-35%
In which stage of the Stages of Change Model, do people exercise occassionally but are planning to begin exercising regularly in the next month?
Preparation
What are three reasons protein supplementation may be useful
To quickly get amino acids into the blood before and after weight training, To replace whole-food proteins for weight loss, When whole foods are not available
Fat soluble vitamins are
A, D, E, & K
When referring to nutrition,specifically vitamins and minerals, What does SUL stand for?
Safe Upper Levels
The body uses approximately ___ amino acids to build its many different proteins.
20
Excess intake of iron can interfere with the absorption of other minerals like___ and can cause gastrointestinal irritation.
Zinc
Are essential or nonessential amino acids made by the body?
Nonessential
In the client's mind, the value of the service (personal training) must outweight the __________.
Cost
In regards to the Stages of Change Model, in which stage have people maintained change for 6 months or more?
Maintenance
Digestion of dietary fat starts in the
Mouth
Which fatty acids are considered to have favorable effects on blood lipid profiles and may play a role in the treatment and prevention of heart disease, hypertension, arthritis, and cancer?
Polyunsaturated fatty acids & monounsaturated fatty acids
Fats yield approximately ___ calories.
9
Proteins are...
amino acids linked by peptide bonds.
Do saturated fatty acids increase LDL or HDL ?
LDL
The RDA recommendation for protein is ___ g/kg of body weight for the normal adult.
0.80
How many grams of fiber should a diet include?
25-28 grams
What percentage of carbohydrates is recommended?
45-65% of daily diet
True or False: Directive questions can be answered with a YES or NO.
True
When food supplies all of the essential amino acids in appropriate ratios it is called?
Complete protein
True or False: A personal trainer's effectiveness depends on his or her ability to communicate with all types of people, clients, and colleagues.
True
There are two types of goals... process and product. Which type of goal should personal trainers help their clients focus on?
Process
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