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DIT rheumatology and dermatology end of session quizzes

Terms in this set (70)

where does new bone formation take place in growing long bones
epiphyseal plates (cartilage forms and is transformed into bone)
which primary bone tumor is the most common malignant primary bone tumor of children
osteosarcoma
which primary bone tumor is the most common benign bone tumor
osteochondroma
which primary bone tumor is associated with a t(11;22)
ewings sarcoma
which primary bone tumor is associated with a sunburst pattern on x-ray
osteosarcoma
which primary bone tumor is associated with a soap bubble appearance on x-ray
giant cell tumor (osteoclastoma)
which primary bone tumor is associated with an onion skin appearnance
ewing sarcoma
which primary bone tumor is essentially a hamartoma
osteochondroma
which primary bone tumor is associated with codman's triangle on x-ray
osteosarcoma
what mutation leads to achondroplasia
FGFR3 (autosomal dominant, homozygosity is lethal)
what cell types are most similar to osteoclasts
macrophages
which bony disease is reversible when vitamin D is replaced
osteomalacia, rickets
which bony disease is associated with excess osteoclastic activity, resulting in disorganized bony architecture
paget disease of the bone
which bony disease is associated with bone replacement by fibroblasts, collagen, and irregular bony trabeculae
polyostotic fibrous dysplasia
which bony disease is associated with soft bones, due to defective mineralization
osteomalacia, rickets
which bony disease is associated with failure of bone resorption, causing thickened and dense bones
osteopetrosis
which bony disease is a genetic deficiency of carobonic anhydrase II
osteopetrosis
what measures can be taken to prevent osteoporosis
weight-bearing exercise, adequate calcium and vitamin D intake, reduction of risk factors (smoking, glucocoritoids, heparin, hypogonadism)
what abnormal lab findings would be present with paget's disease of the bone
elevated alkaline phosphatase
what abnormal lab findings would be present with osteomalacia and rickets
low serum calcium, elevated PTH, low serum phosphate, and elevated alkaline phosphatase
what abnormal lab findings would be present with osteitis fibrosa cystica (primary hyperparathyroidism)
elevated PTH, increased serum calcium, decreased serum phosphate, increased alkaline phosphatase
what abnormal lab findings would be present with osteoporosis
no abnormal lab values
what ligaments are typically injured during an ankle sprain
anterior talofibular, calcaneofibular, posterior talofibular
what is the leading cause of knee pain in patients younger than 45
patellofemoral syndrome
what is the other name for housemaid's knee
prepatellar bursitis
which muscle of the rotator cuff is responsible for initial 15 degrees of arm abduction
supraspinatus muscle
which muscle of the rotator cuff is responsible for lateral or external rotation of the arm
infraspinatus and teres minor muscles
which muscle of the rotator cuff is responsible for medial or internal rotation of the arm
subscapularis muscle
which antibioitic class is known to increase the risk of tendon rupture in adults
fluoroquinolones
a positive anterior drawer sign is significant for which injury
ACL injury
what is the classic feature of osteoarthritis
OA joint pain that worsens with use (while RA joint pain improves with use)
what two antibodies are most useful in diagnosing rheumatoid arthritis
rheumatoid factor, anti-citrullinated protein antibody
by what mechanism do NSAIDs cause renal disease
block prostaglandin synthesis (causes constriction of renal vessels, decreasing blood flow), acute interstitial nephritis
what medications are used in the treatment of an acute gout exacerbation
NSAIDs (indomethacin), colchicine, steroids
what medications are used in the treatment of chronic gout
allopurinol (XO inhibitor), probenicid (increased UA excretion), or long-term NSAIDs or colchicine
x-rays of a patients finger show pencil-in-cup deformities, what is the most likely diagnosis
psoriatic arthritis
a sexually active, 19 year old man presents with pink eye, arthritis of the right knee, and dysuria, what is the most likely diagnosis
reactive arthritis
on x-ray the spine looks like bamboo, what is the most likely diagnosis
ankylosing spondylitis
what drugs are known for causing drug-induced lupus
Sulfonamides, Hydralazine, Isoniazid, Phenytoin, Procainamide (SHIPP)
a patient presenting with photosensitivity, arthritis, renal disease, and recurrent oral ulcers is taking primaquin and NSAIDs, what type of checkup should she be receiving twice a year
monitor renal function for progression to renal failure (she has lupus)
what are some of the characteristics of polymyositis that distinguish it from polymyalgia rheumatica
muscle weakness, and elevated CK, aldolase, ANA, and anti-Jo-1 (with PR there is joint pain but no muscle pain or weakness, with normal CK and aldolase)
which pathology is associated with anti-smith and anti-dsDNA antibodies
systemic lupus erythematosus
which pathology is associated with antihistone antibodies
drug-induced lupus
which pathology is associated with anti-centromere antibodies
CREST scleroderma
which pathology is associated with anti-topoisomerase antibodies
(anti-scl-70 antibodies) diffuse systemic scleroderma
which pathology is associated with anti-Jo-1 antibodies
polymyositis
which pathology is associated with anti-Ro
sjogren's syndrome
list the layers of the epidermis
stratum corneum, lucidum, granulosum, spinosum, basalis
what structure connects epithelial cells to the basement membrane
hemidesmosome
what are the four primary causes of acne
hyperkeratosis, sebum overproduction, propionibacterium acnes, inflammation
what are some of the hallmark features of necrotizing fasciitis
rapidly spreading cellulitis, tenderness beyond red border, Strep pyogenes
what organism causes painless white patches on the tongue that cannot be scraped off
(oral hairy leukoplakia) Epstein-barr virus
which skin disorder is associated with pruritic, purple, polygonal papules
lichen planus
which skin disorder is associated with pruritis with asthma
atopic dermatitis (eczema)
which skin disorder is associated with pruritic vesicles and celiac disease
dermatitis herpetiformis
which skin disorder is associated with an allergy to nickel
contact dermatitis (type IV hypersensitivity)
which skin disorder is associated with antibodies against the epidermal basement membrane
bullous pemphigoid (anti-hemidesmosome protein antibodies)
which skin disorder is associated with antibodies against the cell-cell adhesions
pemphigus vulgaris (anti-desmosome antibodies)
which skin disorder is associated with parakeratotic scaling
psoriasis
which skin disorder is associated with keratin-filled cysts
seborrheic keratosis
which skin disorder is associated with sandpaper lesions and predisposition to squamous cell cancer
actinic keratosis
which skin disorder is associated with honey crust lesions that are common about the nose and lips
impetigo
which skin disorder is associated with hyperkeratosis and koilocytosis
verrucae
which skin disorder is associated with histology showing palisading nuclei
basal cell carcinoma
which skin disorder is associated with keratin pearls on biopsy
squamous cell carcinoma
which skin disorder is associated with sandpaper lesions and predisposition to squamous cell cancer
actinic keratosis
which skin disorder is associated with honey crust lesions that are common about the nose and lips
impetigo
which skin disorder is associated with hyperkeratosis and koilocytosis
verrucae
which skin disorder is associated with sandpaper lesions and predisposition to squamous cell cancer
actinic keratosis
which skin disorder is associated with honey crust lesions
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