181 terms

Finance Exam 2

Which one of the following best defines an annuity?
a level stream of payments occurring at equal intervals of time
An annuity for which the cash flows occur at the beginning of each time period is called a(n):
annuity due
An annuity where the cash flows continue forever is called a(n):
In Canada and the United Kingdom, a perpetuity is also called a(n):
The quoted interest rate which is expressed in terms of the interest payment made each period is called the:
stated interest rate
The effective annual rate is defined as the interest rate that is:
expressed as if it were compounded once per year.
The annual percentage rate is the interest rate:
charged per period multiplied by the number of periods per year.
A pure discount loan can be defined as the:
present value of a single lump sum to be repaid at some time in the future.
A loan which requires the borrower to pay interest each period and to pay the entire principal at some point in the future is called a(n):
interest only loan
A type of loan where the principal amount is reduced over the life of the loan by the borrower making regular payments is called a(n):
amortized loan
The future value of a series of cash flows over time can be computed by:
summing the future values of each of the individual cash flows.
All else constant, the present value of a stream of equal cash flows occurring at equal intervals of time will increase when the:
II.discount rate is decreased.
III.number of time periods is increased.
The present value of a stream of equal cash flows occurring at regular intervals of time
can be computed using a financial calculator. In this case, the amount of each cash flow is input as the:
The present value of an annuity considers which of the following factors?
I. the timing of each cash flow
II. the amount of each cash flow
III. the discount rate
IV. the number of cash flows
Which one of the following is the correct formula for the present value of an ordinary
annuity? double parenthesis/r
C × {{1−[1/(1+r)t]}/r}
Which of the following will increase the value of an annuity present value interest
II. a decrease in the interest rate
III. an increase in the number of time periods
Which one of the following is an annuity but NOT a perpetuity?
$600 on the last day of each month for two years
An increase in the amount of an annuity payment will:
increase the future value of the annuity
To qualify as an annuity, the cash flows must:
I. be equal in amount.
II. occur at equal intervals of time.
Which one of the following statements is correct concerning an annuity interest rate?
The annuity interest rate is the discount rate used to find the present value of the annuity payments.
Which one of the following statements is correct concerning the annuity interest rate?
An increase in the annuity interest rate will increase the annuity future value factor.
Which one of the following is the correct formula for computing the future value of an annuity? X-/r
C × (Future value factor − 1) / r
The future value of an annuity will decrease when either the:
number of periods decreases or the interest rate declines.
You are comparing two separate investments. Each one is for a period of 10 years and pays $2,500 a year. You require a 10 percent return on these investments. Investment A pays at the beginning of each year and investment B pays at the end of each year. Given this situation, which one of the following statements is accurate?
Investment A has both a higher present value and a higher future value than investment B.
The difference between an ordinary annuity and an annuity due is the:
timing of the annuity payments.
Which one of the following is an annuity due?
$600 paid at the beginning of every quarter for five years, starting today
Which of the following can you calculate?
I. present value of an ordinary annuity
II. present value of a perpetuity
III. future value of an annuity due
Which one of the following is generally valued as a perpetuity?
preferred stock
An investment states that it will pay interest of 8 percent with payments being made on
a quarterly basis. The 8 percent is the:
stated rate
Which one of the following has the highest effective annual rate?
6 percent compounded daily
When comparing loans of equal amounts and equal time periods, you should select the loan that has the lowest:
effective annual rate.
A credit card has an APR of 18 percent and charges interest monthly. The effective annual rate on this account will:
be greater than 18 percent.
Which one of the following statements is correct concerning annual percentage rates
The APR is equal to the monthly interest rate multiplied by 12 for a credit card that computes interest on a monthly basis.
If two loans have same annual percentage rates, then:
the borrower might still save money by selecting one loan over the other.
Theresa borrows $800 today in exchange for one payment of $1,000 five years from
now. This is an example of a(n):
pure discount loan
Phil would like to borrow some money today but not make any payments at all for three years. At the end of the three years, he would like to pay the loan in full in one lump sum payment. What type of loan should Phil request from his bank?
pure discount loan
Licheng borrowed $1,000 from his bank three years ago. The interest rate on the loan was 10 percent. Licheng has been paying annual payments of $100 on this loan. This year, he must pay $1,100 to the bank. Licheng took out a(n):
interest only loan
Today, you borrowed $1,000 from your bank for five years at 8 percent interest. The
loan requires that you make a payment of $80 one year from today. Based on this
information, it appears that you have a(n):
interest only loan
Theo just financed a new car through his credit union. His car loan requires payments
of $420 a month for five years. Assuming that all payments are paid timely, his last
payment will pay off the car loan in full. Theo has a(n):
amortized loan
Peter borrowed $10,000 from his bank and agreed to pay $1,000 on the principal plus
the interest each year. This is an example of a(n):
amortized loan
The stated interest payment made on a bond is called the:
The principal amount of a bond that is repaid at the end of term is called the par value or the:
face value
The coupon rate is best defined as the:
annual coupon divided by the face value of a bond.
The date on which the principal amount of a bond is paid is referred to as the:
The rate required in the market on a bond is called the:
yield to maturity
A premium bond is a bond that:
has a market price which exceeds the face value.
A bond which sells for less than the face value is called a:
discount bond
The current yield is defined as the:
annual coupon divided by the market price.
The written agreement between the corporation and its creditors is called the bond:
When interest payments on a bond are made directly to the owner of record, the bond is said to be in _____ form.
When interest payments are made to whoever holds the bond, the bond is said to be in _____ form.
A debenture is a(n):
unsecured debt which generally matures in ten years or more.
An unsecured debt which generally matures in less than ten years is called a:
A sinking fund is an account managed by the bond trustee for the purpose of:
redeeming bonds early.
The right of the bond issuer to repurchase the bond at a predetermined price prior to maturity is referred to as the:
call provision
The call premium is the amount by which the:
call price exceeds the par value
The provision which prohibits a bond issuer from repurchasing a bond for a period of time after issue is called the _____ provision
deferred call
A bond which an issuer is currently restricted from redeeming is referred to as a:
call protected bond
The stipulations in a bond indenture agreement which limit the actions a firm can take while the bond issue is outstanding are called:
protective covenants.
The nickname for a bond issued by a state is:
A deep discount bond that pays no regular interest payments is called a(n) _____ bond.
zero coupon
The price at which you can sell a bond and at which the dealer will purchase it is
called the _____ price.
The price a dealer is willing to take for a security is called the _____ price.
The profit that a dealer earns on the purchase and subsequent resale of a bond is called
An interest rate that has been adjusted for inflation is called a _____ rate.
The rate of return you earn on an investment before adjusting for inflation is called the _____ rate.
The clean price of a bond is the price:
excluding any accrued interest.
The pure time value of money, as illustrated by the nominal interest rates on default-
free, pure discount bonds, is called the:
term structure of interest rates.
The compensation investors require to offset expected future increases in prices is
called the:
inflation premium.
The interest rate risk premium is the compensation investors require for their assumption of the risk related to:
changes in interest rates.
When the yields of Treasury notes and bonds are plotted on a graph in relation to their respective times to maturity, the resulting curve is called the Treasury _____ curve.
The portion of a bond's yield that compensates investors for the possibility that the bond's interest or principal might not be paid is called the:
default risk premium.
The extra compensation investors demand for a corporate bond over that of a
comparable municipal bond is called the:
taxability premium.
The liquidity premium is the portion of a nominal interest rate that represents
compensation for the:
lack of the ability to sell the bond at its fair value in a timely manner.
A bond that is selling at par value has a:
I. market price equal to the face value.
IV. yield to maturity that equals the coupon rate.
When a bond's yield to maturity equals the bond's coupon rate, the bond:
is priced at par
A discount bond has a yield to maturity that:
exceeds the coupon rate
A premium bond has a coupon rate that:
exceeds the yield to maturity
The total value of a bond is equal to the:
present value of all the future cash flows related to that bond.
The longer the time period until the maturity of a bond, the:
less value the bond's principal has TODAY.
Generally, bonds issued in the U.S. pay interest on a(n) _____ basis.
Which one of the following bonds tends to be the most interest rate sensitive?
a 20-year, zero coupon bond
An unexpected decrease in market interest rates will cause:
bond prices to increase and the current yield to decrease.
The degree of sensitivity a bond has to changes in interest rates decreases the:
I. shorter the time period to maturity.
IV. higher the coupon rate.
The current yield will increase when a bond's:
II. price decreases.
III. coupon increases.
The current yield on a bond is most similar to the:
dividend yield on a stock
Which one of the following comparisons between debt and equity is correct?
The creditors have first claim to the firm's assets but the stockholders are the owners.
The indenture is a legal document which:
outlines the terms and provisions of a bond issue.
Which of the following can generally be found in the indenture agreement?
I. description of the loan collateral
II. call provisions
IV. protective covenants
The amount of a bond issue along with the repayment terms are generally included in
All of the following are generally included in the indenture EXCEPT the:
yield to maturity.
A security arrangement where all the real property of a firm is used as collateral for a
bond issue is called a(n):
blanket mortgage.
A collateral trust bond generally means that the security on a bond issue is provided by the _____ held by the corporation.
common stock
A bond for which no specific property has been pledged as security is classified as a:
The indenture often calls for a bond issue to be at least partially repaid prior to maturity. The means of doing this is frequently a:
sinking fund
Which one of the following provisions allows a firm to repurchase its bonds prior to the planned maturity date?
Under which of the following conditions is a bond most likely to be called?
The bond is a 20-year bond and has 3 years to maturity.
Which of the following are positive covenants that might be found in an indenture?
I.The firm must maintain a current ratio of 1.5 or better.
III. The firm shall provide audited financial statements annually.
Which one of the following is a positive covenant?
The firm will maintain a minimal level of net working capital.
The general purpose of protective covenants is to help protect the:
lenders from company actions contrary to the lenders' benefit.
The lowest rating a bond can receive from Moody's and still be classified as investment grade is:
A crossover bond is one which:
is rated as investment grade by one rating agency and rated as junk by another rating agency.
A bond which was previously rated as investment grade but which has fallen to junk status is commonly referred to as a:
fallen angel.
Bond ratings primarily help potential investors measure the likelihood that the bond issuer will:
pay both the bond interest and principal in a timely fashion
Which one of the following statements concerning municipal bonds is correct?
Municipal bonds are generally callable.
Which one of the following individuals is most apt to purchase a newly issued municipal bond?
a high-income, high-tax bracket executive
Which one of the following statements is true about zero coupon bonds?
The implicit interest is taxable income to the bondholder each year.
Which of the following are common characteristics of a floating-rate bond?
I. The bonds generally contain a put feature.
II. The coupon rate fluctuates based on an interest rate index.
III. The coupon rate generally is capped at the upper collar.
A relatively rare bond that pays interest based on the profits of the firm are generally described as _____ bonds.
A convertible bond has features of both debt and equity because:
the bond can be exchanged for shares of stock.
The general purpose of a put bond is to give the:
bondholder the right to force the issuer to purchase the bond at a stated price.
Which of the following are considered exotic bonds?
Cats, Corts and Pets
A type of bond issued by insurance firms which allow them to forego paying interest under certain natural conditions are classified as _____ bonds.
Which one of the following statements is correct concerning the bond markets?
Bonds are generally bought from and sold to electronically-connected dealers.
A $1,000 face value bond quoted as 101.23 sells for _____ and a bond quoted as 98:06 sells for:
$1,012.30; $981.875.
The clean price of a bond includes which of the following?
I. quoted price
The dirty price of a bond:
is also called the full price
The yield to maturity on a Marshall Co. premium bond is 7.6 percent. This is the:
nominal rate.
Which one of the following rates is the best measure of the increased purchasing power you can realize from a bond investment?
real rate
The Fisher effect can be described as differentiating between:
the income you receive and the increase in your purchasing power from that income.
If interest rates are expected to increase in the future, the graph depicting the term structure of interest rates will be:
upward sloping
If inflation is expected to decrease in the future, the graph depicting the term structure of interest rates will be:
To offset the decreasing value of a dollar over time, bond investors demand a(n) _____
A bond investor believes, based on statements made by the Federal Reserve governors, that interest rates will increase in the future. Therefore, this investor will demand a(n) _____ premium if they purchase a bond today.
interest rate risk
The Treasury yield curve:
is based on coupon bond yields.
All else equal, a bond with a rating of B will have a larger _____ premium than a bond with an A rating.
default risk
Which one of the following is most apt to have the largest taxability premium?
corporate bond
Which one of the following is most apt to have the largest liquidity premium?
municipal bond issued by a rural city
The stock valuation process which determines the price of a stock by dividing the next period's dividend by the discount rate less the dividend growth rate is called the:
dividend growth model
A stock which pays a constant dollar dividend over an extended period of time is referred to as a _____ stock.
The Bigelow Co. increases their annual dividend by 3 percent each and every year.
This stock is referred to as a(n) _____ stock.
constant growth
The dividends paid by the Jon Stone Co. over the past 4 years were $.40, $1.00, $1.10, and $1.13, respectively. The name given to this type of stock is:
nonconstant growth.
Next year's expected annual dividend divided by today's stock price is called the
dividend yield
The rate at which the value of an investment grows is called the:
capital gains yield.
The type of security which represents ownership in a firm without priority for dividends or priority in a bankruptcy is called _____ stock.
Cumulative voting refers to the process in which a shareholder:
MAY cast all votes for one member of the board of directors.
Straight voting is defined as the process where the directors are elected:
one at a time
The authority granted by a shareholder that permits another individual to vote that shareholder's shares is called a:
Payments to shareholders by a corporation that represent a return on capital are called:
Stock which generally pays a fixed dividend and receives priority in the payment of dividends and the distribution of corporate assets is called _____ stock.
The market in which new securities are originally sold to investors is called the _____
primary market
The market where one shareholder sells shares to another shareholder is called the
_____ market.
A dealer is an agent who:
buys and sells securities from inventory.
An agent who arranges security transactions among investors is a called a:
An owner of a seat on the NYSE is called a:
The persons who execute customer buy and sell orders on the floor of the NYSE are called:
commission brokers
The market maker who deals in a small number of securities on the exchange floor is called the:
Members who execute orders on a fee basis for commission brokers are referred to as:
floor brokers
The electronic system that transmits orders directly to a specialist on the floor of the NYSE is called the:
SuperDOT system.
An independent individual who trades for his or her own account by buying and selling on the floor of the NYSE is referred to as a(n):
floor trader
Order flow can be defined as the:
stream of customer orders to buy and sell securities.
The location on the floor of an exchange where an individual security is traded is called the:
specialist's post.
Inside quotes are defined as the:
lowest ask quotes and the highest bid quotes for a security
A Web site that enables an investor to trade directly with another investor is called a(n):
ECN (Electronic Communications Network)
The current price of a stock is based:
on the present value of all the future cash flows from that stock.
The price of a stock at year 10 can be expressed as:
P(sub)11 ÷ (1+g)
Last year, the Brown Bike Co. paid an annual dividend of $1.80 per share. The company has a dividend policy which calls for constant dividends. The sales of the firm are increasing by 2 percent each year. What is the anticipated dividend for year 4?
If the dividend in year 3 is $1.20 and the growth rate is 3 percent, then the dividend in year 7 is equal to:
$1.20 × (1.03)^4
Baker Aluminum is planning on paying a dividend of $.60 a share next year. They
expect to increase this dividend by 20 percent per year in both years 2 and 3 and by 10 percent in year 4. Which one of the following is the correct method of computing the dividend for year 4?
$.60 × (1.22 × 1.1)
Eat 'n Run pays a constant dividend. At the end of trading on Monday, the price of their stock was $21.64. At the end of trading on Tuesday, the stock price was $22.03. The dividend yield Tuesday night is _____ it was on Monday night.
lower than
A low dividend yield on a stock indicates that the stock:
pays out a small percentage of the stock's value in dividends.
The capital gains yield, as used in the dividend growth model, is symbolized as:
Assume that you own a stock with a market price of $30. This stock pays a constant dividend of $1.50 a share. If the price of the stock suddenly rises to $40, you would expect the:
capital gains yield to increase and the dividend yield to decrease.
The required return for a stock is based on the dividend yield:
plus the capital gains yield.
The required return:
provides an estimate of the return an investor might expect if he or she purchases a stock at today's market price.
The benefit of cumulative voting is:
the ability of shareholders, who own fewer shares, to elect at least one corporate director of their choice.
With straight voting, the only means of guaranteeing yourself a seat on the corporate board of directors is to:
ensure that you have enough votes to control the entire election.
Which of the following are rights that are generally provided to common shareholders?
I. right to vote on a proposed merger
III. right to determine the amount of a quarterly dividend payment
IV. right to share in any assets remaining after the liabilities have been paid in a liquidation.
If shareholders are granted a preemptive right they will be:
given the first right to purchase any new shares of stock that are issued.
Dividends become a liability of a firm:
when the dividend is declared but are not tax deductible at any time.
Dividends are paid at the discretion of the:
board of directors
Preferred stock:
has a higher claim in a liquidation than the common stock
preferred stock:
I. may be callable.
]II. may be convertible.
III. may have a sinking fund.
A dealer earns a profit by:
retaining the spread
I. is the largest stock market in the world based on dollar volume of activity.
The largest number of owners of the NYSE are registered as:
commission brokers.
Many of the smaller orders sent to the floor of the NYSE are:
electronically transmitted to the specialists.
NASDAQ is a(n):
electronic dealer market.
The NASDAQ consists of:
two separate markets, a National Market and a SmallCap market.
Trading on an ECN is conducted between an investor and:
another investor.
The Over-the-Counter Bulletin Board (OTCBB):
may quote prices as low as .0001.