How can we help?

You can also find more resources in our Help Center.

641 terms

SK0-003

STUDY
PLAY
Since simulating hardware failure is risky, in case the server may never be required. T/F?
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
B - The only way you can be sure of how the backup will perform is when the crash actually happens. As a preventive maintenance task, you may set up a schedule to check for these failures at regular intervals.
Where can you obtain the RAID related messages in the server?

A. Checking event logs
B. Checking the emails
C. Backup logs
D. None of the above
A- Event logs will record all application, system and security related information of the server. This will also indicate RAID related occurrences.
1. A server is experiencing problems. Which step should the administrator NOT take to identify the problem?
A. Try to
recreate the problem.
B. Ask users to describe the issue.
C. Purchase a new server.
D. Think of a theory that explains
the issue.
C. Purchasing a new server does not identify the issue, it avoids the issue. The other methods are acceptable steps to take to identify the problem.
2. A server has one 40GB hard drive, two 50GB hard drive and two 60GB hard drive. The administrator wants to
configure all 5 drives in a RAID 5 array. How much usable disk space will this array have?
A. 160 GB
B. 180 GB
C. 200 GB
D. 240 GB
A. Since the smallest hard drive is 40GB, that is the maximum size available on each hard drive. With 5 hard drives, n = 5 and the total capacity of the RAID 5 array is 200GB. Using the formula 1 - 1/n yields 0.8, and 200GB x 0.8 = 160GB.
3. A server has three 50GB hard drives attached in a RAID array. Which RAID configuration would provide the fastest
performance?
A. RAID 6
B. RAID 5
C. RAID 1
D. RAID 0
D. RAID 0 provides the fastest performance if fault tolerance is not a requirement.
4. Users report a server cannot be found on the network. What should be done first in a bottom-up troubleshooting
approach?
A. Update the server OS.
B. Escalate the problem.
C. Call the ISP.
D. Ensure the correct cables are used.
D. Using the bottom up approach, the first stage is to check everything that is related to the physical layer of the OSI
model. Ensuring the correct cables are used is the only troubleshooting step that is done in the physical layer.
5. A user complains she can no longer access a Windows server they were working on all afternoon. What should the
administrator do first?
A. Hang up the phone.
B. Ask the user to recreate the problem.
C. Reboot the PC.
D. Reinstall Windows.
B. By asking the user to recreate the problem, an administrator can see first hand the problem and what the conditions
were that created the problem. Hanging up the phone on the user is rude and may lead to dismissal. Rebooting the PC
will not help solve the problem. Reinstalling Windows avoids the issue, and there is no guarantees it will resolve the
issue.
6. Which type of memory can RAM be?
A. EEPROM
B. DDR3
C. L1
D. Flash
B. DDR3 is a type of RAM. EEPROM is a type of ROM. L1 is cache memory located in the processor. Flash is a type
of solid state memory.
7. An administrator just installed a new printer and the printer is recognized by Windows. The printer will not print.
Which is most likely the reason for this?
A. There is no power.
B. The cable is not connected properly.
C. The print spooler is paused.
D. The print device is not installed properly.
C. Most likely the print spooler is paused. Since Windows recognizes the printer it is unlikely to be a power, cable or
installation problem.
8. What is the best way to describe server virtualization?
A. One platform on one host machine.
B. Many services on
many host machines.
C. Many logical platforms on one host machine. D. One logical platform running applications.
C. To take full advantage of server virtualization, administrators would install many logical platforms or guest OS's on
one physical host machine.
9. When downloading updated drivers for a printer, which source should be used by an administrator?
A. Printer
manufacturer website
B. Third party driver website
C. P2P client
D. Online printer forums
A. Updated drivers should be downloaded from the printer manufacturer's website. Drivers downloaded from third
party websites, on P2P clients, or from online printer forums may contain viruses or spyware.
10. Which RAID array will provide fault tolerance and at least 900GB of storage space?
A. Three 300GB drives with RAID 0
B. Four 400GB drives with RAID 1
C. Five 250GB drives with RAID 5
D. Five 250GB drives with RAID 6
C. With 5 hard drives, n = 5 and the total capacity of the RAID 5 array is 1250GB. Using the formula 1 - 1/n yields
0.8, and 1250GB x 0.8 = 1000GB which is greater than 900GB. Using RAID 0 is not fault tolerant. The RAID 1
solution only provides 800GB of storage space. The RAID 6 solution only provides 750GB of storage space.
11. What is the optimal range for humidity in a server room?
A. 0%-25%
B. 20%-80%
C. 40%-60%
D. 75%-100%
C. The optimal range for humidity is 40%-60%. The first answer leaves the server room too dry and susceptible to
electrostatic discharge. The second answer encompasses a section that is too dry and too humid. The last answer is too
humid and may allow water to condense on inside the server case.
13. Which service describes leasing addresses to host computers?
A. DHCP
B. DNS
C. VTP
D. SNMP
A. The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol is responsible for leasing out addresses to host computers. Domain Name
Service is responsible for translating domain names to IP addresses. Virtual Trunking Protocol is responsible for
propagating VLAN information to other switches in the network. Simple Network Management Protocol is used to
simplified management of the network by allowing for automated monitoring of network devices.
14. Users cannot print to any network printer managed by the print server. What should the administrator do first?
A.Power cycle all the network printers.
B. Update printer drivers on all user computers. C. Reinstall Windows on the print server.
D. Restart the spooler service.
D. The easiest thing to do is to restart the print spooler service. If that doesn't work, then the other methods are
possible. However, each of these other methods are extremely time consuming and should be implemented as a last
resort.
15. What best describes HyperThreading?
A. It is a management protocol.
B. Performs computational tasks in parallel.
C. Performs automatic host address configuration.
D. It speeds up error reporting services.
B. HyperThreading was introduced by Intel for their Pentium 4 processors. It allowed a single physical processor to act
as a multicore processor by processing multiple threads at the same time.
17. What is the difference between incremental and differential backups?
A. Incremental backups take less time to
perform than differential backups.
B. Differential backups reset the archive bit while incremental backups do not.
C. Differential backups require more backups to be restored than incremental backups.
D. Both backups are the same.
They are named differently because they are proprietary.
A. Incremental backups are faster to perform than differential backups. Incremental backups reset the archive bit while
the differential backups do not. Differential backups require less backups to be restored than incremental backups.
Because of this, restoration is faster using differential backups than incremental backups. Both backups are not the
same, and both are not proprietary.
18. An application crashed on the server. What should the administrator do first to solve the problem?
A. Look through
the event logs.
B. Restart the application.
C. Use a search engine to investigate the cause. D. Escalate the problem.
A. Looking through the event logs will help determine the cause of the application crashing. Restarting the application
will not determine the cause of the crash. Using a search engine will not help narrow the cause of the crash. Escalating
the problem is not practical as not enough information has been gathered about the problem.
20. What needs to be installed to automate network management systems? A. NNTP B. STP C. SNMP D. ICMP
C. Simple Network Management Protocol is installed to automate network management systems. Network News
Transfer Protocol is used to transfer Usenet articles. Spanning Tree Protocol is used to prevent infinite loops in a
switched network. Internet Control Messaging Protocol is used to send status or error messages.
21. Which of the following describe a server that helps send and receive emails?
A. A dedicated application server.
B. A distributed application server.
C. A print server.
D. A DHCP server.
B. A distributed application server is used by email applications to distribute email messages to end users. A dedicated
application server is a server that is dedicated to performing a single task like DHCP or DNS.
22. What is the minimum number of drives in a RAID 5 array?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
B. The minimum number of drives required in a RAID 5 array is 3. Using 2 drives, one cannot configure a RAID 5
array. While it is possible to configure a RAID 5 array with 4 or 5 drives, it is not the minimum number of drives
allowed.
23. Which RAID array is the least fault tolerant? A. RAID 0.
B. RAID 1.
C. RAID 0+1.
D. RAID 5.
A. RAID 0 has no fault tolerance at all. Therefore, it is the least fault tolerant.
27. What is an advantage of a blade server?
A. Takes up less space.
B. Allow for faster processing.
C. Can aggregate
Ethernet links.
D. Additional RAM can be installed.
A. The main advantage in installing a blade server is conservation of space. Since blade servers are confined to a small
space, they lose their ability for high processing. Aggregation of Ethernet links and additional RAM are not benefits of
blade servers.
28. To test name resolution, what command should an administrator use?
A. dig
B. ifconfig
C. ping
D. mount
A. In a Linux system, the dig command can also be used to test name resolution. The ifconfig command is used to
display IP configuration settings. The ping command is used to test for connectivity between devices. The mount
command is used to mount a hard drive in the system.
30. An uniterruptible power supply is no longer working. What is most likely the cause?
A. The cable is not connected
to the computer.
B. A new battery is needed.
C. The computer is incompatible.
D. Windows needs to be reinstalled.
B. The key here is that the UPS is no longer working which implies it used to work. Therefore, it is reasonable to
assume the cable is connected to the computer, the computer is compatible, and Windows does not need to be
reinstalled. Therefore, the only answer is that a new battery for the UPS may be needed.
33. What is the most common problem in server rooms?
A. Cold rooms.
B. Dirty floor mats.
C. Recurring floods.
D. Dust buildup.
D. The most common problem is server rooms is dust buildup. Cold rooms is not a problem, but rather encouraged.
Dirty floor mats are not a problem. Recurring floods are not a common problem, but it is a problem.
34. An administrator installs a half rack mount server in a server room. He installs eight 2U server chassis on the rack.
How many inches are left on the rack?
A. 7 inches
B. 12 inches
C. 17.5 inches
D. 21 inches
A. A half rack mount server is 20U. Eight 2U chassis equals 16U. Therefore, the amount remaining is 4U. 1U = 1.75
inches, so 4 x 1.75 = 7 inches.
35. An administrator wants to increase reliability of the email server. Which component should be installed to increase
reliability of connectivity?
A. Reinstall drivers.
B. Upgrade the RAM.
C. Install a second hard drive.
D. Install a second NIC.
D. Installing a second NIC will increase reliability of the email server by ensuring a backup network connection is
available in case one fails. Reinstalling drivers is unnecessary and will not increase reliability. Upgrading the RAM will
not increase reliability. Installing a second hard drive will not increase reliability unless a RAID array is configured.
36. Which entry method can provide security and non-repudiation?
A. Physical key.
B. PIN entry.
C. Smart card.
D. Solid door.
C. Smart cards can provide security and non-repudiation. Whenever a smart card is scanned to gain access, it can
record the user into the access log to provide non-repudiation. A physical key is secure, but it does not provide nonrepudiation
as anyone who has a key can gain access. PIN entry is secure, but it does not provide non-repudiation as
anyone who knows the PIN can gain access. A solid door is somewhat secure. However, without a lock, the door would
be useless.
37. What is the term for a component that is connected and powered, but stays offline until another component fails?
A.
Ready-to-go
B. Hot swappable
C. Hot spare
D. Reserved
C. Hot spare is the term for a component that is connected and powered, but stays offline until another component fails.
38. Which of the following is considered the most important environmental issue in a server room? A. Recycle bin in the server room.
B. Unlocked server room.
C. Sticky door handle.
D. Gum on the floor.
B. The only important environmental issue here is that the server room is unlocked. An unlocked server room is
potentially dangerous as it invites possibly theft or damage to the server equipment. The other answers are
environmental concerns, but nothing that is as important as an unlocked server room.
39. Which of the following servers can be configured to process user request to access Internet sites while limiting the
amount of bandwidth forwarded out the company WAN?
A. Web server.
B. Proxy server.
C. DHCP server.
D. File server.
B. The most common use of a proxy server in an organization occurs when clients connect to a web server. Instead of
sending the information out to the Internet each time clients want to visit the same website, the website will be cached
on the proxy server, and will send the website saved in the cache back to the clients. The use of a proxy server in this
manner saves bandwidth and limits the amount of WAN traffic that exits an organization.
40. When moving a rack mount server, what is the most important thing to do?
A. Remove all components from the
rack before transport.
B. Push as hard as you can to move the rack to the destination faster.
C. Send an email informing
others your plan to move the rack.
D. Ensure the path is extra slippery to help move the rack.
A. It is important to remove all component from a rack before transport because a rack will all the components attached
is extremely heavy and a hazard for crushing. Pushing as hard as possible will increase the likelihood of tipping the
server rack. Sending an email informing others doesn't prevent the danger of moving the heavy rack. The path should
be checked for potential hazards and not checked to ensure the path is extra slippery.
41. The company backs up data using Full backup on Sunday night at 11pm. On weekdays and Saturday, the company
backs up data using Incremental backups at 6pm. The server crashes Wednesday afternoon. How many backups are
required to fully restore the server?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three backups are required to restore the data on the server. The first backup is the full backup made on Sunday
night. The next backups are the incremental backups made on Monday and Tuesday.
43. What three basic components are in the SNMP model?
D. The three basic components in the SNMP model are the Network Management System, managed devices, and
agents (usually software based). SNMP also uses UDP to send its messages, but that is not a component.
44. Which processor level cache is the fastest? A. L0
B. L1
C. L2
D. L3
B. Currently, there are three level caches installed inside a processor. Of the three, the L1 cache is the fastest. L1 is also
the smallest of the three caches. The L3 cache is the slowest, but the largest of the three caches and the L2 cache is in
the middle of both speed and capacity.
45. The company backs up data using Full backup on Sunday night at 11pm. On weekdays and Saturday, the company
backs up data using Differential backups at 6pm. The server crashes Thursday afternoon. How many backups are
required to fully restore the server?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
B. Two backups are required to restore the data on the server. The first backup is the full backup made on Sunday
night. The next backup is the differential backups made on Tuesday.
46. Which RAID array can manage multiple drive failure?
A. RAID 0.
B. RAID 1.
C. RAID 5.
D. RAID 6.
D. RAID 6 is capable of handling multiple drive failure because it write two parity stripes on each drive in the array for
each pass. RAID 0, 1, and 5 cannot handle multiple drive failure. RAID 1 and 5 can tolerate failure in one drive. RAID
0 is not fault tolerant at all.
47. What is the minimum number of drives in a RAID 6 array?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
C. The minimum number of drives in a RAID 6 array is 4 drives. RAID 6 cannot be configured with 2 or 3 drives.
While RAID 6 can handle 5 drives, it is not the minimum number of drives it can handle.
48. The backup application running on the server reports an error. What is the most likely cause? A. The application is not working.
B. The network is down.
C. Incremental backup was selected instead of differential backup.
D. The backup tape is damaged.
D. The only possible answer is that the backup tape is damaged. Since the application is running on the server, the
application is working. The network being down has no bearing on the status of the backup application. Selecting the
incorrect backup method does not cause the backup application to report an error.
49. Which server is best suited for patch and update deployment testing?
A. Production server.
B. Mission-critical
server.
C. Virtual server.
D. Stand-alone server.
C. The server best suited to be used for patch and update deployment testing is the virtual server. The production server
and mission-critical server should not be used to test patches and updates. A stand-alone server could be used if it was
not a production server or mission-critical server.
50. When upgrading an internal file server, what is the first thing an administrator should do?
A. Call the ISP.
B. Notify
the users.
C. Reboot the server.
D. Reinstall the OS.
B. When downtime is required to upgrade a server, the users should be notified as soon as possible. Ideally, the upgrade
should be schedule during non-peak hours, however, if that is not possible users need to be notified immediately.
Calling the ISP will not help as the ISP does not care about another organization's internal network. Rebooting the
server will not help as it would mean a loss of service for users. Reinstalling the OS will not help as it too will mean a
loss of service for users.
51. Which backup types will reset the archive bit? (Choose two.)
A. Full backup
B. Incremental backup
C. Differential
backup
D. Copy backup
E. Daily backup
A, B. The two backup methods that reset the archive bit are full backup and incremental backup. Differential, copy and
daily backup do not reset the archive bit.
52. For users to access the Internet, which DHCP settings must be configured? (Choose two.) A. WINS server B.
Default gateway C. Subnet mask D. Lease time E. Domain name$$
52. B, C. For users to successfully access the Internet, the subnet mask and default gateway settings must be
configured correctly. The hosts need to be on the same network as the default gateway and the hosts need to know
where to forward packets destined for the Internet.
53. An administrator wants to configure RAID to use striping. He has three hard drives. Two has 200GB and one has
250GB of unallocated space. What will be the size of the stripe set? A. 200 GB B. 450 GB C. 600 GB D. 700 GB
B. Striping is RAID 0. When RAID is used the size used in all hard drives is the size of the smallest capacity drive. In
this question, the smallest drives are 200GB. Therefore, in the third drive, only 200GB of the 250GB are used. 3 x
200GB = 600GB.
54. How can the issue of excessive page file writes be resolved? A. Install another NIC. B. Upgrade the CPU. C. Install
another hard drive. D. Install more RAM.
D. Excessive page writes are a symptom of insufficient RAM. By installing more RAM, the number of page writes
should decrease dramatically. Installing another NIC or hard drive will not help. Upgrading the CPU will not decrease
the number of page writes.
55. Which expansion slot has the highest bandwidth? A. PCI B. AGP C. ISA D. PCI-e x16
D. The transfer speed of PCI-e x16, assuming version 1.x, is 4000 MBps. The maximum PCI transfer speed is 533
MBps. The maximum transfer speed of AGP is 2133 MBps. The transfer speed of ISA does not compare to PCI, AGP
or PCI-e.
56. During a power outage, some files were corrupted on the file server. Which is most likely the cause? A. RAID
controller battery depleted. B. Faulty RAM. C. Hard drive is malfunctioning. D. The network connection is not fault
tolerant.
A. The most like cause is the RAID controller battery being depleted. There is a cache on the RAID controller that
stores the information that is to be written on the hard drive. This cache is backed up by a battery so if an outage
occurs, the cache remains preserved. With no charge in the battery, the files become corrupted. 57. B. The Grandfather,
Father, Son backup is best described as Monthly, Weekly, and Daily.
57. An organization uses the Grandfather, Father, Son backup scheme. What best describes this backup? D. 700 GB$$
A. VLAN (Virtual Local Area Networks) are used to logically serparate subnets within a physical network. Spanning
Tree Protocols is used to prevent loops in a switched network. Domain Name Service is used to resolve domain names
to IP addresses. Simple Network Management Protocol is used to automate the management of network devices.
54. How can the issue of excessive page file writes be resolved? A. Install another NIC. B. Upgrade the CPU. C. Install
another hard drive. D. Install more RAM.
D. Excessive page writes are a symptom of insufficient RAM. By installing more RAM, the number of page writes
should decrease dramatically. Installing another NIC or hard drive will not help. Upgrading the CPU will not decrease
the number of page writes.
55. Which expansion slot has the highest bandwidth? A. PCI B. AGP C. ISA D. PCI-e x16
D. The transfer speed of PCI-e x16, assuming version 1.x, is 4000 MBps. The maximum PCI transfer speed is 533
MBps. The maximum transfer speed of AGP is 2133 MBps. The transfer speed of ISA does not compare to PCI, AGP
or PCI-e.
56. During a power outage, some files were corrupted on the file server. Which is most likely the cause? A. RAID
controller battery depleted. B. Faulty RAM. C. Hard drive is malfunctioning. D. The network connection is not fault
tolerant.
A. The most like cause is the RAID controller battery being depleted. There is a cache on the RAID controller that
stores the information that is to be written on the hard drive. This cache is backed up by a battery so if an outage
occurs, the cache remains preserved. With no charge in the battery, the files become corrupted.
57. An organization uses the Grandfather, Father, Son backup scheme. What best describes this backup? A. Grand,
Full, Short B. Monthly, Weekly, Daily C. Full, Differential, Copy D. Yearly, Daily, Hourly
57. B. The Grandfather, Father, Son backup is best described as Monthly, Weekly, and Daily.
58. What technology can logically separate many subnets within one physical network? A. VLAN B. STP C. DNS D.
SNMP.
A. VLAN (Virtual Local Area Networks) are used to logically serparate subnets within a physical network. Spanning
Tree Protocols is used to prevent loops in a switched network. Domain Name Service is used to resolve domain names
to IP addresses. Simple Network Management Protocol is used to automate the management of network devices.
59. An administrator has six equal sized hard drives. Which RAID array will yield the maximum amount of useable
disk space while keeping the array fault tolerant? A. RAID 0 B. RAID 1 C. RAID 5 D. RAID 6
C. RAID 5 will yield the maximum amount of usuable disk space while keeping the array fault tolerant. RAID 0 yields
the maximum amount of disk space, however, the array is not fault tolerant. RAID 1 yields the lowest amount of
usuable disk space.
60. Which of the following servers performs the same function as the HOSTS file? A. DHCP B. FTP C. DNS D. Print
C. The HOSTS file is used to resolve domain names to IP addresses. The purpose of a DNS server is the same.

61. Which SCSI technology has a bus width of 16 bits and a clock of 20 MHz? A. Ultra SCSI B. Ultra Wide SCSI B.
Ultra Wide SCSI has a bus width of 16 bits and a clock of 20 MHz. Anytime the word "Wide" is mentioned with SCSI,
it means the bus width is 16-bit. C. Ultra 2 Wide SCSI D. Ultra 3 SCSI$$
B. Ultra Wide SCSI has a bus width of 16 bits and a clock of 20 MHz. Anytime the word "Wide" is mentioned with
SCSI, it means the bus width is 16-bit.
62. Why is a baseline created? A. To configure RAID arrays. B. To provide for fault tolerance. C. To look at network
utilization. D. To compare against normal and abnormal behaviour.
D. A baseline is created for troubleshooting purposes. If there is a problem with the server later on, the baseline is used
as a picture of what numbers indicate the server is running optimally.
63. What is the principle behind ACLs? A. Implicit permit. B. Implicit deny. C. Explicit permit. D. Explicit deny.
B. The main principle behind access control lists is implicit deny. If the information passing through the access control
list does not match any of the conditions, access is implicitly denied. This works for permissions and filtering packets.
64. What is the transfer speed of PCI with Bus Width of 32 bit and Frequency of 66 MHz? A. 133 MBps B. 266 MBps
C. 400 MBps D. 533 MBps
B. The transfer speed of PCI with Bus Width 32-bit and Frenquency 66 MHz is 266 MBps. The base transfer speed of
PCI with Bus Width of 32-bit and Frequency 33 MHz is 133 MBps. For each time Bus Width or Frequency is double,
the transfer speed is also doubled.
65. An administrator needs to restrict the traffic leaving the network. How can this best be accomplished? A. VLANs
B. VTP C. ACLs D. DHCP$$
C. Access control lists can be used to restrict traffic leaving the network. VLANs can be used to logically segment the
network within a physical network, but it cannot restrict traffic leaving the network.
66. What is an advantage of NTFS over FAT32? A. Encryption. B. Archive bit. C. Smaller maximum file size. D.
Maximum capacity volume of 2TB.
A. One of the advantages of NTFS over FAT32 is Encryption. Other advantages include compression, file level
permissions, larger file size, and larger volume capacity.
67. Which technologies allow the sharing of processor in a safe manner for virtualization? A. VTP B. Virtual Master C.
VT D. AMD-V E. Hyper-V
C, D. VT and AMD-V allow the sharing of processor in a safe manner for virtualization. VT is Intel's implementation
and AMD-V is AMD's implementation.
68. Which term identifies a socket type that requires no force to connect the CPU into the socket? A. ZIF B. HBA C.
STP D. PBX
A. Zero Insertion Force is the term that identifies a socket type that requires no force to connect the CPU into the
socket.

69. What is the highest ID that can be assigned to a Wide SCSI bus? A. 0 B. 7 C. 15 D. 16$$
C. In a wide SCSI bus, the bus width is 16. Since SCSI IDs start from 0, the maximum ID in a wide SCSI bus is 15.

70. Which termination method uses resistors for short, low-speed single ended cables? A. Active termination B. Passive
termnination C. Congruant termination D. Static termination$$
B. The passive termination method uses resistors for short, low-speed single ended cables. Active termination adds
voltage regulators to resistors for more reliable termination. There is no such things as congruant termination or static
termination.
71. What is most important when considering a data retention plan? A. Amount of money to spend. B. Company
policy. C. Local laws and legal requirements. D. Amount of space to store backups.
C. The most important consideration for a data retention plan are the local laws and legal requirements. If there are
none, then the company policy is what dictates the data retention policy.
74. Which two are considerations in designing a HVAC system? (Choose two.) A. Temperature. B. Resistance. C.
Water flow. D. Power consumption. E. Humidity.
A, E. The two considerations when designing a HVAC (Heating, Ventilation, and Air Conditioning) system are
temperature and humidity. Resistance, water flow, and power consumption are not considerations.
75. Which of the following can be referred to as WORM media? A. CD-R B. DVD-RW C. SATA hard drive D. SD
Card
A. Write Once Read Many media is as it sounds. It can only be written to one time, and read many times. In this list,
the only WORM media is the CD-R. The other media can be erased and written to more than once.
76. Which of the following allows for the restoration of the most data? A. System restore point B. Full backup C.
Incremental backup D. Differential backup
B. The full backup allows for the restoration of the most data. The system restore point backs up only the system state.
The incremental backup only backs up files since the last full or incremental backup. The differential backup backs up
files since the last full or incremental backup.
77. Which file system is native to Windows? A. ZFS B. EXT3 C. NFS D. NTFS
D. The file system that is native to Windows is NTFS. ZFS is Java proprietary. EXT3 is a Linux file systems. NFS is a
Novell file system.
78. What is the best method to remove dust buildup inside a server case? A. Water. B. Broom. C. Can of compressed
air. D. Vacuum cleaner.
C. The best thing to use to remove dust build up in a server case is a can of compressed air. Water is not good for
electric components. Using a broom can damage the circuits inside the server. A vacuum cleaner can generate static
discharge that can severely damage
81. A fire occurs in a server room. What is the first thing that needs to be done? A. Evacuate all personnel. B. Notify
users of service disruption. C. Escalate the problem. D. Nothing. Continue working.
A. The number one priority is always the safety of personnel. In an emergency, personnel must be evacuated.
82. What is an advantage of server virtualization? A. Less servers to manage. B. More fault tolerant. C. Virtual servers
cannot be hacked. D. Less hardware to manage.
D. An advantage of server virtualization is less hardware to manage. While the number of physical servers is less, the
number servers may not change at all. Server virtualization provides a single point of failure, the physical server or the
host OS. Virtual servers can also be hacked like a physical server.
84. When installing SCSI devices in a server, what must be done? A. Terminate both ends of the chain. B. RAID must
be configured. C. Redundant power supply needs to be attached. D. Only one end needs to be terminated.
A. When installing SCSI devices in a server, both ends of the chain must be terminated. RAID does not need to be
configured. A redundant power supply does not need to be attached the the SCSI chain. Both ends of the chain must be
terminated, not just one end.
85. There is a problem with communication for the SCSI devices connected to the server. What is most likely the
problem? A. RAID is not configured correctly. B. Termination is not correct. C. More RAM is needed. D. Too much
electromagnetic interference.
B. Whenever there is a problem with communication in a SCSI chain, it usually indicates a problem with termination.
An incorrect RAID configuration will not cause a problem with communication in a SCSI chain. Adding more RAM to
the server will not improve communication.
86. Which technology is used to ensure the CPU receives the appropriate voltage? A. Flux inhibitor. B. AC adapter. C.
EEPROM. D. VRM.
D. The Voltage Regulator Module provides the processor the appropriate supply of voltage.
87. Which key allows an administrator to see advanced startup options in a Windows environment? A. Del B. Alt+F4
C. F6 D. F8
D. The F8 key allows an administrator to see advanced startup options in the Windows environment. The Del key is
used on most systems to enter the CMOS. The Alt+F4 combination is used in Windows to close windows. F6 is
pressed during Windows setup to load third party drivers.
88. Which best describes the function of RAID 5? A. Striping. B. Striping with one distributed parity. C. Striping with
two distributed parity. D. Striping and mirroring.
B. RAID 5 can be best described as striping with one distributed parity. RAID 0 is striping. RAID 6 is striping with two
distributed parity. RAID 0+1 is striping and mirroring.
89. A server cannot boot into the operating system. Which diagnostic tool is best suited for this issue? A. POST
messages. B. System logs. C. Debug logs. D. Self-sealing stem bolts.
A. Since the system cannot boot into the OS, an administrator needs to rely on the POST message. System logs and
debug logs are only available if the OS can be loaded.
90. Which server would run SQL? A. Print server. B. File server. C. Database server. D. Web server.
C. SQL is a databasing tool. Therefore, a database server would run SQL. A print server, file server or web server will
not SQL. Although, in some cases a web server can run a databasing tool, it would still be considered a web server.
91. An administrator needs to maintain 2TB of useable storage space for a server. Which RAID configuration should be
used? A. RAID 0 with four 500GB hard drives. B. RAID 1 with six 500GB hard drives. C. RAID 5 with four 500GB
hard drives. D. RAID 6 with five 500GB hard drives.
A. The only configuration that yields 2TB of useable storage space for the server is the RAID 0 configuration. The
RAID 1, 5, and 6 configurations will only yield 1.5TB of useable space.
92. Which RAID solution will provide performance and fault tolerance without the use of parity? A. RAID 0 B. RAID
10 C. RAID 5 D. RAID 6$$
B. The only RAID solution listed that provides fault tolerance without using parity is RAID 10. RAID 0 does not use
parity, but it is not fault tolerant. RAID 5 and 6 both use parity.
93. After upgrading a driver for a hard drive in Windows, the server does not boot into the OS. Which of the following
is the best way to resolve the issue? A. Reinstall Windows. B. Remove the hard drive. C. Restore the latest backup. D.
Boot the server, press F8 and select Last Known Good Configuration.
D. To resolve the issue, boot the server, press F8 and select Last Known Good Configuration. The computer will load
the last configuration that booted successfully before the driver update.
95. Which storage system can be connected to many network servers through an iSCSI connection? A. SATA B. SAS
C. NAS D. SAN
D. The SAN storage system can be connected to many network servers through an iSCSI connection. Storage Area
Network is a specialized network and can be connected through the Internet. iSCSI sends SCSI commands through
TCP/IP.
96. Users can access network resources but cannot access the Internet. Which command line interface command can be
used to identify the point of failure on the network? A. ipconfig B. nslookup C. tracert D. route
C. Using tracert can help determine if the problem is isolated on an organization's network or if the problem is outside
the organization.
97. What is the correct term for a virtual machine? A. Host OS B. Guest OS C. Hyper-V D. VTP
B. The correct term for a virtual machine is a guest OS. Host OS is the term for the OS that is used to run the virtual
machines. Hyper-V is a feature in Windows Server 2008 64bit to run virtual machines.
98. What happens if the maximum rated load on a UPS is exceeded during an outage? A. Nothing. B. The UPS will
reboot the server until more power is available. C. The UPS will explode. D. The runtime of the UPS will be minimal.
D. During an outage, the amount of power required to run the server equipment will be drawn more quickly. As a
result, the runtime of the UPS will be minimal.
100. Which of the following memory types is the fastest? A. DDR3 B. DDR2 C. SODIMM D. SDRAM.
A. DDR3 is the fastest type of memory on this list. DDR is twice as fast as SDRAM. DDR2 is twice as fast as DDR
and DDR3 is twice as fast as DDR2. Therefore, DDR3 is eight times as fast as SDRAM. SODIMM is RAM for
notebook and netbook computers.
79. What connector is used to provide power to a PATA drive? A. Berg connector. B. Molex connector. C. 15-pin
connector. D. Word connector. $$
B The connector used to power a PATA drive is the Molex connector. The Berg connector is used to power floppy
drives. The 15 pin connector is used to power SATA drives. There is no such thing as a word connector.
80. Which site provides the least amount of downtime when services need to be transferred from the main site? A. Cold
site. B. Hot site. C. Warm site. D. Hybrid site. $$
B. The site that provides the least downtime when services need to be transferred from the main site is the hot site.
A
cold site is a site with the bare minimum. A warm site and hybrid site are the same and is a combination of a hot site
and a cold site.
99. Which of the following is an SLA? A. A statement that documents the baseline B. A protocol used to send emails
C. A legal document detailing the laws that must be followed D. A contract that details amount of service provided. $$
D. A service level agreement is a contract that details the amount of service that will be provided. It is not a statement
that documents a baseline or a legal document that details the laws that must be followed. The protocol used to send
emails is SMTP.
94. Which of the following can reduce mistakes in cabling? A. Proper labeling and documentation. B. Use different
colour cables. C. Maintain an up to date journal. D. Contact the vendor for recommendations. $$
A. By labeling and documenting the cables as they are being installed will reduce mistakes in cabling. Using different
colour cables will not help in a large organization. Maintaining an up-to-date journal will not help with labels. Contact
the vendor is a waste of time.
12. When installing an external SCSI daisy chain, where is termination needed? (Choose two.) A. On every device. B.
On the last device. C. On the first device. D. On the SCSI adapter. E. On the motherboard. $$
B, D. Termination is required on the last device. Since there is no internal SCSI daisy chain, the other end of
termination is handled by the SCSI adapter automatically. Termination is handled only on the last device. If termination
occured on every device or on the first device, the other devices after the first device would be unable to participate in
the SCSI chain.
19. The hard drive on the server is extremely busy all the time. What could the administrator do to resolve the problem?
(Choose two.) A. Replace the hard drive. B. Add more RAM. C. Reinstall Windows. D. Install more fans. E.
Defragment the hard drive. $$
B, E. The hard drive undergoing excessive loads indicates one of three things. Either there is not enough RAM on the
server, the hard drive on the server is severely fragmented, or there is an excessive amount of requests to read and write
to the hard drive. Replacing the hard drive will not correct the underlying cause. Reinstalling Windows doesn't make
much sense as it would result in down time for the users. Installing more fans doesn't make sense as there is no
indication this is a cooling problem.
24. What must be done after performing a test backup? A. Store the backup in an offsite location. B. Place the backup
in a fireproof safe. C. Give the backup to management. D. Perform a test restore to ensure the backup is good. $$
D. After performing a succesful test backup, it is necessary to perform a test restore to ensure the backup process is
good. Storing the backup in an offsite location is a good idea, however, without testing the backup it could be difficult
to find out the backup is useless when restoration of the data is required. Putting the backup in a fireproof safe is also a
good idea, but not without testing the backup first. Giving the backup to management is also not a good idea as in an
emergency, it may be difficult to locate when a restoration is required.
25. What does the ping command do? A. Enable name resolution. B. Display a list of routes. C. Test connectivity
between devices. D. Display IP address configuration. $$
C. The command ping tests connectivity between devices. It does not enable name resolution. The nslookup command
does that. It does not display a list of routes from the local routing table. The route command does that. It does not
display IP address configuration information. The ipconfig command does that.
26. Which expansion card is installed for a iSCSI SAN connection? A. MAC B. NIC C. AGP D. TACACS+$$
B. iSCSI can be accessed over TCP/IP, therefore, a NIC card is installed to access a SAN through an iSCSI connection.
MAC is the physical address of a NIC card or any devices that access a network. AGP is a graphics expansion port.
TACACS+ is a proprietary authentication system.
83. What is a likely cause of power supply fan failure? A. Bad odours. B. Extremely low temperatures. C. Excessive
dust. D. Fault tolerant NICs.
C. Excessive dust can caust power supply fan failure. While bad odours are unpleasant, they will cont cause power
supply fan failure. Power supplies run better at low temperatures. Fault tolerant NICs do not cause power supply fan
failures.
72. Which technology allows a single physical processor to do the work of many processors? A. Symmetric multiprocessing
B. HyperThreading C. Clustering D. Multicore$$
D. Multicore processors allow a single physical processor to do the work of many processors. Symmetric multiprocessing
refers to a system that uses at most 16 physical processors. HyperThreading is a single processor capable of
processing multiple threads at the same time. While HyperThreading simulates a Multicore processor, some Multicore
processors are HyperThreading capable.
73. Which RAM type can detect and fix single bit errors? A. SCSI B. SRAM C. Non-Registered D. ECC
D. Error Correction Code RAM can detect single bit errors and correct them. SCSI is not a type of RAM. While SRAM
could have capabilities to correct errors, generically, they cannot. Non-Registered RAM cannot correct errors.
31. What is the transmission speed for standard IEEE 1394? A. 200 Mbps B. 300 Mbps C. 400 Mbps D. 500 Mbps
C. The transmission speed for standard IEEE 1394 is 400 Mbps.
32. What is the bandwidth of Ultra2 Wide SCSI? A. 40 MBps B. 80 MBps C. 160 MBps D. 320 MBps
B. The bandwidth of Ultra2 Wide SCSI is 80 MBps.
29. What port does DNS use for zone transfers? A. TCP 53 B. UDP 53 C. TCP 23 D. UDP 123
A. DNS uses both TCP and UDP ports 53. However, DNS uses TCP port 53 for zone transfer and UDP port for
queries. TCP port 53 is used to ensure delivery of zone transfer information. TCP port 23 is used for Telnet and UDP
port 123 is used for Network Time Protocol.
16. An administrator needs to replace a failed hard drive without turning off the server. What does this require? A. A
SATA cable. B. An Uninterruptible Power Supply. C. A hot-swappable drive. D. A SCSI adapter.
C. Hot swapping is the ability to replace a component without the need to power down the server. Therefore, a hotswappable
drive is required.
1. A technician needs to install a server that will automatically assign IP addresses to devices when they connect to the network. What type of server is required?
A. DNS server
B. WINS server
C. Firewall server
D. DHCP server
D. A DHCP server will automatically assign addresses to devices connecting to the network. Answer A is incorrect because a DNS server resolves Internet domain names to IP addresses. Answer B is incorrect because a WINS server
resolves NetBIOS names to Internet domain names. Answer C is incorrect because a firewall is used to protect internal networks from Internet traffic. For more information, see the "Installation Strategy" section.
2. A new firewall server has just been delivered. Among the peripheral cards that came with the server were three network interface cards. Why did the server come with so many NIC cards?
A. To enable the firewall to connect the Internet, the local LAN, and a DMZ
B. The extra NIC cards were shipping errors
C. To create redundancy
D. To increase the total amount of network throughput
A. The firewall needs a network card to connect each of the three networks together. Answer B is incorrect because a firewall needs at least two NIC cards to function properly, and a third if you use a DMZ network. Answer C is incorrect because the NIC cards are needed to connect the other networks. Answer D is incorrect because the cards are not being joined together as a team, they are operating separately to connect different networks. For more information,
see the "Installation Strategy" section.
3. A technician is looking for the most recent information to verify a new server's hardware compatibility with the OS. What is the best resource for the information?
A. The OS CD-ROM
B. The readme.txt file
C. The OS vendor's Web site
D. The server's installation documentation
C. The OS vendor's website will always have the most recent information on hardware compatibility. Answer A is incorrect because the OS CD-ROM will only have information that was available at the time of release. Answer B is incorrect because a readme.txt file will only have minor installation information, and will be outdated. Answer D is incorrect because your server hardware documentation will not have OS compatibility information. For more information, see the "Verifying OS Hardware Compatibility" section.
4. A technician is installing four new servers into a 42U rack but does not have the manufacturer's specifications on how to load the rack. The servers are a 4U Web server, a 4U FTP server, a 12U file server, and an 8U database server,
which is quite heavy due to the amount of disk drives installed. Starting from the bottom, in what order should the servers be placed in the rack?
A. File, Web, FTP, database
B. Web, database, FTP, file
C. FTP, file, database, Web
D. Database, file, Web, FTP
D. The heaviest piece of equipment should always be installed at the bottom of the rack to aid in stabilization. Answers A, B, and C are incorrect because they will make the rack top-heavy, and more likely to tip over. For more information, see the "Verifying Rack Space" section.
5. To save on network installation costs, a company wants to use the phone system's UTP cabling already installed in the building, for use in a 10MB local area network. What is the minimum category of twisted-pair cabling that should be used to support networking?
A. Category 5
B. Category 3
C. Category 1
D. Category 2
B. To support 10MB networking, the cable should be minimum Category 5 UTP cabling. Answer A is incorrect because Category 5 cabling is the minimum for 100MB capacity. Answer C is incorrect because Category 1 cabling is
used for phone lines, and is not suitable for networking. Answer D is incorrect because Category 2 cabling can only support speeds of 1MB, and is not suitable for networks. For more information, see the "Network Cabling and Connectors" section.
6. A customer is complaining that none of the users on the network can connect to an outside Web site. The connection to the Internet seems to be working fine, and the users can connect to the internal intranet Web site. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. The external router is not working properly.
B. The firewall is blocking FTP access to the Internet.
C. The proxy server is not working.
D. The DHCP server is not functioning.
C. If the proxy server is not working, clients will be unable to contact external Web sites, as the proxy server is responsible for forwarding the requests. Answer A is incorrect because the connection to the Internet is still working. Answer B is incorrect because the clients are using the HTTP protocol to connect to Web sites, not FTP. Answer D is incorrect because DHCP servers are used to assign IP addresses to network devices. For more information, see the "Installation Strategy" section.
7. A technician is testing a UPS on a new server. When power is disconnected from the UPS, the server runs from the UPS battery for approximately 15 minutes, and then the server is abruptly shut down. The UPS was configured to shut down the server automatically when power is disconnected. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. The UPS software is not configured properly.
B. The parallel cable between the UPS and the server is missing.
C. The UPS battery has not been properly charged.
D. The serial cable between the server and the UPS is missing.
D. The serial cable connecting the UPS to the server was not connected. Without it, there is no way for the UPS to communicate with the server. Answer A is incorrect because the server software was configured correctly. Answer B is incorrect because a serial cable is used for the connection, not a parallel cable. Answer C is incorrect because the battery operated normally when the power failed. For more information, see the "Verifying Power Sources and UPS Installation" section.
8. A server rack is being moved to a new air-conditioned server room on the second floor of the building. What is the best way to transport the rack to its new location?
A. Remove the servers, move the rack, and then put the servers back in the rack.
B. Place the rack on a dolly and roll it carefully to the new location.
C. Remove the servers, take apart the rack, move the parts, and reassemble the rack in the new location.
D. Get as many people as possible to help carry the rack to the new location.
A. All equipment should be removed from the rack before moving. This prevents tipping, and also makes it easier to move, because it will be lighter. Answer B is incorrect because the server could tip over because of the weight. Answer C is incorrect because taking apart the rack is unnecessary. Answer D is incorrect because it is easier to remove the equipment to make the rack lighter to transport. For more information, see the "Verifying Rack Space" section.
9. Two floors of a building are being connected together by a fiber-optic cable. A special fiber-enabled switch is located on each floor. After they are connected together, there does not seem to be any network activity between the floors.
What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. The fiber cable is multimode.
B. The cable is defective.
C. The transmit and receive cables are reversed.
D. The fiber cable is only single mode fiber.
C. Most likely, the transmit and receive cables were accidentally reversed. Answer A is incorrect because the mode of the fiber in this question was not discussed. Answer B is incorrect because it is rare for a fiber cable to be defective. Answer D is incorrect because the mode of the fiber in this question was not discussed. For more information, see the "Network Cabling and Connectors" section.
10. A customer would like to provide access to their new SNA mainframe from their current Windows workstations. What device will be needed to allow connectivity?
A. bridge
B. gateway server
C. router
D. DNS server
B. A gateway server will be needed to allow the Windows machines access to SNA services. Answer A is incorrect because a bridge will only connect two different networks, it will not provide gateway services. Answer C is incorrect
because a router will only route packets between two networks. Answer D is incorrect because a DNS server is used to resolve Internet domain names to IP addresses. For more information, see the "Installation Strategy" section.
11. A technician is reviewing the hardware compatibility list for the network OS that is being installed on a server. The vendor's Web site lists the current hardware as compatible, but the documentation that came with the OS says
the hardware is not compatible. What is the cause of the discrepancy?
A. The information on the Web site is newer than the documentation.
B. The readme.txt file on the OS CD-ROM is the most reliable
C. The Web site contains an error.
D. The information on the Web site is older than the documentation.
A. The vendor's Web site will always have the most recent information on hardware compatibility. Answer B is incorrect because the readme.txt file will not contain the most recent information. Answer C is incorrect because the Web site should have the most recent, accurate information. Answer D is incorrect because the Web site will be more up-to-date than the documentation. For more information, see the "Verifying OS Hardware Compatibility" section.
12. A new server is being installed to enable Windows machines to resolve NetBIOS names to Internet domain addresses. What type of server is required?
A. WINS server
B. DNS server
C. DHCP server
D. firewall server
A. A WINS server will resolve NetBIOS names to Internet domain names. Answer B is incorrect because a DNS resolves Internet domain names to IP addresses. Answer C is incorrect because a DHCP server assigns IP addresses
to the device on the network. Answer D is incorrect because a firewall server is used to protect the internal LAN from external Internet traffic. For more information, see the "Installation Strategy" section.
13. A new Ethernet LAN network is being added to a current LAN that is running Token Ring. What type of server or device should be used to connect the two networks?
A. hub
B. bridge
C. firewall
D. LAN adapter
B. A bridge connects two different types of networks together. Answer A is incorrect because a hub can only connect two networks of the same types. Answer C is incorrect because a firewall is used to protect the internal LAN
from external Internet traffic. Answer D is incorrect because there is no such thing as a LAN adapter. For more information, see the "Installation Strategy" section.
14. When installing a server, which of the following is the most important when verifying a power source?
A. proper grounding
B. proximity to UPS
C. sufficient VA rating
D. dual voltage capability
A. Proper grounding is important in preventing short circuits from harming the equipment. Answer B is incorrect because the proximity to the UPS is not relevant. Answer C is incorrect because the VA refers to the size and capability of the UPS. Answer D is incorrect because dual voltage capabilities are irrelevant in this case. For more information, see the "Verifying Power Sources and UPS Installation" section.
15. A technician is replacing an internal Web server with a new server containing a more powerful CPU and memory. The location of the new server has been verified for proper environmental and power requirements. Which of the following is the next aspect of the server's location to verify before installation?
A. UPS size
B. network availability
C. proxy connections
D. firewall rules
B. Network availability is the next most important concern. Answer A is incorrect because the UPS size should be already decided. Answer C is incorrect because there is no need for a proxy for an internal Web server. Answer D is incorrect because firewall rules are irrelevant at this stage of the installation. For more information, see the "Network Cabling and Connectors" section.
16. A new RAS server has just been delivered. Parts that came with the server include a 9GB hard drive, video card, network card, and RS-232 cable. The technician notices immediately that a part is missing. What is most likely the
missing item?
A. SCSI card
B. CD-ROM
C. Sound card
D. Modem
D. A modem is needed for users to dial in to the Remote Access Server. Answers A, B, and C are incorrect because these devices are not needed for this type of server. For more information, see the "Installation Strategy" section.
17. A firewall server has been configured to allow only inbound HTTP Web access to an internal Web server, while HTTP, FTP have been enabled for outgoing connections from the internal LAN to the Internet. To prevent inbound HTTP
connections from reaching other local LAN devices, what else should be configured?
A. Proxy
B. DMZ
C. DNS
D. DHCP
B. A DMZ should be used to isolate the Web servers from the internal user network. Answer A is incorrect because a proxy server forwards HTTP requests from internal clients to external Websites. Answer C is incorrect because a DNS server resolves Internet Domain names to IP addresses. Answer D is incorrect because a DHCP server assigns IP addresses to devices on the network. For more information, see the "Installation Strategy" section.
18. A 10Base2 network is suffering from frequent network problems. There are 30 workstations hooked together in a bus topology. The server's network card was replaced a week before, as it was deemed to be faulty. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. The new server network card only supports 100 MB/s.
B. The terminator on the server is loose.
C. One of the workstations is configured for UTP.
D. A client workstation is configured for token-ring.
B. A loose terminator on a bus topology network will result in connectivity problems for the entire network. Answer A is incorrect because the network speed is not an issue. Answer C is incorrect because there should be no UTP devices on a coaxial network. Answer D is incorrect because the network is specifically a 10Base2 Ethernet network, not token ring. For more information, see the " Network Cabling and Connectors" section.
19. A new server has just arrived, which is to be configured as a router. A technician notices that a part is missing from the server. Without it, the server will not perform its proper function. Which of the following is the mostly likely part missing?
A. ultra SCSI card
B. second Network card
C. routing cable
D. BNC connector
B. A router server needs at least two network cards to be able to route between two networks. Answer A is incorrect because a SCSI card is not needed for this configuration. Answer C is incorrect because a routing table is a software-based component. Answer D is incorrect because network termination is irrelevant to the routing function. For more information, see the "Installation Strategy" section.
20. A new backup server has just been delivered. It comes with an Ultra2 SCSI card, a DLT7000 tape drive, 40 DAT backup tapes, and an Ultra2 SCSI cable and terminator. Which of these items have been ordered in error?
A. SCSI card
B. Terminator
C. DAT tapes
D. SCSI cable
C. The backup tapes ordered should have been DLT tapes. Answers A, B, and D are incorrect because these items were required. For more information, see the "Verifying Components" section.
1. A customer needs a server solution so that they can serve Web pages, and host an FTP site for the external world, while securing their internal LAN from any outside intrusion. For security purposes, the Web server and FTP services must be installed on their own separate machines. How many servers will be needed, and for what roles should they be configured?
You will need three servers to set up the required environment. To provide Web and FTP services, a server will be needed to perform each function. To secure the internal LAN from the outside world, a firewall server will have to be set up. To fully secure the internal LAN, a DMZ network should be set up, to separate the Web and FTP server on their own LAN. The firewall should have three network cards, one to connect to the outside world, one to connect to the DMZ, and one connected to the internal LAN.
2. Three new servers are being installed into a new server room. What aspects of the server room should be verified before installing the new equipment?
The server room should contain adequate air conditioning and ventilation. The power source should be verified to ensure good quality power, and that there are enough outlets to handle the amount of equipment. Network connectivity will have to be verified, including cabling location and cable types.
3. A UPS is being connected to a rack containing up to four servers. What considerations must be made when purchasing and installing the UPS?
The VA rating of the servers and other equipment that will be connected to the UPS should be calculated, so that the right size of UPS can be purchased. The UPS should come with enough serial cables to be able to attach to all four servers. The network OS of the servers should be configured to automatically shut down in case of a power failure. The UPS should then have its battery fully charged, and then tested to make sure that the battery will take over when power is disconnected, and that the auto-shutdown of the servers works properly
1. A technician is creating a cable that will connect a standard network switch port to a network router. What type of cable will be needed to complete the connection?
A. Straight-through cable
B. Uplink sable
C. Crossover cable
D. Rollover cable
C. A crossover cable will be needed to complete the connection. Answer A is incorrect because a straight-through cable would only be used to connect the standard switch port to a network device. Answer B is incorrect because an uplink cable does not exist. Answer D is incorrect because a rollover cable is used for connecting to console ports. For more information, see the "Crossover cable" section.
2. A server rack is being moved to a new location on the other side of the building, where a new server room has been constructed. The rack currently holds three servers, but two of them are not used anymore. What is the best process for moving the rack to its new location?
A. Remove all the servers, move the rack to the new location, and install only the server being used back into the rack.
B. Remove all the servers, move the rack to the new location, and install all the servers back into the rack.
C. Put the entire rack onto a dolly and roll it slowly to its new location. Servers are secured so that they will not fall out.
D. Remove the unused servers. Put the rack onto a dolly, and roll it slowly to its new location.
A. All servers should be removed from the rack before moving it. The two unused servers should not be reinstalled. Answer B is incorrect because the unused servers should not be put back into the rack. Answer C is incorrect because the rack should not be transported with equipment still mounted in it. Answer D is incorrect because the rack should not be transported with equipment still mounted in it, even if it is only one server. For more information, see the "Installing equipment in the rack" section.
3. A technician is extending a rack-mounted server that is located near the top of the rack. When the server is fully extended, the rack begins to tip over. What is the most likely cause of the imbalance in the rack?
A. The rack is too close to the wall.
B. The rack has no stabilizer feet attached
C. The server should be located lower on the rack.
D. The rack is on wheels.
B. The stabilizer feet will prevent the rack from tipping over when a server is extended. Answer A is incorrect because this will not cause the rack to tip over. Answer C is incorrect because the cause is the lack of stabilizer feet.
Heavier equipment should be located lower in the rack, but stabilizers will prevent this if they are located higher. Answer D is incorrect because the wheels alone would not cause the imbalance, but they should be retracted when the rack is not being moved. For more information, see the "Preparing the rack for installation" section.
4. A technician wants to connect the uplink port on an existing 24-port hub to a new expansion 12-port hub. Which of the following cable and port combinations should be used to properly connect the devices?
A. Rollover cable from the uplink port of the 24-port hub to the uplink port of the 12-port hub
B. Crossover cable from the uplink port of the 24-port hub to a standard port on the 12-port hub
C. Straight-through cable from the uplink port of the 24-port hub to a standard port on the 12-port hub
D. Uplink cable from the uplink port of the 24-port hub to the uplink port on the 12-port hub
C. The uplink port on the current hub already crosses the cable, so it only needs a standard straight cable to a standard port on the new hub. Answer A is incorrect because a rollover cable is used to connect to a device console port. Answer B is incorrect because there is no need to use a crossover cable on an uplink port. Answer D is incorrect because there is no such thing as an
uplink cable. For more information, see the "Twisted pair" section.
5. A technician is installing four servers with a combined VA rating of 1200. What VA rating should the UPS have to be able to provide battery backup to the servers?
A. 1500
B. 1200
C. 600
D. 3000
A. The VA rating of the UPS should be greater than the combined VA rating of the devices to adequately power them from battery in the event of a power failure. Answer B is incorrect because the load will be equal to the UPS load capability, and it may not be able to power the servers in the event of a power failure. Answer C is incorrect because this load rating is too low. Answer D is incorrect because this load rating will work, but is not needed for this amount of servers. For more information, see the "Installing the UPS" section.
6. A technician is installing four servers into a rack. In what order should the components be mounted into the rack?
A. Heaviest servers on the top
B. Heaviest servers on the bottom
C. Server weight distributed evenly over the rack
D. According to the rack vendor's documented specifications
D. The documentation for the rack should be consulted for specifications on installing equipment. Answer A is incorrect because a top-heavy rack will tip over too easily. Answer B is incorrect because the documentation should be checked first, but putting the heaviest items on the bottom is safest. Answer C is incorrect because this configuration might not be to the rack's specifications. For more information, see the "Installing equipment in the rack" section.
7. A server is being connected to a network switch. What type of network cable will be needed to make the connection?
A. Crossover cable
B. Straight-through cable
C. Rollover cable
D. UTP cable
B. A standard straight cable is used to connect a device to a standard network port. Answer A is incorrect because a crossover cable is not needed in this case. Answer C is incorrect because a rollover cable is used for connecting to a device's console port. Answer D is incorrect because it does not specify what type of UTP cable. For more information, see the "Twisted pair" section.
8. A new server has been connected to a UPS system. The UPS battery has been fully charged and tested. Two weeks later, a power failure caused the UPS to switch over to battery for 20 minutes before the battery ran out and the server lost power. What is the mostly likely cause of the abrupt server shutdown?
A. The UPS load was too high.
B. The UPS battery was not charged properly.
C. The UPS software was not configured.
D. The server is not compatible with the UPS.
C. The UPS software was not configured to automatically shut down the server in the event of a power outage. Answer A is incorrect because one server will not overload the UPS. Answer B is incorrect because the battery was working properly. Answer D is incorrect because compatibility is not an issue. For more information, see the "Configuring the UPS software" section.
9. A 1500VA-rated UPS is connected to a server and monitor with a combined VA rating of 700. The server needs to print reports on an hourly basis, and a laser printer has been installed beside it. The VA rating of the printer is 400. When
the technician plugs the printer into the UPS and turns the printer on, the UPS indicates an overload failure. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. The laser printer is causing an abnormal load on the UPS.
B. The VA rating of the combined devices is too high for the UPS.
C. The UPS battery has not been charged.
D. The printer is incompatible with the UPS.
A. You should never connect a laser printer to a UPS, because it draws a considerable load when first started up and could damage the UPS. Answer B is incorrect because the VA rating of the combined devices is below the rating of
the UPS. Answer C is incorrect because there is nothing wrong with the battery the UPS is overloaded. Answer D is incorrect because there are no compatibility issues. For more information, see the "Testing the UPS" section.
10. Two network hubs have to be connected together, but neither of them have an uplink port on them. How can the two hubs be connected?
A. Rollover cable
B. Straight-through cable
C. Crossover cable
D. Uplink cable
C. A crossover cable can be used between any standard ports on the two hubs. Answer A is incorrect because a rollover cable is used to connect to device console ports. Answer B is incorrect because a straight cable will not work without an uplink port on one of the hubs. Answer D is incorrect because there is no such thing as an uplink cable. For more information, see
the "Crossover cable" section.
11. A technician wants to properly stabilize a server rack. There are currently five servers mounted on the rack. What can be done to make sure the rack will not move or tip over?
A. Move the heaviest servers to the top of the rack.
B. Add stabilizer plates to all six sides of the rack.
C. Add stabilizer plates to the front and back sides of the rack.
D. Bolt the rack into the floor.
B. Stabilizer plates can be mounted on all sides of the rack, which prevents it from tipping over. Answer A is incorrect because the heaviest servers should be located on the bottom of the rack. Answer C is incorrect because having stabilizer plates only on the front and back will not prevent the rack from tipping sideways. Answer D is incorrect because bolting the rack to the floor is
inefficient and not necessary. For more information, see the "Twisted pair" section.
12. A server has just been connected to a new UPS. When the technician pulls the power plug to test the UPS, both the UPS and the server abruptly shut down. What is the most likely cause of the UPS not running from battery?
A. The server BIOS was not updated.
B. The UPS software was not installed.
C. The serial cable to the server was disconnected.
D. The UPS internal battery cable was not connected.
D. When a UPS is first installed, its internal battery must be connected. It is disconnected for shipping safety reasons. Answer A is incorrect because the server BIOS is irrelevant in this issue. Answer B is incorrect because the issue was with the UPS battery. Answer C is incorrect because the serial cable would not have prevented the battery problem. For more information, see the "Charging the UPS battery" section.
13. A server with a coaxial Thinnet network card has just been installed. How should the server be connected to the network?
A. The coaxial cable should be plugged into the coaxial adapter on the network card.
B. A BNC T-connector should be installed on the network card connector,
with one end connected to the network and the other end terminated.
C. The network cable should be pierced with a vampire tap.
D. A BNC barrel connector should be connected to the server, with the
other end connected to the network.
B. A BNC T-connector is needed to connect the server to the network and terminate the connection. Answer A is incorrect because the network cable needs to be terminated. Answer C is incorrect because a vampire tap is typically used for older Thicknet installations. Answer D is incorrect because a barrel connector will not terminate the network connection. For more information, see the "Coaxial" section.
14. A technician is using a cable tester to test a UTP network cable that is connecting two hubs together . The tester indicates a fault with wires 1, 3, 2, and 6. When the cable is connected to the hubs, it seems to work fine. What is the
mostly likely cause of the discrepancy?
A. The cable was not crimped properly.
B. The cable is a straight-through cable, and the tester is set for a crossover cable.
C. The cable is a crossover cable, and the tester is set for a straightthrough cable.
D. The tester should be set to test coaxial cable.
C. The tester is set to test for a straight-through cable, but the cable is a crossover, which is why it shows a fault with the crossed transmit and receive wires. Answer A is incorrect because the cable is working properly. Answer B
is incorrect because the cable is a crossover cable. Answer D is incorrect because the tester should be set to test UTP cable. For more information, please see the "Twisted pair" section.
15. A technician has just installed a new UPS to protect two servers from power failure. The battery cable was connected internally, and the serial cables connected to both servers to facilitate auto-shutdown. When the UPS is first turned on, the technician disconnects the power plug to test the UPS. The UPS and servers abruptly shut down. What is the most likely cause of the UPS failure?
A. The UPS is not compatible with the server OS.
B. The UPS battery was not charged.
C. The UPS software has not been installed.
D. The UPS was not properly grounded.$$
B. A new UPS needs time to have its battery charged. Answer A is incorrect because the UPS software compatibility is not relevant to the condition of the battery. Answer C is incorrect because the UPS software is relevant to the condition of the battery. Answer D is incorrect because the problem is with the condition of the battery. For more information, see the "Charging the UPS battery" section.
1. A technician is expanding a 10BaseT LAN by adding two new servers: a mail server and a file server. There is only one unused standard port on the current 24-port server room hub, so a new 24-port hub has been purchased to be added on to the first hub. The new hub does not have an uplink port. How many UTP cables will be needed to connect all of the new devices, and what type of cables should they be?
The technician should make three cables, two straight-through cables, and one crossover cable. The straight-through cables are to connect the two servers to the new hub. The crossover cable will be used to connect the two hubs together using a standard network port. A crossover is needed, as the transmit and receive wires on the hub ports are already reversed.
2. The two new servers in the Scenario #1 have necessitated an upgrade to the UPS, which currently will not handle the load of the extra servers. A new UPS with sufficient capacity for all the servers has been purchased and is ready to
be installed. What steps must be taken to properly install and test the new UPS?
Because the new UPS will handle the load of all of the servers combined, the old one can be removed. Disconnect the serial cables connecting the old UPS to the servers, and remove any special UPS software that was installed on the server's network OS. Before connecting the new UPS, (1) open it up and reconnect the battery connector, which was disabled during shipping. (2) Plug the UPS into a power socket, and let it charge for 8 to 10 hours until it is fully charged. Now you can (3) plug the servers into the new UPS and reconnect the serial cables to all of the servers. Next, you must (4)install and configure UPS software on each server, to set up how it will behave in the event of a power failure. Each server should be set to automatically shut down gracefully if it is running on battery power. Once the servers have been configured, you should now (5) test the UPS. First, pull the UPS power plug from the wall socket, and examine the UPS to make sure it is running on battery power. The UPS should sound an audible alarm to warn you that it is running on battery. Next you should examine the servers to see if auto-shutdown has been initiated after a few minutes.
3. A technician needs to create a crossover cable to connect two servers together through their network ports. Which wires of a standard UTP cable
need to be crossed over to make the cable?
The pin out requirements for a crossover cable are detailed in Figure 2-4. Wires 1 and 3 are crossed over, as are wires 2 and 6. Wires 4, 5, 7, and 8 stay the same.
1. A server has just finished its POST routine. There were no errors during the POST, but when it was finished, the message "No Operating System Found" appeared on the monitor screen, and the server halted. What is the most
likely cause of the problem?
A. The CMOS battery has failed.
B. There is a RAM error.
C. The network OS has not been installed.
D. The server's BIOS is missing.
C. The network operating system has not yet been installed. Answer A is incorrect because the POST routine would not have gotten this far if there was a problem with CMOS. Answer B is incorrect because an error with system
RAM would have been detected before this point, and the POST would halt. Answer D is incorrect because the BIOS was present to perform the POST routine. For more information, see the "Monitoring the Power-On Sequence"
section.
2. A technician is using a KVM switch to access each server in a server rack. On one of the servers, the keyboard and mouse do not seem to be working. What should the technician do first to try to fix the problem?
A. Press the right mouse button.
B. Reset the KVM switch.
C. Reboot the server.
D. Press the Escape key on the keyboard.
B. Resetting the KVM switch should restore functionality to the keyboard and mouse. Answer A is incorrect because pressing the right-mouse button will not do anything. Answer C is incorrect because rebooting the server might
not initially be necessary. Answer D is incorrect because pressing the Escape key will not help if the keyboard is not functioning. For more information, see the "Installing external devices" section.
3. Additional memory has just been installed in a server. When the server is turned on, the POST routine reports that the keyboard is missing. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. The technician accidentally knocked the keyboard cable loose when replacing the server cover.
B. The new memory is conflicting with the keyboard.
C. There is no keyboard needed for this server.
D. The BIOS must be flashed.
A. The keyboard cable was most likely knocked loose during the installation. Answer B is incorrect because the memory would not conflict with a keyboard. Answer C is incorrect because all servers should have a keyboard installed. Answer D is incorrect because the BIOS does not need to be flashed n this case. For more information, see the "Monitoring the Power-On Sequence" section.
4. A technician has just removed a NIC card from a server to install a faster one. To prevent the old card from being damaged, what should the technician do to protect the card?
A. Leave the card on a workbench with anti-static padding.
B. The card should have been left in an extra slot in the server.
C. Attach the anti-static wrist strap to the NIC faceplate.
D. Put the card in an anti-static bag and store in a cabinet.
D. The card should be put into an anti-static bag to protect it from ESD, and stored safely away. Answer A is incorrect because leaving the card out on a bench leaves it open to physical damage. Answer B is incorrect because the network card should not be left in the server. Answer C is incorrect because the wrist strap is attached to the technician, and the other end attached to ground. For more information, see the "Installing internal devices" section.
5. When a server has finished its POST routine, what is the next step in the server startup sequence?
A. The server will check the RAM.
B. The server will start the network operating system.
C. The NIC card BIOS will be checked.
D. The power supply will be checked.
B. The server will start the network operating system once all the POST tests have finished. Answer A is incorrect because the RAM has already been checked during the POST routine. Answer C is incorrect because a NIC does not usually contain a BIOS. Answer D is incorrect because the power supply is checked at the beginning of POST testing. For more information, see the "Monitoring the Power-On Sequence" section.
6. A SCSI host adapter came factory-installed with a SCSI ID of 1. What SCSI ID should the technician set the host adapter to?
A. 1
B. 7
C. 0
D. 2
B. The host adapter should be set to ID 7 to give it the highest priority on the SCSI bus. Answer A is incorrect because some other device other than the boot device should have this ID. Answer C is incorrect because ID 0 should be used for the boot device on the SCSI bus. Answer D is incorrect because device 2 should belong to another peripheral on the SCSI bus. For more information, see the "Verifying SCSI IDs and Termination" section.
7. A technician is installing additional memory into a server. The technician did not perform any proper grounding and ESD prevention measures, and during the installation, a static shock visibly came into contact with the memory. When the server is started, the POST reports a parity error with the memory. What should be done to fix the memory problem?
A. The memory should be grounded.
B. The memory should be replaced.
C. The memory should be reinstalled while the technician is wearing an anti-static wrist strap.
D. Nothing, the memory is non-parity RAM.
B. The memory was damaged by the static shock and should be replaced. Answer A is incorrect because the memory cannot be fixed once it has been damaged by an electrostatic discharge. Answer C is incorrect because the memory is already damaged, and reinstalling it will not repair it. Answer D is incorrect because the message indicates an error and is not relaying information. For more information, see the "Installing internal devices" section.
8. Which is not a way to prevent electrostatic discharge?
A. Anti-static floor mats
B. Anti-static wrist strap
C. Server room air conditioning
D. Anti-static component bags
C. A server room air conditioning will not help prevent ESD. Answers A, B, and D are incorrect because these are all excellent ways of preventing ESD damage. For more information, see the "Installing internal devices" section.
9. During a server's POST routine, the server beeps twice, and then displays an error code with the front LED's. No information was displayed on the monitor screen. What is the best way to troubleshoot the problem?
A. Check the manufacturer's documentation for the error code.
B. Check the readme file on the network OS CD-ROM.
C. Run a memory test using diagnostic software.
D. Reboot the server and see if the problem persists. $$

A. You need to check the manufacturer's documentation for the error code. Answer B is incorrect because the network OS CD-ROM will not have hardware related information. Answer C is incorrect because the POST routine did
not get as far as the memory check test. Answer D is incorrect because the error code is indicating a problem with the server. For more information, see the "Monitoring the Power-On Sequence" section.
10. A server's POST routine halts half-way through the memory check. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. Only one of the memory modules is bad.
B. The server BIOS does not recognize the memory.
C. The keyboard is not connected.
D. One or both memory modules are bad.
D. This indicates there is a problem with some or all of the RAM modules. Answer A is incorrect because there could be more than one failed memory module. Answer B is incorrect because the memory check had already started, indicating that the memory was recognized by the server. Answer C is incorrect because the POST routine failed during the memory check stage and did not indicate a keyboard error. For more information, see the "Monitoring the Power-On Sequence" section.
11. A technician has just turned on a server. The server does not respond and there are no lights on the server. It is plugged into a UPS, which seems to be functioning normally, and the server power supply is showing a green light. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. The UPS is malfunctioning.
B. The LEDs are burnt out.
C. The power button does not work.
D. The power supply has failed.
C. The power button is not working properly. Answer A is incorrect because the UPS was said to be functioning normally. Answer B is incorrect because the server would still start up even though the LED's were not functioning.
Answer D is incorrect because the power supply light was showing that it was working properly. For more information, see the "Monitoring the Power-On Sequence" section.
12. An external SCSI tape drive has just been connected to a server. When the server is started, the SCSI BIOS reports a resource conflict error. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. The tape drive's SCSI ID is the same as a currently installed device.
B. The SCSI BIOS does not recognize the tape drive.
C. The end of the SCSI bus was not terminated.
D. The SCSI cable has exceeded the accepted length. $$

A. The tape drive has been assigned a SCSI ID that already exists. Answer B is incorrect because the rest of the SCSI devices would have been properly identified. Answer C is incorrect because improper termination would not result in a resource conflict. Answer D is incorrect because the SCSI cable length would not result in a resource conflict. For more information, see the "Verifying SCSI IDs and Termination" section.
13. During a server's POST routine, a fault was found in the server's memory. The server still finishes the POST process and boots the network operating system. What should the technician do next?
A. Nothing, as the server still boots up.
B. The server memory should be replaced.
C. The server should be rebooted.
D. The BIOS should be flashed, and then the POST should be run again.
B. The memory should be replaced, as it is showing a fault in the POST process. Answer A is incorrect because there is still a problem with the RAM that could affect the network OS performance. Answer C is incorrect because rebooting the server will not fix the problem. Answer D is incorrect because flashing the BIOS will not repair the memory fault. For more information, see the "Monitoring the Power-On Sequence" section.
14. Which is NOT a step in a server's POST routine?
A. Memory check
B. Hard drive check
C. Network connectivity check
D. CPU check
C. Network connectivity is not checked during a server's POST routine. Answers A, B, and D are incorrect because these are all steps in a server's POST routine. For more information, see the "Monitoring the Power-On Sequence" section.
15. A new server has arrived from the manufacturer. Most of the original components are pre-installed, but a second CPU and extra memory have also been shipped to be installed in the server. What should NOT be done before the installation?
A. Remove the CPU and memory from their anti-static bags and lay them out on the floor.
B. An anti-static wrist strap should be attached to the technician and a grounded object.
C. A work area should be created with anti-static floor mats.
D. The CPU and memory should be checked for compatibility with the current system.
A. The anti-static bags should not be removed until the time when they are to be installed in the server. Answer B is incorrect because this prevents ESD damage to the components. Answer C is incorrect because this will aid in preventing ESD damage to the components. Answer D is incorrect because the components should be checked for compatibility before they are installed. For more information, see the "Installing internal devices" section.
16. A technician is installing a new SCSI RAID controller on a server. The system BIOS is not recognizing the card. What can the technician do to fix the problem?
A. Upgrade the hard disk drive's firmware.
B. Reboot the server.
C. Reset the CMOS.
D. Upgrade the motherboard BIOS.
D. The motherboard BIOS needs to be updated with a new version that will recognize the newer hardware. Answer A is incorrect because the problem is with the system BIOS not recognizing the card, not the other way around. Answer B is incorrect because this will not resolve the problem. Answer C is incorrect because resetting the CMOS will not help in recognizing the device. For more information, see the "BIOS and Firmware Levels" section.17. During an upgrade of a server's motherboard BIOS, the power fails in the building and the server will not boot. What can the technician do to fix the problem?
A. Use a jumper to reset the BIOS to a factory-default setting.
B. Reboot the server with another BIOS.
C. Turn off the server for 30 minutes, then reboot.
D. Recover from backup. $$

A. The BIOS cannot be recovered once it has been corrupted. Answer B is incorrect because you cannot use another BIOS image. Answer C is incorrect because rebooting the server will not fix the damaged BIOS. Answer D is incorrect because there is no way to backup and restore a BIOS. For more information, see the "BIOS and Firmware Levels" section.
18. After you install a new server, you turn it on for the first time, but the devices on the SCSI bus are not recognized by the system. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. The SCSI bus was not terminated.
B. The SCSI host adapter was set to ID 7.
C. The first boot device was set to ID 0.
D. One of the SCSI devices has failed. $$

A. The SCSI bus will not work properly if it is not terminated. Answer B is incorrect because the host adapter should be using ID 7. Answer C is incorrect because the first boot device should be using ID 0. Answer D is incorrect because the other devices should have been recognized even though one of the others has failed. For more information, see the "Verifying SCSI IDs and Termination" section.
19. A server has been set up with a SCSI hard drive system. The host adapter has been configured as SCSI ID 7. What SCSI ID should the first boot device be configured with?
A. 7
B. 1
C. 0
D. 5
C. The first boot device should be configured as ID 0. Answer A is incorrect because this ID will conflict with the SCSI host adapter. Answers B and D are incorrect because the boot device should be set to ID 0. For more information,
see the "Verifying SCSI IDs and Termination" section.
20. A technician wants to upgrade a SCSI hard drive to the latest firmware revision. Where is the best place to obtain the latest firmware?
A. OS CD-ROM
B. Installation floppy disk
C. System BIOS manufacturer
D. Hard drive manufacturer's Web site
D. The hard drive manufacturer's Web site will have the latest firmware version. Answer A is incorrect because the OS CD-ROM will not contain device firmware. Answer B is incorrect because the installation disk will not have the
most current firmware version. Answer C is incorrect because the system BIOS manufacturer will not have firmware for the hard drive. For more information, see the "BIOS and Firmware Levels" section.
1. A new server has just been delivered to the server room. You have been asked to employ ESD best practices while installing and configuring server components. What steps should you take to ensure that the equipment is not accidentally damaged by electrostatic discharge?
Before unpacking the server, set aside a special work area to start the installation. (1) Use a work bench with proper anti-static padding, or if working from the floor, a special anti-static floor mat can be used. When unpacking the server,(2) leave any extra components in their anti-static bags until the moment you install them. Leaving them out in the open leaves them susceptible to ESD. You should (3) attach an anti-static strap to your wrist, with the other end attached to a grounded source, such as the metal casing on the server, or the metal parts of a server rack. Before handling components, (4) you should touch the grounded source to insure that any ESD built up can be discharged. Handle the components carefully when you take them from their anti-static bags, and hold them by the edges, without touching electronic parts such as the circuit board or processor chips. If any components are to be removed from the server, put them into anti-static bags and store them in a safe place.
2. A server is exhibiting various problems during its startup routine. The POST tests result in errors at various stages of the routine. What are the stages of the POST process, and what components are checked at each stage?
When a server is first turned on, the (1) power supplies initialize, and as soon as they are ready, they begin to feed power to the system. The CPU and the RAM will be empty, and (2) information is first read from the BIOS ROM. The (3) BIOS initializes and begins testing internal components. System timers, resource identifiers such as IRQ and DMA, cache, CPU, RAM, are all examples of components that are tested at this time. Then, (4) external devices are tested, such as storage systems and SCSI buses, sometimes by their own BIOS if one exists. At this time (5) hard drives and RAID arrays are verified and initialized. When this is complete, the (6) server looks for the first boot device, where the network operating system boot loader resides, which then takes over the boot process of the OS.
1. A technician is installing a new SCSI RAID controller on a server. The system BIOS is not recognizing the card. What can the technician do to fix the problem?
A. Upgrade the hard disk drive's firmware.
B. Reboot the server.
C. Flash the SCSI RAID controller's BIOS.
D. Upgrade the motherboard BIOS.
D. The motherboard BIOS needs to be updated with a new version that will recognize the newer hardware. Answer A is incorrect because upgrading the drive's firmware will not aid the system BIOS in recognizing it. Answer B is incorrect because rebooting the server will not resolve the problem. Answer C is incorrect because flashing the controller BIOS will not aid the system BIOS in recognizing it. For more information, see the "Hardware RAID and Software RAID" section.
2. A customer wants to be able to connect an array of 55 hard drives to their two database servers. Which technology should be used for this system?
A. IDE
B. Fibre Channel
C. SCSI
D. Disk striping
B. A Fibre Channel system is best suited for this complex arrangement. Answer A is incorrect because IDE cannot handle this many hard drives. Answer C is incorrect because Fibre Channel should be used for such a high-end system. Answer D is incorrect because disk striping refers to a method of RAID implementation, not a hardware technology. For more information, see the "Fibre Channel" section.
3. A technician is reviewing just-arrived equipment for an installation that requires a duplexed RAID 1 array. The equipment includes a SCSI RAID controller and two 18GB SCSI disk drives with cables. Can the technician proceed with the installation?
A. No, RAID cannot be performed with SCSI devices.
B. Yes, RAID 1 uses the two disk drives for mirroring each other.
C. No, one more SCSI RAID controller is needed.
D. Yes, all the equipment is correct.
C. Disk duplexing requires at least two hard disk controllers. Answer A is incorrect because RAID can be performed by SCSI drives. Answer B is incorrect because a second controller is needed for duplexing. Answer D is incorrect because there is a controller missing, which is needed to enable duplexing. For more information, see the "RAID Levels" section.
4. A technician has created an array of four 18GB hard drives. One month later, the system is still working fine, but the customer calls to complain that the system shows only 54GB of disk space. What would explain this situation?
A. One of the disks drives has failed.
B. The customer is running RAID 0.
C. One of the logical drives has failed.
D. The customer is running RAID 5.
D. In a RAID 5 array, parity is distributed across all drives, but this takes up the equivalent of one disk drive. Answers A and C are incorrect because the system did not indicate an error condition. Answer B is incorrect because the system is running striping with parity. RAID 0 is striping alone. For more information, see the "RAID Levels" section
5. What happens when hard disk drive fails in a hardware-implemented RAID 1 system?
A. The server crashes and cannot be recovered.
B. The system fails over to the mirrored drive.
C. Nothing the parity drive takes over from the failed drive.
D. The duplexed controller repairs the failed hard drive.
B. In a RAID 1 array using mirroring, the system will fail over to the mirrored drive, which contains an exact replica of the data. Answer A is incorrect because the RAID 1 system is fault-tolerant and will not crash. Answer C is incorrect because there is no parity involved in RAID 1 mirroring. Answer D is incorrect because a duplex controller does not repair a mirrored drive. For more information, see the "RAID Levels" section.
6. What aspect of a RAID controller can increase the write performance of an array?
A. Parity striping
B. RAID caching
C. Disk mirroring
D. BIOS upgrade
B. Caching on the RAID controller will speed up disk writes. Answer A is incorrect because the calculation of parity, and writing data to multiple drives, slows down disk writes. Answer C is incorrect because a mirrored disk array
has to write the same data to a separate disk, which decreases performance. Answer D is incorrect because a BIOS upgrade will not affect write performance. For more information, see the "Hardware RAID and Software RAID"
section.
7. A customer is running a RAID 3 array with three 9GB drives and one parity drive. The customer needs to expand their system to provide 54GB of disk space. How many more drives do they need?
A. 3
B. None
C. 2
D. 1
A. Because one drive is used as a parity drive in a RAID 3 array, you need six 9GB drives plus the parity drive to make a total of 54GB of disk space. Answers B, C, and D are incorrect because a total of six drives are needed. For more information, see the "RAID Levels" section.
8. A hot spare is configured into a RAID array. What is its purpose?
A. To have a hard drive to fail over to when the mirror breaks.
B. If a hard drive fails, you can swap it with this drive.
C. To provide another RAID disk controller in case the live one fails.
D. If a hard drive fails, the system will use the installed hot spare in place of the failed drive.
D. The hot spare is a live disk in the system, but it is only used when one of the other drives fails. Answer A is incorrect because a mirrored system will continue operating from the surviving mirrored drive. Answer B is incorrect because a hot spare is configured to take over immediately, rather than having to be swapped in. Answer C is incorrect because a hot spare is a disk drive, not a controller. For more information, see the "RAID Disk Concepts" section.
9. Disk striping, with parity distributed over all drives, is an example of what level of RAID array?
A. RAID 5
B. RAID 3
C. RAID 0
D. RAID 1
A. Only RAID 5 performs parity striping. Answer B is incorrect because RAID 3 defines striping with a dedicated parity drive. Answer C is incorrect because RAID 0 defines striping only with no parity. Answer D is incorrect because RAID 1 defines disk mirroring. For more information, see the "RAID Levels" section.
10. An embedded RAID controller has what main characteristic?
A. Another embedded RAID controller can be added to provide redundancy.
B. It is used for software RAID arrays by the network operating system.
C. It is external to the main server system.
D. The RAID controller is built right into the motherboard of the server.
D. Embedded controllers are built right on the system motherboard. Answer A is incorrect because you cannot add an embedded controller it is already built into the motherboard. Answer B is incorrect because a RAID controller is a form of hardware RAID, not software. Answer C is incorrect because an external RAID system exists outside of the server. For more information, see the "Hardware RAID and Software RAID" section.
11. Enterprise Storage Area Networks use which type of technology for fast, robust storage access?
A. IDE
B. SCSI
C. Embedded PCI controllers
D. Fibre Channel
D. Fibre Channel technology provides high speed access over fiber-optic cable. Answer A is incorrect because IDE is much slower than fiber-optics. Answer B is incorrect because SCSI is slower than fiber-optics. Answer C is incorrect because an embedded PCI controller is dependent on the communications technology used. For more information, see the "Hardware RAID and Software RAID" section.
12. A technician visiting a customer site is trying to fix a failed drive in a RAID array. The customer is shocked when the technician pulls the failed drive out and replaces it while the system is still online and live. How did the technician accomplish this?
A. The drive was a hot spare.
B. The drive was a hot plug drive.
C. It was a RAID 5 array.
D. The server was a non-critical server.
B. Hot plug technology enables you to remove and add drives while the system is still powered on and running. Answer A is incorrect because a hot spare does not need to be replaced, it takes over automatically. Answer C is incorrect because the RAID level is not relevant in this case. Answer D is incorrect because you would never pull a non-hot plug hard drive out of a live system, even if it was not critical. For more information, see the "RAID Disk Concepts" section.
13. Disk mirroring without striping is an example of what RAID array?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 0+1
C. RAID 1
D. RAID 3
C. RAID 1 mirrors the contents of one hard drive onto another. Answer A is incorrect because RAID 0 defines disk striping only. Answer B is incorrect because RAID 0+1 defines striping a mirrored array. Answer D is incorrect because RAID 3 defines disk striping with a dedicated parity drive. For more information, see the "RAID Levels" section.
14. A technician is building a RAID 5 array. The equipment has just arrived, and contains a SCSI RAID controller, four 9GB drives, and SCSI cables. The customer has requested that the disk size be 27GB. Does the technician have enough equipment?
A. No, an additional disk controller is need.
B. Yes, all the equipment needed has arrived.
C. No, an additional 9GB is needed for parity.
D. Yes, but only enough for a RAID 3 array.
B. Remember that parity is distributed in RAID 5, but it still takes up the equivalent of one drive. Answer A is incorrect because you only need a second controller when performing disk duplexing. Answer C is incorrect because the disk size requested already takes into account the equivalent of one drive for parity. Answer D is incorrect because a RAID 3 array uses the same amount of hard drives as a RAID 5, except the parity is not distributed across all drives. For more information, see the "RAID Levels" section.
15. A technician is creating a software-based RAID 5 system. The customer requests that the NOS system partition be part of the array. How does the technician do this?
A. The NOS partition is already part of a RAID 5 system.
B. By updating the firmware of the RAID controller.
C. This is not possible with a software-based RAID array.
D. By mirroring the NOS partition.
C. The NOS has to enable the array, and therefore the system partition cannot be part of the array. Answer A is incorrect because the OS partition cannot be part of the array. Answer B is incorrect because there is no RAID controller in a software RAID array. Answer D is incorrect because the array was specified s a RAID 5 array. For more information, see the "Hardware RAID and Software RAID" section.
16. A customer recently had a hard disk crash on their file server and lost all of their data. They want to add a RAID solution to create fault tolerance for their
system. Their server has an old CPU and 64MB of RAM. Which solution will meet their needs?
A. Create a software RAID array with their network operating system.
B. Add extra hard disk drives to be used as hot spares.
C. Add an external RAID storage system running RAID 5.
D. Use RAID 0.
C. The system does not have enough resources for software RAID. RAID 5 adds the fault tolerance requirement. Answer A is incorrect because the overhead needed for the software RAID array is too large for the system to handle. Answer B is incorrect because adding hot spare drives will not define any type of RAID level. Answer D is incorrect because RAID 0 does not include any fault tolerance. For more information, see the "Hardware RAID and Software RAID" section.
17. A customer is running a RAID 0 array with six 9GB drives, and one of the disk drives fails. What can the technician do to recover the array?
A. The technician must restore from a tape backup.
B. The failed drive can be rebuilt from parity information in the last disk drive.
C. The failed drive can be rebuilt from the mirrored drive.
D. The technician can hot swap the failed drive out and use a replacement.
A. There is no fault tolerance in a RAID 0 array. Answer B is incorrect because RAID 0 defines disk striping without any fault tolerance. Answer C is incorrect because there is no mirrored drive in a RAID 0 array. Answer D is incorrect because there is no parity information in a RAID 0 array to rebuild the hard drive. For more information, see the "RAID Levels" section.
18. Disk striping with parity contained in a separate drive is an example of what level of RAID array?
A. RAID 3
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 0
A. RAID 3 uses a disk drive for parity. In RAID 5, parity data is striped across all drives. Answer B is incorrect because RAID 1 defines disk mirroring. Answer C is incorrect because RAID defines data striping with a distributed parity system. Answer D is incorrect because RAID 0 defines disk striping only with no parity. For more information, see the "RAID Levels" section.
19. A customer is running a RAID 1 array with disk duplexing, and the primary RAID controller has failed. What happens to the system?
A. The controller is rebuilt using parity information.
B. The controller is swapped with a hot spare RAID controller.
C. The system immediately fails.
D. Nothing, the mirrored array becomes active using the secondary RAID controller to service the disk drives.
D. The second disk controller will continue to operate the array if the other controller fails. This removes a single disk controller as a point of failure. Answer A is incorrect because a controller cannot be rebuilt. Answer B is incorrect because only a hard drive can be a hot spare. Answer C is incorrect because the system is duplexed, so the system will not fail, and the secondary controller will take over. For more information, see the "RAID Levels" section.
20. A customer wishes to implement a RAID solution on their server. Because of costs, they wish to use a software-based RAID system. What must be present
to implement this system?
A. An external RAID storage system
B. Enough CPU power and RAM to power the system
C. An embedded RAID controller
D. Hot swap disk drives
B. Software RAID requires more system resource overhead than a hardware RAID solution. Answer A is incorrect because a software RAID array is implemented by the OS, not by external hardware. Answer C is incorrect because
software RAID does not use any type of hardware controller. Answer D is incorrect because hot swap drives will not be used in a software RAID system. For more information, see the "Hardware RAID and Software RAID" section.
1. Because of the number of hard disk crashes in the past, your management would like you to develop a fault tolerant system for your company's file server. Your company's users use a lot of disk space, and your system is currently running four 9GB drives in a RAID 0 array, but there is not much disk space left. What system would you recommend to allow for a large disk size plus a good level of fault tolerance?
Because you are running out of disk space, you will need more drives in this system. To create fault tolerance, you will need to implement either a RAID 3 or RAID 5 solution. Consider six or seven 9GB drives, one of which will be used up for parity. Because the system is a file server, and not a transactional database system, read and write performance isn't a large issue, and the higher performance RAID levels are not needed.
2. A customer has called to say that one of their hard disks has a red light flashing on it, but the system is still functional and running smoothly. When you visit the customer site, what would be your series of steps to troubleshoot and fix the problem?
Your first step in troubleshooting this system is to find out what RAID level it is running. Because the system did not crash, it has some level of fault tolerance. Typically, if there are only two drives in the system, it is a RAID 1 mirroring system. Any system with three drives or more is using a striped RAID system with parity. In either case, if there is no hot spare drive present, all you would have to do is replace the failed disk drive with a new one. If a hot plug system is being used, this can be done while the system is alive and online.
3. A database company is currently planning an enterprise-wide server that will be used heavily for transactional data. The management has requested a fast, fault-tolerant system. What system would you recommend and implement?
Because this is a high-end, transactional database system, read and write I/O performance is a must. A large number of disk drives and strong fault tolerance will also be needed for this enterprise system. If this were a smaller database system, a RAID 0+1 array would be acceptable, but because of its size and the critical nature of the data, a RAID 30 or 50 should be used.

1. A. The default network protocol should be TCP/IP. Answers B and C are incorrect because these are NetWare protocols. Answer D is incorrect because NetBIOS is a non-routable protocol, and is only used for local LANs. For more
information, see the "Configuring and Verifying Network Connectivity" section.
A. The default network protocol should be TCP/IP. Answers B and C are incorrect because these are NetWare protocols. Answer D is incorrect because NetBIOS is a non-routable protocol, and is only used for local LANs. For more information, see the "Configuring and Verifying Network Connectivity" section.

2. B. The file system chosen during the installation was FAT. Only the NTFS file system will allow security permissions to be set on files. Answer A is incorrect because the problem was related to the file systems. Answer C is incorrect because the HPFS file system is used by OS/2. Answer D is incorrect because NTFS would have allowed the operation. For more information, see the "Installing the NOS" section.
B. The file system chosen during the installation was FAT. Only the NTFS file system will allow security permissions to be set on files. Answer A is incorrect because the problem was related to the file systems. Answer C is incorrect because the HPFS file system is used by OS/2. Answer D is incorrect because NTFS would have allowed the operation. For more information, see the "Installing the NOS" section.
3. D. The server must have enough disk space to install the support pack. Answer A is incorrect because a support pack does not have to be the most recent version to be successfully installed. Answer B is incorrect because the installation will not halt if a backup is not made of files to be replaced. Answer C is incorrect because a Support Pack would not produce this error message. For more information, see the "Applying Patches and Service Packs" section.
D. The server must have enough disk space to install the support pack. Answer A is incorrect because a support pack does not have to be the most recent version to be successfully installed. Answer B is incorrect because the installation will not halt if a backup is not made of files to be replaced. Answer C is incorrect because a Support Pack would not produce this error message. For more information, see the "Applying Patches and Service Packs" section.
4. C. The subnet mask for this IP address is incorrect. The default subnet mask for a class A network is 255.0.0.0. Answer A is incorrect because the gateway address is correct. Answer B is incorrect because an IP address conflict would have resulted in an error message. Answer D is incorrect because you still should have been able to ping another device. For more information, see the "Configuring and Verifying Network Connectivity" section.
C. The subnet mask for this IP address is incorrect. The default subnet mask for a class A network is 255.0.0.0. Answer A is incorrect because the gateway address is correct. Answer B is incorrect because an IP address conflict would have resulted in an error message. Answer D is incorrect because you still should have been able to ping another device. For more information, see the "Configuring and Verifying Network Connectivity" section.
5. A. The next step is to partition the disks to prepare for the installation of operating system files. Answer B is incorrect because the license key installation comes later in the installation process when files are already on the hard drive. Answer C is incorrect because the readme file should be checked before the installation is started. Answer D is incorrect because network configuration comes near the end of the installation process. For more information, see the "Installing the NOS" section. $$

A. The next step is to partition the disks to prepare for the installation of operating system files. Answer B is incorrect because the license key installation comes later in the installation process when files are already on the hard drive. Answer C is incorrect because the readme file should be checked before the installation is started. Answer D is incorrect because network configuration comes near the end of the installation process. For more information, see the "Installing the NOS" section.
6. C. The installation must be restarted using the boot disk or CD-ROM. Answer A is incorrect because the server will not boot because the installation was not completed. Answer B is incorrect because an ERD disk will not recover an
OS that has not been fully installed. Answer D is incorrect because you cannot install an OS in a safe mode. For more information, see the "Installing the NOS" section.
C. The installation must be restarted using the boot disk or CD-ROM. Answer A is incorrect because the server will not boot because the installation was not completed. Answer B is incorrect because an ERD disk will not recover an OS that has not been fully installed. Answer D is incorrect because you cannot install an OS in a safe mode. For more information, see the "Installing the NOS" section.
7. A. A WINS server maps NetBIOS names to IP addresses. Answer B is incorrect because a DNS server is used to map Internet domain names to IP addresses. Answer C is incorrect because a DHCP server is used to automatically assign IP addresses to new devices on the network. Answer D is incorrect because a default gateway is a setting for the TCP/IP protocol for proper routing. For more information, see the "Configuring and Verifying Network Connectivity"
section.
A. A WINS server maps NetBIOS names to IP addresses. Answer B is incorrect because a DNS server is used to map Internet domain names to IP addresses. Answer C is incorrect because a DHCP server is used to automatically assign IP addresses to new devices on the network. Answer D is incorrect because a default gateway is a setting for the TCP/IP protocol for proper routing. For more information, see the "Configuring and Verifying Network Connectivity" section.
8. C. The server should be restarted after the installation of a service pack for the update to take effect. Answer A is incorrect because the service pack does not have to be the latest version to fix a particular problem. Answer B is incorrect because service packs are cumulative, and contain all previous updates. Answer D is incorrect because a backup of the files that were updated will not fix the problem. For more information, see the "Applying Patches and Service Packs" section.
C. The server should be restarted after the installation of a service pack for the update to take effect. Answer A is incorrect because the service pack does not have to be the latest version to fix a particular problem. Answer B is incorrect because service packs are cumulative, and contain all previous updates. Answer D is incorrect because a backup of the files that were updated will not fix the problem. For more information, see the "Applying Patches and Service Packs" section.
9. D. ipconfig /all will display all networking information for all network cards. Answers A and B are incorrect because these ipconfig commands are used to release and renew DHCP leases, not view DHCP information. Answer C
is incorrect because ifconfig is used for configuring networking on a Unix machine. For more information, see the "Configuring and Verifying Network Connectivity" section.
D. ipconfig /all will display all networking information for all network cards. Answers A and B are incorrect because these ipconfig commands are used to release and renew DHCP leases, not view DHCP information. Answer C
is incorrect because ifconfig is used for configuring networking on a Unix machine. For more information, see the "Configuring and Verifying Network Connectivity" section.
10. C. The network needs to use subnetting to create the logical network segments. Answer A is incorrect because a firewall is used to protect an internal LAN from external access from the Internet. Answer B is incorrect because a
proxy server is used to forward requests to the Internet on behalf of another client. Answer D is incorrect because a default gateway is used to perform routing functions. For more information, see the "Configuring and Verifying Network Connectivity" section.
C. The network needs to use subnetting to create the logical network segments. Answer A is incorrect because a firewall is used to protect an internal LAN from external access from the Internet. Answer B is incorrect because a
proxy server is used to forward requests to the Internet on behalf of another client. Answer D is incorrect because a default gateway is used to perform routing functions. For more information, see the "Configuring and Verifying Network Connectivity" section.
11. A. The Internet uses the TCP/IP protocol. Answer B is incorrect because IPX is the Novell NetWare standard protocol. Answer C is incorrect because NTFS is a type of file system used by Windows NT. Answer D is incorrect because NetBIOS
is a non-routable protocol used by simple local area networks. For more information, see the "Configuring and Verifying Network Connectivity" section.
A. The Internet uses the TCP/IP protocol. Answer B is incorrect because IPX is the Novell NetWare standard protocol. Answer C is incorrect because NTFS is a type of file system used by Windows NT. Answer D is incorrect because NetBIOS is a non-routable protocol used by simple local area networks. For more information, see the "Configuring and Verifying Network Connectivity" section.
12. B. The server does not exist in the DNS table, so the domain name cannot be resolved to the IP address. Answer A is incorrect because a WINS server is used to map NetBIOS names to IP addresses. Answer C is incorrect because
the LMHOSTS file is used to map NetBIOS names to IP addresses. Answer D is incorrect because the subnet mask is fine if the technician can ping the IP address. For more information, see the "Configuring and Verifying Network Connectivity" section.
B. The server does not exist in the DNS table, so the domain name cannot be resolved to the IP address. Answer A is incorrect because a WINS server is used to map NetBIOS names to IP addresses. Answer C is incorrect because
the LMHOSTS file is used to map NetBIOS names to IP addresses. Answer D is incorrect because the subnet mask is fine if the technician can ping the IP address. For more information, see the "Configuring and Verifying Network Connectivity" section.
13. D. The /etc file system is from a Unix installation. Answer A is incorrect because this should be used for an OS/2 installation. Answer B is incorrect because the Windows ERD disk should be used for an NT server. Answer C is

incorrect because the startup.ncf file configures boot options for a NetWare server. For more information, see the "Installing the NOS" section. $$
D. The /etc file system is from a Unix installation. Answer A is incorrect because this should be used for an OS/2 installation. Answer B is incorrect because the Windows ERD disk should be used for an NT server. Answer C is
incorrect because the startup.ncf file configures boot options for a NetWare server. For more information, see the "Installing the NOS" section.
14. C. A Class C address uses the range of 192-223 as the first octet. Answer A is incorrect because this range is for a Class A address. Answer B is incorrect because this range is used for a Class B address. Answer D is incorrect because this address is used for broadcasts. For more information, see the "Configuring and Verifying Network Connectivity" section.
C. A Class C address uses the range of 192-223 as the first octet. Answer A is incorrect because this range is for a Class A address. Answer B is incorrect because this range is used for a Class B address. Answer D is incorrect because this address is used for broadcasts. For more information, see the "Configuring and Verifying Network Connectivity" section.
15. D. A proxy server is used to forward requests on behalf of other clients. The proxy is configured with an external IP to access the Internet. Answer A is incorrect because a gateway is used to route TCP/IP traffic. Answer B is incorrect because a DHCP server is used to automatically assign IP addresses to devices on a network. Answer C is incorrect because a firewall is used to protect an internal LAN from external Internet access. For more information, see the "Configuring and Verifying Network Connectivity" section.
1. You are installing Windows NT on a new Web server. The network is using private IP addressing internally, but has a set of ten Class B IP addresses issued by the company's Internet service provider to use for any external servers. What steps should you take to install the server and properly configure the network settings? $$

The first step is in the installation is to examine the documentation and any readme files to ensure hardware compatibility and any issues related to installing a Web server. Next, you should start the server with the OS install boot disk or CD-ROM.
The disk partitions should now be configured and formatted with the NTFS file system, so that enhanced NT security can be used. A separate partition should be made for the Windows NT system files, and another for the Web server files. If external users are accessing this Web site from the Internet, you do not want to take the chance of them possibly being able to access the system files. Now you can install the operating system to the system partition that was created in the previous step. When the installation is finished, you need to restart the server. After the server reboots, you need to enter some configuration parameters such as the license key, language settings, and domain/ workgroup configuration. Because this server will be used to serve Web pages to external users, it should be configured as a stand-alone server without any domain functions.
Now you need to configure the network settings. Use the Class B IP addresses issued by your ISP. Because this is a Web server being accessed by external users, it will not be able to use an internal private IP address. Verify the network settings and connectivity by checking the values displayed from the ipconfig command. Try to ping another server to ensure connectivity. Finally, when the base OS installation is completed, apply the latest service packs and patches to bring the OS system files and related programs up to date.
2. A Windows network is being configured to support TCP/IP, because several Unix workstations and servers have been added to the network. What new services must you add to the network to enable both the Windows and Unix
machines to connect to the network and connect to each other?
You need to install a DNS server and WINS server on the network. The DNS server will keep a table mapping domain names to IP addresses, so that Unix machines on the network can be referred to by their name rather than an IP
address. The WINS server will map Windows NetBIOS names to IP addresses to enable Windows machines to be referred to by their names rather than IP addresses.
1. Which protocol is used to perform network management?
A. SNAP
B. SMTP
C. MIB
D. SNMP
D. SNMP, the Simple Network Management Protocol, is used to control network communications devices using TCP/IP. The SNMP protocol collects statistics from devices on the TCP/IP networks. Answer A is incorrect because
SNAP doesn't stand for anything. Answer B is incorrect because SMTP is the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol. Answer C is incorrect because the MIB is the Management Information Base, which is a component of SNMP. For more information, see the "Monitoring the network with SNMP" section.
2. In SNMP, what does the agent software do?
A. Collects data and sends it via e-mail to a predetermined address.
B. Collects information and forwards it to an NMS.
C. Collects data and forwards the information to a server operating system.
D. It simply collects the data, and you must manually seek the information using a NMS.
B. The agent software that is loaded by the devices collects information and forwards the information to a Network Management System (NMS). Answer A is incorrect because the NMS software has e-mail capabilities, not the agent.
Answer C is incorrect because the information has to go to an NMS, not the server operating system. Answer D is incorrect because manually seeking the information defeats the purpose of having agents on the devices. For more information, see the "Monitoring the network with SNMP" section.
3. What do you configure on SNMP devices to enable them to send messages to the NMS?
A. Traps
B. Alerts
C. MIBs
D. PASS
A. Traps are configured on SNMP devices to allow them to send alerts to the NMS. Answers B, C, and D are all incorrect because they are not items that can be configured to send alerts. For more information, see the "Monitoring the network with SNMP" section.
4. What are some typical SNMP thresholds?
A. Port malfunctions
B. Network congestion
C. Packet collisions
D. Device failures
E. All of the above
E. All of these items are typical SNMP thresholds that traps can be set for. For more information, see the "Monitoring the network with SNMP" section
5. What are the two current versions of SNMP called?
A. SNMPvA and SNMPvB
B. SNMPv1 and SNMPv2
C. SNMPv4 and SMPv5
D. SNMPvC and SNMPvD
B. SNMPv1 and SNMPv2 are the current versions of SNMP. SNMPv3 was in the works at the time of writing. For more information, see the "Monitoring the network with SNMP" section.
6. There are three key components in an SNMP managed network. Based on the list below, which ones are correct?
I. Managed devices
II. Thresholds
III. Agents
IV. NMS
A. I and IV only
B. I, III, and IV only
C. I, II, and III only
D. II and III only$$

B. Managed devices, agents, and the NMS are the three key components in an SNMP managed network. Thresholds are part of the network, but are configured on the managed devices. For more information, see the "Monitoring the
network with SNMP" section.
7. Which of the following protocol operations is used to retrieve information from an SNMP agent?
A. Set
B. GetNext
C. Get
D. Trap
C. The Get operation is used by the NMS to retrieve values of the object instances from an agent. Answer A is incorrect because the Set operation is used to set the value of an instance. Answer B is incorrect because the
GetNext operation retrieves the value of the next instance. Answer D is incorrect because the Trap operation sends an event to the NMS. For more information, see the "Monitoring the network with SNMP" section.
8. You decide that you are going to upgrade your third-party monitoring system to the latest version. What conditions should be met before upgrading?
A. You have confirmed that you are upgrading to the correct version.
B. You have printed the documentation and read it thoroughly.
C. You have confirmed that the system requirements are met for the agent.
D. You have removed all the SNMP traps prior to upgrading.
C. You should make sure that the current version of your operating system is compatible with the latest version of the third-party monitoring system. You may find out that it is intended for the most recent release of your server operating system, or you may be required to have a certain service pack or hot fix installed. Answer A is incorrect because you should ensure that you are not going to upgrade to the wrong version. Answer B is incorrect because this is not a condition that needs to be met before installing the upgrade. This is something that you should do prior to actually installing the original software. Answer D is incorrect because removing all the SNMP traps will only cause you more work as you will have to recreate them. There is no need to remove the traps. For more information, see the "Using monitoring tools" section.
9. How do you access the Performance Monitor in Windows NT?
A. Start Menu➪Control Panel ➪ Performance Monitor
B. At the command prompt, type WINPERF
C. Start Menu➪Programs ➪ Administrative Tools
D. It is located on the desktop
C. You can access to the Performance monitor by selecting Start ➪ Programs➪Administrative Tools, and choosing Performance Monitor from the list. Answer A is incorrect because Performance Monitor is not located in the control panel. Answer B is incorrect because this is a fake command. The correct command to start Performance Monitor from the command prompt is perfmon. Answer D is incorrect because there is no shortcut to Performance Monitor on the desktop, unless you have created a shortcut to it. For more information, see the "Windows Performance Monitor" section.
10. How do you load the MONITOR utility in Novell?
A. Start➪Sys:
B. At the console prompt, type MONITOR.
C. At the console prompt, type START MONITOR.
D. Choose MONITOR from the Novell Console menu.
B. You just need to type the word MONITOR from the console prompt to start the Novell MONITOR utility. For more information, see the "NetWare MONITOR" section.

11. What is the event log utility used in Windows NT/2000 called?
A. Event Viewer
B. Log Viewer
C. EventReporter
D. System Log Viewer$$

A. The event log utility used for viewing the logs is called Event Viewer in Windows NT/2000. It can be accessed by selecting Start ➪ Programs ➪ Administrative Tools. Answers B and D are incorrect because there are no such Windows utilities. Answer C is incorrect because EventReporter is a third-party utility. For more information, see the "Using event logs" section.
12. What is the logging program in Unix that stores system and applications events in log files called?
A. eventlog
B. sysevt
C. syslog
D. alrtlog
C. Syslog is the logging program in most versions of Unix that stores system and applications events in log files. Answers A, B, and D aren't real utilities. Refer to the Event Logs section in this chapter for more information. For more
information, see the "Using event logs" section.
13. What is the advantage of using the backup software included in the server operating system?
A. Compatibility with the operating system environment.
B. It is cheap.
C. It has robust features.
D. The ability to back up multiple operating system environments.
A. The only real advantage is compatibility with the operating system environment. Answer B is incorrect because some operating system vendors charge an additional fee for including the backup software. Answer C is incorrect because most backup programs that come with the operating system are not as robust as third party programs. Answer D is incorrect because this is false for most operating system backup programs. However, NetWare's backup utility has the ability to backup NT computers. For more information, see the "Backing up the server" section.
14. When is the best time to take server baseline statistics?
A. When the server is behaving erratically
B. When the server is functioning normally
C. During peak loads
D. In the morning when everyone logs on to the system
B. You should always want to perform a baseline operation when the server is performing under normal conditions. All the other answers are incorrect because this would give you false data for your baseline. For more information, see the "Performing a Server Baseline" section.
15. What is an import aspect to cover in the server configuration?
A. Network documentation
B. Disaster recovery documentation
C. Documenting the server configuration
D. RAID levels$$

C. Ensuring you have good documentation on your server configurations will make them easier to troubleshoot when problems occur, and easier to recover in the event of a disaster. For more information, see the "Documenting the
Configuration" section.
1. You are using Windows NT server in you computer environment. Your users are complaining of latency issues on the network. What software tool that comes with NT could you use, and how would you use it effectively?
Under Windows NT you would use Performance Monitor to analyze your server environment. You could make use of the Chart mode by selecting the proper objects and adding the appropriate counters for real time monitoring. Some of these counters are found under the Network Segment and Network Interface objects. They could include: % Broadcast Frames, % Multicast Frames, % Network Utilization, Packets/sec, and Packets Sent/sec. You would use the Log mode to do some extensive logging over the course of the day, week, and so on. At the end of each day you could export the log files and exam them. You would also configure the Alert mode to notify you automatically if any of the thresholds that you set on the object counters were met. You may want to set thresholds on the %Network Utilization, because this counter should not be consistently higher than 50%.
1. CPU stepping refers to what aspect of the processor?
A. Level 1 cache
B. CPU chip revision number
C. Level 2 cache
D. Clock speed
B. A step version of a processor is one that contains fixes from the original version. Answer A is incorrect because the Level 1 cache refers to the onboard cache on the CPU. Answer C is incorrect because the Level 2 cache refers to the cache memory that is external to the CPU. Answer D is incorrect because the clock speed refers to the speed at which the CPU executes instructions. For more information, see the "Processor upgrade procedures" section.
2. A technician receives an additional CPU for a multiprocessor server. What should be verified to confirm that it will work with the other processor?
A. Voltage
B. Brand name
C. Stepping
D. Speed
C. All CPUs in a multiprocessor system must have the same stepping version. Answer A is incorrect because the voltage level of the same CPUs will be identical. Answer B is incorrect because the brand name of the dual CPUs should be identical. Answer D is incorrect because the speed of the CPUs is not relevant. For more information, see the "Processor upgrade procedures" section.
3. The Level 2 cache on a Pentium Pro system is located on which part of the server system?
A. Motherboard
B. CPU
C. RAM
D. Hard disk drive
B. The Pentium Pro system has the Level-2 cache located on the CPU. Other systems have the Level-2 cache located on the motherboard, or a daughterboard. Answer A is incorrect because the Level-2 cache of the Pentium Pro is on the CPU itself. Answer C is incorrect because the cache is not part of the RAM. Answer D is incorrect because Level-2 cache is not located on the hard drive. For more information, see the "CPU architectures" section.
4. A technician is installing a network operating system on a multiprocessor server. What should be verified before installing the OS?
A. The OS uses a Level 1 or Level 2 cache.
B. The OS supports CPU stepping.
C. The bus speed of the processor is supported.
D. The OS supports multiprocessors.
D. Without OS support, the additional CPU will not be used. Answer A is incorrect because the type of cache is not relevant. Answer B is incorrect because stepping refers to the revision number of the CPU itself, and is independent of
the operating system. Answer C is incorrect because the bus speed is not relevant. For more information, see the "Multiprocessing" section.
5. A customer is reporting that his database server performs slowly. It currently is configured with 512MB of RAM, a Pentium III processor, and a 50GB RAID 5 array. What upgrade can be performed to increase performance of the server?
A. Add more disk drives.
B. Add more RAM.
C. Add another CPU if supported.
D. Add a Level 2 cache.
C. Processing power is most important for transactional database systems. Answer A is incorrect because adding hard drives will only increase disk storage capacity. Answer B is incorrect because the installed RAM is already sufficient for the task. Answer D is incorrect because adding more caching capabilities will not increase performance as much as an additional CPU. For more information, see the "Multiprocessing" section.
6. Symmetrical multi-processing is defined by what characteristic?
A. Certain tasks are handled by a specific processor.
B. All tasks are buffered by processor cache.
C. CPU tasks are distributed between all processors.
D. Tasks are mirrored in RAM.
C. In a symmetrical multi-processing system, the CPU tasks are distributed between all processors. Answer A is incorrect because a system where tasks are handled by specific processors is considered an asymmetrical system. Answer B is incorrect because this is already a normal feature of caching. Answer D is incorrect because the RAM does not perform or execute tasks. For more information, see the "Multiprocessing" section.
7. ECC RAM uses what process to prevent server crashes?
A. Synchronization with the system clock
B. Faster memory bus
C. Level 1 caching
D. Parity checking
D. Parity checking can prevent server crashes by constantly monitoring and correcting memory errors. Answer A is incorrect because clock synchronization is a characteristic of SDRAM. Answer B is incorrect because ECC RAM is actually slower than other types of RAM because of parity calculations. Answer C is incorrect because Level-1 caching takes place on the CPU itself. For more information, see the "DRAM" section.
8. The ability of multiple processes to access a certain section of RAM is called what?
A. Memory interleaving
B. Caching
C. Static RAM
D. Dynamic RAM
A. Interleaving increases server performance because multiple processes can access the same parts of RAM. Answer B is incorrect because caching is a way of speeding up RAM access by storing the most recently used instructions. Answer C is incorrect because static RAM is a type of memory that does not need to be constantly refreshed. Answer D is incorrect because dynamic RAM is a type of memory that needs to be constantly refreshed. For more information, see the "DRAM" section.9. A technician receives some additional RAM for a memory upgrade to a server. The technician notices that the new RAM has 184 pins, while the current RAM has only 168 pins, and the new RAM won't fit into the memory expansion slot.
What is the cause of the discrepancy?
A. The RAM received was 256MB.
B. The RAM received was a SIMM module.
C. The RAM received was an EDO DIMM module.
D. The RAM received was a Rambus RIMM module. $$

D. It is imperative that memory upgrades be verified with current system specifications, as there are many different types of RAM. Answer A is incorrect because the size of the RAM module is dependent on the number of pins. Answer B is incorrect because a SIMM module uses 30 or 72 pins. Answer C is incorrect because a DIMM module is 168 pins, and would have installed correctly. For more information, see the "Installing memory" section.
10. A buffered memory module has what characteristic?
A. It contains a register that delays incoming data.
B. It holds data until it can be written to the disk drive.
C. It helps to minimize the load of information transfer.
D. It holds data in a secondary cache to speed up processes.
C. Buffered memory holds data so that the RAM is not overloaded. Answer A is incorrect because a buffer does not delay data, which would slow down system throughput. Answer B is incorrect because this is an example of hard
drive caching. Answer D is incorrect because this is an example of Level-2 cache. For more information, see the "DIMM" section.
11. A technician has just upgraded a server's RAM from 128MB to 256MB. When the server is rebooted, the BIOS reports that there is only 128MB in the server. What is the cause of this discrepancy?
A. The BIOS needs to be upgraded.
B. The new memory is only running at half speed.
C. The OS does not support the new memory.
D. Not all of the memory banks have been used.
A. Depending on the type of memory being installed, the BIOS must be upgraded before new RAM can be recognized. Answer B is incorrect because the memory cannot run at half speed. Answer C is incorrect because the memory is not being recognized at the machine's BIOS level, not the OS. Answer D s incorrect because you do not have to fill all of the available memory slots for it to work properly. For more information, see the "Installing memory" section.
12. A technician wants to verify that the server's motherboard can handle a new memory upgrade. What is the best source of this information?
A. The RAM manufacturer
B. The motherboard manual
C. The CPU manufacturer
D. The OS manual$$

B. The motherboard manual contains all the important information and specifications for any component upgrades. Answer A is incorrect because the RAM manufacturer will not be able to give you information on the motherboard you are using. Answer C is incorrect because the CPU manufacturer will not have information on your motherboard. Answer D is incorrect because the OS manual will not have information on your motherboard. For more information, see the "Installing memory" section.
13. A customer wants to add memory to their server. What should the technician do before purchasing additional memory?
A. Verify the availability of a memory slot
B. Verify the speed of current memory
C. Upgrade the BIOS
D. Upgrade the motherboard
A. There must be empty memory slots available, or no RAM can be added. Answer B is incorrect because the speed of the memory is not relevant. Answer C is incorrect because the BIOS may not have to upgraded to recognize the new memory. Answer D is incorrect because there is no reason to upgrade the motherboard to add memory. For more information, see the "Installing memory" section.
14. A customer reports that a few hours after a CPU upgrade, their server keeps locking up. What could be the possible cause of the problem?
A. The BIOS needs to be upgraded.
B. The new CPU is conflicting with RAM.
C. The CPU fan is not working.
D. The OS does not support the CPU.
C. If the CPU fan is not working, the CPU will heat to high temperatures, causing erratic system behavior and failure. Answer A is incorrect because the BIOS does not need to be upgraded in this case, and will not fix the problem. Answer B is incorrect because conflicts between the memory and CPU would not exist. Answer D is incorrect because the server is having problems with the CPU at the system level, not the OS level. For more information, see the "Processor upgrade procedures" section.
15. After a memory upgrade, a server's OS continues to crash with many application errors. What could be the possible cause of the problem?
A. The OS does not support the new RAM.
B. One of the new memory chips is defective.
C. Parity checking is not enabled on RAM.
D. The motherboard does not support the new RAM.
B. Application errors are often caused by defective memory. Other incompatibility problems would result in the system not booting at all. Answer A is incorrect because the memory problem is at the system level, not the OS level. Answer C is incorrect because there is no way to enable parity checking on non-parity type RAM. Answer D is incorrect because if the motherboard did not support the RAM, it would not be recognized by the system. For more information, see the "Installing memory" section.
16. A technician has upgraded a server with an empty CPU socket with a second CPU for multiprocessing. The customer complains that there has been no difference in server performance. What might cause this?
A. The O/S does not support multiprocessing.
B. The new CPU is not fully inserted into the ZIF socket.
C. The BIOS needs to be upgraded.
D. The CPU is a different brand name than the original.
A. The OS of a server must support multiprocessing for the new processor to provide any benefit. Answer B is incorrect because the second CPU would not be recognized if it were not fully inserted into its slot. Answer C is incorrect because there is no need to upgrade the BIOS in this case. Answer D is incorrect because the CPU manufacturer would not be relevant in this case. For more information, see the "Central Processing Unit" section.
17. What must be initially checked before installing a second CPU in a multiprocessor system?
A. Verify that the motherboard supports the CPU.
B. Verify that there is enough RAM.
C. Verify the OS supports multiprocessing.
D. Verify the CPU stepping with original CPU.
D. If there is a discrepancy between CPU versions, multiprocessing will not work. Answer A is incorrect because if you are installing an identical CPU, the motherboard should already support it. Answer B is incorrect because the amount of RAM is not relevant in this case. Answer C is incorrect because you must ensure the CPU will be recognized at the system level before examining compatibility at the OS level. For more information, see the "Multiprocessing" section.
18. The technician receives a new video card for a server, but it won't fit into the
existing PCI slot. What is the cause of the problem?
A. The video card is an AGP card.
B. The technician is putting it in backwards.
C. The video card is a 3D card.
D. Servers can only use ISA video cards. $$

A. The card uses the special AGP slot for advanced video cards. Answer B is incorrect because there is no way for the card to be inserted backwards. Answer C is incorrect because the fact that the card supports 3D is not relevant. Answer D is incorrect because servers can use any type of card if there are the slots available to support it. For more information, see the "AGP" section.
19. A customer wants to upgrade their Pentium 166MHz MMX system with a new Pentium III processor. What can the technician do to complete the upgrade?
A. Verify that the new CPU is supported in the BIOS.
B. Nothing. The new CPU will not work in an older motherboard.
C. Verify the system bus speed.
D. Verify the new CPU uses MMX.
B. Newer CPU chips will not fit or work in older motherboards. Answer A is incorrect because the BIOS is not relevant in this case. Answer C is incorrect because the system bus speed is not relevant. Answer D is incorrect because the Pentium III chip is already MMX capable. For more information, see the "Types of CPU sockets" section.
20. A technician is upgrading a CPU on a Pentium Pro system. The new CPU, however, will not fit into the old CPU slot. What is the cause of the problem?
A. The machine does not support multiprocessing.
B. It is using a Socket 7 slot.
C. It is using a Socket 8 slot.
D. The new CPU uses a LIF socket.
C. The Pentium Pro uses a unique on-board Level-2 cache that makes the chip very large compared to other Pentium CPU's. Answer A is incorrect because the system in this case is not a multiprocessing system. Answer B is incorrect because a Socket 7 type slot supports 321 pin CPU's, while the Pentium Pro uses 387 pins. Answer D is incorrect because a Pentium Pro socket 8 slot uses only ZIF type CPU's. For more information, see the "Types of CPU sockets" section.
1. A customer wants to upgrade their server. It is currently running a dual multiprocessor Pentium Pro system with 256MB of RAM. They want to upgrade the processors to Pentium IIIs, and double the RAM to 512MB. As a technician, what steps would you take to verify that your upgrades will work with the current system?
The first problem with the customer's request is that their motherboard won't support a simple replacement of the CPUs with Pentium IIIs. The Pentium Pro motherboard has special sockets for the larger Pentium Pro CPUs, which contain an on-board Level-2 cache. The entire system board would have to be replaced. The technician would have to inspect the current memory configuration to find out what memory it is currently using, and how many empty slots or banks it has. If it is using DIMM slots, and currently has two 128MB DIMMs, there is only one slot left in which a 256MB DIMM can be installed to bring the memory total to 512MB.

If the server is using older SIMM technology, it might have four slots of 64MB, which would be full and no more can be added. Considering the motherboard is probably going to be replaced, the SIMM's would all probably have to be
replaced anyway. Any upgrade should require an update of the system BIOS, to make sure any new components are recognized when they are installed.
2. A customer is reporting a problem with their server. A few days before, the CPU was upgraded to a faster processor. They are experiencing frequent lockups and system freezes. What steps would you take to diagnose and fix the problem?
Because the problems only began since the CPU was upgraded, it would be wise to start with checking the CPU. The BIOS should be checked to make sure it is the latest version and able to support the new CPU. The most likely culprit, however, is the CPU fan. If it is not functioning properly, it will quickly overheat, and result in erratic server behavior. Any other CPU related problem would result in the system not functioning at all.
1. When a server first boots up, a message appears after the POST results stating "3 Logical Drives Found." The system is using a RAID 5 array with six 9GB drives. What does this message indicate?
A. Three of the drives have failed.
B. The system is actually using RAID 1.
C. The RAID array is configured into three separate logical containers.
D. Only 27GB will be available to the OS.
C. The message is informative, not a warning. Answer A is incorrect because there is no error condition. Answer B is incorrect because this is a RAID 5 system. Answer D is incorrect because a RAID 5 array with six 9GB will result in 45 GB of available disk space. For more information, see the "Upgrading SCSI RAID Systems" section.
2. The initial boot drive on an older SCSI bus should have what device ID?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 15
D. 7
A. Older SCSI systems will not boot unless the drive is set to ID 0. Newer SCSI technology has eliminated this condition. For more information, see the"Device IDs" section.
3. A new server has just been installed. The server has built-in SCSI SCA connectors, and it has with four 18GB hard drives with 40-pin connectors. Has all the proper equipment been ordered for this server?
A. No, SCA requires 80-pin hard drives.
B. Yes, all the proper equipment is present.
C. No, an adapter cable will be needed.
D. No, the hard drives will need termination.
A. SCA adapters require 80-connector drives. Answer C is incorrect because you adapt a regular hard drive to an SCA interface. Answer D is incorrect because the built-in SCSI backplane takes care of termination issues. For more
information, see the "SCA adapters" section.
4. A technician wants to add a Wide Ultra2 SCSI drive to a Fast SCSI system. What will the technician need to perform this task?
A. The current configuration will not work.
B. SCA connectors are needed.
C. A special Ultra2 terminator is needed.
D. A wide-to-narrow adapter is needed.
D. Fast SCSI has a narrow bus width. Answer A is incorrect, because this configuration will work with an adapter. Answer B is incorrect because SCA connectors are built into a server backplane. Answer C is incorrect, because there is no need for a special terminator. For more information, see the "SCSI-2" section.
5. A server with an existing IDE/ATA hard drive is being expanded with an additional drive. After the installation, the server is powered on, but does not boot after the POST routine. What is the mostly likely cause of the problem?
A. The second drive is configured as a master.
B. The second drive is configured as a slave.
C. The second drive is missing a terminator.
D. The system is configured with cable select.
A. The factory default settings on most hard drives configure it as a master, and two masters in one machine will cause it not to boot. Answer B is incorrect, because this configuration would have worked. Answer C is incorrect, because IDE/ATA systems do not need terminators. Answer D is incorrect because the system would have used the cable select feature to identify the drives on the cable. For more information, see the "IDE configuration" section.
6. A customer has called to complain that they have noticed a green light on one of the SCSI terminators. What does this indicate?
A. The terminator is not working properly.
B. It indicates a narrow SCSI system.
C. It indicates a wide SCSI system.
D. The system is fine. The light indicates the terminator is working properly.
D. The lights indicate a proper termination. Answer A is incorrect, because the SCSI system would not work with improper termination. Answers B and C are incorrect because narrow and wide refer to bus widths. For more information, see the "Termination" section.
7. A new server has just been installed, but it will not boot up properly. The server consists of two IDE/ATA drives, configured to use cable select for its settings. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. The cable is not terminated properly.
B. The jumpers on the drives are not set correctly.
C. The drives are in the wrong positions on the cable.
D. One of the drives has failed. $$
C. The master is usually at the end of the cable, while the slave drive is in the middle. If cable-select drives are placed in the wrong positions, the server will not boot. Answer A is incorrect because there is no termination in IDE/ATA systems. Answer B is incorrect, because the jumpers usually aren't needed in cable select. Answer D is incorrect, because the other drive should still be working if the other failed, unless it was the boot drive. For more information, see the "IDE configuration" section.
8. A technician is installing a narrow SCSI tape drive device onto an Ultra Wide SCSI bus system. The bus is using 68-pin high-density connectors. What will the technician need to connect the tape drive?
A. A 50-pin to 68-pin adapter
B. Nothing, the current configuration will work fine.
C. A terminator for the tape drive
D. An 80-pin to 68-pin adapter
A. The adapter will enable the narrow device to connect to the wide bus. Answer B is incorrect because the current configuration will not work. Answer C is incorrect, although it might be necessary if the device is at the end of the
bus. Answer D is incorrect, because 80-pin connections are usually associated with SCA connectors. For more information, see the "Cables, connectors, and termination" section.
9. A technician is installing a new IDE/ATA hard drive into a server that already contains an IDE/ATA hard drive on the primary IDE controller, and a CD-ROM drive on the secondary IDE controller. What is the best way to connect the
new hard drive?
A. There is no room for another device.
B. Configure the drive as cable select on the secondary IDE controller.
C. Configure the drive as a master on the primary IDE controller.
D. Configure the drive as a slave on the primary IDE controller.
D. The new hard drive can be the second device on the primary controller. Answer A is incorrect, because there is room for one more device on each controller. Answer B is incorrect, because you should not connect a CD-ROM with your hard drive, and it is not using cable select. Answer C is incorrect, because the original hard drive is already configured as the master. For more information, see the "IDE configuration" section.
10. A technician is adding an Ultra3 device to a system that already contains four Wide Ultra2 devices. Is the configuration possible?
A. Yes, with the addition of a 68-pin adapter.
B. Yes, the configuration will work.
C. No, the Ultra3 device is not backward-compatible.
D. No, the bus has already reached its device limit.
B. The configuration will work, although the Ultra3 device will only operate at Ultra2 speed. Answer A is incorrect, because no adapter is needed. Answer C is incorrect, because newer SCSI devices are usually backwards compatible.
Answer D is incorrect, because the limit for a wide SCSI system is 16 devices. For more information, see the "SCSI configuration and upgrading issues" section.
11. What cable length limitations are there on a Wide Ultra2 SCSI bus?
A. 6m with LVD signaling, 12m with HVD
B. 12m with LVD signaling, 25m with HVD
C. 25m with SE signaling, 25m with HVD
D. 3m with LVD signaling, 25m with HVD$$

B. LVD signaling will work with 25m if there are only two devices on the bus. For more information, see the "Cable lengths" section.
12. A server is not booting up properly. It is configured with two IDE/ATA hard drives configured as master and slave. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. The IDE cable is loose.
B. The master and slave drives should be reversed.
C. The terminator is missing.
D. The second hard drive should be on the secondary IDE channel.
A. The drives are configured correctly, so it is most likely a bad or loose cable. Answer B is incorrect, because the drives are not using cable select. Answer C is incorrect, because IDE/ATA drives do not require termination. Answer D is incorrect, because the drive doesn't have to be on the secondary IDE channel. For more information, see the "IDE configuration" section.
13. A technician is investigating freezing problems on a SCSI bus. All the cabling, connectors, and termination seem to be in order. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. The host adapter is set to device ID 7.
B. The bus is mixing both narrow and wide devices.
C. The system has exceeded the acceptable cable length.
D. Two devices have the same device ID.
D. Most intermittent problems on a SCSI bus come from conflicting device ID's. Answer A is incorrect, because ID 7 is the normal ID for a host adapter. Answer B is incorrect, because mixing devices will work if the proper adapters
and termination are used. Answer C is incorrect because the cabling was mentioned to be in order, without exceeding proper lengths. For more information, see the "Device IDs" section.
14. A RAID system is being upgraded with extra hard drives. The system is hot swap capable, and can automatically configure the drives. What must be done to make the extra hard drive space available to the operating system?
A. Nothing, the allocation is automatic.
B. The RAID configuration utility must be used to allocate the extra space.
C. Logical drives must be created within the operating system.
D. The BIOS must be updated to recognize the change.
B. Typically, you have to configure the RAID array to allocate the space to your logical containers. Answer A is incorrect, because you have to configure the extra space. Answer C is incorrect, although it could be a later step in the process. Answer D is incorrect, because the BIOS has nothing to do with the disk space allocation. For more information, see the "Upgrading SCSI RAID Systems" section.
15. An ATAPI CD-ROM has been added to an IDE/ATA system, which is currently configured with one 9GB drive on the primary IDE controller. The CD-ROM is installed on the secondary IDE controller. When the system is started, the
CD-ROM is not functional. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. A CD-ROM driver has not been loaded.
B. The CD-ROM should have been installed as a slave on the primary IDE controller.
C. The CD-ROM should have been installed as a master on the primary IDE controller.
D. The CD-ROM should be configured as a cable-select slave on the secondary IDE controller.
A. The CD-ROM still needs an ATAPI driver to run. Answers B and C are incorrect, because it is best to keep the slower CD-ROM on its own channel separate from the hard drives. Answer D is incorrect because the CD-ROM drive is the only device on that controller and, therefore, does not require cable select. For more information, see the "IDE/ATA standards" section.
16. A narrow Ultra2 SCSI hard drive with a throughput of 40MB/s is being added to a Wide Ultra2 SCSI bus with a throughput of 80MB/s. What is the effective transfer speed of the Ultra2 drive?
A. 40 MB/s
B. 80 MB/s
C. 160 MB/s
D. 20 MB/s
A. The drive will still only run at its current speed. A faster bus will not increase the speed of the device. For more information, see the "SCSI configuration and upgrading issues" section.
17. A technician is installing a server that uses two ATA-66 drives. The drives came with color-coded 80-conductor cables. What is the color-coding for?
A. To signify that they are for use with ATA-66.
B. To signify where the master and slave drives should be located on the cable.
C. The color is to show where Pin1 on the cable is.
D. The colors show where the cable is terminated.
B. Newer cable select systems color-code the connectors on the IDE cable to more easily show where the master and slave drives go. Answer A is incorrect, because the colors do not identify the device type. Answer C is incorrect,
because the red stripe along the edge of the cable signifies pin 1. Answer D is incorrect, because there is no termination on an IDE/ATA system. For more information, see the "IDE configuration" section.
18. A customer is complaining because they feel that their new Ultra3 SCSI hard drive is not working to its full potential. It is connected to an Ultra2 host adapter. What is most likely causing the performance problem?
A. The cable lengths are too long, causing performance lag.
B. The Ultra3 will only work at the same speed as the bus itself.
C. One of the terminators is faulty.
D. The Ultra3 card is defective.
B. The device will only run as fast as the host SCSI system. Answers A, C, and D are incorrect, because the system would probably not work at all under any of these conditions. For more information, see the "SCSI configuration and
upgrading issues" section.
19. The red stripe on the edge of an IDE/ATA cable identifies what feature?
A. The cable supports cable select.
B. The cable is a UDMA cable.
C. The wire that should be connected to Pin 1 on the hard drive.
D. The cable is self-terminating.
C. The red stripe identifies which part of the cable to connect to pin 1 on the motherboard and on the device. Answer A is incorrect, because special cable select connections have different colors for master and slave. Answer B is incorrect, because it does not identify UDMA. Answer D is incorrect, because IDE/ATA systems do not need to be terminated. For more information, see the "IDE cabling" section.
20. SCA connectors on a SCSI system are most important for what feature?
A. Auto-configuration
B. No power connections
C. Hot swap drives
D. All of the above
D. SCA connectors enable the hard drives to be plugged right into the system backplane without the need for configuring device IDs or installing separate power cables for each device and support RAID technologies with hot swap capabilities. For more information, see the "SCA adapters" section.
1. A technician is installing a new server, consisting of two ATA-33 hard drives and a CD-ROM drive. The server has a primary and secondary IDE controller. What is the best configuration for the devices?
The two hard drives should be kept together on the same IDE controller. Mixing them with a slower device such as the CD-ROM might cause performance issues. The first hard drive should be configured as the master, and the second hard drive configured as the slave. Alternatively, you can use the cable select on both drives if you have a compatible cable and install the hard drives on the proper connectors. The CD-ROM can be installed as a master on the secondary IDE channel.
2. A technician has just put together a Wide Ultra2 SCSI system consisting of a host adapter, an internal SCSI tape drive, and 4 Wide Ultra2 hard drives. When powered on, the server will not boot properly. The system bus cabling is currently this configuration:
Host adapter → hard drive 1 → hard drive 2 → terminator → hard drive 3 →
hard drive 4 → hard drive 5 → tape drive
Why does the system not boot, and how can it be fixed? $$

The terminator after hard drive 2 is disrupting the bus. Termination should only be at the ends of the SCSI bus. In this case, the host adapter probably has built-in termination, so the middle terminator can be removed and placed at the end of the bus after the tape drive.
3. A customer has asked that a new database server be installed using a SCSI hard drive system, and it must support fault tolerance. What kind of recommendations can you make for the installation?
The best solution would be a server that contains a built-in RAID controller and SCA hard drive connections. This allows a fault tolerant RAID system using multiple hard drives to be created, with the ability to use hot plug/hot swap capabilities in the event of a single drive failure. There should also be enough hard drive slots to provide for future expansion.
1. A technician has installed a new network card in a server. Other peripherals on the server include a SCSI tape drive, an on-board sound card, and an AGP video card. When the server is booted, it reports an IRQ conflict with the network card that disables it. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. Sound card
B. Video card
C. Tape drive
D. System BIOS
A. It is most likely the sound card that is causing the conflict. Answer B is incorrect because the video is running on an AGP slot without conflicting resources. Answer C is incorrect because the tape is using SCSI bus resources. Answer D is incorrect because nothing should conflict with the system BIOS. For more information, see the "Interrupt request lines" section.
2. A technician has replaced a server NIC that was running at full-duplex 10Mbps with a new one that is dual speed 10/100 Mbps. After installation, and successfully loading a new network driver, the card still does not communicate with the network, although the link light is on. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. The network cable is unplugged.
B. The new network card is set for half-duplex.
C. The network cable is defective.
D. The network isn't configured for dual speed.
B. The new network card should have been set to full duplex mode. Answers A and C are incorrect because the link light would not be on if the cable was unplugged or defective. Answer D is incorrect because there is no configuration to be made for dual-speed connectivity. For more information, see the "Duplexing" section.
3. A customer has a server setup with two NIC cards set for adaptive fault tolerance. A network switch failure causes the server to lose its connection to the network. Why did the fault-tolerant configuration not work?
A. The network cards have the same IRQ.
B. The network cards were configured with the same IP address.
C. You need at least four NIC cards for adaptive fault tolerance.
D. The two network cards were plugged into the same Ethernet switch.
D. The switch is a point of failure. The second card should have been plugged into a different switch. Answer A is incorrect because the cards would not have worked at all if they IRQ was the same. Answer B is incorrect because an adapter team should be configured with the same IP address. Answer C is incorrect because you only need a minimum of two cards for adaptive fault tolerance. For more information, see the "Adaptive teaming" section.
4. A SCSI host adapter has been removed and upgraded with an Ultra2 SCSI host
adapter. When the system is booted, the system does not see the SCSI bus.
What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. The BIOS needs to be updated with a newer version.
B. The host adapter ID was not set to 7.
C. The SCSI bus was not terminated properly.
D. The host adapter is conflicting with another device.
A. The BIOS needs to be updated to recognize the new SCSI device. Answer B is incorrect because the host adapter does not have to be ID 7, although it is preferred. Answer C is incorrect because the termination is not the most likely
failure, although it is possible. Answer D is incorrect because the device would have been recognized, but would not have worked properly. For more information, see the "Host adapters" section.
5. A technician has upgraded some SNMP-based system monitoring tools. When
the monitoring program is restarted, it fails to receive any trap messages from
devices. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. The SNMP service was not restarted.
B. The updated monitoring tools are not compatible with the OS.
C. The SNMP protocol needs to be updated to the latest version.
D. The monitoring program's trap settings need to be reconfigured.
C. The monitoring program needs SNMP to run, and because it was a newer version, the SNMP protocol should have also been upgraded to the latest version. Answer A is incorrect because the SNMP protocol did not have to be stopped for the upgrade. Answer B is incorrect because the program was already compatible with the OS, and the program was upgraded, not replaced with a different one. Answer D is incorrect because the program's configuration should not have been altered by the upgrade. For more information, see the "Upgrading System Monitoring Tools" section.
6. A technician has taken a decommissioned server and formatted all the hard
drives so that they can be repartitioned. When the technician tries to run the
vendor's hard drive configuration utility, the program cannot be found. What
is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. The program is run from a boot floppy disk.
B. The system diagnostic partition was erased by the formatting of the hard
drives.
C. The BIOS needs to be updated.
D. The OS has to be installed first.
B. When the hard drives were erased, the system partition was destroyed. Answer A is incorrect because the system partition can be installed from the boot floppy, but not run. Answer C is incorrect because updating the BIOS would not save the partition. Answer D is incorrect because an OS install will not recover the missing partition. For more information, see the "Upgrading Diagnostic Tools and Utilities" section.
7. A technician is setting up a new server with four network cards to be
configured with adaptive load balancing. The customer is hoping to achieve
network speeds of 800 Mbps for a busy database server. Will the current
configuration work as planned?
A. Yes, the configuration will work as planned.
B. Yes, the configuration will work, if the adapters are teamed.
C. No, the current setup will only run at 200 Mbps network speed.
D. No, the current setup will only run at 400 Mbps network speed.
D. Four 100 Mbps adapters teamed together for load balancing will have a combined speed of 400 Mbps. Answer A is incorrect because the configuration will not work as listed. Answer B is incorrect because even though the
adapters are teamed, the speed will still not be 800 Mbps. Answer C is incorrect because the speed will be 400 Mbps. For more information, see the "Adaptive teaming" section.
8. A server has recently had its UPS upgraded to a 1200 VA rated UPS. During a
recent power outage, the server ran for twenty minutes before the UPS battery ran out. The server came down cold, and some data was corrupted. Why
was the server not shut down properly by the UPS?
A. The UPS monitoring program was not upgraded.
B. The system BIOS was not upgraded.
C. The UPS BIOS was not upgraded.
D. The UPS does not support line conditioning.
A. The UPS monitoring program was not upgraded to coincide with the new UPS. Answer B is incorrect because the UPS would not work at all if there were a device compatibility problem. Answer C is incorrect because the UPS does not have a BIOS that can be upgraded. Answer D is incorrect because line conditioning has nothing to do with automatic server shutdown. For more information, see the "Upgrading UPS" section.
9. A server with eight 100 Mbps NIC cards configured in an adaptive load balancing team should effectively work at what speed?
A. 80 Mbps
B. 1600 Mbps
C. 400 Mbps
D. 800 Mbps
D. The adapters' effective speed will be their respective bandwidths added together, which in this case is 8 × 100 = 800 Mbps. For more information, see the "Adaptive teaming" section.
10. A technician has replaced an older SCSI RAID controller with a new Wide
Ultra2 SCSI RAID controller. After the arrays are reconfigured and the operating system is installed, the technician finds that all the server data has been
erased. What should have the technician have done to avoid the problem?
A. Updated the system's BIOS to recognize the RAID card.
B. Backed up the data and restored it after the upgrade.
C. Configured RAID 5 striping.
D. Updated the server's diagnostic system partition.
B. When reconfiguring a RAID array for a new adapter, all the data on the disks is lost. Answer A is incorrect because the RAID card was already recognized by the system. Answer C is incorrect because the original data will still be lost. Answer D is incorrect because the server diagnostic partition is separate from the server's data. For more information, see the "RAID controllers" section.
11. A customer has misconfigured the video card on a server with a non-standard
video resolution. The settings cannot be changed back because the monitor is
blank. What can be done to fix the problem?
A. Replace the monitor with a different one.
B. Install a different video adapter card.
C. Reboot the OS into VGA mode.
D. Reboot the server.
C. The OS should be rebooted using VGA mode, and then the settings can be changed back to normal. Answer A is incorrect because changing the monitor will not affect the incorrect video resolution. Answer B is incorrect because installing a new adapter will not fix the problem. Answer D is incorrect because rebooting the server will not fix the resolution settings. For more information, see the "Video cards" section.
12. A technician has discovered that a new network card that was installed in a
server is conflicting with the sound card. There are no more free IRQs that can
be assigned. How can the technician fix the problem?
A. Install a network card from a different vendor.
B. Reboot the server, and it will auto-configure itself.
C. Configure the network card to use DMA instead.
D. Remove the sound card.
D. Remove the sound card, because it is not needed on the server. Answer A is incorrect because a different network would use the same address, which is the only one left. Answer B is incorrect because the server will not auto-configure the devices. Answer C is incorrect because DMA is used in conjunction with IRQs, not instead of it. For more information, see the "Sound Cards" section.
13. A technician has added a SCSI tape drive to a server that already contains four Ultra2 SCSI hard drives. When the system is booted, it does not see the new tape drive, and one of the hard drives is not visible. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. The tape drive's IRQ is conflicting with another device.
B. The tape drive and one of the hard drives have the same SCSI ID.
C. The SCSI bus was not terminated properly.
D. The tape driver has not been loaded.
B. The two devices are configured with the same SCSI ID, causing the problems. Answer A is incorrect because the SCSI device will not be using an IRQ. Answer C is incorrect because the SCSI bus would not work at all if the termination was improperly configured. Answer D is wrong, as the conflict still exists between the hard drive and the tape drive. Loading a driver would not fix the problem. For more information, see the "Tape Drives" section.
14. A technician has upgraded a server's NIC card from a 10 Mbps card to a 100 Mbps card. The company uses category 3 UTP cabling, with RJ-45 connectors. When the server is rebooted, the network card does not connect to the network. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. The cabling must be category 5 to support 100 Mbps.
B. The connectors should be RG-59.
C. The network cable is defective.
D. The Ethernet switch only supports 10/100 network cards.
A. You need a minimum for Category 5 UTP cabling to support 100 Mbps. Answer B is incorrect because RG-59 connectors are used with coaxial network cable. Answer C is incorrect because the problem is with the type of cable itself. Answer D is incorrect because the network can support both speeds, not just a dual-speed NIC card. For more information, see the "Speed" section.
15. A technician has configured two networks cards as an adaptive team. They have been given two separate IP addresses. When the server networking is started, the adapter teaming does not work properly. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. The NIC cards are from different vendors.
B. The adapter team should have its own single IP address.
C. The network cards do not support teaming.
D. The NIC cards are set to half-duplex.
B. The adapter team needs to be assigned its own IP address. Answer A is incorrect because it does not matter if the network cards are from different vendors. Answer C is incorrect because any two cards can be teamed together. Answer D is incorrect because the duplex setting does not impact the teaming operation. For more information, see the "Adaptive teaming" section.
16. A technician has installed a new fiber optic NIC card in a high-end server. The card supports multimode operations and Gigabit Ethernet. When the server is connected to the network, the card does not work. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. The network cable is defective.
B. The NIC needs to be teamed with another fiber card.
C. The network only supports full duplex communications.
D. The network cabling only runs single mode fiber.
D. The card must be running the same mode as the fiber network. Answer A is incorrect because the actual physical cable is not the issue. Answer B is incorrect because a fiber card does not have to be teamed with another to run properly. Answer C is incorrect because the duplex setting is not the issue causing the problem. For more information, see the "Cabling" section.
17. How often should your UPS batteries be replaced?
A. Every month
B. Every year
C. Every three to five years
D. Every ten years
C. The battery should be replaced every three to five years, because it loses its charge over time. For more information, see the "Upgrading UPS" section.

18. Why is it important to have fault-tolerant network adapters connected to separate Ethernet switches?
A. To support both full and half duplex.
B. If one of the switches fails, the server will still have a network connection.
C. To support adapter load balancing.
D. To support adapter teaming. $$

B. This removes the Ethernet switch as a point of failure. Answer A is incorrect because the question has nothing to do with duplex settings. Answer C is incorrect because load balancing is supported by multiple NIC cards, not multiple switches. Answer D is incorrect because cards in an adaptive teaming setup can be set to the same Ethernet switch if desired. For more information, see the "Adaptive teaming" section.
19. A technician has discovered that a new video card has a conflicting I/O address with a network card in a server. What can be done to eliminate the conflict?
A. Change the video card's DMA address.
B. Reboot the server to automatically configure with plug-and-play.
C. Change the IRQ of the network card.
D. Change the I/O address of the video card.
D. Change the I/O address of the video card to an unassigned port address. Answer A is incorrect because the conflict is with the I/O port, not the DMA channel. Answer B is incorrect because plug-and-play will not resolve the conflict. Answer C is incorrect because the conflict is with the I/O address, not the IRQ. For more information, see the "I/O address" section.
20. A server is having network performance issues. When the technician checks the lights on the network card, which is a dual-speed 10/100 NIC card, the indicator light is showing that the card is running at 10 Mbps when it should be running at 100 Mbps. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. The network cable is defective.
B. The switch that the server is plugged into is only running at 10 Mbps.
C. The server BIOS does not support dual-speed NIC cards.
D. The indicator lights are reversed.
B. The Ethernet switch only supports 10 Mbps, which the NIC auto-detected. Answer A is incorrect because the server would not be working at all if the cable was defective. Answer C is incorrect because the BIOS has nothing to do with duplex or speed settings. Answer D is incorrect because the lights are not reversed. For more information, see the "Upgrading Network Interface Cards" section.
1. What is the difference between proactive maintenance and reactive maintenance?
A. Proactive maintenance is done in a controlled environment, whereas reactive maintenance is done because of a pressing problem that must be resolved.
B. Proactive maintenance is performed when problems arise, whereas reactive maintenance is done to prevent problems.
C. They both mean the same thing.
D. Reactive maintenance is done on a day-to-day bases, whereas proactive maintenance is done on a monthly basis.
A. Proactive maintenance is done in a controlled environment, whereas reactive maintenance is done because of a pressing problem that must be resolved. For more information, see the beginning of the chapter.
2. What is meant by a baseline?
A. How the system runs when under heavy load.
B. A compilation of the basic software and drivers needed to make the system run.
C. The typical activity of your servers when functioning normally.
D. The typical activity of your server during the company's non-working hours.
C. A baseline defines the typical activity of your servers when functioning normally. Answer A is incorrect because you do not want to perform a baseline if the server is under an unusually heavy load. Answer B is incorrect for obvious reasons. Answer D is incorrect because it is the exact opposite of what a baseline is meant to record. You want to create a baseline when typical activity is occurring. For more information, see the "Creating a Baseline" section.
3. Users are complaining that the network performance degrades severely in the evening shift between 11:00 p.m. and 1:30 a.m. You suspect that the problem is caused by the backup job that is running during this time frame, but the baseline performance did not show any problems when you took it several months ago. How would you go about determining if the backup job is causing the problem?
A. Perform a baseline based on the current system configuration.
B. Monitor performance over the course of a week and analyze the findings.
C. Take another baseline of the server using the same parameters as the original baseline.
D. Stop the tape backup from running and see if performance improves.
C. You will want to take another baseline using the same set of parameters so that you can compare the results and see where the differences are. Answer A is incorrect because the baseline is always going to be on whatever the current configuration is. Answer B is incorrect because you need the baseline to be the same as the one taken previously, whether it was one day or one month. Answer D is incorrect because you are trying to determine where the degradation is occurring. By comparing baselines, you can accurately see this. For more information, see the "Creating a Baseline" section.
4. You are setting up your performance monitoring program so that you can take system baseline. What counters should you include?
A. CPU utilization, Page/sec, Avg. Disk Queue Length, and Network utilization
B. CPU utilization, Available bytes, Disk bytes/sec, Logon total
C. Bytes total/sec, Avg. disk bytes/transfer, Pool non-paged bytes, Page/sec
D. Page/sec, Avg. Disk Queue Length, Network utilization, Pool non-paged bytes
A. Include the CPU utilization counter, page/sec counter, Avg. disk queue length counter, network utilization counter. Depending on the operating system you are using, these counters may have slightly different names. However, they will be similar in name and in intent. All other answers are incorrect because they are more geared for measuring performance as opposed to trying to create a baseline. For more information, see the "Creating A Baseline" section.
5. A junior technician tells you that she was performing some performance monitoring on the server and noticed a drastic performance degradation on the CPU, memory, network, and disk subsystem, which occurred at the exact same time for approximately 5.5 hours each night over the course of the week. What is most likely the cause of this performance loss?
A. Nightly jobs running on the server
B. Virus detection software scanning the local system
C. Tape backup job (backup and verify)
D. Malfunctioning hardware
C. It is most likely that you have a backup and verify job running during this time. A simple check of your documentation would tell you if this is true or not. It can be perfectly normal to see these elements heavily taxed during these operations. Answer A is incorrect because it is unlikely that nightly jobs would affect all four elements. Answer B is incorrect because scanning the local system should not affect the network. Answer D is incorrect because it is highly unlikely that you're only going to see the performance degradation at exactly the same time, for the same time period. For more information, see the "Performing Regular Backups" section.
6. You come in one morning to find a system error message on the server terminal. The message is from the backup software, and states that the tape backup job failed because of a hardware error caused by a SCSI Bus Timeout. What
might cause this timeout problem?
A. The SCSI controller is too fast for the tape backup hardware.
B. The SCSI controller is too slow for the tape backup hardware.
C. A bad tape.
D. Power surges.
A. The SCSI controller is most likely too fast for the tape backup hardware to handle, and thus generates an error. Answer C is incorrect because the tape backup software should generate an error message that is different from that of a SCSI bus timeout error. Most tape backup packages can determine that the tapes are bad, and will generate an error accordingly. Answer D is incorrect because your UPS should protect your hardware from power surges. However, if you are not using a UPS, the power surges will most likely cause the hardware to fail completely, and act erratically. For more information, see the "Improving backup performance" section.
7. You purchased a new tape backup hardware device, and just finished the physical mounting of the drive and connecting all the cables. You have installed the proper operating system drivers, and it appears that the system recognizes the device. However, when you install the backup software application (which is used on all the backup servers), it will not recognize the device, even though you used the proper drivers that came with the backup software. What should you have checked before purchasing the unit?
A. Vendor's Web site for the latest drivers
B. Backup application's hardware compatibly list
C. Operating system's hardware compatibly list
D. Vendor's Web site for installation guidelines
B. Always check the backup software's hardware compatibility list before purchasing new backup devices. Answer A is incorrect because this would be done after you purchased the unit, and not prior to purchasing it. Answer C is incorrect because while the tape backup hardware may be compatible with the operating system does not mean it will be compatible with the backup software. Answer D is incorrect because it only tells you how to install the device. For more information, see the "Improving backup performance" section.
8. Your company is performing a disaster recovery test at an off site agency. The disaster recovery manager wants you to come in to perform a restore of one of the data from one of the servers, and he needs to know how long it will take. The off-site location is costing the company $5,000.00 per day, and they only have two days to complete the test. You tell the manager that it will only take you 2 hours to complete the restore. Unfortunately, when it comes time to do the test it actually took you 6 hours, therefore, preventing the disaster recovery test from completing properly. What should you have done prior to the test?
A. Record the time it took to do a full backup and estimate the time for a restore.
B. Perform a full restore, or restore a portion of the data to some empty space, and then estimated the restore time based on your results.
C. Consult the backup software manuals for restore times.
D. Explain to the DRP manager that there is no way of knowing the restore time, and that he should be prepared for anything.
B. If possible, perform a full restore of the data. If this is not possible, restore a subset of the data (2GB) to some empty space on the server. This will give you an idea of how long it would take to restore the rest of the data. Answer A is incorrect because restore processes usually take longer than backups. Answer C is incorrect because the manuals cannot account for your server environment and what data you are restoring. Answer D is incorrect because you can estimate the restore time. For more information, see the "Record it" section.
9. Your server suddenly crashed when a user tried to copy a large file onto the network drive because the server ran out of space. What could you have done to warn you before this happened?
A. Check the disk space each morning as you logged in, and each evening before leaving.
B. Set policies to prevent users from saving large files on the network.
C. Configure the monitoring software with thresholds that would alert you when the free disk space was less than 15%.
D. Watch the performance monitor for disk activity.
C. If you configure the monitoring software thresholds, you can set them to alert you when a potential problem occurs. Answer A may work, but it is not a reliable solution, and leaves out a vital time period during the day. Answer B is incorrect because this defeats the purpose of the network. Answer D is incorrect because watching for disk activity will not tell you if it is reaching capacity or not. For more information, see the "Thresholds" section.
10. What are some common CPU bottlenecks?
A. Applications and drivers
B. DLLs and drivers
C. Backup jobs, and other software applications
D. CPU-bound applications and drivers, and excessive interrupts
D. CPU-bound applications and drivers and excessive interrupts caused by malfunctioning hardware are common CPU bottlenecks. Refer to the section titled "Measuring Performance" for more information. For more information,
see the "Processor" section.
11. You have been monitoring the processor utilization over the course of a week and notice that it is consistently above 80%. The IS department is under a tight budget after recent hardware upgrades. What do you need to do in order to prevent the users from noticing a problem?
A. Add more RAM.
B. Upgrade the processor, and offload processes to another server.
C. Purchase another server.
D. Upgrade the disk subsystem.
B. You may need to upgrade the processor or offload some processes to relieve the processor bottleneck. Answer A is incorrect because memory is not the issue. Answer C would certainly resolve the problem but is not necessarily the right choice because of budget limitations imposed on the IS department. Answer D is incorrect because the issue is not the disk subsystem. For more information, see the "Memory" section.
12. In order to properly evaluate performance and compare the results, what will you require?
A. Two server baselines
B. A server baseline and current performance statistics
C. Current performance statistics over one day, one week, and one month
D. A server baseline, and performance data from the last day of the month
B. The first thing you will need to evaluate performance and compare results will be the server baseline, and the current performance statistics. For more information, see the "Creating a Baseline" section.
13. You installed a virus defense package on your server, and scheduled it to routinely scan the server and network for viruses every three hours. A couple of weeks later, you monitor the performance of this server over the course of week. When you compare the results to your original baseline, you noticed that the CPU is heavily taxed every few hours for certain periods of time. Although the processor is still operating within reasonable limits, what should you have done after installing the virus software?
A. Only schedule virus scans for non-peak hours.
B. Upgrade the processor.
C. Schedule several virus scan jobs to break up the load on the system.
D. Perform a new baseline after installing the virus software.
D. Always create a new baseline after making changes to the system. You can never be sure how the changes may affect the performance. You would have known of the performance decrease before you did your monitoring. Answer A is a good idea, but it is better to scan the network regularly. Answer B is incorrect because the processors are not being taxed too heavily, so this would be a waste of money. Answer C is incorrect because it is apparent that the server can handle the load. For more information, see the "Creating a Baseline" section.
14. Upon checking your performance monitor logs, you notice that the hard page faults are consistently high. What should you do?
A. Install more RAM.
B. Upgrade the disk subsystem.
C. Offload some processes to other servers.
D. Ignore this, because it really does not mean anything.
A. Excessive page faults indicate that the system needs more RAM. Answers B, C, and D are incorrect because the issue revolves around the hard page faults, and the only real solution is to upgrade the memory. Offloading processes may or may not do anything in this situation. It may only be a certain application that is taxing the memory. For more information, see the "Storage" section.
15. Upon examining the performance monitor logs, you notice that the Network utilization is consistently high over the 10MB Ethernet network. What should you do?
A. Install another processor in the server.
B. Upgrade the NIC to a 100MB Fast Ethernet card.
C. Upgrade the NIC and switches to 100MB fast Ethernet.
D. Install additional RAM in the server.
C. You should consider upgrading the NIC and switches to 100MB Fast Ethernet to increase performance. Don't forget about the network cables either in case they are not category 5. Answer A is incorrect because installing another processor will not resolve network bandwidth problems. Answer B is incorrect because simply upgrading the NIC and not the rest of the components will only result in more problems. Answer D is incorrect because more RAM will not help with network utilization problems. For more information, see the "Network" section.
1. A client calls you because he is concerned that his NT SQL Server system was operating slowly. He wants an accurate explanation of why this happened suddenly and why it is not performing as well as before. What steps would you need to have taken prior to this, and what performance counters should you measure?
You should have made a baseline prior to this incident, probably when the server was first installed. You should have included the standard memory, processor, logical disk, and network objects, such as % Processor Time, Pages/sec, Avg. Disk Queue Length, and % Network Utilization. These values represent the system under normal working conditions. Now you can take a new baseline, with the same counters, and compare it against the old baseline. This should help you determine what the problem is. Perhaps the network counter is grossly high, or perhaps processor time is consistently near 100 percent, indicating a need for a new or additional processor. In any event, performing the baseline ahead of time will give you the starting point you need to determine the current problem.
1. When a network device sends an alert to a SNMP network management system (NMS), what type of SNMP operation is this called?
A. Get
B. Read
C. Trap
D. Traversal
C. A trap is an alert sent to the NMS application. Answer A is incorrect because a Get command is a type of Read operation. Answer B is incorrect ecause a Read operation only retrieves data, it is not a form of alert. Answer D is incorrect because a traversal operation gathers data sequentially from the device's database tables. For more information, see the "SNMP commands" section.
2. To set up your network monitor for pager remote notification, what additional peripheral will be needed?
A. E-mail
B. Modem
C. Tape drive
D. Keyboard
B. A modem will be needed to dial the pager. Answer A is incorrect because e-mail notification will not be able to send data to a pager. Answer C is incorrect because there is no use for a tape drive in a remote alert system. Answer D is incorrect because the monitoring program does not need any type of keyboard input to send alerts to pagers. For more information, see the "Remote Notification" section.
3. If you are setting up your network analyzer to only monitor TCP/IP on your network, what component will you need to implement?
A. Filtering
B. SNMP trap
C. Sniffer
D. MAC address
A. Filtering enables you to specify only certain criteria to search for. Answer B is incorrect because an SNMP trap is not able to monitor network data. Answer C is incorrect because although you may use a network sniffer or analyzer, you would still need to configure a filter for TCP/IP, so that you would not receive information on other protocols. Answer D is incorrect because a MAC address is the network address of each device, and would still include all protocols. For more information, see the "Network Analyzers" section.
4. The administrator is worried that the company's mission-critical server may be experiencing hardware problems. The technician is asked to take precautionary measures, while keeping costs in mind. The technician should:
A. Buy a redundant server.
B. Install a dedicated hardware monitoring device.
C. Configure remote notification.
D. Install software-based hardware monitoring agents.
D. While other solutions are expensive, simply installing software-based monitoring tools can be a cost-effective way to implement hardware monitoring. Answer A is incorrect because adding a redundant server is very expensive. Answer B is incorrect because dedicated hardware monitoring devices are costly. Answer C is incorrect because you will need to set up some type of monitoring tool to monitor the hardware, and then configure it for remote notification in the event of an error condition. For more information, see the "Software monitoring of server hardware" section.
5. Remote notification systems can be configured to send alerts to the following:
A. System console
B. Pager
C. Printer
D. All of the above
D. Any of these devices can be used for remote notification. For more information, see the "Remote Notification" section.
6. During your daily routine of checking each of the servers, you notice a system message on the terminal. What should you check first?
A. SNMP application log
B. E-mail
C. Event logs
D. Vendor Web site
C. Event logs should always be the first thing to check when diagnosing a server problem. Answer A is incorrect because the question did not specify if SNMP was being used. Answer B is incorrect because an e-mail alert will only notify you of the problem, it will not give any specific information that an event log would. Answer D is incorrect because the information you need is already recorded in the system's event logs, there is no need to go to an outside source. For more information, see the "Event Logs" section.
7. A technician is receiving complaints that the server is slow during the company's midnight shift. The backup system that runs during that time is considered to be the prime suspect. What is the best way to analyze the server to determine if this is true?
A. Create a baseline of the server during one day shift.
B. Create a baseline of the server during one night shift.
C. Create a baseline of the server for a 24-hour period.
D. Create a baseline of the server on all shifts for one week.
D. For best results, a baseline should be taken for a long period of time. Answer A is incorrect because the problem was happening on the night shift, not the day shift. Answer B is incorrect because you should spread out your monitoring efforts over several days to offer more accurate monitoring information. Answer C is incorrect because this will only measure one night shift, and you want to monitor several night shifts to give you a more accurate view of the problem. For more information, see the "Identifying Bottlenecks" ection.
8. A technician notices that a server crashed on the weekend, but no error messages were seen until Monday morning. What can the technician do to prevent further downtime?
A. Configure remote notification.
B. Configure SNMP monitor traps.
C. Hire technicians to monitor the server on weekends.
D. Configure hardware monitoring.
A. With remote notification, the technician can receive error messages while offsite through e-mail, pager, or by other means. Answer B is incorrect because unless the technician is on-site, there is no way to receive the alert. Answer C is incorrect because this is an unnecessary expense when remote notification can be configured. Answer D is incorrect because although the hardware may be monitored, there is no way for the technician to receive the alerts when off-site. For more information, see the "Remote Notification" section.
9. Where would you configure SNMP thresholds?
A. In the MIB
B. The packet sniffer
C. The RMON table
D. The SNMP NMS monitor
D. SNMP thresholds are set from the management application. The NMS will apply these thresholds when it is monitoring devices. Answer A is incorrect because the MIB only holds information specific to that device. Answer B is incorrect because a packet or network sniffer is used to trace networking data. Answer C is incorrect because the thresholds to be set are for SNMP data. For more information, see the "Setting SNMP thresholds" section.
10. Every day at 10 a.m., the company's users complain that the internal Web server is very slow. How would you troubleshoot the server's performance problem?
A. Upgrade the server processor.
B. Upgrade the server RAM.
C. Examine the server logs for any maintenance programs running.
D. Use a network analyzer to check any network issues.
C. Often, certain applications will run preventative maintenance jobs that consume a lot of CPU time. Consider moving them to an off-hours time slot. Answers A and B are incorrect because you should not immediately upgrade server hardware before examining the origin of the problem. Answer D is incorrect because the server itself should be examined first, before moving on to external items such as the network. For more information, see the "Identifying Bottlenecks" section.
11. A technician is updating a third-party system monitoring program on a server. What else needs to be done to ensure that the program will work properly?
A. Increase the server RAM.
B. Upgrade the client-side agents.
C. Update the network OS.
D. Reconfigure SNMP traps.
B. The client agents of a monitoring program should be kept current with the main monitoring application, to ensure compatibility and full functionality. Answer A is incorrect because there is no need to update RAM unless it is a specified minimum requirement for the upgrade. Answer C is incorrect because upgrading the OS may cause the monitoring program to not work properly. Answer D is incorrect because upgrading the monitoring program should not affect any SNMP settings you have already configured. For more information, see the "Third-Party Agents" section.
12. At various times of the day, users are complaining that a particular file server is slow. What should the technician examine first?
A. Server event logs
B. Network analyzer traces
C. MIB database
D. Performance monitor counters
A. Examine the event logs to see if any other server events are happening at these times. Answer B is incorrect because you should examine the server first before checking external items such as the network. Answer C is incorrect because examining the SNMP MIB database will not immediately reveal any helpful information, since the data must be processed by a network management system. Answer D is incorrect because the performance has already been recognized as an issue, and examining the performance monitor will not aid in troubleshooting the problem. For more information, see the "Event
Logs" section.
13. When analyzing a network trace, a technician notices that there is an unusually large amount of packets originating from a particular MAC address. What could this indicate?
A. The device is a printer.
B. The device has a malfunctioning NIC card.
C. The device is a server.
D. The device is using Token-ring.
B. A malfunctioning NIC card will usually broadcast a large amount of packets onto the network. Answer A is incorrect because a printer will not usually send out a large number of network packets. Answer C is incorrect because although a server will generate a lot of network traffic, it should not be anything unusual. Answer D is incorrect because a token ring device would not cause extra network traffic. For more information, see the "Network Analyzers" section.
14. A technician discovers that his pager has stopped receiving remote alerts from a server. What would most likely be the problem?
A. SNMP is misconfigured.
B. The MIB is corrupted.
C. The event logs are turned off.
D. The server modem has been disconnected.
D. Without the modem, the server cannot dial the pager to send the alert messages. Answer A is incorrect because this would not stop the pager from receiving remote alerts. Answer B is incorrect because although MIB corruption would only affect a certain device, it would not disable remote notification. Answer C is incorrect because disabling the event logs would only affect local logs on the server, it would not affect remote notification. For more information, see the "Remote Notification" section.
15. When examining performance monitor logs, a technician notices a large CPU usage spike everyday at 3 a.m. What could be the source of the problem?
A. Backups are scheduled at that time.
B. Someone is logging in remotely overnight.
C. The SNMP threshold is misconfigured.
D. The CPU has malfunctioned.
A. Most off-hours usage spikes are caused by backup operations. This is normal. Answer B is incorrect because a remote user would not cause a big increase in CPU usage. Answer C is incorrect because the setting of the threshold would not cause the CPU spike, it can only measure and detect it. Answer D is incorrect because a CPU malfunction would result in inconsistent behavior. For more information, see the "Identifying Bottlenecks" section.
1. You have just installed a new Web server. Your manager is worried about whether the hardware that was purchased will be able to handle the large loads they expect. What steps should you take in monitoring your new server?
Your first step would be to create a baseline of your current performance. Only until you know at what levels your current system is operating can you measure any changes in performance at a later time. Your next step is to monitor your server's performance over a period of time, for example, a seven-day period. When you have the results, you must analyze the data for any changes in performance, especially at different times of the day. Are your backups or scheduled maintenance jobs interfering with performance? Finally, if there any issues such as CPU utilization, RAM, or disk performance issues, you must plan for an upgrade of that component depending on the data you have analyzed.
2. An article came across the president's desk about how server equipment and network devices can cause problems on a network without the administrator being aware. What solution(s) can you propose?
Obviously, the management is worried that there could be server problems when the administrator is off-duty or away from the equipment. The first thing you should do is implement a proper monitoring system such as SNMP, or a third-party monitoring program if the software that came with your server will not perform the tasks you need

Next, you can set thresholds on system parameters that you would like to be alerted to. For example, you may want to receive an alert when CPU usage is too high, or if any hardware has failed. These alerts can appear on the console, or through e-mail. To ensure that you receive these alerts during off-hours, you must set up remote notification so that the monitoring program will dial your pager with any alerts. That way, they can be dealt with before your users come in to use
the system
1. Which of the following is usually not a server room environment issue?
A. Temperature
B. Server Room door unlocked
C. Brownouts
D. Power spike
B. Having a server room door unlocked is a security issue, not an environmental issue. Answers A, C, and D are incorrect because these are all important server room environmental issues. For more information see the "Temperature and Ventilation" section.
2. A customer is complaining that there is a loud buzzing sound coming from the server. What could be causing the noise?
A. Malfunctioning CPU fan
B. Faulty NIC card
C. Failed RAID controller
D. Nothing, the noise is normal
A. A malfunctioning CPU fan could cause this type of noise if it is not working properly. Answers B and C are incorrect because these cards do not have any moving mechanical parts. Answer D is incorrect because this type of noise is not normal, and indicates some form of mechanical failure. For more information, see the "Chip fan" section.
3. A new file server is having trouble communicating with the network. What visual check can you perform to help diagnose the problem?
A. Check the power light.
B. Listen for hard drive activity.
C. Check the lights on the NIC card for activity.
D. Make sure the power supply fan is running.
C. Most NIC cards have a light that indicates network activity. If it is flashing, the problem might be caused by software rather than hardware. Answer A is incorrect because the power light will not give you any indication of network connectivity. Answer B is incorrect because hard drive activity will have no relevance with the network. Answer D is incorrect because the condition of the power supply fan will not indicate any problems with the network. For more information, see the "Network card lights" section.
4. A server that has been installed for a few days is continually freezing up. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. The power supply fan is not working properly.
B. The CPU fan is not sitting on the chip properly.
C. The UPS is disconnected.
D. The server room has improper ventilation.
B. Erratic server behavior, including freezing, is most often caused by CPU malfunction as a result of overheating. Answer A is incorrect because the fan failing on the power supply will not cause the CPU to overheat, but it may cause the power supply to fail. Answer C is incorrect because disconnecting the UPS will not cause the server to halt. Answer D is incorrect because this may cause the server room to increase in temperature, but would not directly affect the CPU. For more information, see the "Chip fan" section.
5. What is not a sign of a server malfunction?
A. Smoke from the power supply
B. Continuous clicking sounds
C. Flashing lights on the NIC card
D. Beeping sounds
C. The flashing light on the NIC card indicates network activity, not an error condition. Answers A, C, and D are incorrect because these are all important warning signs of a current or imminent server malfunction. For more information, see the "Network card lights" section.
6. A technician notices that one of the hard drives in a RAID 5 array has a red light on, and the others are all green. What could be the cause of the red light?
A. The hard drive has failed.
B. The hard drive is the parity drive.
C. The hard drive fan is not working.
D. The hard drive is currently not in use.
A. Any red light is usually an indicator of a failed or malfunctioning device. Answer B is incorrect because there is usually no indicator of which drive is the parity drive in a RAID 5 array. Answer C is incorrect because there are no hard drive fan indicator lights. Answer D is incorrect because if the drive were not in use, there would be no light at all. For more information, see the "Hard drive lights" section.
7. A customer currently has four servers attached to a UPS. The UPS load is quite high at 84 percent. What can be done to lower the load on the UPS?
A. Plug another device into the UPS.
B. Use a 220V input voltage.
C. Install a line conditioner.
D. Buy another UPS to distribute the load.
D. If the UPS fails, its emergency battery power will be used up too quickly on so many servers. You should also spread the load between several UPS units for multiple systems. Answer A is incorrect because plugging another device in will overload the UPS even further. Answer B is incorrect because different voltages will not affect server load. Answer C is incorrect because the purpose of a line conditioner is to clean up inconsistent power that contains interference it will not affect UPS load. For more information, see the "UPS" section.
8. A customer is complaining that their server loses its connection with the network from time to time. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. The OS networking configuration is wrong.
B. The network cable is being caught in the server cabinet door.
C. The network cable is not plugged into a hub or switch.
D. The NIC is only running at 10 MB.
B. Improper cabling that causes physical damage can cause intermittent communications. Answer A is incorrect because if the configuration was wrong, there would be no connection at all. Answer C is incorrect because there would be no connection at all if the cable was unplugged. Answer D is incorrect because the network speed would not create intermittent communications. For more information see the "Network cabling" section.
9. What is the most likely cause of CPU overheating?
A. Improper ventilation
B. Lack of server room air conditioning
C. Faulty power supply fan
D. Malfunctioning CPU fan$$

D. A properly functioning CPU fan is integral in keeping the CPU cool. Answer A is incorrect because improper ventilation would heat up the general area around the server, but would not cause the CPU to directly overheat. Answer B is incorrect because a lack of air conditioning would not directly cause the CPU to overheat. Answer C is incorrect because a faulty power supply fan would not cause the CPU to overheat, but it may lead to a power supply failure. For more information, see the "Chip fan" section.
10. A server UPS is beeping. What is the most likely cause of the alarm?
A. The UPS is running from battery.
B. There has been a power spike.
C. The server is disconnected.
D. The UPS software is not configured.
A. When a UPS loses power, and is using its battery to power connected devices, it will sound a warning to indicate that the battery has been activated. Answer B is incorrect because a sustained beeping would not indicate a momentary surge in power. Answer C is incorrect because there would be no warning sound if the server was disconnected from the UPS. Answer D is incorrect because unconfigured software would not trigger an alarm. For more information, see the "UPS" section.
11. A technician is examining a server room to look for the best place to run Ethernet cabling to the servers. What would be the best choice?
A. Along the floor into the cabinet
B. Through the front server cabinet door
C. From a ceiling conduit or under the floor, and into the server cabinet
D. Through the rear server cabinet door
C. With this setup, there is little chance of the cables being physically damaged. Answer A is incorrect because the cables are in danger of being stepped on or tripped over, which might pull them free from their connectors. Answer B is incorrect because the cable might get damaged if it is caught in the server cabinet door. Answer D is incorrect because the cable might get damaged if caught in the rear server cabinet door. For more information see the "Network cabling" section.
12. After a recent CPU upgrade, the customer has been complaining that the server frequently exhibits strange and erratic behavior. What could be the cause of the problem?
A. The CPU is not compatible with the motherboard.
B. The server's operating system does not allow for dual CPUs.
C. The CPU fan was not replaced properly, causing it to overheat.
D. The server needs more memory.
C. If the CPU fan is not installed properly, it will not properly cool the CPU. Answer A is incorrect because if this were true, the server would not work at all. Answer B is incorrect because the question did not specify that this was a
dual-CPU system, only that is was upgraded. Answer D is incorrect because a lack of memory would cause the server performance to degrade, it would not create erratic behavior. For more information see the "Chip fan" section.
13. A customer is complaining of an odd clicking sound coming from the server. Which of the following is least likely to be causing the problem?
A. Power supply fan
B. Failing hard disk
C. CPU fan
D. Failing NIC card
D. The NIC does not contain any mechanical devices such as a fan that would make such a noise. Answers A, B, and C are incorrect because these devices are mechanical in nature, and prone to mechanical failure. For more information see the "Server Fans" section. For more information see the "Server Fans" section.
14. A customer complains that there is a light flashing on the NIC card on the back of the server. What could be the cause of the problem?
A. Nothing, the light is indicating network activity.
B. The NIC card is malfunctioning.
C. The NIC card is running at full duplex.
D. The NIC card is running at 100MB.
A. Most NIC cards have a light that indicates network activity. It does not indicate an error condition. Answer B is incorrect because there is no error light on the network card. Answer C is incorrect because a duplex light would not flash, it would stay solid. Answer D is incorrect because the speed indicator light would not flash, it would stay solid. For more information see the "Network card lights" section.
15. A customer has been having a problem with a particular server overheating. The server has been recently upgraded with new memory. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. This CPU fan needs to be replaced.
B. The server room air conditioning is not running at peak performance.
C. The server cover was not put back on after the memory upgrade.
D. The new memory is incompatible and causing the server to overheat.
C. The server's panels and covers must be on for proper air flow and circulation. Answer A is incorrect because a malfunctioning CPU fan would not cause the entire server to overheat, it would only affect the CPU. Answer B is incorrect because the air conditioning unit would have to completely fail to cause the server to overheat. Answer D is incorrect because memory alone would not cause a server to overheat. For more information see the "Internal air flow" section.
16. What is not a reason for server room air conditioning?
A. Comfortable environment for technicians
B. Proper air circulation
C. Prevent equipment from overheating
D. Prevent temperature fluctuations
A. This is not the reason for server room air conditioning. Answers B, C, and D are incorrect because server room air conditioning is integral in keeping temperatures consistent and cool, and to help provide proper air circulation. For more information see the "Temperature and Ventilation" section.
17. A technician walks into a server room, and notices that it is very hot. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. The server room air conditioning unit has failed.
B. The CPU fan has failed.
C. The power supply fan has failed.
D. The server cabinet doors are closed. $$

A. The failure of a server room air conditioning unit will make the room noticeably warmer. Answers B, C, and D are incorrect because these conditions will only cause individual server overheating. For more information see the "External ventilation" section.
18. A technician notices that an Ethernet cable is caught in the cabinet door of a server. What is most likely to happen?
A. The server will exhibit erratic network connectivity.
B. The server will overheat and malfunction.
C. The cabinet door will not shut properly, causing bad air circulation.
D. The NIC card will only run at 10MB rather than 100MB.
A. Any cabling must be properly protected from the possibility of physical damage. A damaged cable will cause intermittent network connectivity. Answer B is incorrect because the cable will not cause the server to overheat. Answer C is incorrect because the server door should shut, but it will damage the cable in the process. Answer D is incorrect because a damaged cable will not affect speed, it will affect network connectivity. For more information see the "Network cabling" section.
19. A technician is installing a new company e-mail server. What would be the best option to protect the server from electrical power problems?
A. UPS
B. Surge suppressor
C. Surge protector
D. Power generator
A. A UPS can offer battery backup in the event of power loss, and built-in surge protection and suppression. Answers B and C are incorrect because a surge suppressor or protector will only prevent large power spikes from affecting equipment, it will not provide battery backup in the event of a power failure. Answer D is incorrect because a power generator will not protect equipment from power spikes, it will only provide backup power in the event of a power outage. For more information see the "UPS" section.
20. A customer has complained that there is a lot of heat being generated from a particular server cabinet. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. Lack of a server room air conditioner
B. Lack of circulation within the cabinet
C. The CPU fan is not working.
D. The server has a large number of hard drives.
B. Without proper air circulation, hot air is trapped within the cabinet or server chassis. Answer A is incorrect because having no air conditioning would cause the entire room to heat up, not just one cabinet. Answer C is incorrect because a malfunctioning CPU fan will only overheat the CPU, not the entire cabinet. Answer D is incorrect because having several hard drives will not increase the temperature of that cabinet noticeably. For more information see the "External ventilation" section.
1. You have been asked to install three servers into a cabinet. You want to provide proper electrical protection and battery backup. What sort of considerations must you keep in mind when selecting electrical protection?
Because a battery backup is needed, a UPS solution is needed, rather than just a surge protector, surge suppressor, or line conditioner. You must calculate how much of a load the three servers will use to come up with a VA rating, and then select a UPS that can protect beyond that rating. The UPS software should be configured for each server's operating system, so that the UPS can shut down the server in the event of a power outage.
2. A customer is worried about environmental issues in their server room. What aspects of the server room can you examine to ensure a proper environment?
The most important environmental concern in any server room is temperature. An air conditioning system is integral in keeping the server room operating at a constant, cool temperature. You should also make sure that the room is cabled properly, without any cables cluttering the floor, or in any place where they can be easily damaged. Each server should be connected to a UPS, to ensure that the power reaching the machines is consistent, with protection for any voltage surges, spikes, or brownouts. The UPS battery should be powerful enough to allow the servers to be brought down gracefully in the event of a power outage. Examine all the fans operating in the servers to see if they are functioning properly to prevent overheating. Replace any failed units immediately.
1. The Director of Operations wants to know what guidelines he should be looking at when deciding where to put the server room. What is the best answer?
A. In a central location near the parking garage for easy entry
B. In a central location away from the building exterior, parking garages, or top floor locations
C. Near the building exterior, not in a central location
D. In a central location, near the building exterior, but away from parking garages and top floor locations
B. For maximum security, the computer room should be located in a central location, away from the building exterior, parking garage, or top floor locations. For more information see the "Server room construction" section.
2. The office supervisor decides to put up signs pointing out all the different office locations. Why might this be a problem?
A. It will attract unnecessary attention to the server room.
B. It is not a problem so long as the signs are small, and can only be seen close up.
C. The signs are a fire hazard if placed near the server room.
D. It is against company policy.
A. You never want to point out the location of your server room. The harder it is to pick out, the better. Any unnecessary advertising is considered a security risk. For more information see the "Server room construction" section.
3. What is the maximum number of doors that a computer room should have?
A. 4
B. 1
C. 3
D. 2
D. A computer room should never have more than two doors to ensure maximum security. It is easier to control entry with less access points. For more nformation see the "Server room construction" section.
4. An employee is terminated from the IS department. Your server room makes use of combination locks. What is the first thing you should do?
A. Change the combination of the locks.
B. Stand in the room until the employee has left the building.
C. Ensure the servers are locked.
D. Back up the servers.
A. You should immediately change the combination code in case the terminated employee attempts to perform malicious acts before leaving the building, or if he or she attempts to gain access on a different day. For more information see the "Server room construction" section.
5. Which of the following groups should not have access to the server room?
A. System administrators
B. Backup administrator
C. Users
D. Database administrators
C. Only authorized personnel should have access to the server room. System administrators, database administrators, and backup administrators need regular access to the server room to perform their duties. Users do not require this level of access. For more information see the "Server room access" section.
6. The IS manager has purchased a new Web server and wants you to set it up in a spare office cubicle. What is the primary concern?
A. Desk space
B. Proper voltage
C. Temperature
D. Proper physical security
D. You should be primarily concerned with the physical security of the unit, because you will be unable to lock it in a secured room. For more information see the "Server room access" section.
7. Why are key locks not the best choice for physical security for the computer room door?
A. Key locks get lost, and they can be duplicated.
B. Key locks get lost, and they cannot be duplicated.
C. Keys regularly break, and they are lent out.
D. Key locks are affected by power outages.
A. Key locks are the least effective because the keys are regularly lost, and they are simple to duplicate. For more information see the "Locks" section.
8. Your boss wants to know the advantages of using a key card system for access
to the computer room? What are some advantages?
A. Individual cards for each person
B. Ability to issue temporary cards
C. Ability to track who enters the room and when
D. Ability to deactivate users permanently, or during certain hours of
the day
E. All of the above
E. Key cards are one of the best choices for entry systems. They give you the ability to track user access, assign temporary cards, assign time restrictions, and assign individual cards for each user needing access to the computer room. For more information see the "Locks" section.
9. Where should backup tapes be kept when in the office?
A. In the janitor's closet
B. On your desk where you can see them
C. In your desk drawer
D. In the secure computer room
D. You obviously do not want to keep your tapes in the janitor's closest, but it is also not a good idea to leave them on your desk or in your desk drawer you could be distracted for just a second, and the tapes could be stolen. Tape backups should always be kept in a locked cabinet, or room. Ideally the server room should be used for this purpose. For more information see the "Securing Backup Tapes" section.
10. If you are archiving backup tapes, what is the minimum number of times per
year that the backup tapes should be rewound?
A. 1
B. 8
C. 2
D. 4
A. Backup tapes should be rewound once per year to re-tension the tape, and to stop bleed-through, which can render the tape unusable. For more information see the "Securing Backup Tapes" section.
11. Ideally, where should tape backups be stored for maximum security?
A. Fireproof safe
B. Off-site agency
C. Off-site at administrator's house
D. Locked in the server room
B. Tape backups should be kept at an off-site agency because they can provide the best security and protection for your business. These companies ensure that they meet all the environmental requirements necessary for tape storage. Fireproof safes are not very reliable, and it could be weeks before the safe is located. For more information see the "Off-site storage" section.
12. What is the problem with most fireproof safes being used for magnetic media? Choose all that apply.
A. Safes cannot adequately hold all the magnetic media.
B. Safes were designed for paper products.
C. After a disaster, it could be weeks before the safe is located.
D. Some safes degauss magnetic media.
B and C. Fireproof safes cannot adequately protect magnetic media because they are typically designed to protect paper products. Tapes melt much sooner than paper ignites. Even specially designed safes may not work because fires are unpredictable and they may burn longer and hotter than expected. For more information see the "Fireproof safes" section.
13. Which of the follow is the best biometric security system?
A. Fingerprint recognition
B. Face recognition
C. Iris/Retina recognition
D. Hand/Finger geometry recognition
C. Iris/Retina recognition systems are the best because of the unique patterns in the eye, and it is very unlikely that the patterns will change unless there is permanent eye damage. For more information see the "Biometric systems" section.
14. What are the three techniques commonly used for media sanitization?
A. Data overwriting, degaussing, encryption
B. Degaussing, encryption, incineration
C. Encryption, data overwriting, destruction
D. Data overwriting, degaussing, destruction
D. Data overwriting, degaussing, and destruction are the three techniques used in sanitization. For more information see the "Disposing of Media" section.
15. What is the minimum amount of times that data should be overwritten?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 12
D. 1
A. Data should be overwritten at least two times, using a special program designed for overwriting, to ensure that the disk is clean. For more information see the "Disposing of Media" section.
1. The company is planning to construct a new building to accommodate current and future growth. The entire company will relocate to this new building and the current one will be sold. As the systems administrator you are asked to define specific requirements for the computer room. What are the major requirements for the new server room?
Server rooms should be located in a central building location away from the building exterior, parking garages, or top floor locations. The server room should be windowless, lockable, with an access control system that provides some sort of an audit trail of who was last in the room. The server room should not be easily visible, and should be constructed with a full-height wall and a fireproof ceiling. There should no more than two doorways, and they should be solid and fireproof. Motion detectors should be considered as part of the design for the computer room. There should not be any windows in the computer room, but if there are, they should be small, barred, locked, and alarmed.
1. A new server has just been delivered to the computer room. The warehouse personnel mentions that it sat in the loading dock for over an hour in 32- degree temperatures. What should you do?
A. Fire it up immediately.
B. Wait for the equipment to reach the server room temperature.
C. Point a space heater at the server to warm it up.
D. Turn the air conditioner down to cool the room temperature.
B. You should always wait for the computer equipment to reach room temperature before turning it on. Turning the equipment on when it is too cold or hot can cause components to fail if they reach the operating temperature to rapidly. For more information, see the "Temperature" section.
2. You notice that the humidity level is low in the computer room. What might result because of this?
A. ESP
B. EDI
C. ESD
D. Nothing
C. ESD can result if humidity levels are too low. ESD can cause damage to electronic components. Answer A is incorrect because it is not a computer term. Answer B is incorrect because this stands for Electronic Data Interchange. Answer D is incorrect because low humidity levels will result in high levels of ESD. For more information, see the "Humidity" section.
3. Upon close inspection of the computer room, you notice small gaps around the doorway. What will prevent contaminants from entering through these gaps?
A. Positive attitude
B. Silicone
C. Putting in a new entrance
D. Positive pressurization
D. Positive pressurization ensures that contaminants cannot enter the room via small cracks or gaps around door ways. Answer A is incorrect because it is irrelevant here. Answer B is incorrect because you cannot possibly fill all the gaps in the room. Answer C is incorrect because putting in a new entrance cannot ensure there will not be small gaps in it. For more information, see the "Ventilation" section.
4. What factors should be considered regarding an air conditioning system? Choose all that apply.
A. Continuous operation for 24 hours and 365 days per year
B. Independent of other systems in the building
C. Accommodate expansion
D. Allow outside air in to the room to accommodate human occupants, and to maintain positive pressurization
E. All of the above
E. Air conditioning systems should be able to meet all of these requirements in order to ensure adequate cooling in the computer room, and adequate safety for occupants and equipment. For more information, see the "Air conditioning" section.
5. Your boss is looking at replacing the old air conditioning system with a newer one. She would like to know what the best system would be. What would you recommend?
A. A central station air handling unit
B. A complete self-contained package unit with remote condensers
C. A window-mounted air conditioner
D. A chilled water package unit
B. A complete self-contained package unit with remote condensers is the best choice for an air conditioning system. They are available with up or down discharge. Answer A is incorrect because central station air handlers are typically used in office environments and not computer rooms. Answer C is incorrect because there should not be any windows in the server room for security reasons, and this type of system does not have the proper environmental controls for server rooms. Answer D is incorrect because a chilled water package is not a complete self-contained unit. For more information, see the "Air conditioning" section.
6. Contaminants come in many forms, however, some of the most harmful ones are not visible to the naked eye. How small are they?
A. Less than 10 microns
B. 1000 microns
C. 0.3 microns
D. 100 microns
A. The most harmful contaminants are less than 10 microns and can bypass air filtration systems. Answer B is incorrect because particles of this size are easily captured by filters. Answer C is incorrect because these particles fall into the category of less than 10 microns, and therefore anything less than this, or greater than but equal to 10 microns are the most harmful. Answer D is incorrect because the air filtration system should be able to capture particles of this size. For more information, see the "Air Pollutants" section.
7. What are the two criteria that must be met in order for a contaminant to be considered harmful?
A. They must have physical properties that could cause damage to equipment, and they must remain stationary.
B. They must have physical properties that could cause damage to equipment, and they must have the ability to travel to areas where they can cause damage.
C. They must have the ability to travel to areas where they can cause damage, and they must not have any physical properties.
D. None of the above.
B. To be considered dangerous contaminants, particles must have physical properties that could cause damage to equipment, and they must have the ability to travel to areas where they can cause damage. For more information, see the "Sources of contaminants" section.
8. Your boss asks you to come up with a cleaning schedule for the server room. What should it incorporate?
A. Daily and yearly tasks
B. Daily, weekly, and quarterly tasks
C. Weekly, quarterly, and semi-annual tasks
D. Daily, weekly, quarterly, and bi-annual tasks
D. A proper cleaning schedule should consist of daily, weekly, quarterly, and bi-annual tasks to ensure that the server room meets a high standard of cleanliness. For more information, see the "Regular cleaning" section.
9. What areas should be addressed in the design of a power system?
A. Multiple feeds, UPS, backup generators, maintenance bypass
B. Multiple feeds, backup generators, maintenance bypass
C. Multiple feeds, UPS, backup generators
D. Multiple feeds, UPS, maintenance bypass
A. To ensure a high-quality power system, you should incorporate multiple feeds, UPS, backup generators, and maintenance bypass elements. For more information, see the "Electrical Issues" section.
10. To help prevent ESD when working on a server, what precautions can you take? Choose all that apply.
A. Wear a grounded wrist strap.
B. Maintain proper humidity levels.
C. Wear a wool shirt, and polyester pants.
D. Use conductive furniture.
A, B, and D. To prevent ESD when working on a server, you need to ensure that all these conditions were met. If you do not follow these recommendations, you could end up zapping components while handling them. For more information, see the "Electrostatic discharge" section.
1. Management wants you to come up with the best possible solution for a fire prevention system to protect the mission-critical systems in the computer room. What would you recommend?
You need to ensure that you have adequate fire protection by incorporating a manual means of fire suppression in the server room, installing fire extinguishers at strategic locations throughout the room, and using a sprinkler system. Ideally, you should incorporate a dual sprinkler system that makes use of a pre-action water sprinkler system, and gas based sprinkler system using FM 200. This scenario offers the best protection because fire extinguishers and manual suppression equipment will help to control flare-ups while occupants are in the room to control it. The gas system should extinguish the blaze without damaging the hardware. As a last resort, the pre-action water based sprinkler system would run continuously until the fire was extinguished, although it would most likely damage the hardware. However, if it came to that, you would still be able to operate because your tape backups would have been safely stored off-site.
1. Building A's computer specialist calls to tell you that their network has stopped responding. Because this network is in high demand, you tell the specialist to reboot the server. Unfortunately this does not correct the problem. What should you do next?
A. Replace the network card.
B. Replace the network cable that goes to the server.
C. Replace the hubs.
D. Ask the specialist questions, including, what, how, and when.
D. Asking the appropriate questions will get you the necessary information to correctly troubleshoot the problem. You can find out if anything changed, when it changed, and how it was changed. The other answers are incorrect because they guess at what the problem might be without gathering the necessary information first. Replacing these items will probably not resolve the problem. For more information, see the "Ask the right questions" section.
2. Users in the southeastern branch are complaining that during specific periods of the day, the database system slows down dramatically. How would you go about troubleshooting this problem?
A. Add another hard disk.
B. Add another processor.
C. Check log files to determine if the database system is performing any specific jobs or maintenance.
D. Add more RAM.
C. The log files for the database software will let you know if any maintenance programs are running at these times, or if any special jobs are running. Adding a disk, a processor, or more RAM will only hide the problem, and will most likely do nothing to resolve it. For more information, see the "Log files" section.
3. You have just been hired as a network administrator at a new company. What will you need to get familiar with network environment?
A. Topology maps
B. A list of the servers
C. Documentation that has been created and maintained by the previous employee
D. Detailed knowledge of the server operating systems
C. Good documentation is always the best way to get anyone familiar with the computer environment, and is the quickest way to do so. Answer A is incorrect because a topology map alone will not get you familiar with the computer environment. It will only show you what topology the network uses. Answer B is incorrect because a list of all the servers will do nothing more than name each server for you, and will essentially do nothing to make you familiar with the environment. Answer D is incorrect because a detailed knowledge of the operating system does not have anything to do with becoming familiar with
the entire computer environment. This will only make it easier for you to do so. For more information, see the "Documentation" section.
4. Near the end of day, you decide it is a good time to upgrade the tape backup device drivers. After doing so, you perform a quick test, but the backup software no longer recognizes the device. You confirm that all cables are secure. What should you do next, keeping in mind that the backup begins in 30 minutes?
A. Consult documentation on the vendor's Web site.
B. Reinstall the old drivers, and then resolve the issue properly when you have more time.
C. Pull out all the connections, including the SCSI card, and clean them.
D. Reinstall the operating system.
B. Because you have limited time to troubleshoot, you should reinstall the old drivers, because you know they worked before you installed the new ones. When you have more time, you can consult the vendor's Web site for more information. There should not be a problem with the SCSI card, or the operating system because it everything was functioning correctly with the old drivers. For more information, see the "Drivers" section.
5. What are some things you should have on hand before troubleshooting? Choose all that apply.
A. Documentation
B. Cable tester
C. Knowledge of networking concepts
D. Logic and Reasoning
A, C, and D. These are all things you should have on hand for troubleshooting. Having these elements in place will make it easier to resolve problems. Answer B is part of your troubleshooting tools, and wouldn't be needed at the beginning of the process. For more information, see the "Isolating the problem" section.
6. What are the two types of maps that any network documentation should contain?
A. Logical and physical
B. Logical and topographical
C. Hypothetical and real
D. Physical and location
A. Any network documentation should contain a logical map showing the network topology, and a physical maps showing blueprints for room names and locations, wiring diagrams, and cable specifications. Answer B is incorrect because topographical maps are geographical land maps. Answer C is incorrect because there is technically no such thing as hypothetical and real maps with network documentation. Answer D is incorrect because location is not a type of map. For more information, see the "Documentation" section. 7. A, C, and D. Physical maps should contain these elements. Answer B is wrong because this is typically part of logical maps. For more information, see the "Maintain network maps" section.
8. You are asked to develop an equipment inventory document. What are some of the things you should include? Choose all that apply.
A. List of servers and clients
B. List of internetworking devices
C. Locations of servers and clients
D. A spare parts inventory
A, B, and D. Equipment inventory documents should at least contain these elements to help you see what equipment you have, and what spares you have. Answer C is wrong because locations are part of network documentation, not inventory. For more information, see the "Inventory everything" section.
9. A network card fails in one of the servers. After finding out exactly what type of network card it is, where should you look first for a replacement?
A. A spare workstation
B. From your supplier
C. The spare inventory documentation
D. Local computer store
C. You should consult the spare inventory document first to see if you have an identical network card on hand. If not, the document will let you know of other network cards you might be able to use. Answer A is incorrect because you should only take a card from a spare workstation if you absolutely need to use that network card. Answer B is incorrect because it will take a day or two to get a replacement from a supplier. Answer D is incorrect because it is not the quickest solution. You should have spare network cards on hand for each of your servers. For more information, see the "Inventory everything" section.
10. An end-user calls the help desk to report that she cannot get access to her network resources? What would NOT be an appropriate question to ask?
A. Do you have access to any network resources?
B. What did you do wrong?
C. Are there any error messages when you log in?
D. When did this problem first occur?
B. You do not want to insult the end-user by blaming them for the problem. Answers A, C, and D are incorrect because these are the type of questions that you should ask the end user. For more information, see the "Ask the right questions" section.
11. Some of your users are reporting that their network connection is down. Upon entering the server room, you notice that the indicator lights on the switch that the users are plugged into looks odd. What should you check first?
A. Test the network cables to see if they are bad.
B. Check the network card in the server.
C. Check the log files on the server.
D. Consult the hardware documentation to see what the indicator lights mean.
D. The hardware documentation will tell you what the pattern of indicator lights means. Answer A is incorrect because the probability of all the cables being bad in that switch is remote. Answer B is incorrect because only some of the users are having problems, while other users are connecting to that server and using its resources without any problems, so the issue cannot be with the network card in the server. Answer C is wrong because there most likely will not be any errors in the server log files that relate to the switch. For more information, see the "Checking lights" section.
12. One of the servers in the computer room is switching to battery power at roughly the same time each night, and sometimes randomly through out the week. Before leaving you decide to switch off the lights, and at the same time, you hear the UPS kick in. What should you check?
A. Check the building wiring diagrams.
B. Turn the light switch back on to see if the wall plug is affected by it.
C. Contact the building supervisor.
D. Check the wall plug to see if everything is plugged in.
B. This is the quickest and easiest thing to test. If you turn off the lights and the UPS kicks in, then it is likely that the light switch and power receptacle are on the same circuit. Answer A is incorrect because you are probably not familiar with electrical diagrams, and it would take too long to search through them. Answer C is incorrect because the building supervisor will most likely be unable to help. Answer D is incorrect because the server was working before you turned off the lights, so it must have been plugged in. For more information, see the "Checking cabling" section.
13. Your tape backup software can no longer detect the backup hardware. What should you do first?
A. Reinstall the backup software.
B. Reinstall the tape backup device drivers.
C. Take off the case and make sure the SCSI card is inserted properly.
D. Check the peripheral cable at both ends to make sure it is securely attached to the server and the tape backup hardware.
D. This is the quickest and easiest thing to do, so you should do it first. Loose connections are a leading cause of many hardware and software problems. Answer A is incorrect because it would be time consuming you could try this after testing other things. Answer B is incorrect because it is not the first step to take. Reinstall the drivers if you think they might be corrupt, or someone updated them. Answer C is also incorrect because this is something that is typically done last. For more information, see the "Examining peripherals" section.
14. What are leading causes of software problems?
A. DLLs and virtual swap files
B. Operators not knowing what they are doing
C. DLLs and virtual device drivers
D. Power surges and buggy applications
C. DLLs and virtual device drivers are the cause of many software problems, especially in Windows environments. Answer A is incorrect because virtual swap files do not exist. Answer B is incorrect, although operators do contribute to a large portion of client software issues. Answer D is incorrect, but these are also factors in software problems. For more information, see the "Checking Software" section.
15. Every month, you run a month-end job on one of the server databases, and you never run into any problems. This month you receive an error stating that system resources are low and the job fails. What might be the problem?
A. Not enough RAM
B. Bad hard disk
C. Error in the job configuration
D. Not enough disk space
D. A lack of disk space is most likely the problem if the application states it is low on resources. Many applications need to use large portions of hard drive space while performing certain functions. Check this first to see if it is an issue. Answer A is incorrect because RAM is not the easiest to check however with some testing, you may determine this to be true. Answer B is incorrect because you should notice other problems with the server and in the log files if the hard disk is bad. Answer C is incorrect because the job configuration khas not changed. For more information, see the "Checking disk space" section.
1. What technology would enable a technician to remotely turn on a client PC?
A. Modem
B. RAS
C. Remote access card
D. Wake-on-LAN
D. A Wake-on-LAN network card will allow a client PC to be remotely turned on by sending a signal to the network port. Answer A is incorrect because a modem will only let you dial in to a machine that is already turned on. Answer B is incorrect because Remote Access Services (RAS) only enables you to dial in to a machine. Answer C is incorrect because a remote access card cannot turn a server on. For more information, see the "Wake-on-LAN" section.
2. A server will not boot properly. When it starts up, the server beeps twice and goes no further, without booting into the operating system. A technician is using a POST diagnostic adapter to troubleshoot the error, which seems to be POST related. What is the proper procedure for using a POST diagnostic card?
A. Insert the card into an expansion slot, and boot the server using a diagnostic floppy disk.
B. Insert the card into an expansion slot, and boot the server. Error codes will display on the POST card.
C. Connect the POST device to the server's serial port. Information will be saved to a text file on the hard disk.
D. Insert the card into an expansion slot, and note the error codes displayed on the card while the server is turned off.
B. The POST card needs to be plugged into an available expansion slot, and then the server is rebooted. Errors codes will appear on the card's built-in display. Answer A is incorrect because there is no need for a diagnostic boot disk. Answer C is incorrect because a POST card plugs into an available expansion slot. Answer D is incorrect because the server must be turned on for the diagnostic card to read from the POST routine. For more information, see the "POST card" section.
3. A technician is using a vendor-specific hardware diagnostic tool to diagnose a problem with the hard drive subsystem. The tool is reporting an error code, but the technician is unable to find the code in the diagnostic tool's manual. What is the best place to check to find information on the error code?
A. Vendor's Web site
B. Installation CD-ROM
C. E-mail the vendor's technical support
D. Diagnostic tool readme file$$

A. The vendor's Web site is the best place to get the most current error codes. Answer B is incorrect because the CD-ROM will only have information current up to the release for the product. Answer C is incorrect because you can find
the information more quickly by scanning the vendor's website. Answer D is incorrect because the readme file will only be as current as the release of the product. For more information, see the "Using vendor resources" section.
4. A hardware error is preventing an e-mail server from booting. The error message displayed on the server console cannot be found in the server manual, or on the vendor's Web site. Management needs the server to be operational within one hour. What is the next step in troubleshooting the server?
A. E-mail the vendor's technical support.
B. Use a POST diagnostic card.
C. Call the hardware vendor's technical support number.
D. Call the NOS vendor's technical support number.
C. You must contact the hardware phone support line to get the server back on-line as soon as possible. Answer A is incorrect because waiting for an e-mail response might take a few days. Answer B is incorrect because using a diagnostic card will help find the problem, but you must contact the vendor anyway to get a replacement part. Answer D is incorrect because the problem is with the hardware, not the NOS. For more information, see the "Technical Support" section.
5. A network card is malfunctioning in a server. The card is still under warranty, and the technician is calling the vendor's technical support line to have it replaced. How can the technician verify with technical support that an identical card will be sent as a replacement?
A. Give technical support the model number.
B. Give technical support the serial number of the server.
C. Give technical support the serial number of the network card.
D. Give technical support the network card's speed and duplex settings.
C. The vendor will be able to send an identical card if you give them the network card's serial number. Answer A is incorrect because there might be many different sub-versions of a model of network card. Answer B is incorrect
because the serial number of the server will not help identify the right network card. Answer D is incorrect because this is not specific enough information for the vendor to identify the right card. For more information, see the "Replacing Hardware" section.
6. On a Saturday night, a technician's pager goes off, notifying the technician that the file server's OS has crashed, and is in a locked state. The technician dials in to the server's remote access card to troubleshoot the problem. What is the best way to recover the server?
A. Come on-site to examine the problem.
B. Remotely reboot the server.
C. Activate the wake-on-LAN feature.
D. Connect to the server's console to reboot the server from the OS.
B. Because the OS is locked up, there is nothing that can be done other than to reset the server, and see if it boots up properly. Answer A is incorrect because there is no need to go on-site if the server can be remotely rebooted. Answer C is incorrect because a server should not be running a wake-on-LAN, which allows a device to be turned on remotely. Answer D is incorrect because the technician will not be able to connect to the server's console if the OS is locked. For more information, see the "Troubleshooting Remotely" section.
7. An external tape drive is not working properly. A series of lights are flashing on the front console of the drive, but the technician cannot decipher what they mean. Where should the technician first look to begin troubleshooting the problem?
A. Check for error codes on the bottom of the tape drive.
B. Install a POST diagnostic card on the server.
C. Check the error codes on the OS vendor's Web site.
D. Look up the error code in the tape drive's manual.
D. The error codes for the flashing lights can be found in the tape drive's manual. Answer A is incorrect because there is no error information printed on the bottom of a tape drive. Answer B is incorrect because a POST card will not be able to troubleshoot an external device. Answer C is incorrect because the error codes for the hardware device will not be found on the Web site for the OS. For more information, see the "Manual" section.
8. On a technician's first day with a company, one of the Web servers has crashed with an OS error. What should be the technician's first step in troubleshooting the problem?
A. Examine the server documentation of the previous technician.
B. Immediately call the server vendor's phone support.
C. Examine the manual for the Web server.
D. E-mail the OS vendor's technical support.
A. The previous technician's documentation should be examined to see if the same problem has happened in the past, and a solution was found. Answer B is incorrect because the server vendor will not be able to help with an OS software problem. Answer C is incorrect because the Web server manual will only list errors specific to the Web server software. Answer D is incorrect because it may take some time before receiving a reply from a vendor's e-mail support. For more information, see the "Server documentation" section.
9. During a server's POST routine, a hardware error is observed. What is the best way to determine which Field Replacement Unit (FRU) to replace?
A. Reboot the sever with a POST diagnostic card.
B. Check the operating system's event logs.
C. Find the POST error code in the server's documentation.
D. Call the OS vendor's technical support line to help find the appropriate part.
C. If the POST error code is looked up in the documentation, it will indicate which hardware is malfunctioning. Answer A is incorrect because the hardware error indicated by the internal POST routine is sufficient to track down the problem. Answer B is incorrect because the OS event logs will not help, because the error occurs before the operating system is loaded. Answer D is incorrect because the OS vendor will not be able to help you in troubleshooting a hardware problem. For more information, see the "Hardware diagnostic tools" section.
10. A new server is being installed to provide an FTP server for a development workgroup. The server isn't needed until next week. The technician has started to install the operating system but is running into problems in its configuration. What should be done to troubleshoot the problem?
A. Immediately call the OS vendor's support line with a level 1 emergency.
B. E-mail the OS vendor's technical support with the configuration questions.
C. Call the hardware vendor for a FRU.
D. Reinstall the operating system. $$

B. Because the problem is not urgent, sending an e-mail to the OS vendor's technical support will usually get an answer in a day or two. Answer A is incorrect because this problem is not an emergency, and you may be charged a lot of money for the emergency response. Answer C is incorrect because the problem is with the OS software, not hardware. Answer D is incorrect because reinstalling the OS will not fix the configuration problem. For more information, see the "E-mail support" section.
11. A user is reporting a strange operating system error on his computer. You are unable to decipher the error message, and it does not appear in the OS manual. What is the next best resource to use to help troubleshoot the problem?
A. Check the readme file on the installation disk.
B. Enter the error into the vendor's Web knowledgebase.
C. Call the vendor's technical support line, which charges $3.99 a minute.
D. Check the manual for the computer's motherboard.
B. By entering the error into the vendor's knowledgebase, you should be able to obtain technical documents related to that problem. Answer A is incorrect because the readme will only contain error information current at the time of the original release of the OS. Answer C is incorrect because the answer should be found using the free Web knowledgebase. Answer D is incorrect because the motherboard manual will not aid you with OS software errors. For more information, see the "Web site" section.
12. A technician wishes to upgrade the virus signatures on all 50 of his company's computers. It has to be done off-hours, to minimize downtime for the users. The technician would like to perform this install remotely, but many users turn their computers off before going home. What tool can best aid the technician in performing the update?
A. Set the server to automatically update virus signatures using a scheduling program.
B. The technician will have to be on-site to manually upgrade the computers.
C. Use the PCs' Wake-on-LAN support to remotely start the PCs, perform the upgrade, and shut them down again.
D. Set the server's Wake-on-LAN card to automatically start the virus update service.
C. Using the Wake-on-LAN support on the computers, they can be remotely set to turn on, receive the update, and then shut down again. Answer A is incorrect because the scheduling program will not be able to update computers that are turned off. Answer B is incorrect because there is no need for the technician to be on-site if the wake-on-LAN technology is used. Answer D is incorrect because the server should not have a wake-on-LAN card the cards should be on the client computers. For more information, see the "Wake-on-LAN" section.
13. A technician suspects that a server is having problems as a result of bad memory. The technician does not have a POST diagnostic card to test the server. What else can be done to help troubleshoot the problem?
A. Boot the server with a software diagnostic utility disk.
B. Run the NOS performance monitor tool.
C. Examine the OS error event logs.
D. Reboot the server, and pause the POST routine during the memory check.
A. The software diagnostic disk will be able to scan the memory modules for errors. Answer B is incorrect because the performance monitoring tool will not be able to scan for hardware errors. Answer C is incorrect because the OS error logs will not show memory errors. Answer D is incorrect because pausing the POST routine during the error check will not aid in diagnosing the problem. For more information, see the "Software diagnostic tools" section.
14. A technician is logged in remotely to a server's remote access card. The server is having trouble running a Web server as a result of several operating system errors. The remote application log files do not show any hardware errors. What is the next step in troubleshooting the problem?
A. Check the Web site for the server's hardware vendor.
B. Examine the OS manual and documentation.
C. Examine the local application's event logs.
D. Restart the server remotely.
C. The local application logs will contain any OS errors. Answer A is incorrect because the Web site for the hardware vendor will not contain any OS software related information. Answer B is incorrect because the technician will not access to the manuals while off-site. Answer D is incorrect because restarting the server will not permanently fix the OS errors. For more information, see the "Troubleshooting Remotely" section.
15. During a phone call to a hardware vendor's technical support line, you are cut off halfway through. What should you do next?
A. Call the support line back and refer them to your case ticket number.
B. Call the support line back and start again from the beginning.
C. Try calling the OS vendor's technical support instead.
D. Call the support line back and ask to speak to a second level engineer.
A. By giving the support staff the case ticket number, you can continue the call from where you left off, without having to start over. Answer B is incorrect because you will waste valuable time if you have to start explaining the problem from the beginning. Answer C is incorrect because the OS vendor will not be able to help you with a hardware problem. Answer D is incorrect because you will still have to explain the problem from the beginning, wasting valuable time. For more information, see the "Phone support" section.
16. When looking up an OS software program on a vendor's technical support knowledgebase on Web, you are asked to download a hot fix file. What should be you next step in troubleshooting the problem?
A. Download and install the hot fix file.
B. Call the vendor's technical support and verify the hot fix.
C. Boot the server with the hot fix boot disk.
D. Look up the software error code in the OS manual.
B. Before installing any patch or hot fix, you should verify that the problem resolved by the hot fix is the one you are actually experiencing. Answer A is incorrect because the problem might be something else entirely if you haven't investigated further, and installing the hot fix may damage your system. Answer C is incorrect because the hot fix may be for a problem that is not the same as yours, since it wasn't verified with the vendor. Answer D is incorrect because the most current error information will be on the Web site. For more information, see the "Technical support" section.
17. A technician is using a POST diagnostic card to troubleshoot hardware errors during a server startup. However, the error codes displayed on the card do not match any error codes in the POST card's manual. Where should the technician check next to decipher the error code?
A. Examine the NOS error event logs.
B. Check the readme file on the diagnostic boot disk.
C. Call the OS vendor's technical support line.
D. Check the POST card vendor's Web site.
D. The most current error codes will be listed on the vendor's Web site. Answer A is incorrect because the NOS error event logs will not help you with a hardware problem. Answer B is incorrect because there is no diagnostic boot disk with a POST card. Answer C is incorrect because the OS vendor's technical support will not help you solve a hardware problem. For more information, see the "POST card" section.
18. A server manufacturer has installed their own hardware self-diagnostic utilities on your server. While checking the error logs of the utility, the software lists an error code for one of your motherboard components. Where can this
error code be checked to find out what it means?
A. The diagnostic utility's manual
B. The OS vendor's Web site
C. The motherboard vendor's technical support phone line
D. The NOS application logs
A. The diagnostic utility's manual will contain a listing of all of its error codes. Answer B is incorrect because the OS vendor's Web site will not help you with a hardware problem. Answer C is incorrect because the motherboard vendor will not know the server vendor's specific error codes. Answer D is incorrect because the NOS application logs will not list any hardware problems. For more information, see the "Manual" section.
19. While off-site, you receive a call from a user that one of the servers has lost power. The server has a remote access card installed, but when you try to dial in by modem, you are unable to connect to the remote access card. What is
the most likely cause of the problem?
A. The card will not answer if no operating system is present.
B. The remote access card was attached to the same power source as the server.
C. The battery on the remote access card is dead.
D. The remote access card is not plugged in to a UPS.
C. The remote access card contains a battery that enables it to remain on during a power failure. Answer A is incorrect because the remote access card operates independently of the operating system. Answer B is incorrect because the remote access card uses its own battery for power. Answer D is incorrect because the remote access card uses its own battery for power. For more information, see the "Remote access cards" section.
20. A hardware vendor's technical support has sent you a Field Replacement Unit (FRU) for your server's power supply. When you try to install it, you notice that it will not fit into the machine, and the connectors do not match up. What
is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. You need to consult the power supply's manual to install it properly.
B. The wrong FRU part was delivered.
C. The vendor sent you a better version of the same power supply.
D. The motherboard needs to be replaced to support the power supply.
B. The vendor has sent you the wrong part for your server. Answer A is incorrect because the power supply FRU should be identical to the one you already have. Answer C is incorrect because a FRU is identical to the part that is being replaced. Answer D is incorrect because the FRU should be identical to the original part, and be compatible with the host system. For more information, see the "Replacing Hardware" section.
1. A critical database server has suffered a hardware failure. What steps should you take to troubleshoot the problem, keeping in mind that the amount of downtime has to be kept to a minimum?
You should reboot the server, so that you can check the POST routine or vendor hardware diagnostic utility for any errors. If you receive an error, check the server's manual to decipher the error code, to identify the failed hardware.

Once you have verified this information, or if you cannot troubleshoot any further, call the hardware vendor's phone support immediately, to help get the problem fixed while minimizing downtime. Depending on the type of maintenance agreement or level of support you have with the vendor, they will either send you a FRU, which will replace your failed component, or they will send a technician to do the replacement. Depending on your level of support, you will have a replacement part within a few hours or longer, but there is no faster way of getting the problem fixed.
2. A manager has asked you to take a look at an older server that has not been working for a long time. Because the department's budget has been cut, the manager cannot buy a new server to perform some simple reporting tasks, and would like to get the old server working. The server hangs on the POST routine, but there is no error message except for a single beep. What steps can you take to fix the server?
If the single beep in the POST routine does not properly identify the problem, even after checking the server manual for POST error messages, you should try booting the server with a POST diagnostic card. Install the card into an available expansion slot, and reboot the server. The POST card will give more detailed error messages that you can examine in more detail by using the diagnostic utility's manual. Once you have identified the failed hardware component, you will need to call the server manufacturer to see if they can get you a replacement. Because the server is fairly old, this might not be possible, and other upgrades may be necessary. If you give the vendor's support staff the serial number of the component, they will be able to track it down more easily.

Since the server is probably not under warranty anymore, you should give the server serial number to the vendor to verify this. If not, you will have to get the manager to authorize payment for the replacement part.
1. Most companies are not ready for a disaster because of which of the following barriers? Choose all that apply.
A. Lack of knowledge
B. Little funding
C. Lack of appreciation by support personnel
D. Not enough support from management
B, C, and D. Typically funding, lack of appreciation, and gaining management support are the biggest barriers faced by disaster recovery planners. It is essential to obtain this support for the DRP to be a success. Answer A is incorrect because lack of knowledge is not a problem if you have any sort of involvement with backing up data and taking care of the corporate information systems. For more information see the beginning of the chapter.
2. The Disaster Recovery Plan consists of several phases. What are they?
A. Risk analysis, Business Impact Analysis, prioritizing recovery requirements, producing the document, testing the plan
B. Risk analysis, Business Impact Analysis, prioritizing applications, recovery requirements, producing the document, testing the plan
C. Risky business, Cost Impact Assessment, application recovery, analyzing the document, producing the test
D. None of the above
B. This is the common methodology, but certainly not the only one. It is vital that you know what information should be included in a disaster recovery document in order to make it affective and useful. For more information, see the "Forming a Disaster Recovery Plan" section.
3. A business impact analysis will perform the following functions for your company? Choose all that apply.
A. Expose weaknesses and strengths.
B. Recommend the proper architectural layout for your building.
C. Define critical, necessary, and non-essential functions of your business.
D. Completely protect you from disaster.
A and C. Using a business impact analysis will examine every detail of your company and identify the weaknesses and strengths, and identify critical, necessary, and non-necessary functions. Answer B is incorrect because this typically is not analyzed in a business impact analysis. Answer D is incorrect because unfortunately you cannot completely protect yourself from a disaster you can only make sure you are prepared for it when it happens. For more information, see the "Business Impact Analysis" section. 4. You should keep a hard copy to the DRP document in a minimum of two locations. What are they?
A. Keep both copies off-site.
B. Keep both copies on-site
one in the computer room, and one in a safe in your office.
C. Keep one copy on-site, and one copy at an off-site location.
D. Keep both copies in a locked safe on-site.
4. C. Never keep just one hard copy of the disaster recovery plan, because it could get lost or damaged if kept on-site. Also, having only electronic copies is useless if you cannot get to your systems. Answer A is incorrect because you would potentially lose these copies if a disaster occurred. Answer B is incorrect for the same reason as A. Keeping them in a safe on-site is not necessarily any safer. Answer D is also incorrect because keeping both copies on-site is a bad idea. If a disaster strikes, even if they are in a safe, there is no guarantee that the safe won't be damaged. For more information, see the "The disaster recovery document" section.
5. During the creation of the DRP document, someone suggests you should have the appropriate purchasing information. Why is this a good idea?
A. Having the appropriate purchasing information on-hand will reduce the time it takes to issue a purchase order and get new equipment.
B. It will minimize the effects of a disaster.
C. All employees should learn how to issue purchase orders so that they can order the new equipment on their own.
D. It is only necessary for the people in the purchasing department to issue purchase orders.
A. Every I.S. team member responsible for the DRP should be able to issue a purchase order. Answer B is incorrect, because unfortunately it will not minimize the effects of a disaster. Answer C is incorrect, because you do not want
unauthorized employees issuing purchase orders during a non-disaster situation. Answer D is incorrect, because during a disaster, things need to happen quickly, so you will want at least one person from each department to be able
to issue a purchase order. For more information, see the "The disaster recovery document " section.
6. Your boss asks you what steps you have taken to ensure you have a sound tape backup system. How should you respond?
A. Verify your backups, and purchase a backup unit for the off-site location.
B. Verify backups, keep an exact spare tape unit, backups, cables, SCSI adapters and device drives at an off-site location.
C. Keep an additional tape backup unit at your on-site location, so that you can recover even faster.
D. Rotate the media to an off-site location.
B. If you cannot verify your backups, then you really never know if they are good or not. Keeping cables, SCSI adapters, device drives, and a spare unit will save you a lot of time in the recovery process. Answers A and D are incorrect because you also need to include the other items mentioned in the answer. Answer C is incorrect because if a disaster occurs and destroys your company's location, then this unit will be destroyed as well. For more information, see the "The disaster recovery document" section.
7. Certain types of disasters are more devastating than others, what are they?
A. Air disasters
B. Sabotage
C. Natural disasters
D. Viruses
C. Natural disasters can be the most devastating because they can completely destroy your company's physical location. Answer A is incorrect, because air disasters do not occur that often, and they rarely damage any company locations. Answer B is incorrect because sabotage is not that common. Answer D is incorrect because most companies try to protect themselves from viruses, and complete disasters from them are relatively rare. However, just getting a virus can cost you lots of money, and time. For more information, see the "Types of Disasters" section.
8. The insurance agency asks you what precautions you are taking to protect the company from a natural disaster. How should you respond?
A. Assure them that there are multiple copies of tape backups, and all are kept on-site.
B. Assure them that you have a sound backup plan, media is stored at a reputable off-site agency, and backups are verified.
C. Assure them that they have nothing to worry about because you have never received a single error when performing tape backups.
D. Assure them that you tested your Disaster Recovery Plan two years ago, and updated it immediately after the test.
B. If tapes are not kept off-site then they could be destroyed in the disaster as well. Verifying backup ensures that they are reliable. For more information, see the "Natural disasters" section.
9. Logic bombs are typically used by whom?
A. Teenagers
B. Military experts
C. Professional hackers
D. Disgruntled employees
D. Disgruntled employees seeking revenge on the company typically use logic bombs. For more information, see the "Vandalism" section
10. Who is responsible for administering the disaster recovery plan?
A. Team leader and alternate emergency coordinator
B. President of company and manager of Information Systems
C. Operations manager and manager of Information Systems
D. Team leader, and President of the company
A. The team leader and alternate emergency coordinator are responsible for administering the plan in the even of a disaster. Answers B, C, and D are incorrect because the President of the company may not be the team leader, nor is the manager of Information Systems necessarily responsible for the implementing the plan. For more information, see the "The disaster recovery team" section.
11. What are some symptoms that your systems may have been affected by a virus?
A. System is slower.
B. Unusual messages keep displaying.
C. Files are missing or corrupt.
D. Disk space decreases rapidly.
E. All of the above
E. All of these are symptoms that a virus may have infected your computer system. For more information, see the "Viruses" section.
12. What is not a component that is typically used for redundancy purposes?
A. Hard drives
B. Sound cards
C. Power supplies
D. NICs
B. Sound cards are obviously not a necessity in any server system let alone for redundancy purposes. Answers A, B, and D are incorrect, because all these items are usually used for redundancy. For more information, see the
"Planning for Redundancy" section.
13. What are some advantages to having a UPS device in the computer room? Choose all that apply.
A. It will safely keep the server on-line after a power failure until you can shut it down safely.
B. It will protect systems from brownouts.
C. It will prevent damage in the event of a fire.
D. It will keep the system running indefinitely or until power is restored.
A and B. In the event of a power failure, you will be able to keep your systems on-line for an extended period of time, and then perform a clean shutdown. UPS systems also prevent brownouts from damaging components in your systems. Answer C is incorrect because a UPS will not protect you from fire. Answer D is incorrect because a UPS will keep the system running for a set period of time, not indefinitely. For more information, see the "UPS" section.
14. You boss wants to know the major advantages of using a hot site service. How should you respond?
A. Use of a recovery center
B. Staff that knows exactly how to restore your data
C. Duplicate systems
D. Call management centers
A, C, and D. Using a hot site service ensures the maximum protection for your company in the event of a disaster. Answer B is incorrect because you are in charge of restoring your data, not the hot site staff. For more information, see
the "Hot site" section.
15. You boss asks you how often you should test the DRP plan. How should you respond?
A. Every day
B. Once per year
C. Once a month
D. Just before a disaster
B. Disaster recovery testing should be done on a yearly basis. This is mainly because of the length of time it takes to complete the testing, and the cost of performing the testing. For more information, see the "Testing the Disaster
Recovery Plan" section.
1. There is a fire in the computer room that destroys almost all of the equipment in it. What steps should be taken as part of the Disaster Recovery Plan.
You should first and foremost call the fire department, and make sure the building is evacuated. After the fire has been extinguished, you will have to assess the damage and notify the disaster recovery team to but the plan into action. As the team leader, it will be your responsibility to notify all personnel, including management. Each member should have a copy of the disaster recovery plan document, so reiterating the information should not be necessary. You will need to follow the document step by step ensuring that each phase is completed, such as contacting the hot or cold site location, notifying the off-site storage company and getting them to deliver the tapes, and so on. This is a huge process, and you do not want to make any mistakes, so proceed with caution and diligence.
1. What can you expect to encounter if you do not implement a RAID system? Choose all that apply.
A. Employee downtime
B. Data loss and restoration costs
C. Continuous backups
D. Lost customers
A, B, and D. Employee downtime, data loss, restoration costs, and lost customers can be expected if you do not implement a RAID system, and the drives fail. C is incorrect because continuous backups are always required. For more information, see the "Recovering a RAID System" section.
2. How does a RAID 1 rebuild work?
A. This rebuild operation involves multiple read and write operations to reconstruct the data from parity.
B. RAID 1 systems cannot be rebuilt.
C. The rebuild operation copies the mirrored disk.
D. The rebuild operation copies the mirrored disk and reconstructs the data from parity. $$

C. In RAID 1, the rebuild operation essentially copies the mirrored disk. A is incorrect because this is how RAID 5 systems are rebuilt. B is incorrect because RAID 1 systems can be rebuilt. For more information, see Chapter 4,
or the "Recovering from a disk mirroring failure" section.
3. One of the drives fails in your RAID disk mirroring scheme. How will it be recovered?
A. Data blocks are copied from the failed drive and copied to the new drive.
B. The RAID system is repopulated when the RAID controller calculates the missing information from the parity reconstruction algorithm.
C. The data blocks are read from the functional drive and copied to the replacement drive.
D. The data is restored from tape backup to the replacement drive.
C. The data blocks are read from the functional drive and copied to the replacement drive. Answer A is incorrect because once a drive fails, the controller can no longer access it. Answer B is incorrect because this is how a striped set with parity is recovered. Answer D is incorrect because the question refers to a RAID rebuild as compared to restoring data from backup, and you would need to rebuild the RAID before restoring data. For more information, see the "Recovering from a disk mirroring failure" section.
4. How does a RAID 5 rebuild work?
A. This rebuild operation involves multiple read and write operations to reconstruct the data from parity.
B. The rebuild operation copies the mirrored disk.
C. The rebuild operation copies the mirrored disk and reconstructs the data from parity.
D. RAID 5 drives cannot be rebuilt.
A. The rebuild operation involves multiple read and write operations to reconstruct the data from parity. Answer B is incorrect because mirrored disks are used in a mirrored set. Answer C is incorrect because RAID 5 does not use a
mirrored disk. Answer D is incorrect because RAID 5 can be rebuilt, it is RAID 0 that cannot. For more information, see the "Recovering from a disk failure on a strip set with parity" section
5. One of the drives fails in your stripe set with parity RAID scheme. How will it be recovered?
A. The data is restored from tape backup to the replacement drive.
B. The RAID system is repopulated when the RAID controller calculates the missing information from the parity reconstruction algorithm.
C. Data blocks are copied from the failed drive and copied to the new drive.
D. Data blocks are read from the functional drive and copied to the replacement drive.
B. The RAID system is repopulated when the RAID controller calculates the missing information from the parity reconstruction algorithm. Answer A is incorrect because the question refers to rebuilding drives in an array and not
restoring from backup. Answer C is incorrect because you cannot copy data from a failed drive. Answer D is incorrect because this describes a mirrored set. For more information, see the "Recovering from a disk failure on a strip
set with parity" section.
6. What does a RAID controller use when rebuilding data that was on a failed disk?
A. Bits and bytes
B. Reverse parity
C. Parity bits
D. Data blocks
C. The RAID controller uses parity bits to rebuild data that was on a failed disk. For more information, see the "Recovering from a disk failure on strip set with parity" section.
7. What reason would you have not to perform an automatic rebuild?
A. It is good practice to manually initiate the rebuild.
B. Arrays do not have automatic rebuild options.
C. You are concerned that system performance will be degraded.
D. You did not set it up.
C. An automatic rebuild can greatly affect the performance of the system. A rebuild will use the available CPU resources to complete its task, and depending on what the rebuild rate is set to, this may make the system unusable to the users. B is incorrect because the arrays do have automatic rebuild options. D is incorrect because automatic rebuild is on by default. For more information, see the "Recovering from a disk failure on strip set with parity" section.
8. An alert was triggered by the RAID controller telling you that one of the drives is in a rebuild state. What does this mean?
A. The RAID controller has removed the drive from the array.
B. The RAID controller is rebuilding the drive.
C. The RAID controller is formatting the drive.
D. The drive is defunct and will not respond to commands
B. An alert that a drive is in a rebuild state typically only means one thing, and that is that the RAID controller is rebuilding the drive. A is incorrect because the drive is being rebuilt, not being removed. C is incorrect because RAID controllers cannot format drives. D is incorrect because if it was defunct, an appropriate alert would have been generated telling you that the drive was defunct. For more information, see the "RAID drive state conditions" section.
9. A logical drive failed to report its presence. What should be done?
A. Contact the vendor.
B. Correct the problem with the physical drives by reconnecting, replacing, or rebuilding them.
C. Count the number of physical drives.
D. Let the controller rebuild the logical drive. $$

B. Try to correct the problem with the physical drives by reconnecting, replacing, or rebuilding them. Answer A is incorrect simple because you want to resolve the problem as fast as possible, so you should try to correct the problem yourself first, and then contact the vendor. Answer C should have been done as part of your documentation, and really won't help in this situation. Answer D is incorrect, because the logical drive has failed because several physical drives have failed. For more information, see the "Disk failure" section.
10. The network specialist thinks that the tape backup system should be eliminated because the RAID system is completely fault tolerant. What should you tell the specialist?
A. Agree, because you have invested a lot of money in the RAID system.
B. Tell the specialist to purchase a few more hot spares and then stop the tape backup.
C. Explain to the specialist that the tape backup system is the only thing that can protect the company from disaster, and that disk drives fail fairly frequently.
D. Tell the specialist that this particular RAID level does not provide enough fault tolerance to warrant eliminating tape backups.
C. This is the only possible answer, because without tape backup you have no protection against failure. RAID only provides a means of data redundancy and protection against downtime. However, if the RAID fails then your data is gone. For more information, see the "Disk Failure" section.
11. How can you ensure high availability in your server systems?
A. Use hot swap and cold boot devices.
B. Use warm spare in your RAID systems.
C. Use hot swap, warm swap, and hot spare devices.
D. Keep duplicates of every device on your network.
C. Using a combination of hot swap, warm swap, and hot spare devices will maximize your system up-time. A is incorrect because cold boot devices is a made-up term. B is incorrect because warm swapping refers to putting the server into suspend mode before initiating a swap. D is also incorrect because keeping duplicates of every device, such as printers, or fax servers, would be unrealistic and not necessary. For more information, see the "Ensuring High Availability" section.
1. You're employed by a medium-sized manufacturing facility that has several servers and network nodes. Through analysis, you have determined that a total of 8GB needs to be backed up. However, the organization has three shifts running six days per week. Your ability to restore the data is obviously crucial but you only have a small window on Sunday in which to a full backup, and a few hours each weeknight to do the rest of the backups. Three to four weeks of backup history is acceptable. You are told that you are to use the father, son media rotation method. Why might you opt for an eight-tape rotation schedule?
The eight-tape father-son rotation schedule gives you the three to four weeks of backup history, while enabling you to effectively back up all the required data. You will use a differential or incremental backup for the Monday through Thursday media. Four media will be used for the Friday full backups, and they will be rotated and stored off-site. During week one, media 1 through 5 are used. Week two will see the usage of media 1 through 4, and media 6 for the full backup. This continues until media number eight is used.
2. You get a call from the operations manager telling you that there has been a fire in the building, and everything appears to have been destroyed. You are sick with the idea of how much work it is going to be to get the company back in shape, but you are confident that your disaster recovery plan will enable you to get the computer systems back up and running in a short period of time. What steps should you have taken regarding your backup plan?
Document the hardware and software environments. Maintain a database of all the devices and software programs being backed up. Use off-Site media rotation for weekly and monthly data. Maintain backup and recovery documentation from the testing you performed. Clearly label all the media both physically and electronically to ensure that you can restore the system to its most recent state. Store the nightly backups in a safe location such as your house.
A Customer wants to add memory to an existing server while preserving their initial investment. Which
of the following actions must be performed before purchasing memory?
A. Check memory count on POST.
B. Verify pin count of replacement memory.
C. Verify the availability of memory slot.
D. Verify compatibility with existing memory.
Answer: C
Before the purchase you should first check if there the server has available memory slot.
The next step would be to check which memory are compatible with the existing memory.
A file server has been optimized with the following characteristics:
• 1 GB RAM
• 400 MHz CPU
• 10/100 Ethernet NIC
• Hardware RAID subsystem
The server needs to be reconfigured as a database server. Which of the following upgrades should be added first?
A. More RAM
B. An additional NIC
C. An additional processor
D. An additional tape drive
Answer: C
A single 400 MHz CPU could become a bottleneck on a database server. We should either add an additional CPU or replace the CPU with a faster one.
A database server needs a lot of RAM, 1 GB should be sufficient. A 10/100 Ethernet NIC should be sufficient. A database server has less network traffic compared to a file server for example. A tape drive is only used for recovery. It is not required since SQL Server can make backups over the network.
The Vice President of Operations has decided that the company should be running the latest version of
the Network OS. A decision was made that the existing Network OS should be removed before the new
version is installed. A full backup has been performed. Which of the following should be done first?
A. Verify the backup
B. Format the system drive
C. Partition the data drive
D. Install the latest Network OS updates.
Answer: A
We must ensure that the backup is correct. If the backup is corrupt we would unable to return to the previous state.
All of the following need to be checked after an update to an SNMP agent EXCEPT that the
A. PUTs are enabled
B. MIBs require updating
C. traps are still configured
D. SNMP installation is still valid
Answer: D
Reconfiguration of SNMP agents would not change the SNMP installation.
Incorrect Answers
An SNMP agent update could have an impact on PUTs, MIBs and traps. PUTs are used in SNMP agent scripts, management information base (MIB) files contain SNMP agent information, and traps are configured for SNMP agents.
A new UPS has been installed with a signal cable that connects the server to the UPS. However, the server cannot communicate with the UPS. Which of the following is the likely cause?
A. The UPS is the wrong model.
B. The UPS batteries are not fully charged.
C. The UPS software is not properly configured.
D. The UPS is not configured to a power source.
Answer: C
The most likely cause is that the UPS software has not been properly configured.
Incorrect Answers
A wrong model is not a likely problem, since there are standards for UPS. The batteries do not have to be fully charged in order for the UPS to operate.
An UPS need a power source, though it is not likely that this have been overlooked.
What is the bus length limitation of a single-ended UltraWide SCSI with four devices?
A. 1.5 meters
B. 3 meters
C. 6 meters
D. 12 meters
Answer: B
UltraSCSI supports four devices, up to 3 meters (10 feet).
UltraSCSI supports eight devices, up to 1.5 meters (5 feet).
A customer has a system with two 9-GB drivers that are hardware mirrored on an Ultra SCSI RAID controller. Using the same size drivers, they would like to plan for 63 GB of storage space. Which of the following would offer a solution with the highest performance?
A. RAID 5 with 7 additional drives
B. RAID 5 with 12 additional drives
C. RAID 0/1 with 7 additional drives
D. RAID 0/1 with 12 additional drives
Answer: D
We should use RAID 0/1 combines RAID 0 (disk mirroring which gives fault tolerance) with RAID 1 (disk striping which give highest performance). 6 additional drives could be used on each mirror. Seven -9GB drives give a 63GB striped volume as was required.
Incorrect Answers
RAID 5 also provides fault tolerance but not as high performance as RAID 0/1. 7 additional drives in a RAID 0/1 is not enough to provide 63 GB of storage space. 12 additional drives are needed.
A customer asks a technician to install a new Ultra2 SCSI controller to an existing server. The new controller will replace a Fast SCSI controller that is in the server. The only device that will be connected is a Fast SCSI external tape drive. The customer will want to add new SCSI devices in the future.
What should the technician tell the customer?
A. The new configuration will work, however Ultra2 devices may operate at single-ended speeds.
B. The new configuration will work and Ultra2 devices will operate at Ultra speeds.
C. The new configuration will work and all devices will operate at Ultra2 speeds.
D. The new configuration will not work.
Answer: B
Ultra2 is compatible with existing SCSI devices allowing older, non-Ultra2-capable controllers to be used with newer, Ultra2-capable devices and vice versa.
After a server's processor is upgraded, the server will not POST. What is the most likely cause of this?
A. The BIOS was not flashed.
B. The processor is not correctly seated.
C. The jumper settings on the processor are incorrect.
D. The original cache size is different from the new cache size.
Answer: B
A possible cause of a failed POST test is an incorrectly seated processor. There should, in general, be no need to flash the BIOS to upgrade a processor.
Modern processors do not have jumper settings. The cache size of a processor would not cause the POST to stop.
A technician is adding a PCI 2.2-compliant 64-bit, 66-MHz card to a server. Which of the following types of slots can be used for the card?
I. 32-bit, 33 MHz PCI
II. 64-bit, 33 MHz PCI
III. 64-bit, 66 MHz PCI
A. III only
B. I and II only
C. II and III only
D. I, II, and III
Answer: D
The PCI 2.2 specification allows for a 64-bit, 66-MHz compliant card to be used in a 32-bit 33Mhz slot, in a 64-bit 33MHz slot, or in 64-bit 66MHz slot.
A Wake-on-LAN adapter has been installed on a server. However, the server does not wake up as expected. Which of the following should be done to resolve the problem?
A. Verify SNMP packets
B. Verify TCP/IP packets
C. Verify Magic Packets
D. Verify ACK packets
Answer: C
Wake On LAN (WOL) is the name for a technical development jointly created by IBM and Intel. The technology allows "enabled" devices to be powered on remotely via a special type of network communication. A WOL-enabled device, when powered off, will still draw a tiny amount of electricity to drive the network interface. The interface remains in a passive, listening mode, sending nothing out on the network. To wake up the device, a specially formed packet is sent to the network port where the device is plugged in. This special packet, called a magic packet, carries a special "signature." When the network interface sees this signature, it recognizes this as a wakeup call.
As the server is powered on, POST errors are observed. How can it be determined which FRU (Field Replacement Unit) to replace?
A. Review the Network OS logs for subsystem errors
B. Power off the server, disconnect from power, reconnect, restart.
C. Look up the error codes in the server documentation for the appropriate part to replace.
D. Contact the server manufacturer's technical support for known failing components that should be replaced.
Answer: C
The POST error codes have to be decoded, for example by using the server motherboard documentation.
As part of the installation of a four-way 400 MHz server, a baseline measurement was recorded. In addition, the latest firmware and Network OS patches were applied. Upon rebooting the server, the drives fail to initialize. Which of the following actions will offer the best solution to this issue?
A. Replace the hard drivers.
B. Search the vendor's Website for known issues.
C. Check the Network OS README file.
D. Install the latest Network OS service patch.
Answer: B
The vendor's Website is the best place to find information on known problems and solutions to these problems.
The technician receives a call reporting that a server is down. After arriving at the site, the technician realizes the problem is beyond his technical expertise. What should the technician do in this situation?
A. Review escalation procedures and contact the responsible individual.
B. Contact a fellow technician and ask that individual to come in to help.
C. Continue working on the problem, since the solution may present itself in time.
D. Tell the client that the system will be down until the next business day.
Answer: A
When a technician is unable to solve a problem, the problem should be escalated so that a person with more expert knowledge can resolve the problem
A network server will not boot properly. The server never begins the load of the Network OS and the server technician suspects a POST error. What is the proper way to use a POST diagnostics hardware adapter?
A. Insert the card into an open bus slot, boot the computer, and the error codes will display on the adapter.
B. Insert the card into an open bus slot, boot the computer, and the error codes will output on the default printer.
C. Insert the card into an open bus slot, boot the computer using the supplied floppy disk, and the error codes will be stored on disk.
D. Connect the adapter to a serial or parallel port, boot the computer, and the error codes will be stored in a memory buffer created by the adapter.
Answer: A
The messages, the post codes, from the POST diagnostics hardware adapter would be shown on a display on the adapter.
A technician is trying to determine why a remote alert failed on a server at another location. Which of the following steps should be performed to fix the problem?
I. Reboot remote server.
II. Connect to the remote server.
III. Logon with administrator privileges.
IV. Determine that the alert criterion is configured correctly.
A. I and II only
B. III and IV only
C. I, II, and IV only
D. II, III, and IV only
Answer: D/
The hard drive in an organization's certificate authority server has failed. The drive contained the certificate database and certificate revocation list. A replacement hard drive and the appropriate backup tapes from the Grandfather-Father-Son (GFS) rotation are obtained. What should the server technician
do first before attempting a restore of the system?
A. Burn in the new hard drive for at least 24 hours.
B. Check the certificate authority's Website for software updates.
C. Locate the organization's server recovery plan.
D. Determine the default server configuration from the certificate authority's software guide. $$$$

Answer: C
The server recovery plan, if existing, would be the first to check for the service technician when an import server has failed.
A functional server suddenly stops responding to users. Upon a cold reboot of the server, the screen is
blank. However, the hard drive and CD-ROM spin up normally. What is most likely causing the
problem?
A. There is a virus problem.
B. There is an AC power problem.
C. There is a hardware problem.
D. There is a software problem.
Answer: D
The behavior could be caused by a virus, a hardware problem, or a software problem. The most common cause
of this is a software problem though.
The previous month's UPS activity log that is maintained for a server is reviewed. It shows power to the
server is repeatedly being lost for about 10 minutes at approximately the same time every Friday night.
All system hardware and software diagnostic tests have been unable to locate the cause of the problem.
Who should be contacted regarding the problem?
A. The UPS manufacturer.
B. The department manager.
C. The building maintenance foreman.
D. The company's outside server consultants.
Answer: C
A building maintenance foreman seems the most likely cause of the problem. He probably shut down some
system at the same time each Friday night.
It seems very unlikely that the department manager or the consultants would work Friday night, or that UPS
manufacturer would schedule the UPS to perform a specific reoccurring activity.
The company server must be shut down for an upgrade. Which of the following sequences is the best
practice when shutting down the server?
A. Perform backup, notify users before shutdown, then shut down server and peripherals together.
B. Perform backup, notify users before shutdown, shut down server, then shut down the peripherals.
C. Notify users before shutdown, shut down applications, then shut down peripherals, and then shut down
server.
D. Have all users log off the server, shut down all applications, backup the server, shut down the server,
then shut down the peripherals.
Answer: D
Before shutting down the server we should have all users to log off, not just notify them, and shut down all
applications. We should then backup the server, shut down the server and finally shut down all peripherals.
The Human Resources Department added 50 new users to the network. All of them are using the same
application located on the main server in the data center. During peak usage hours the response of the
application has slowed to an unacceptable level.
The server is configured with two CPUs, 1GB of memory, a 100 GB SCSI disk array, and one Fast
Ethernet NIC. The performance baselines taken during peak hours are:
Historic Current
- Average CPU utilization 50% 60%
- Average CPU queue 1.5 1.7
- Average network utilization 25% 40%
- Average network queue 0.2 0.2
- Memory hard page faults 0.1 pages/s 0.12 pages/s
- Memory soft page faults 100 pages/s 200 pages/s
- Average disk subsystem utilization 10% 8%
- Average disk subsystem queue 0.1 0.05
Where is the bottleneck most likely located and how can it be resolved?
A. Memory is the bottleneck. More RAM needs to be installed.
B. CPUs are the bottleneck. Faster CPUs need to be installed.
C. The network is the bottleneck. Replace the hub with a switch.
D. The disk I/O is the bottleneck. Add an additional SCSI controller.
Answer: A.
100 page faults per second indicate a memory problem. Microsoft gives 20 pages/sec or less as acceptable.
A server administrator receives an application-specific error message while logged onto a remote server.
A review of the remote server's event logs found no reference to the error. The remote application log
files also do no mention the specific error.
Which of the following would be the most appropriate action for the technician to take next?
A. Examine the Network OS documentation.
B. Examine the local application event logs.
C. Examine the remove server vendor's support Website.
D. Notify the remote server users that the server must be rebooted.
Answer: B
It seems like that error was initiated on the local computer as nothing indicates an error on the server. We
should therefore check the local event log.
A third-party RAID card has been upgraded to the latest drivers. Since the upgrade, when a cold boot is
performed, the connected hard drives are correctly discovered during POST and will boot after a power
down, but not after a warm boot of the server. An identical card gives the same results. Which of the
following sources of information would be most useful in resolving this problem?
A. The Network OS vendor's HCL
B. The Network OS vendor's Website
C. The server vendor's Website
D. The adapter vendor's Website
Answer: D
This seems to a software problem since the network adapter works when the OS is cold booted, but not when
you warm booted. The information concerning this problem could possibly be found on the Network OS
Website, the server vendor's website, or the adapter vendor's website. Most information on the adapter would
most likely be found on the adapter vendor's Website.
In the event of a single-drive failure of an array, which of the following should be the first step to
recovery?
A. Break the mirror
B. Restore from backup
C. Determine the RAID level
D. Replace the failed drive
Answer: C
Before starting the recovery of the array we should determine the RAID level. Then we will know if we should
break the mirror (RAID 1), or replaced the failed drive.

25
When files on an NTFS partition on a new server were configured, an error occurs and the server will no
longer boot. Which software is required to recover from the failure and continue configuration?
A. Novell NetWare CD-ROM
B. Unix Boot/Root diskette(s)
C. IBM OS/2 Startup disk and Installation disk
D. ERD and/or installation disks with CD-ROM$$$$
Answer: D
NTFS is only used on Windows NT/2000/XP systems. These systems can be restored by use of the installation
CD-ROM/boot disks combined with the ERD diskettes.
Some of the users on a customer's network are complaining that they cannot access some servers. Which
of the following would be LEAST appropriate question to ask upon arriving onsite?
A. Which servers are not available?
B. When were the servers last rebooted?
C. Which users are unable to access the server?
D. Are any users able to access the unavailable servers?
Answer: B
We should focus at the problem at hand: some users cannot access some servers. The question of when the
servers were last rebooted is not so relevant.
27
Users complain that around 3:00 PM each workday, the company's email server operates slowly. What
should be done first to determine the cause of the slowdown?
A. Check the pagefile size.
B. Add more RAM to the server and do a new baseline.
C. Do a network trace to determine any issues with the network.
D. Check logs to determine when maintenance programs are scheduled.
Answer: D
Since the disturbance reoccurs at exactly the same time of the day, it seems that some scheduled task, possibly a
maintenance program, is the cause of the problem.
A technician is troubleshooting a failed server that cannot connect to the LAN. There are lights on the
network card and server that indicate activity. The technician replaced the network cable, and used
assorted Network OS vendor, and third-party diagnostic tools, but the server still fails to connect
properly. Which of the following is the best source of assistance to help resolve the problem?
A. IT manager
B. IS help desk
C. Network administrator
D. Disaster recovery team
Answer: C
The network adapter is working, but it seems likely that the server network properties or the network protocol
has been misconfigured. The network administrator would know how the server should be configured for this
particular network.
A client has called to company that their server hums or buzzes. Which of the following is LEAST likely
to be the problem?
A. CPU fan
B. RAID card
C. Hard drive
D. Power supply
Answer: B
A RAID card does not have any FAN so it would not hum or buzz.
Users report that the intranet database is slow to respond during peak use times. The database server is
on a small 150-user network and is configured with dual processors, 512 MB RAM and a hardwarecontrolled
RAID 5 array with three drivers. The server also provides DNS and DHCP services for the
intranet. Which of the following changes can be made to help improve server performance?
I. Set process affinity
II. Add a hard drive to the RAID 5 array
III. Move the page file to another partition on the RAID 5 array
IV. Move the DNS and DHCP services to another server
A. I and IV only
B. II and III only
C. I, II, and IV only
D. I, II, III, and IV
Answer: C
Processor affinity can be used to enable the database server service to exclusively use one processor. This
would improve performance.
Adding a hard drive to the RAID 5 array would improve disk access since three drives containing data (one
contains the parity bit), instead of two, could be read in parallel.
Removing any network services from the server would improve the performance of the remaining services.
Incorrect Answer
Move the page file on the RAID 5 array would not change the performance. The OS uses the RAID 5 array as a
single drive.
An administrator using a Grandfather-Father-Son (GFS) backup rotation needs to restore the system to
the state it was in two months previously. How many tape sets will be required to perform this operation?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: A
You use the single tape set from two months ago to restore the system state.
Without bringing the server down, which of the following is the first step in removing a NIC that is in a
hot-plug PCI slot?
A. Reload the NIC driver
B. Power off the PCI slot
C. Unload the TCP/IP stack.
D. Disconnect the Wake-on-LAN cable from the NIC.
Answer: B
Before removing the NIC we should power off the PCI slot.
There is no need to reload the NIC driver or unload the TCP/IP stack.
A server is required to recover after a single disk failure. Which of the following solutions will provide
the required level of fault tolerance?
I. RAID 0
II. RAID 1
III. RAID 3
IV. RAID 5
A. I and IV only
B. II and III only
C. I, II, and IV only
D. II, III, and IV only
Answer: D
RAID 1, RAID 3, and RAID 5 can recover from a single disk failure without any data loss.
RAID 0 has no fault tolerance. Data would have to be restored from tape.
A failure occurred while a full backup from a tape set was being restored to a server. During a second
attempt, the restore failed at the same point. Which of the following is most likely the cause of the
failure?
A. One of the tapes has failed
B. The tape backup unit is dirty
C. The tape drive malfunctioning
D. All tapes in the backup set are corrupt
Answer: A
Since the failure occur at the same point it seems likely that the backup media, one of the tapes, has failed.
Which of the following is the most important element of an effective disaster recovery plan?
A. A clear plan for reducing the effects of a disaster.
B. Adequate personnel to implement the disaster recover plan.
C. A clear and concise disaster recovery plan stored in hard copy.
D. A well-documented list of specific vendors used by the company.
Answer: C
It always starts with having a concise disaster recovery plan as you cannot count on having the right personnel
to implement it.
Incorrect answers:
The final step in a good disaster recovery plan is training. You need to train your personnel in what the plan is,
how it is executed, and how it needs to be maintained. Training is perhaps the most critical yet most neglected
task. It helps ensure that new risks and solutions are put into the plan and that everyone knows what is expected
when a disaster occurs.
Which of the following types of backup media is recommended to maximize storage on a 24 GB DAT
drive?
A. DDS-1
B. DDS-2
C. DDS-3
D. DDS-24
Answer: C
DDS-3 supports 24GB
DDS-1 supports 2.6GB and 4GB.
DDS-2 supports 8GB.
DDS-4 supports 40GB.
DDS-24 is standard used by Sony. It supports 24GB but might not be compatible with a 24GB DAT drive.
Note: DAT stands for Digital Audio Tape, an audio recording technology based on 4mm wide tape in a helical
scan recorder. DDS - Digital Data Storage - was developed from DAT concepts to store computer data with
high data density and high reliability. However, many people continued to call DDS drives "DAT drives," and
the name is still with us today.
Disaster recovery plans should be prepared at what stage of a server installation?
A. Before deployment
B. During the annual budge period
C. After the server is successfully installed and configured
D. Immediately upon symptoms of problems developing with the backup system.
Answer: A
Making a disaster recovery plan before deployment seems prudent. You should have a disaster recovery plan in
place before the server installation as part of your initial request for server hardware must take into account any
extra devices to implement the plan like extra tape drives, disk controllers etc.
During a test of the disaster recovery plan, it was determined that some servers restored with other
servers' data. Which of the following suggestions is most likely to improve disaster recovery in the
future?
A. Implement a differential backup strategy.
B. Maintain a printed report with tape backups.
C. Implement a media rotation scheme for offsite tapes.
D. Create a database that contains the backup logs stored on an incremental server.
Answer: B
Printed instructions could help to avoid tapes from being restored incorrectly.
In addition to backup tapes, which of the following should be stored offsite to help facilitate the recovery
of a server in the event of a disaster?
I. Blank backup tapes
II. Duplicate tape drives and cables
III. Network OS installation CD-ROMs
IV. Backup software and drivers
A. I and II only
B. II and IV only
C. III and IV only
D. II, III, and IV only
Answer: D
Duplicate hardware, such as tape drives and cables, OS installation media, and backup software and drivers
would ensure that the backup media could be restored. It eliminates a single point of failure in the recovery
process.
When a new disaster recovery plan is reviewed, which of the following should be done first?
A. Test the existing plan.
B. Identify critical resources at the department level.
C. Determine the preventive measures to be taken to minimize risks.
D. Assess the possible amount of down time that could be experienced.
Answer: C
We are still reviewing the plan, so there shouldn't be any hardware or equipments to test. Even if there are
equipments in place, reviewing the plan are paperwork job, so we need to analyse first, once finished from the
plan we can do the test.
A company has hired an installation service company to install a server. The SCSI devices are configured
to use the same SCSI controller. The installation appeared to be successful. After six hours, the server's
SCSI devices are randomly inaccessible. A reboot temporarily resolves the issue.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of this issue?
A. The devices were not properly terminated.
B. The system's BIOS was not upgraded prior to installation.
C. The SCSI adapter is not properly seated in the PCI slot.
D. The SCSI adapter firmware was not upgraded prior to installation.
Answer: A
SCSI trunks need to be terminated. If it is not terminated it could cause the behavior above.
If a BIOS upgrade would be required, the SCSI adapter not properly seated in the PCI slot, or the SCSI adapter
firmware required update, then SCSI adapter would not work for six hours.
A technician is installing the Network OS on a fax server after conducting a pre-installation survey. As
part of the plan, the technician performed the following steps:
• Verified the hardware requirements
• Checked the hardware compatibility
• Installed the operating system
• Applied the most current Network OS updates
All items from the plan performed correctly by the technician. The installation proceeds normally but
upon testing, it is discovered that the NIC is not functioning. The technician verifies that the cable is
connected properly, and that the link light is on. Which of the following should have been included in the
pre-installation plan?
A. Flashing the adapter BIOS
B. Applying fixes beyond those installed
C. Getting the latest drivers from the manufacturer
D. Verifying the NIC's Wake-ON-LAN hardware compatibility
Answer: C
The network adapter is physically in order, but the OS has not been configured with network adapter drivers
that work. The latest drivers must be acquired.
A company's main server uses an Ultra2-compatible controller with six Ultra2-compatible devices
correctly installed and terminated. The technician is required to install and configured two Ultra3
devices. Which of the following is the most likely result?
A. The new devices will work at Ultra2 speeds after they are configured.
B. The Ultra2 controller will not allow the new devices to be installed.
C. The Ultra3 devices are not compatible with the Ultra2 controller and require an adapter.
D. All devices will function correctly after the cable length is reduced to include the new devices.
Answer: A
Ultra3 devices are down-compatible with Ultra2 controllers. The Ultra3 devices would work at Ultra2 speeds.
Which of the following factors must be considered when deciding which UPS to install?
A. Maximum load
B. Processor load
C. Primary transformer output
D. Acceptable downtime
Answer: D
The acceptable downtime is the most crucial factor when deciding which UPS to use.
When the location of a server is planned, the power source should be checked for which of the following?
I. AC Voltage
II. DC Voltage
III. Amperage
IV. Ground
A. I and IV only
B. II and III only
C. II and IV only
D. I, III, and IV only
Answer: D
The AC voltage (not DC voltage), the amperage, and the ground should be checked when deciding the
placement of the server.
A technician must perform a pre-installation check prior to installing a new server that required
downloading the most recent BIOS and firmware. What is the best resource for acquiring the BIOS and
firmware?
A. The vendor's Website
B. The vendor's UDP site
C. A list server resource
D. The Network OS Website
Answer: A
The motherboard manufacturer, the vendor, should have the most recent BIOS and firmware at their Website.
Which of the following is the best place to confirm current hardware compatibility with Network OS's
HCL?
A. Hardware documentation
B. Website for the Network OS
C. Network OS installation media
D. Hardware compatibility checking utility
Answer: B
The OS manufacturer compiles a Hardware Compatibility List (HCL). This can be acquired from the web site.
A customer has requested a server with a SCSI RAID 5 array. When the equipment arrived, the
technician notes are the SCSI RAID card, cables, and three 40-pin hard drives have been delivered.
Which of the following should the technician indicate to the administrator?
A. All required equipment has arrived.
B. One more hard drive will be needed.
C. The wrong hard drives were delivered.
D. The wrong card and cables were delivered.
Answer: C
40-pin hard drives are IDE hard drives, not SCSI drives.
A server technician must move a company's two loaded 42U racks to a new location in the building next
door. Which of the following is the best way to accomplish this move?
A. Load the rack onto a wheeled trolley and move the rack to the new location.
B. Lower the wheels on the rack, raise the rack feet and move the racks to the new location.
C. Remove all equipment from the rack and move the racks and equipment to the new location.
D. Unload enough heavy equipment from the rack to be easily moved and move the racks to the new
location.
Answer: C
It would be safer to move the racks and the equipment separately.
During POST, the following message appears:
"2 logical drives found".
There are four SCSI hard drives in the server attached to a single RAID controller. None of the drives is
configured as a JBOD.
Which of the following most likely explains this message?
A. Two of the drives have failed.
B. The drives are not initializing.
C. The drive controller is misconfigured.
D. The drives are configured in two separate arrays.
Answer: D
All drives most configured as a single array.
During the check of all equipment, a technician notices that the installation plan requires Network
Adapter Fault Tolerance. The server that was received only has one network adapter. Which of the
following procedures will provide the maximum level of Network Adapter Fault Tolerance?
A. Add an additional router
B. Add an additional network adapter
C. Replace adapter with a multiprotocol adapter
D. Replace adapter with a multiport network adapter
Answer: B
Two network adapters would provide the best fault tolerance.
The only free port on a customer's hub (Hub-1) is the uplink port. The customer purchases an additional
12-port hub (Hub-2) and would like to connect the two hubs. Which of the following cable/port
combinations should be used?
A. Straight cable. Hub-1 uplink port to Hub-2 uplink port.
B. Straight cable. Hub-1 uplink port to Hub-2 regular port.
C. Crossover cable. Hub-1 uplink port to Hub-2 uplink port.
D. Crossover cable. Hub-1 uplink port to Hub-2 regular port.
Answer: B
The uplink port of Hub-1 should be connected to a regular port on Hub-2. A straight cable should be used.
A customer asked for 83 hard drives to be used by all four of their database servers. Which technology
would best achieve this configuration?
A. SCSI
B. IEEE-1394
C. Ultra DMA
D. Fibre Channel
Answer: D
We need to cluster the hard drives so that they can be used by all four database servers. Only the SCSI and
Fibre channel technology should be considered. Windows 2000 Clustering services, as an example, only
supports SCSI and Fibre channel hard drives in a cluster. To support 83 hard drives we should use Fibre channel, since a single Fibre channel supports up to 126 devices.
Note: Fibre Channel is a high performance interface designed to bring speed and flexibility to multiple disc
drive storage systems.
Incorrect answers
The SCSI interface would be inadequate with as many as 83 hard drives. SCSI wide can support only 15
devices.
ULTRA DMA is an IDE standard. IDE drives are not ordinarily used to cluster hard drives. Only two IDE
devices can be used on a single IDE channel. By default, a computer has only two IDE channels.
IEEE-1394 (firewire) can support up to 63 devices. It would not, however, be an appropriate solution for hard
drives for database servers. IEEE is typically used for external hard drives. IEE-1394 is comparatively slow
with a maximum speed of 400 megabits/s.
Reference:
Seagate knowledge base, Fibre Channel
MCSE Training kit (70-223) Microsoft Windows 2000 Advanced Clustering Services, Configuring the Shared
Storage Device, page 44.
Microsoft Article: IEEE 1394: The Time is Right for This Bus
After a new server was installed, a large number of errors occurred during in-page operations. The
technician noticed that the memory was not correct for the new server. Which of the following steps did
the installing technician neglect to perform?
A. Verification of virtual memory capacity.
B. Verification of pre-installation plan
C. Confirmation of fast page mode capability
D. Use of single, rather than dual, in-line memory modules.
Answer: B
The pre-installation plan should have included a step for checking the compatibility of the memory of the new
server.
A server room contains 15 servers, a 16-port hub, and a patch panel. All of the equipment is on four
folding tables. Each server has its own monitor, keyboard, and mouse. All cables are routed behind the
tables and around the perimeter of the room. Which of the following recommendations should be made
for improving the server room?
I. Install a KVM (Keyboard Video Monitor) switch
II. Install a network switch
III. Install a set of server racks
IV. Improve cable routing
A. I and II only
B. III and IV only
C. I, II, and IV only
D. I, III, and IV only
Answer: D
With a KVM switch we only need a single monitor, keyboard and mouse, not a separate set for each server.
This would safe space and resources.
Server racks make better use of the space.
Cable routing should be improved. The cables should be routed behind tables and around the perimeter of the
room.
Incorrect answer
A network switch could improve network performance, but could not be considered an improvement for the
server room.
Which of the following is the LEAST effective method for restricting physical access to servers?
A. Locking the server cabinet
B. Requiring complex server passwords
C. Using biometric identification-based access locks
D. Installing a monitored alarm system on the server room
Answer: B
Server password would not restrict physical access to the server.
Which of the following is NOT usually a server room environmental issue?
A. Noise
B. Rodents
C. Temperature
D. Fire suppression system
Answer: B
Rodents are usually not considered a server room environmental issue.
A business owner wants a recommendation on who should receive access to secure server rooms. Which
of the following is LEAST likely to be recommended for having access to server rooms?
A. Users
B. System administrators
C. Data entry supervisors
D. Database administrators
Answer: A
Users should not have access to the server room.
What is the main benefit of using backup tools supplies by the Network OS vendor?
A. Speed of operation
B. Backup media availability
C. Compatibility with operating system
D. Advanced features over third party programs
Answer: C
Network OS vendor Backup tools are often integrated directly into the operating system. The same vendor
should guarantee compatibility.
A server technician is verifying a new network configuration on a UNIX server and types IPCONFIG at
the prompt. Nothing happens. Which of the following commands should have been used to accomplish
this?
A. CONFIG
B. INETCFG
C. IFCONFIG
D. WINIPCFG
Answer: C
UNIX and LINUX use the IFCONFIG command.
Which of the following should be documented for future reference when troubleshooting a hardware
configuration?
I. The initial configuration
II. Repairs made to the system
III. Monthly password changes
IV. Backup procedures
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. III and IV only
D. I, II, and III only
Answer: B
Only hardware related issues like initial configuration and repairs to the system should be documented for
hardware troubleshooting purposes. Password changes and backup procedures would not affect the hardware.
When a multi-homed server is installed, it is sometimes necessary to block TCP/IP traffic between each
subnet. Which of the following actions will accomplish this?
A. Add an SNMP trap
B. Disable IP forwarding
C. Remove IPX and NetBEUI
D. Put the cards on the same subnet but use different IP addresses.
Answer: B/
Which of the following features of a network printer will LEAST affect performance?
A. Internal RAM
B. Network protocol
C. Print server
D. Connection interface$$$$

Answer: B?
The network protocol would least affect the performance of a network printer.
The RAM would be affect print spooling. The performance of the print server would affect print speed. The
connection interface would also influence the speed of the printer.
Which RAID level best provides protection when either two disks fail simultaneously, or when a second
disk fails during the reconstruction from the first disk failure?
A. RAID 0/1
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 3
D. RAID 5
Answer: A
RAID 0/1 is combination of RAID 0 (disk striping) and RAID 1 (disk mirroring). Each mirror consists of a
striped volume of disks. It could handle failure of two disks.
Within a printer pools, print devices can have which of the following characteristics?
I. Be on the same server
II. Use the same IP address
III. Have the same make and model
IV. Use the same print drivers
A. I and IV only
B. II and IV only
C. I, II, and III only
D. I, III, and IV only
Answer: A
Printer pooling must use printers connected to a single server. The print devices must use the same print driver.
Incorrect answers
The print devices cannot have the same IP address.
The print devices are often of the same make and model, but it is not a requirement. The must use the same print
driver however.
A technician is configuring a new server CTIA45 in the "comptia.org" domain using the IP address of
10.10.10.50 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0 and a gateway address of 10.10.10.1. The technician is
unable to ping the other servers by the IP address. Which two of the following are possible causes and
solutions?
I. The other servers are on the same segment, but using a different subnet mask. Correct the subnet mask
by making it match the other servers.
II. The DNS hostname entered into the new server is incorrect. Use a different hostname.
III. The other servers are on a separate segment and the gateway address is incorrect. Correct the gateway
address.
IV. The other servers have DNS entries, but the new server does not. Add a new entry to the BIND host file
A. I and III
B. I and IV
C. II and III
D. II and IV
Answer: A
The client could have an incorrect mask or an incorrect default gateway (or an incorrect IP address).
Since the ping attempts does not use host names there is no name resolution problem. The problem is not DNS
related.
A company experienced a drive failure on one of its email servers and lost all of the data. The company
decided to modify the RAID solution on all of its email servers. The servers are currently using RAID 0
on a set of six disk drives. The new solution will of RAID 5 on a set of six disk drives.
Which of the following is most likely to result from the new solution?
A. The solution will create redundancy
B. The solution will not create redundancy.
C. The solution will create redundancy and improve disk reads only.
D. The solution will create redundancy and improve disk read/writes.
Answer: A
RAID-5 uses one hard drive for parity so it creates redundancy. The parity drive would decrease both read and
write performance compared to a RAID 0 (disk striping).
The Network OS on a server has recently been updated. Some of the hardware on the system is no longer
operating. Which of the following should be done to fix the problem?
A. Reinstall the old Network OS
B. Replace the hardware in question.
C. Test the hardware on another system.
D. Check for drivers specific to the new Network OS.
Answer: D
To solve the problem, to make the hardware work on the new OS, we should check for the latest device drivers
for the new Network OS.
When the software on the "/" file system of a new server was configured, an error occurs and the server
will no longer boot. Which software is required to recover from the failure and continue configuration?
A. Novell NetWare CD-ROM
B. Unix Boot diskette(s)
C. IBM OS/2 Startup disk and installation disk.
D. ERD and/or installation disks with CD-ROM
Answer: B
The root directory of the UNIX file system is denoted "/". The entire system appears to be one contiguous file
system, starting from the root directory "/".
A technician has created an array composed of four 9-GB hard drives. Two weeks later, the server is
working fine; however, the customer calls to complain that the system only recognizes 27 GB of disk
space. What would best explain the situation?
A. The customer is running RAID 5.
B. One of the hard drives has failed.
C. One of the logical drives has failed.
D. The customer is running RAID 5 with a hot spare.
Answer: A
RAID-5 uses one disk for parity. In a four-disk RAID-5 configuration only three disks would be available for/
During initial installation of a Network OS on a server, the technician configures OEM SCSI and NIC
drivers. After completing the installation, the latest Network OS patch is applied. During the installation
of the patch, the technician is prompted to overwrite newer files several times. He does as prompted.
When rebooting, the system halts. Which of the following could have prevented this problem?
I. Reinstalling the SCSI and NIC drivers after the patch
II. Not overwriting newer files
III. Replacing all overwritten files before rebooting
IV. Upgrading OEM drivers from the Web before rebooting
A. III and IV only
B. I, II, and III only
C. I, II, and IV only
D. I, II, III, and IV$$$$

Answer: C
The OS patch overwrites the OEM SCSI and NIC drivers. We could avoid this problem by:
• reinstalling the SCSI and NIC drivers after the patch was applied. (I)
• Not overwriting never files. (II)
• Upgrading OEM drivers before rebooting.
We should replace all overwritten files before rebooting since that would nullify the OS patch.
When should a new BIOS version be implemented on an existing server?
A. After the BIOS data expires
B. When functionality will be affected
C. Whenever a new version becomes available
D. Within one year of purchasing the server
Answer: B
A new BIOS version should only be applied to the server when it is required. It should only be installed if the
functionality of the server requires a BIOS upgrade.
A company wants to establish measurements and performance checks. The technician recommends that
the company start comparing the server baselines to current server performance. Which of the following
is the best time to be considered for this analysis?
A. During non-business hours
B. During server-backup periods
C. During planned maintenance periods
D. During average network utilization
Answer: D
The baseline should be established during average network utilization.
The server is set to perform a full data backup to a single tape every Friday, and a differential backup
Monday through Thursday. Each backup is overwritten to a different tape. Four tape sets are
maintained. If the system requires full restoration on Wednesday before the daily backup. How many
tapes will be used to restore?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B
First we must restore the full backup from Friday, then we only need to apply the latest differential backup since
a differential backup includes all changes made since the last full backup.
Where are SNMP thresholds set?
A. ARP Table
B. SNMP monitor
C. SNMP service layer
D. Vendor-provided MIB file
Answer: D
SNMP thresholds are set in vendor-provided MIB files.
Note: The job of communicating the meaning of the parameters exposed via SNMP is assigned to a file known
as a management information base (MIB). This file contains detailed information about the information exposed
by a device or agent and a description of what the exposed information means. MIBs are simple text files based
on the Abstract Syntax Notation (ASN).
Which of the following should be done to ensure the redundant hardware components will be functional
in the event of a failure?
A. Simulate a hardware failure.
B. Check the system and health logs for the appropriate systems.
C. Remove each redundant component and test them in a test server.
D. Remove each component and test them individually with a multimeter.
Answer: A
The redundant components should be tested in order to ensure that they would be functional in the event of
failure. The most realistic test would be to simulate a hardware failure and check if the redundant hardware will
work.
A drive in a RAID 5 array has failed. The administrator was not aware of this issue. Users complained
about server access being slow. What is the most efficient method of alerting the administrator about the
drive failure?
A. Enable event logs
B. Configure remote notification
C. Schedule daily hardware visual checks
D. Enable Network OS alerts on drive enclosure
Answer: D
We should make sure that the administrator should be notified one disk in the RAID-5 array has failed. This
will be established by enabling the Network OS alerts on drive enclosure.
Note: The vendor-supplied software will be able to monitor the drive cabinet and report on failures, such as
power supply or drive failures. The information provided by the drive cabinet's monitoring software is not
otherwise available to the server until a failure occurs. This early warning is important if you have established a
RAID array for fault tolerance, because the array is still susceptible to a drive enclosure failure if more than one
of the drives in the array is located in the enclosure.
Incorrect answers
Event logs would not immediately notify the administrator of the problem. He would have to check the log files
on a regular basis.
Remote notification would not inform the administrator of a failure of disk in a RAID-5 array. The OS would
only be able to detect if the RAID-5 disk fails. We must use the monitor software in the Drive Cabinet.
Daily hardware checks would not minimize administrative effort. A more automatic approach is preferred.
Reference: Server+ Training kit, Installing a Drive Cabinet
The IT department is responsible for maintaining the company's 25 Web servers. It was determined that
two additional Web servers of the same make and model were needed to provide adequate performance.
Which of the following actions must be taken to ensure that the new servers are performing as expected?
A. Download and install the most recent Network OS patches.
B. Perform a baseline and compare the two new servers to each other.
C. Download and install the most recent BIOS and firmware on the new servers.
D. Perform a baseline and compare it to the baselines of previous server installs.
Answer: D
By comparing the baseline of the new servers with the baseline of existing web servers we can easily ensure
that the new servers has the same performance.
A technician performs daily backups. The backup solution contains a verification tool for every backup.
A file server experienced catastrophic failure. Recovery attempts failed. Which of the following can be
done to minimize the risk of this happening again?
A. Install a UPS.
B. Replace the verification tool.
C. Develop a plan to test backups.
D. Install vendor patches for the verification tool.
Answer: C
It is not enough to verify backups. The backups should be tested as well.
Which of the following connectors are used on SCSI cables?
I. 68-pin VHDCI.
II. 36-pin Centronics
III. 50-pin Centronics
IV. 68-pin High Density
A. I and III only.
B. II and III only.
C. I, II, and IV only.
D. I, III, and IV only.
Answer: D
VHDCI, Sometimes called SCSI-5. Very popular in RAID cards
68-pin High Density
Centronics C50:
Incorrect Answer:
36-pin Centronics is a printer interface, not a SCSI interface.
A customer's file server is connected to three external storage enclosures. After a new UPS is installed,
users complain that they are unable to access their private storage, but they can access public storage.
Which of the following most likely caused this problem?
A. The UPS is not working.
B. File sharing was disabled.
C. The server was powered on before all of the external storage enclosures.
D. Data was corrupted during the installation of the UPS causing missing files.
Answer: C
The external storage enclosures must be powered on first. This will enable the Server to detect them when the
OS boots.
A company's server technician has installed an external tape device. The drive is connected to the same
channel on the SCSI adapter as an internal drive, and termination on the drive is enabled. Upon
rebooting, the server does not recognize the tape device. Which of the following is the most likely cause of
this failure?
A. Termination on the SCSI adapter was not disabled.
B. Termination on the tape device was not disabled.
C. Termination on the internal drive was not disabled.
D. A SCSI adapter cannot support both internal and external devices.
Answer: B
The SCSI channel is already terminated twice. Once on the adapter and once on the internal drive. We must
disable termination on the external tape device. We cannot have three terminations.
During the setup of a new site, an external Ultra2 RAID storage unit is to be installed. Which of the
following is NOT likely to cause a problem when the external RAID storage unit is installed?
A. Using passive termination on the enclosure.
B. Using a SCSI cable between one and five meters in length.
C. Attaching the subsystem to the server while it is powered up.
D. Powering off the RAID subsystem when the server is turned on.
Answer: B
Ultra2 can use a cable up to 12 meters in length. A SCSI cable between one and five meters would not cause a
problem.
A server, external RAID array, external tape library, and UPS need to be mounted in a rack. Which of
the following best describes the recommended installation practice?
A. Lay out the rack according to the vendor's specification.
B. Lay out the rack from top to bottom, installing the lightest equipment first.
C. Lay out the rack from bottom to top as UPS, RAID controller, tape library, server and then any
peripherals.
D. The order of equipment makes no difference as long as all components fit in the rack, cables reach all
equipment, and heat-producing items are the top of the rack.
Answer: C
The rack should always be stacked from bottom to the top in order to ensure a stable an safe rack.
A UPS needs to be purchased to protect two new servers that have been ordered. Which of the following
is most important to consider when purchasing the UPS?
A. VA rating.
B. UL rating.
C. Clamping voltage.
D. Length of the UPS cord.
Answer: A
The Volt Ampere (VA) rating of the UPS is the most factor when decide which UPS should be acquired.
Note: How to decide which UPS that would be adequate.
Determine the volt amp (VA) required for all of the equipment. This is done by adding the amperes drawn by
the equipment and multiplying the total by the output voltage. Add roughly 15% to allow for future growth and
round up to the nearest VA rating available in the product series you have selected.
A technician is verifying a pre-installation plan that calls for a RAID 5 array with a hot spare. The RAID
5 array must be able to store a slow-growing database, currently containing 20 GB of data. The server
technician receives four SCSI drives (each 5 GB in size) and an external hot-swappable drive enclosure.
The technician needs to report on the availability of the RAID 5 array to support the plan.
Which of the following, if anything, is needed for this installation?
A. One additional 5 GB drive.
B. Two additional 5 GB drives.
C. Three additional 5 GB drives.
D. The current configuration is acceptable.
Answer: C
We need to support a 20GB slow-growing database on a RAID 5 array. The RAID 5 array must include one hot
spare drive. We cannot use exactly 20GB for the database since it slowly growing. We must use five 5 GB
drive, which gives 25GB, to store the data. Then we need one drive for parity and one drive as a hot spare. In
total we need seven 5GB drivers. Currently we have four drives, so we need three additional drives: two for the
RAID 5 array, and one for the external hot-swappable drive enclosure.
Note: To add more redundancy, you can assign one hot-spare drive to one array or to a set of arrays. This hot
spare will replace a failed drive and become part of the RAID 5 array until the failed drive is replaced. This
permits two failures in any given array without any loss of data.
When following an installation plan, the technician should verify availability of which of the following?
I. Power source.
II. UPS capacity.
III. Physical space.
IV. Network access.
A. I and II only.
B. II and III only.
C. I, III, and IV only.
D. I, II, III, and IV.
Answer: C
The following activities should be included in the verification of an installation plan:
• Verify the power outlet for the network server is available and active (I)
• Verify the location where the server is to be installed is ready for installation (III)
• Verify the network connection is available and active (IV)
• Verify all the hardware for the network server has arrived
• Verify all the hardware for the network is as specified in the installation plan
UPS capacity is not included in an installation plan.
When a server installation is being planned, which of the following resources should be used to obtain the
most current hardware compatibility information?
A. Operating system CD.
B. Hardware installation CD.
C. Hardware installation manual.
D. Operating system vendor Website.
Answer: D
The OS vendor website would include the latest Hardware Compatibility List (HCL).
After having five new cables added by a certified cable vendor, a system engineer notices that the new
cables have not been labeled on the punch down block. Which of the following uses best industry practice
in determining where each network cable terminates?
A. Use cable tester to trace each new cable to its termination point and label accordingly.
B. Use network sniffing equipment to determine the MAC address of each cable and label accordingly.
C. Disconnect each of the net network cables and connect a PC to each termination point. Reconnect the
new network cables and label accordingly when the PC is connected to the network.
D. Do nothing, there is no need to know where the cabling terminates.
Answer: A
We should use a cable tester to test to trace the termination point of each cable.
Before installing new, pre-tested server hardware, a technician performed the following tasks:
Inventoried the hardware, checked the HCL, and checked the network port. Upon startup of the system,
the UPS starts beeping. Which of the following did the technician fail to verify?
A. The available power.
B. The presence of a UPS serial cable.
C. The KVM (Keyboard Video Mouse) installation.
D. The temperature of the room is within proper parameters.
Answer: A
The available power is not enough.
Incorrect Answers
The lack of UPS serial cable would not make the UPS beep when the system is started.
KVMs does not influence a UPS in any way, they are used to control several servers from a single keyboard,
mouse, and monitor.
The temperature of the room will not cause the UPS to beep.
A customer provided web server hosting for a number of clients. Each server and their storage
subsystems must also be secured. Which of the following will provide the required physical access
protection?
A. BIOS passwords.
B. Server keyboard locks
C. Cabinets with locking doors.
D. KVM (Keyboard Video Mouse) switch.
Answer: C
Cabinets with doors that have locks would provide physical access protection.
An external SCSI hard drive has been added to a file server. The hard drive has been configured to use
an available SCSI ID. The SCSI controllers BIOS is unable to see the drive. Which of the following
actions should be performed first to resolve the issue?
A. Reinitialize the drive
B. Low-level format the drive
C. Check and reconfigure termination if necessary
D. Change the SCSI ID to the lowest available number
Answer: C
A SCSI segment must be terminated. This is the first we should check.
A technician performing an audit of the server room environment notices a few problems. Which of the
following observations should figure most prominently on the audit report?
A. The server cabinet is unlocked.
B. There is a trashcan in the server room.
C. There is a box of spare parts on the floor.
D. There is a full cup of coffee on top of the server.
Answer: D
A cup of coffee on top of the server is a physical threat to the server.
A client desires to install a dial-up server for remote access to allow 100 telecommuters to logon to the
network for daily file transfers. Which of the following deployment consideration is LEAST critical to
successful deployment?
A. Adequate power source.
B. Availability of modems.
C. Availability of active phone lines.
D. Availability of Virtual Private Network (VPN).
Answer: D
The remote access server must have an adequate power source, there must be enough modems to support many
simultaneous connections, and there must be available active phone lines.
VPN would increase security but is not strictly required. VPN is more common for connections through the
Internet.
ESD (Electrostatic Discharge) can be reduced by installing:
A. A UPS.
B. A dehumidifier.
C. Adequate grounding.
D. Fluorescent lighting.
Answer: C
Adequate grounding, for example a grounding mat, would reduce ESD.
Incorrect Answers
An UPS would not prevent ESD.
Dry air can cause ESD. Humidifier, not dehumidifier, is used to decrease ESD:
Fluorescent lighting has no impact on ESD.
A server currently uses an Ultra2 SCSI controller. A directive to install an Ultra ATA 100 drive is
ordered by management. Which of the following reasons would prevent a technician form using this
drive?
A. Ultra2 to Ultra 100 requires a converter.
B. Ultra2 does not support Ultra ATA 100 drives.
C. Ultra2 uses a 50-pin connector; Ultra ATA 100 uses 68 pins.
D. Ultra2 uses an 80-pin connector; Ultra ATA 100 uses 40 pins.
Answer: B
Ultra2 is a SCSI controller, but Ultra ATA 100 driver is an IDE drive. SCSI and IDE are incompatible.
A server technician has been brought in to perform the following to a server:
• Relocate the server to another room
• Add a SCSI controller and external CD tower to the server
• Apply the latest patch to the Network OS
When preparing for the system upgrade, the technician should perform which of the following first?
A. Perform system backup
B. Update the Network OS version
C. Disconnect the server from the network
D. Unplug the server from the power source
Answer: A
First we should perform a system backup to enable recovery in case of failure.
A technician performs a full backup of the file servers every Monday at 7:00 PM. The tapes are sent to an
offsite storage center the following morning. He uses one tape per server. Differentials are performed
daily throughout the rest of the week at 7:00 PM. One of the servers fails Saturday at 5:00 PM and must
be recovered. What would be the best course of action?
I. Restore the Monday Full backup tape.
II. Restore all of the previous week's Differential backup tapes.
III. Restore the Friday Differential backup tape.
IV. Restore the Saturday Differential backup tape.
A. III only
B. I and II only
C. I and III only
D. I and IV only
Answer: C
We must first restore the full backup. Then we only need to restore the last differential backup since each
differential backup includes all changes made since the last full backup.
A company maintains all backup tapes in a server room that is not fireproof. Management would like a
solution that will offer timely recall and data protection, and has defined timely recall as getting the tape
in the hands of the person responsible for recovery, within four hours. Data protection is defined as
protection of the backup tapes from fire or flood.
Which of the following is the best solution for this company?
A. Store the tapes in a fireproof safe at the local facility.
B. Store the tapes at the administrator's home ten minutes away.
C. Store the tapes at a remote location one hour away in an unused secured closet.
D. Store the tapes at a professional storage facility with a two-hour turn-around.
Answer: D
Offsite storage of the tapes at a professional storage facility gives the best security. The time constraint is also
met by this proposed solution.
When planning an installation of a server, Network OS, and a third-party device, the technician notes
that the third-party hardware is not on the Network OS vendor's HCL. Under which of the following
circumstances would the technician proceed with the installation?
A. The third party device is Plug-and-Play.
B. The server hardware vendor is manufactured of the device.
C. The device manufactured provides a driver for that Network OS.
D. The Network OS HCL lists a similar device from the same manufacturer.
Answer: C
If the network adapter manufacturer provides a device driver for this particular OS it is likely that the adapter
would function without any further problems even though it is not listed on the HCL.
A new application server arrived configured with an Ultra ATA drive. The pre-installation plan requires
that the server technician add a set of ten 18-GB SCSI hard drives and make a SCSI drive the boot drive.
The technician installed and configured the drives and rebooted the system. The server continues to boot
from the Ultra ATA drive. Which of the following is the likely cause of this problem?
A. The SCSI device is not properly terminated.
B. The SCSI device is not configured as a boot device.
C. The BIOS automatically routes Int40 to the IDE bus.
D. The Ultra ATA drive has been set to Master and not Slave.
Answer: B
A SCSI hard drive must be configured as the boot device.
A customer has complained about repeated network failures. The server's network cable is frequently
found lose or disconnected. Which of the following solutions is NOT appropriate solution to the problem?
A. Replace the cable connector.
B. Solder the cable to the server.
C. House the server in a lockable cabinet.
D. Restrict access to the server to administrators.
Answer: B
We could replace the cable connecter, or make the cabling inaccessible by using a lockable cabinet or restricting
access to the server to administrators.
We should solder the cable to the server as it would be awkward to replace the cable or the network adapter of
the server in case of failure.
A client has identified a room to install a new server rack. Which of the following environmental issues is
LEAST critical to the server specialist?
A. Heavy dust on the floor.
B. Discolored ceiling tiles.
C. A painted concrete floor.
D. Overhead sprinkler system.
Answer: C
A painted concrete floor would have little or no environmental impact.
Discolored ceiling tiles could indicate a water leakage which could be very harmful to computers.
A dusty environment could be harmful to the servers.
A sprinkler system cannot be accepted in a server room.
An EISA server at a client site has an ISA NIC. The administrator has noted that an EISA NIC is
available, and wants to upgrade to the EISA NIC. Which two of the following applies to this potential
upgrade?
I. The ISA bus is faster than the EISA bus, therefore there is no performance gain.
II. The EISA card will need to be configured in the system configuration tool.
III. The EISA card will process incoming packets faster, due to the faster system bus.
IV. EISA technology was made for video and should not be used for network I/O.
A. I and II
B. I and IV
C. II and IV
D. II and III
Answer: D
ISA and EISA cards are not Plug and Play enabled. We need to configure it manually. (II)
Extended ISA is an improvement over ISA. It has a faster system bus. (III)
A user would like to increase network bandwidth to the server. Which of the following technologies
would NOT provide bandwidth?
A. Multi-homing
B. Load balancing
C. Port aggregation
D. Subnetting
Answer: D
Subnetting would decrease network traffic by dividing the network into subnets. It would not, however directly
increase the network bandwidth to the server.
Incorrect Answers
Multihoming is achieved by installing more than one network adapter on the server. This will increase the
network bandwidth to the server.
Load balancing would increase the performance of the server. The server and it load balancing partners would
be able to process more network traffic.
Port aggregation is the combining of two NIC ports with one IP address. This enables fault tolerance and
optimize server availability. It also increases network bandwidth.
A server hardware upgrade requires the use of a legacy NIC. Which of the following steps ensures that
this upgrade produces no hardware conflicts?
A. Plug-and-Play should be disabled on the system board.
B. The Network OS should be configured to run in ISA-compatibility mode.
C. Verify that system resources are available.
D. All other expansion cards should be removed from the system before installing the new card.
Answer: C
To ensure that the legacy NIC will function we must verify the system resources it demands are available.
A server exists in a remote location. Last week as service/daemon on the server crashed, and while the
application fault was logged, no one in the IT department noticed it. Major departmental functions were
affected. Which of the following would have allowed the problem to be recognized immediately?
A. Implementing systems management software.
B. Routinely logging into the server using remote software.
C. Routinely monitoring server health, system, and application logs.
D. Enabling automated system recovery to bring server down after service/daemon halts.
Answer: A
To immediately be notified by any failed or crashed network services we must configure alerts. Systems
management software is needed to implement this.
Incorrect Answers
Routinely checking server status would improve the detection but it would not immediately alert administrators
of the occurring problems.
An automated recovery system could handle many errors and bring the system online after a crash. It would not
be able to restart from all problems, and it would not make the administrators aware of the problems
immediately.
A company has a pair of servers: a primary server and a secondary server for failover. The primary
server is backed up and verified on a routine basis. Both servers are on a UPS. Which of the following
should be done to insure maximum system reliability?
A. Install redundant NICs in the primary server.
B. Create SNMP traps to report server hardware failure.
C. Install redundant heartbeat links between the servers.
D. Routinely test the secondary server in the production environment.
Answer: D
The secondary server should routinely be tested in the production environment.
A fan-cooled server rack cabinet contains three servers and a UPS. The temperature in the cabinets is
always significantly higher than the room temperature. Which of the following activities would offer the
best solution for lowering the temperature inside each of the server cases?
A. Take the case covers off the three servers.
B. Install an additional cooling fan to each server.
C. Install a higher performance CPU fan in each server.
D. Increase the airflow through the rack cabinet with better fans.
Answer: D
We should replace or add better fans to the rack cabinet.
Incorrect Answers
Removing the case covers could decrease the air flow and make the problem worse.
Adding better cooling fans to the rack is a more practical solution than replacing or adding fans on each server.
A server has been running with not trouble for the past two years. The system has RAID 5 and is backed
up and verified on a regular schedule. The server is on UPS and all the components are secured via key
locks in a server room with a raised floor. What else could be done to improve system reliability?
A. Install a second CPU.
B. Arrange to store a set of backup tapes offsite.
C. Apply the latest version of Network OS patch and/or upgrade.
D. Routinely press the self-test button on the UPS after hours.
Answer: B
System reliability could be improved by storing backup tapes off site.
Incorrect Answers
The system has been running for two years without problems so there is no need to change either hardware
(adding a second CPU) or apply latest Network OS patch/upgrade.
Testing the UPS could improve reliability. But it is not a major issue since most UPS are self-monitred.
A company server is connected to a RAID 5 storage subsystem. A drive failure occurs and goes
unnoticed. Three weeks later, an additional drive fails and all data is lost. Which of the following would
have prevented the array failure?
A. Using hot-swappable drives.
B. Performing regular tape backups.
C. Flashing the RAID controller BIOS.
D. Enabling remote notification of the drive failure.
Answer: D
We should have enabled remote notification of drive failures. This would have notified the administrator as
soon as the first disk in the RAID 5 array failed.
A company that has expanded from two servers to ten servers continues to perform daily full backups.
The company would like to significantly reduce the amount of time used to backup the systems, while
having the shortest possible restore time in the event of failure. Which of the following solutions would
best fit the company's needs?
A. Maintain the current solution of daily full backups.
B. Perform an incremental backup every Monday through Sunday.
C. Perform a full backup every Monday and a differential backup Tuesday through Sunday.
D. Perform a full backup every Monday and an incremental backup Tuesday through Sunday.
Answer: C
Differential backups are quicker than full backups since they only backup information that has changed since
the last full backup. Restoring a differential backup is fast as well. First we restore the full backup and then we
restore the last differential backup. Incremental backups take more time to restore.
A server had two 64-MB DIMMS and a 256 MB DIMM was added. After installing the additional
memory, POST errors are generated. What is the most likely cause of the failure?
A. 64 MB DIMMs and 256 MB DIMMS are not compatible.
B. The server's existing memory is slower than the new memory.
C. The server has both registered and nonregistered memory installed.
D. POST messages are normal when mixing DIMM capacities.
Answer: A
The most likely problem is that the 64MB and the 256MB are not compatible.
Incorrect Answers
Different memory speeds would not be a likely problem. The faster memory would run at the slower speed.
Memery does not have to be registered in order to function.
POST messages are not a normal with any type of memory.
A customer has three identical servers (WEB_01, WEB_02, WEB_03) configured in their web farm.
Downtime has been scheduled for the web farm on Friday evening. During software installations
WEB_01, the monitoring agents were updated to the latest version.
What is the recommended additional procedure, if any, for the web farm?
A. Update WEB_02 and Web_03 to the same version monitoring agents.
B. Disable the agents on WEB_02 and WEB_03 until they can be updated.
C. Configure the agent on WEB_01 to communicate with the older agents on WEB_02 and WEB_03.
D. No action is required.WEB_02 and WEB_03 will be automatically updated.
Answer: C
We should configure the updated monitoring agent to communicate with the older agents.
We should not be forced to upgrade the agents on the other web servers.
An existing UPS has succeeded in preventing immediate, unplanned shutdown, but the run time on a
fully-charged battery is too short for a clean shut down of the Network OS. What step should be taken to
improve the amount of available battery run time?
A. Install a higher capacity UPS.
B. Increase the charge time on the UPS.
C. Connect the UPS to a dedicated circuit.
D. Configure the advanced power management on the server.
Answer: A
We must replace the UPS with an UPS with increased battery time that will ensure that the server can be shut
down gracefully.
Incorrect Answers
Changing the charge time or connecting the UPS to a dedicated circuit would not increase the available battery
run time.
The advanced power management on the server can be configured for an unattended operating system shutdown
in the event of an extended power outage. The advanced power management cannot be used to improve the
amount of available battery run time in any way though.
Reference: American Power Conversion Delivers Uninterruptible Power Supply Management in Windows XP
After Network OS installation, the clients can log into the new server, but cannot ping the server. Any of
the following may cause problem EXCEPT
A. There server has no DNS entry.
B. TCP/IP is not loaded on the server.
C. There is no entry in the HOSTS file.
D. The ping daemon is not loaded on the server.
Answer: D
There is no such thing as a ping daemon. The 'ping' command generates "ICMP echo request" packets (ICMP is
the "internet control messaging protocol"). There is no daemon that generates the ICMP echo replies. Those are
generated by the kernel.
Note: A daemon on a UNIX/LINUX system is approximately the same thing as a service on a Windows
system.
Incorrect Answers
A name resolution problem, for example a missing entry in the DNS zone or in a HOSTS file, could prevent a
computer from pinging the server by name, but it would still be able to logon to the server using the IP address
of the server.
There could be another network protocol in use instead of a TCP/IP. The Ping utility only works with the
TCP/IP protocol.
While auditing a client site, the technician notices that the SNMP monitor has a high volume of messages
from the servers indicating that each server has reached 5% network utilization. The alerts were
configured by the previous administrator. Which of the following actions should be taken?
A. Raise the SNMP network utilization threshold.
B. Call in a network cabling expert to resolve the errors.
C. Subnet the network to decrease the size of the collision domain.
D. Set a filter on the SNMP monitor to stop displaying the network utilization messages.
Answer: A
Every time the network utilization has reach 5% a network alert is generated. The alert threshold should be
raised. Too many alerts are generated with such a low threshold.
A file server is experiencing a dramatic increase in memory pages per second and a simultaneous
decrease in CPU utilization. Which of the following is most likely the cause?
A. The server's CPU cache is malfunctioning.
B. The server is running out of virtual memory.
C. The server is running out of physical memory.
D. The server's processor is inadequate for the task.
Answer: A
The increase in memory pages/second normally indicates that the server is running out of physical memory.
This would also cause an increase in the CPU utilization since the CPU would have to swap content between
the physical memory and the virtual memory. But in this scenario a decrease in CPU utilization is reported
instead. This indicates that there is some problem with the CPU, possibly a malfunctioning CPU. The
malfunctioning CPU is causing the increase in memory pages per second.
A small company owns a file server that shuts down frequently. After a great deal of troubleshooting, the
server technician discovers the system is overheating and that there is a large buildup of dust in the
server. What can be done to improve reliability?
A. Use compressed air to clean out the server.
B. Clean the server and set up a cleaning maintenance schedule.
C. Obtain an air compressor and use it to clean out the server.
D. Bring in his vacuum from home and use it to clean out the server.
Answer: B
We should clean out the server and ensure that in the future we do it on a regular basis.
A technician tasked with creating backup procedures needs to provide a company with a backup plan.
Which of the following provides minimal risk of data loss in the event of a hard drive failure?
A. Weekly full backup.
B. Daily incremental with weekly full backup.
C. Daily differential with weekly full backup,
D. Weekly full backup to a remote data facility.
Answer: C
A weekly full backup with daily differential backups provides minimal risk of data loss.
Incremental backups are somewhat less secure since all incremental backups since the last full backup are
required, but a differential restore only requires the last differential backup.
A server at a client site failed for the second time last week. The network management software was
never alerted that any thresholds had been reached. Which of the following should be done first?
A. Add more memory to the server.
B. Verify the SNMP configuration.
C. Move the server to another subnet.
D. Replace/Update the mass storage subsystem.
Answer: B
The Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) configuration must be adjusted since the alerts never fired.
A company's IT department is adding additional CPUs for SMP (symmetrical multiprocessing). Where
should they check first to verify that the additional CPUs are recognized?
A. In the BIOS setup
B. In the system log
C. During the Network OS load
D. In the Network OS monitor utility
Answer: A
The BIOS setup would show all detected CPUs.
A server uses a RAID 5 array, tape drive, NIC, and a Grandfather-Father-Son (GFS) backup scheme.
Which of the following will increase the availability of the server?
A. Change the RAID 5 to RAID 0
B. Add another NIC for failover
C. Add another tape drive for failover
D. Change the differential backup scheme
Answer: B
A second NIC for failover would increase the availability of the server.
Incorrect Answers
Changing from RAID 5 to RAID 0 would decrease availability.
Another tape drive would not increase availability of the server.
The Differential backup scheme would not be an improvement of the full backup scheme in terms of
availability.
A technician is concerned about how natural disasters would affect their existing disaster recovery plan.
Which of the following disaster recovery plan modifications should be implemented to address this
situation?
A. Use a remote hotsite.
B. Use a local media safe.
C. Stock adequate hardware.
D. Backup to another local server for redundancy.
Answer: A
A remote hot site would not be affected by a natural disaster at the main location.
Incorrect answers
Local facilities, like a local media safe or backing up to a local server, would give protection from a natural
disaster.
Stacking up hardware would not be of much help addressing the problem of a natural disaster.
Which of the following would NOT provide redundancy for a server in the event of failure?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. Disk duplexing
D. Network adapter teaming
Answer: A
RAID 0, disk striping, improves disk performance but does not provide redundancy.
A server recently had its video card replaced under warranty by the manufacturer. Since the repair, the
system only displays in VGA mode. Which of the following would be the most effective solution to apply
first?
A. Replace the monitor, as it is damaged.
B. Replace the video card, as it is defective.
C. Replace the system board, as it is defective.
D. Replace the device driver, as it is incorrect.
Answer: D
A video adapter with an incorrect driver would only use VGA mode. We need to install a correct device driver
for the video card.
Of the following actions, which is the best way to create a server baseline?
A. Run an SNMP agent continuously for a week.
B. Run an SNMP agent at random times each day during the week.
C. Run performance monitoring software continuously for 72 hours.
D. Run performance monitoring software at the same time each day for a week.
Answer: D
To establish a baseline we should monitor the performance with monitoring software (system monitor on
Windows 2000/XP systems), not running an SNMP agent. We should try to monitor typical network
performance. It is not necessary to continuously monitoring the system for a prolonged amount of time. Instead
we should monitor at several occasions.
Two servers need a connection between them to establish a heartbeat monitor for a software monitoring
tool. The System Administrator requests that COM1 be used on each server to establish this connection.
This technician must obtain a cable to accomplish this task.
Which of the following types of cables is most likely to be used?
A. DB9 cable
B. IEEE-1284 cable
C. Null modem cable
D. Standard serial cable
Answer: C
We need a null modem cable, a twisted serial cable, to connect two computers using the serial (COM) interface.
When a performance baseline was created, a peak of 100% CPU utilization was observed more than
once. The performance sample was taken at 5-second intervals during normal business hours. The
application response time has been acceptable. Which of the following is the most likely reason for this
server behavior?
A. The CPU is probably faulty.
B. The system behavior is normal.
C. The server is unable to handle the required load.
D. The baseline has to be taken over a 24-hour period.
Answer: D
We should take longer samples. Too short samples could give a false view.
A customer uses a 24 GB DAT drive for backup purposes. The drive has been intermittently failing
during backup jobs. To resolve the problem, the customer cleaned the drive and purchases new DDS-3,
120m tapes. The drive now fails on all jobs. Which of the following will most likely resolve this problem?
A. Use compatible media.
B. Replace the tape drive.
C. Replace the SCSI controller.
D. Clean the drive additional times.
Answer: B
We need to replace the tape drive. The other alternatives does not apply.
Incorrect Answers
DDS-3 can store 24GB of data. DDS-3 tapes can be used in 24GB DAT drive.
It is not likely that the SCSI adapter should have failed.
Additional cleaning of the drive would not help.
A new server has been installed at the main complex of a company.
• By pinging the local gateway from the new server, a server technician has verified the presence of
a good LAN connection.
• Users from a remote site cannot connect to the new server but can connect to all other servers at
the remote site.
• When the technician tries to ping the remote site from the new server, it times out.
• The IP stack was removed and reinstalled but that did not help.
• When pinging the router at the remote site from the new server, it also times out.
Which of the following is the most appropriate action to take?
A. Enable DHCP on the server.
B. Wait for the new server to be recognized by the routers.
C. Inform the network administrator responsible for routers.
D. Plug the network cable into a different port in the switch.
Answer: C
A misconfigured or faulty router could explain the problems.
Incorrect Answers
The server can ping the local gateway so it has proper IP configuration. There is no need to configure it as an
DHCP client.
Routers do not recognize servers or computers. They recognize other routers.
The server can ping the default gateway so the connection to the switch works already.
A customer needs to minimize the amount of time required for each weekday backup. The best choice of
daily backup for this customer would be
A. Daily full
B. Daily incremental and weekly full
C. Daily differential and weekly full
D. Grandfather-Father-Son (GFS)
Answer: B
Daily incremental backup with a weekly full backup minimizes the daily backup time (but requires more time
for restoring).
In a standard Grandfather-Father-Son (GFS) backup rotation scheme, where is the best place to store
the Grandfather media sets when the data is going to be permanently archived?
A. In a secure onsite storage location
B. In a secure offsite storage location
C. In the server room in a fireproof cabinet
D. In an adjacent room in a fireproof cabinet
Answer: B
Permanently archived data should be stored in a secure offsite storage location.
After a full backup has completed for the previous day, which of the following would be the most
effective method of verifying that the backup tape is useable for restoring the data?
A. Use the backup software "verify" option.
B. Read the contents of any text file directly from the backup tape.
C. View the backup session log file to verify all directories and files are present.
D. Restore sample data to verify success of the backup.
Answer: A
The verify option of the backup software is the most effective method to check the integrity of the backup tapes.
A company has a new disaster recovery requirement. It states that the media have minimum five-year
storage life and capability to back up their 80 GB database. Which of the following technologies would
provide the best solution for this company?
A. DLT
B. CD-RW discs
C. WORM discs
D. QIC-80 Tapes
Answer: A
There are DLT tapes and DLT tape drives that supports up to 120 GB of data (or more).
Incorrect Answers
CD-RW and WORM discs does not even support 1GB, typically 650-800MB.
QIC-80 tapes might be able to store 1GB, but nowhere near 80GB.
What is the primary advantage, if any, of implementing RAID 5 over implementing RAID 1?
A. RADI 5 does not have an advantage over RAID 1.
B. RAID 5 more efficiently utilizes storage capacity.
C. RAID 5 provides better data integrity.
D. RAID 5 generates less processor overhead.
Answer: B
RAID 1, mirroring, only has a 50% storage utilization. RAID 5 with the minimal three disk drives has a 66%
utilization of the disk space (one disk is used for parity). RAID 5 with more drives has even higher disk
utilization: Four drives: 75%, Five drives: 80%, etc.
Incorrect Answers
A: RAID 5 has a better disk utilization.
C: They provide a similar degree of data integrity.
D: RAID 5 generates more processor overhead since the parity bit must be calculated.
An e-commerce company has a web server with a network adapter that fails under a heavy load. The
server technician finds there is a patch available for the Network OS that corrects the problem. Which of
the following steps is LEAST important to consider when installing the patch?
A. Reboot the server.
B. Reinstall the Network OS.
C. Install other software patches.
D. Make a full backup of the system.
Answer: B
Before installing a batch we should make a full backup of the system. We should then install the network patch
and possibly other network patches as well. After rebooting the server the system should be functional.
There is no need to install the OS in order to install a patch.
When files on the SYS: volume of a new server were configured, an error is made and the server will no
longer boot. Which software is required to recover from the failure and continue configuration?
A. NetWare CDROM
B. Unix Boot/Root diskette(s)
C. OS/2 startup disk and Installation disk.
D. ERD and/or installation disks with CDROM
Answer: A
Novell NetWare servers us a SYS volume. NetWare software is needed to solve the problem at hand.
UNIX, OS/2 or Windows does not use SYS volumes. ERD is only used by Windows systems.
Two physically identical servers were acquired. One will be used for a mail server and one for a file
server. Both servers were loaded from the same media. Immediately after installation, the system
administrator noticed that each server has a Network OS executable file of slightly different size. Which
of the following conclusions is most appropriate?
A. This is a dynamic file.
B. The file is infected with a virus.
C. The serves' hard drive sector sizes vary.
D. The disk controller is failing on one server
Answer: C
Different sector sizes would give different file sizes.
A remote email alert has been created to inform three key network personnel when any drive in a RAID
array fails. While reviewing recent system events, one technician did not receive email alerts. Which of
the following best explains why this happened?
A. The email server is down.
B. The technician is not on the same subnet.
C. The technician's email address is misspelled.
D. The technician is not logged on as an administrator.
Answer: C
His email address could have been misspelled.
Incorrect answers
A downed email server would affect other people as well.
There is no requirement to be on the same subnet to receive emails or alerts.
There is no requirement to be logged on as an administrator to receive emails or alerts.
Two new servers have been purchased and need to be installed to allow sharing of a single external hard
drive enclosure. One of the servers is configured as a local file server, and the other as a database server
for a different network. The onsite technician notices that when both servers are running at the same
time, they each receive SCSI errors. However, when they are running individually, no errors are
reported.
What is the best source of information to troubleshoot this issue?
A. The Network OS vendor's Website.
B. The server vendor's FAQ Website.
C. The drive enclosure vendor's user manual.
D. The SCSI controller vendor's user manual.
Answer: C
The SCSI hard drive is shared through the external hard drive enclosure. We should check the manual of the
enclosure in order to troubleshoot the problem at hand.
A Unix/Linux server needs to be powered down so that building power can be serviced. Which of the
following command could the server technician use to shutdown the server?
A. tar
B. logout
C. init 0
D. system stop
Answer: C
Unix/Linux systems are shut down with the init 0 command.
A company's server was crushed in a building collapse. Current data backups were stored offsite. The
replacement server has been supplied with a DLT drive, rather than the TRAVAN drive that was in the
older server. What impact will this have on the recovery of this server?
A. The administrator will not be able to recover the data.
B. The administrator must use a TRAVAN drive to recover the data and must buy new tapes for future
backups.
C. The administrator will be able to recover data using the DLT driver, but must buy new tapes for backing
up data.
D. The administrator will be able to recover data using the DLT drive and continue to backup on existing
tapes.
Answer: B
A TRAVAN drive can be purchased in order to restore the data on the TRAVAN tapes. Furthermore, DLT
tapes have to be purchased in order to use the DLT drive for future backups.
Incorrect Answers
A: He can buy a TRAVAN drive to resolve the problem.
C, D: DLT and TRAVAN are incompatible standards. A DLT drive cannot use TRAVAN tapes.
A server has lost two disks on its data array running RAID 5. The company deploys a Grandfather-
Father-Son (GFS) backup rotation using incremental backups during the week. The company's disaster
recovery plan stipulates any data that cannot be recovered from local tape resources must be acquired
from the offsite tape storage location. The incremental backup was completed on Wednesday night,
shortly before the server crashed. Backup media is still available locally.
Which of the following is the best procedure to recover the data?
A. The tapes should be recovered from the onsite facility using tapes from Friday's full backup and
Wednesday's incremental backup.
B. The tapes should be recovered from the offsite facility using Friday's full backup and Wednesday's
incremental backups.
C. The tapes should be recovered from the onsite facility using Friday's full backup and Monday, Tuesday,
and Wednesday's incremental backups.
D. The tapes should be recovered from the offsite facility using Friday's full backup and Monday, Tuesday,
and Wednesday's incremental backups.
Answer: C
The local tapes are still available. We are able to use the local tapes. We are only required to use offsite tapes if
data cannot be recovered from the local tapes.
We must start to restore the full backup followed by each incremental made after the full backup in order.
RAID and system logs are showing that a drive in a RAID 5 array is reporting PFA (Predictive Failure
Analysis) drive failures. Which of the following steps should be taken?
A. Use the backup program to copy all the data from the drive to the tape. Replace the drive. Restore all of
the data from the tape.
B. Use a cloning utility program to create an exact mirror image of the drive. Replace the drive. Restore the
cloned image to the next drive.
C. Use the RAID utility program to "fail" or take the drive offline. Remove the drive. Replace with a new
drive. Using the RAID utility program, rebuild the RAID 5 array.
D. Use the RAID utility program to "fail" or take the drive offline. Remove the drive. Replace with a new
drive. Using the RAID utility program, rebuild the RAID 5 array. Restore the data in the array from the
latest backup.
Answer: C
PFA alerts us that a disk in the RAID-5 is having problems. We should fail that drive, remote it, replace it with
a new drive, and rebuild the RAID 5 array (this is possible thanks to the parity bit).
When a RAID 5 array is established, which of the following will provide the fastest read solution?
A. 3 drives, 10 GB each
B. 5 drives, 6 GB each
C. 5 drives, 10 GB each
D. 10 drives, 3 GB each
Answer: D
With RAID 5 the number of drives decides the read performance. Since the data is read in parallel from all
drives, the more drives available in the RAID 5 array the more data can be read and the better performance is
achieved.
Which of the following details is LEAST important to include when the server and network configuration
is documented?
A. Complete network map.
B. Detailed hardware inventory.
C. Computer naming convention for all locations.
D. The name of the technician who performed the installation.
Answer: D
In a server and network configuration documentation a complete network map, detailed hardware inventory,
and computer naming conventions are more important than the name of the technician who performed the
installation.
Which of the following external connection types provides the fastest interface?
A. SCSI
B. RS-232
C. IEEE-1394
D. USB
Answer: A
SCSI is the fastest interface by a huge margin. It is almost 8 times faster than IEEE-1394 for example.
SCSI-4 (Ultra320) has a maximum speed of 320MB/s.
1394 can transmit data at up to 400 megabits per second, more 30 times the speed of USB.
Reference:
Server+ Certification Training Kit, SCSI Terminators and Timing
Microsoft article: IEEE 1394: The Time is Right for This Bus
When the functionality of a new UPS connected to a server is tested, the UPS does not perform as
expected. The new system is configured to wait one minute and implement an orderly shutdown. The
computer remains on several minutes until the UPS loses power and shuts down abruptly. Which of the
following should be checked to determine the cause of the problem?
I. A DMA conflict
II. Conflict from a serial mouse
III. Bad battery array
IV. Incorrect polarity setting
A. II only
B. I and III only'
C. II and IV only
D. III and IV only
Answer: C
A conflict from a serial mouse could prevent communication between the UPS and the OS. This would prevent
a clean shut down.
Wrong polarity setting (e.g. positive instead of negative) can make the UPS alert service not work. Instead of
getting warnings and a clean shutdown, you'll get an abrupt power off when the juice is gone from the UPS.
Incorrect Answers
UPS devices use an IRQ and not any DMAs when communicating with the OS.
The battery array in this scenario is not bad, since it the UPS gives the system power for several minutes.
A file server for a remote network location needs to be remotely powered on so that remove
troubleshooting can take place. Which of the following Wake-on-LAN compatible components on the
remote file server are necessary to perform this task?
I. Network OS.
II. Network drivers.
III. Mainboard
IV. NIC.
A. IV only.
B. II and IV only.
C. III and IV only.
D. I, II, III, and IV.
Answer: D
All of the above is required. We need a network OS, a network adapter (NIC), a driver for the NIC, and a
motherboard (mainboard) to connect the NIC to the computer.
A server hardware technician has installed a new NIC in a server, connected the correct network cabling,
and installed the driver included with the NIC. After rebooting the server, the NIC does not function. The
technician reviews the vendor's installation manuals and repeats the installation procedures. The
technician further confirms that the installation procedure taken was correct, but that the NIC still will
not function.
Following best practices, what is the next best step to correct this problem?
A. Remove and reinstall all network protocols.
B. Reseat the NIC by removing and reinstalling the card.
C. Remove the defective NIC and return it to the manufacturer.
D. Search the NIC manufacturer's Website for software patches and updates to the installation guide.
Answer: D
We should try to find the latest device driver (or software patch/update) at the NIC vendor's web site.
At a company with a file server and a router for Internet access, a user reports that the network is down.
None of the users can print or retrieve files. Last night, the company has some work done on the air
conditioning ducts in the ceiling. The technician checks the server, router, and hub and everything
appears normal. He plugs his laptop into the hub and has no problem connecting, opening, and printing
files. What would be the likely explanation for this situation?
A. DHCP is not working.
B. There are bad ports on the hub.
C. The network cabling is damaged.
D. Users are not logging into the LAN.
Answer: C
Since work were performed on the air conditioning ducts, which often contain network cabling, the work could
have damaged the network cabling.
Incorrect Answers
Everything appears normal at the server. The network services, including the DHCP service, should be up and
running.
Bad hub ports would not affect all users.
Users know how to log on to the network. Not all users would forget this at the same time.
What troubleshooting limitation is created by using vendor-specific systems on the hard drives of a
server (NTFS, HPFS, Ext2FS)?
A. They are not recoverable after a crash.
B. Data cannot be recovered from a corrupt volume.
C. Log files are not compatible for troubleshooting tools.
D. Local access is available only from within the Network OS.
Answer: C
If we use a vendor-specific file system we can only access the locally with the vendor OS.
Incorrect Answers
If the network OS support the file system then it would be able to recover from a crashed drive or recover from
corrupt volumes which use that vendor specific file system.
File formats might be compatible even if the file systems are incompatible.
In the process of adding a network card to a server, a spark was witnessed and the component
malfunctioned immediately thereafter. Now the server technician has a new network card and wants to
avoid this happening again. The best solution to accomplish this includes which of the following?
I. Wrist strap and mat
II. Rubber gloves
III. Avoiding contact with chassis
IV. Avoiding contact with the outer edge of the card
A. I only
B. I and III only
C. II and IV only
D. I, III, and, IV only
Answer: A
Wrist strap and a mat is good protection from ESD (electrostatic discharge).
Incorrect answers
Rubber gloves could increase ESD.
Chassis is ground. There is no need to avoid touching the chassis.
The outer edge of the card can be touched.
A company's server hardware technician is assigned the responsibility of verifying the readiness of a
room in which a new server will be installed. Which of the following areas should the technician verify
prior to the installation?
I. Wall construction and material source
II. Power supply availability and stability
III. Server manufacturer and Network OS
IV. Environment requirements
A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C. II and IV only
D. II, III, and IV only
Answer: C
The technician should check for power supply availability and stability. Environment requirements should also
be verified.
The server technician should not be required to check the wall construction or any hardware and software issues
when verifying the readiness of the server room.
A company works with an external HVD (high voltage differential) SCSI tape drive connected to the
main server used for backup. The technician wants to install a new SE (single-ended) SCSI tape drive to
work in the same bus with the old tape unit to reduce backup time. Which of the following is the most
likely result of the technician's action?
A. The difference in potential will cause damage to devices.
B. The bus will require a special 132-ohm active termination.
C. Tapes will install correctly, but configuration will be required.
D. Different bus cable connectors in the devices will not allow the connection.
Answer: D
HVD and SE SCSI devices are not compatible and they use different connectors.
Which of the following IP utilities is most commonly used to verify connectivity to the network layer of
the OSI model?
A. arp
B. ping
C. telnet
D. nbtstat
Answer: B
Ping is the utility most frequently used to test for network connectivity.
After upgrading a server from a software RAID solution to a hardware RAID solution, the administrator
notices a substantial increase in performance. Which of the following would best explain the increase?
A. Hardware solutions support additional RAID levels for improved performance.
B. Processing is now performed by the controller, resulting in less system CPU usage.
C. The implementation of hardware RAID would no increase performance of the overall system.
D. The controller works together with the system CPU, providing improved hard drive seek time.
Answer: B
The RAID processing is performed by processor on the RAID controller, not by the system CPU.
Unix is being installed on a server that needs large amounts of memory, but has little physical memory.
Which of the following is the best step to increase virtual memory?
A. Parse the swap file.
B. Create a large swap partition.
C. Use a RAMDRIVE to provide virtual RAM.
D. Use the EMM386.EXE /NOEMS command at startup.
Answer: B
UNIX and LINUX systems, contrary to Windows systems, use a swap partition. The size of the swap partition
determines the ability to increase the size of the virtual memory.
Incorrect Answers
Text files are parsed. For example do compilers parse program source code before producing program code. A
swap file cannot be parsed.
Windows 3.x used RAMDRIVE and EMM386.EXE for memory handling. UNIX does not use these utilities.
A server manager logs into a server with his administrator account and installs a third-party diagnostic
tool. No installation problems were encountered. Upon starting the tool for the first time, and error code
is displayed that is difficult to understand. The manager attempted to reinstall the tool, but received the
identical error. Which of the following actions is the most appropriate next step to resolve the problem?
A. Review the application documentation.
B. Search the Network OS support Website for the specific error code.
C. Review the server performance logs for an easier-to-interpret error code.
D. Install the latest Network OS service patch to correct recently identified bugs.
Answer: A
The error is specific to the diagnostic tool. Reviewing the application documentation would be the next step to
resolve the problem.
After a technician installed software on a mission-critical server, the server experienced errors reported
to a log file during boot. Which of the following is the best process to determine a course of action?
A. Delete the log file and see if the problem happens again?
B. Ignore the log file and test the application, verifying proper operation.
C. View the log file and the documentation from the previous technician for recent work done to the server.
D. Refer to the vendor's Web-bases knowledge base. If no answer is found, submit a bug report to the
vendor.
Answer: C
We should first examine the log file. We should then examine the server documentation for any recent work on
the server which could be the cause of the errors.
A server with a preconfigured RAID 5 array is delivered. The four hot-swap drives were shipped in
separate packaging. The server is deployed and during POST, the following message appears:
Array configuration has changes please configure array.
Which of the following is the most likely cause?
A. The array must be configured.
B. The SCSI drives must be addressed properly.
C. The SCSI drives are inserted in the wrong order.
D. The SCSI controller has failed and must be replaced.
Answer: C
The SCSI drivers are inserted in the wrong order.
The pre-installation plan calls for a particular NIC to be used in all servers. Upon investigation, it is
discovered that this NIC is not listed on the HCL of one of the Network OS vendors in a multi-vendor
environment. The NIC vendor states nothing about incompatibility with any particular Network OS.
Which of the following is the best way to proceed?
A. Send the NIC back since it may not work properly.
B. Contact the affected NIC vendor for compatibility information and test one NIC.
C. Begin installation immediately, since the NIC vendor did not specify and incompatibility.
D. Change the installation plan to include a different NIC, because the specified card will not work with the
Network OS.
Answer: B
The NIC may be compatible with the OS but we should control this with the NIC manufacturer before the
installation.
Three servers connected to a KVM (Keyboard Video Mouse) switch are to be installed in a rack. What is
the minimum number of standard network cables, KVM cable sets and monitors needed to support this
configuration?
A. 1 standard cable, 2 KVM cable sets, and 1 monitor
B. 3 standard network cables, 3 KVM cable sets, and 1 monitor
C. 1 standard network cable, 3 KVM cable sets, and 3 monitors
D. 3 standard network cables, 4 KVM cable sets, and 1 monitor
Answer: B
We need a network cable and a KVM cable set for each server. The KVM enables use a single keyboard, mouse
and monitor for all servers.
A Magic Packet is a packet that contains 16 contiguous copies of the receiving network adapter's MAC
address. What technology utilizes this concept?
A. WOL (Wake-On-LAN)
B. CLC (Cluster LAN communication)
C. SMTP (Simple Mail Transport Protocol)
D. SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol)
Answer: A
Wake On LAN (WOL) is the name for a technical development jointly created by IBM and Intel. The
technology allows "enabled" devices to be powered on remotely via a special type of network communication.
A WOL-enabled device, when powered off, will still draw a tiny amount of electricity to drive the network
interface. The interface remains in a passive, listening mode, sending nothing out on the network. To wake up
the device, a specially formed packet is sent to the network port where the device is plugged in.
This special packet, called a magic packet, carries a special "signature." When the network interface sees this
signature, it recognizes this as a wakeup call.
A web server was upgraded to enable data striping with parity to improve performance. It has two
UltraWide SCSI adapters, two PNP ISA 100 Mbps NICs, and 256 MB of RAM. The CPU utilization is at
52% and users are complaining of sluggish performance. Which of the following actions should be done
to fix the bottleneck?
A. Add more RAM.
B. Upgrade the CPU.
C. Add more hard drive space for swap files.
D. Replace the NICs with units having bus mastering capabilities.
Answer: D
The ISA technology is old. The ISA NICs should be replaced with faster NICs that have bus mastering
capabilities.
In what order should the following steps for flashing the system BIOS be performed?
I. Run the BIOS flash utility
II. Restart the server normally
III. Record the current BIOS settings
IV. Boot the server using the BIOS flash disk
A. III, I, II, IV
B. III, IV, I, II
C. IV, I, III, II
D. IV, III, II, I
Answer: B
First we should record the current BIOS settings. We then reboot the system with the BIOS flash disk, run the
BIOS flash utility, and finally boot the server normally.
Incorrect answers.
We must the system reboot using the BIOS flash disk in order to run the BIOS flash utility.
Before starting the flashing process we must document the old BIOS settings in order to manually reconfigure
them to return to the previous state if necessary. We cannot make this documentation after booting from the
BIOS flash disk.
A NIC appears to be causing a network broadcast storm. Which of the following is the best tool to
determine the source of the problem?
A. SNMP
B. Cable tester.
C. LAN analyzer
D. Performance monitor.
Answer: C
A LAN analyzer would be able to analyze the packets on the network. We would be able to obtain the source of
the packets.
Users suddenly lost connectivity to an existing server. The server technician can ping the loopback
address and the server's own IP address. However, no other device on the network can be pinged. The
LAN cable is plugged in. Which of the following should the server technician check next?
A. The router.
B. The subnet mask.
C. Link integrity.
D. The DNS server.
Answer: C
We should check the simple possible causes of the problem first. Broken, disconnected, improperly terminated,
or mis-wired cables are responsible for over 70% of all LAN problems. We check physical connectivity with
the link integrity. A green LED indicating good link integrity should be on at the server end, and on the port of
the hub where the server is connected.
Note: The IEEE Ethernet standards make use of a feature called 'Link Integrity' to ensure that the physical
cable being used to transmit/receive data is intact.
Incorrect Answers.
A malfunctioning router could explain that no other computers can be reached, but we should check the link
integrity first.
The server's subnet mask would not change by itself.
Since the PING by IP address fails there is no name resolution problem at hand. The DNS server cannot be
blamed.
What should be the first consideration when identifying potential server bottlenecks?
A. The role of the server.
B. Amount of installed RAM.
C. Number of installed processors.
D. Quantity of installed network adapters.
Answer: A
Different server roles (file server, database server, mail server, domain controller, DNS server, etc) have
different bottle necks. The role of the server is first thing to consider when identifying potential bottlenecks.
A server that has been running for several months was scheduled for maintenance and the latest
operating system patches was applied. Upon reboot, the message that "No operating system found" was
shown. What is the most likely cause?
A. The master boot record has been corrupted.
B. The file system has been corrupted by a virus in the patches.
C. The RAID configuration has not been synchronizes in some time.
D. The operating system patches overwrote the OEM driver for the drive controller.
Answer: D
The last change made on the server made before the reboot was the installation of the latest operating system
patches. It seems like that the error is related to that. The patches might have overwritten the OEM driver for the
drive controller.
While installing a new server, a server technician performed the following actions:
• Inventoried the server hardware components
• Downloaded and applied the latest BIOS and firmware
• Loaded the Network OS and patches
The tape drive failed initialize during Network OS startup. Which of the following is most likely causing
the failure?
A. The tape drive device driver was not enabled in the system BIOS.
B. The Network OS patches were not applied correctly.
C. The tape drive is not on the Network OS HCL.
D. The BIOS and firmware upgrades were not properly applied.
Answer: C
A failed installation of a device could be explained by an incorrect or old driver (not listed here) or by a device
that is incompatible with the OS (not included on the HCL).
An installation plan requires plugging a 64-bit, 66 MHz, PCI 2.2-compliant SCSI controller into a 32-bit,
33 MHz PCI slot. Which of the following steps, must be performed?
A. Nothing can be done. 64-bit, 66 MHz cards are not backward-compatible with 32-bit, 33 MHz slots.
B. 64-bit cards are already compatible with a 32-bit slot. Bus speed compatibility must be set with a jumper
on the PCI card.
C. Remove the perforated cutout on the edge connector of the PCI card. This will allow a 66 MHz card to
be plugged into a 33 MHz slot.
D. Do nothing. The 64-bit, 66 MHz card is compatible with the 32-bit, 33 MHz slot.
Answer: D
The PCI 2.2 specification ensures that a 64-bit 66MHz cards can be used in a 32-bit, 33MHz PCI slot. The slot
can be used by the card.
Exhibit: Wiring diagram
The wiring diagram reference in the exhibit should be used in which of the following situations?
A. A network card to a CSU/DSU connection
B. A network card to a network card connection
C. A network hub to a network card connection
D. A network hub to a network hub connection.
Answer: C
The exhibit shows a straight cable. A straight cable is used to connect a network adapter to a network hub.
A server error indicates that a service or driver failed during system startup. When a technician tries to
start the service manually, it again fails to load and displays a specific error code. Which of the following
is the most appropriate next step to resolve the problem?
A. Reinstall the current patches.
B. Reboot the server and observe any real-time errors.
C. Determine if other services or functions also failed to start.
D. Reinstall the service from the original install disks and apply appropriate patches.
Answer: C
Services are often dependant of other services. We should initially determine if other services or functions also
failed to start. This could help use to find the cause of the problem. We should start by checking the system
logs.
Incorrect Answers
We should not start by reinstalling the current patches. Instead we should try to locate the source of the
problem.
Rebooting the server and checking for any errors could be useful, but most likely no further information would
be gained by this.
Initially we should try to locate the source if the problem instead of reinstalling services or applying patches.
A server with a virus infection was recovered by repartitioning and reformatting the hard disk drive. The
Network OS was reinstalled using a boot floppy and the vendor CD-ROM. However, the server was
infected again. Which of the following most likely caused the problem?
A. The file allocation table is infected.
B. The boot disk is infected.
C. The vendor CD-ROM is infected.
D. The active partition is infected.
Answer: B
If the boot disk is infected the system would be re-infected during the installation process.
While performing a daily review of the system logs, a server manager notices that the latest error entry in
the log indicates that a specific service or function has stopped operating. What should be the next
diagnostic step taken by the server manager?
A. Attempt to manually restart the service or function.
B. Examine the log for previous instances of this error.
C. Determine which enterprise functions are being affected by this stoppage.
D. Erase the log to make it easier to locate the next occurrence of this error.
Answer: B
We want to diagnose the problem. We should try to locate the source of the problem. A good first step is to
check the system logs for similar event that has occurred earlier, maybe locating the first occurrence and
possibly what cause the first occurrence.
Incorrect Answers
A manual restart of the service (or function) might start the service (or function) but it would not help
diagnosing the cause of the problem.
Determine which enterprise functions that are affected by this problem might be a good precaution. It would
not, however, help to diagnose the problem.
The log contains information that could be helpful for diagnosing the problem. The log must not be erased.
A working server's monitoring tool identifies a problem with a PCI NIC in the server. Which of the
following steps should be performed next?
A. Assign an IRQ to the card.
B. Move the card to another slot.
C. Install an identical spare card.
D. Install a PC diagnostic tool in the server.
Answer: C
We should replace the card with an identical card. The identical card should work immediately since it uses the
same device drivers.
Incorrect answers
A: An IRQ problem seems unlikely since the NIC used to work.
B: Moving the card to another slot would most likely not change anything.
D: It is simpler and more straightforward just to replace the card, compared to installing and using additional
diagnostic software.
A hot-plug PCI card needs to be replaced in a server supporting this technology. Before replacing the
card, which of the following actions, if any, must be performed before removing the card from the
server?
A. Shut down the server.
B. Unplug the power cord from the server.
C. Remove power to the expansion slot.
D. No action is required.
Answer: C
Hot plug PCI cards can be deactivated, allowing for removal and replacement of a PCI card while the system is
in operation. Power should be removed from the expansion slot before removing or inserting the PCI card.
Incorrect answers
Hot-pluggable PCI cards can be replaced while the server is running. There is no need to shut down the server
or unplug the power cord from the server.
Power should be removed from the expansion slot before removing or inserting the PCI card.
In a mixed protocol environment, a local server is viewable throughout the LAN, however, it cannot
connect to the Internet. Which of the following diagnostic tools should be used first to determine where
the problem exists?
A. Ping 127.0.0.1 ensure TCP/IP stack is functioning.
B. Check the error log file of the server to determine what errors have been received.
C. Use the NSLOOKUP command to determine what host name should be used to access the Internet.
D. Check the system error log file and the network file to determine if any errors have been encountered.
Answer: A
The network may use some other network than TCP/IP on the local network. We must ensure that TCP/IP, the
protocol of Internet, is properly installed and functioning.
A customer has purchased a new file server and wishes to retire their three-year old file server, making it
into a department print server. The print server will run a newer version of the operating system. The
print server's hardware is on the new operating system's HCL. However, the customer is having
problems keeping the server running reliably. The system log shows operating faults and not all Network
OS features are available. Which of the following should be done next to resolve this issue?
A. Install alternative operating system on the print server.
B. Inspect hardware and firmware versions and compare to latest revisions.
C. Install the previous operating system and perform an upgrade to the new version.
D. Inform the customer that the server is not compatible with the new operating system.
Answer: B
The server is on the OS HCL so it should be functioning correctly. We need to ensure that the BIOS is upgraded
and that the latest device drivers are used. The server should then be able to function correctly.
There are 4U of available space in a server rack mount unit. How much space is available to install
additional devices?
A. 4 inches (10.2 cm)
B. 7 inches (17.8 cm)
C. 8 inches (20.3 cm)
D. 14 inches (35.5 cm)
Answer: B
A 4U rack is a 7" rack.
After the four pieces of equipment listed below were connected, the UPS went into an overload condition.
Which of the following pieces of equipment is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. Desktop system
B. 17" monitor
C. Laser printer
D. 48-port hub
Answer: C
A laser printer should never be connected to an UPS since a laser printer consumes a lot of power when it print
pages. This would cause problems for the UPS.
A company wants to install an internal Ultra3-compatible controller with two external Ultra2-compatible
tape devices. The technician requests two 50-pin cables and two passive (132 ohm) external terminators.
Which two of the following must be done to accomplish the installation?
I. Change the controller to an Ultra2 compatible.
II. Change Tapes devices to UltraWide compatible.
III. Change cables to 68-pin cables
IV. Change terminators
A. I and II
B. I and IV
C. II and III
D. III and IV
Answer: D
We must use the 68-pin connector for the Ultra2 devices. We must replace the 50-pin connector.
Passive termination use 132 ohm terminators. Passive termination is an older technology which cannot be used
with Ultra2 or Ultra3.
Incorrect Answers
Ultra3 is backward compatible with Ultra2. There is no need to replace the Ultra SCSI controller.
When the installation of a new server is planned, using which of the following is most likely to result in
the greatest number of problems when the operating system is installed?
A. Untested memory
B. Third-party NICs and SCSI controllers
C. Server listed on Network OS vendor's HCL
D. Drivers supplied by Network OS instead of hardware vendor
Answer: B
We should avoid third-party NICs and SCSI controllers. We should use the ones recommended and tested by
the server manufacturer.
Incorrect Answers
Untested memory could cause problems but it is not the most likely cause.
It would be good, not bad, if the server was listed on the OS vendor's HCL.
The latest drivers should be obtained from the hardware vendor. The drivers supplied by the OS vendor have
been tested with the OS and should be adequate most of the time.
A customer is using a DAT drive for data backup. The drive will backup intermittently, usually stopping
towards the end of the backup job. The customer claims to have cleaned the drive just two days ago, but
the problem still exists. What should be the next step in troubleshooting the backup problem?
A. Ask the customer to replace the backup tapes.
B. Ask the customer to reload the backup tapes.
C. Replace the tape drive with a known good drive.
D. Replace the controller with a known good controller.
Answer: A
Since the backup jobs stops at the same point it seems likely that the backup media is corrupted and should be
replaced.
During a midnight shift a technician upgrades a server two new processors. During the next work shift,
users complain that the server is slower that it was the day before. What is the first thing that the current
shift's server technician should do to resolve the problem?
A. Down the server to check if the processor is seated properly.
B. Check the documentation from the previous shift's installation.
C. Check the pre-installation checklist that was used for the upgrade.
D. Call the server support help desk to determine what happened during the install.
Answer: B
The server technician should check for any documentation from the previous shift. Any recent irregularities or
problems should be found in that documentation.
A customer who needs to restore their system from tape has been creating differential backups since their
last full backup. How many tape sets will be required to restore the system to the most recent backup?
A. One, the full backup.
B. One, the last differential backup.
C. Two, the full backup and incremental backup.
D. Two, the full backup and the last differential backup.
Answer: D
To restore from a differential backup we must first restore the full backup and the restore only the last
differential backup.
While maintaining fault tolerance, which of the following would provide the greatest disk performance?
A. RAID 0/1
B. RAID 0
C. RAID 1
D. RAID 5
Answer: A
We should use RAID 0/1 combines RAID 0 (disk mirroring which gives fault tolerance) with RAID 1 (disk
striping which give highest performance).
Incorrect Answers
RAID 0, disk striping, does not provide fault tolerance.
RAID 1, disk mirroring, provides fault tolerance, but not as good performance as RAID 0/1.
RAID 5 also provides fault tolerance and good performance but not as high performance as RAID 0/1.
A customer has been using a QIC-80 (Quarter-Inch Cartridge) tape drive for their server backups. Due
to increased drive capacity they want to upgrade the tape drive to store more data on each tape. Which of
the following tape drives allow backward compatibility with their existing QIC-80 tapes and provide
additional capacity?
A. DAT
B. DDS
C. DDS-2
D. TRAVAN
Answer: D
QIC-80 and Travan are compatible technologies. DDS and DDS-2 are not compatible with either QIC-80 or
Travan.
Which of the two following options would require an update of a disaster recover plan?
I. Adding new hardware.
II. A move to a new location.
III. Replacing failed hardware.
IV. Adding workstations to the network.
A. I and II.
B. I and III
C. II and IV
D. III and IV
Answer: A
New hardware (I.) and a move to a new location (II.) would force use to make changes in the disaster recovery
plan.-
Incorrect Answers
III: Replacing failed hardware would not change the disaster recovery plan as we still would use the same type
of hardware.
IV: Adding more workstations to the network would not change the disaster recovery plan. The vital
information is stored on the servers, not on the workstations.
A server technician discovers that a drive in a RAID 5 array has failed during the night. The array was
protected with a hot-spare drive. What is the best first step in restoring the RAID array to its pre-failure
state?
A. Rebuild the RAID 5 array.
B. Assign another drive as the hot spare in the array.
C. Replace the defective drive.
D. Verify completion of rebuilding of RAID array to the hot space.
Answer: B
We should:
1. Replace the failed drive.
2. Rebuild the RAID 5 array.
After a pre-installation walkthrough, the server technician observed that the power outlets, rack
dimensions, physical security, and network cabling were all acceptable. However, one factor was missing
in the pre-installation planning, so the technician decided not to install the server in this location.
Which of the following factors was missing from the pre-installation planning?
A. Location
B. Environment
C. Wall materials
D. Electrostatic discharge
Answer: B
The pre-installation planning should include Environment assessment.
A server is consistently rebooting every day at the same time. Which of the following environmental
elements has most likely caused this behavior?
A. ESD (Electrostatic Discharge)
B. Humidity
C. Temperature
D. Electrical
Answer: D
Only an electrical problem could reoccur at the same time every day. In could for example be caused by some
electrical maintenance or by some micro-wave ovens being used at the same time each day.
Incorrect Answers
It seems unlikely that ESD, high humidity, or high temperature would occur at same time every day.
A client has set up a new data center. Which of the following is LEAST important to install at the new
data center?
A. Raised floor
B. Dehumidifier/humidifier
C. Physical locks on all entrances to the data center
D. Waterless-based sprinkler system in data center.
Answer: D
A waterless-based sprinkler system in data center is very rare.
Incorrect Answers
A raised floor could make cabling of the data center easy.
Dehumidifier/humidifier could be important to keep the humidity at acceptable levels.
Physical locks would protect the servers from physical access.
A technician is troubleshooting a server problem. Immediately after a reboot, the following error
message was received:
"setup did not find any hard drives on the computer"
Which of the following should be checked first?
A. Determine whether the Network OS is corrupted.
B. Determine whether the first hard disk crashed.
C. Check that the SCSI adapter is seen at POST.
D. Verify that the DMA is not set to the "on" position.
Answer: B
The first hard disk could have crashed. We must check this possibility.
Incorrect Answers
The error message indicates a problem with the hard drive, not any problem with the OS.
The POST does not check for SCSI adapters. SCSI adapters are checked after the POST. Furthermore, we do
not know if they server use any SCSI adapter.
This is not a DMA problem.
On Monday morning many users find they are unable to log into the network. The server technician has
been at work over the weekend and has no trouble connecting from his workstation. The server is
apparently up and running fine. The NICs on the failing workstations have link status-lights lit.
Which of the following actions will most likely correct the problem?
A. Restart DHCP.
B. Replace the hub.
C. Update workstation client software.
D. Replace the patch cable between server and hub.
Answer: A
The DHCP service might have been stopped. This would explain why the server technician is able to connect
from his workstation. DHCP is initiated when the OS is started and his computer has been online during the
whole weekend. Restarting the DHCP service could solve the problem.
Incorrect Answers
Some users are able to connect so it does not seem to be any hardware or cabling problems. There should be no
need to replace either the hub or cabling between the hub and the server.
It seems unlikely that we suddenly would be some problem with the workstation client software.
A server crashed where the data was locally stored on a RAID 0 configuration. According to the
organization's disaster recovery plan, data should be recovered via disk fault tolerance strategies before
going to the tape archive. What should be done to recover the lost data?
A. The data is safe. Replace the failed disk and regenerate the mirror set.
B. Replace the failed disk in the RAID array and it will regenerate itself automatically.
C. Replace the failed disk in the RAID array and restore data from the most current backup.
D. Replace the failed disk when it is convenient, because a copy of the data is on a disk on the second
RAID controller.
Answer: C
RAID 0, disk striping, does not include any fault tolerance. We must restore the data from the most current
backup.
Two of the server's data disks in a customer's RAID 5 array fail. The Network OS is mirrored on a
separate drive set and RAID controller. According to the company's in-place disaster recovery plan, all
data should be restored from onsite tape before recovering from tape stored at the offsite storage
location. A full backup and two incremental backups were performed before the crash. What must be
done to return the system to operational status?
A. Replace the two failed disks in the array so the array will start to regenerate itself.
B. Replace the two failed disks in the array, and then use the last incremental backup to restore the data.
C. Replace the two failed disks in the array, and then use the full backup and one incremental backup to
restore the data.
D. Replace the two failed disks in the array, and then use the full backup and all (two) incremental backups
to restore the data.
Answer: D
A RAID 5 disk array can recover from one failed disk, but not from two or more failed disks. We need use tape
backups. We must restore the full backup, followed by all incremental backups applied in the correct order. In
this scenario we must apply both the incremental backups.
A small company is backing up mission-critical data and wants to implement a disaster recovery plan.
The network administrator is tasked with developing the disaster recovery plan. Which of the following
should be the first step in developing the plan?
A. Practicing the disaster recover drills.
B. Exploring disaster prevention techniques.
C. Create a step-by-step restoration plan.
D. Determining the Information Technology configuration.
Answer: D
The first step in developing a disaster recovery plan is to determine what the risks to your business operation
are. In order to evaluate the risks we need to determine the present Information Technology configuration.
Incorrect Answers
Practicing the disaster recover drills, training, should be the final, not first, step in a good disaster recovery plan.
Exploring disaster prevention techniques has no place in a disaster recovery plan. We want to have a plan how
to recover from a disaster, not how we prevent a disaster.
Creating a step-by-step restoration plan should be included in the restoration plan, but not as the first step. We
need to determine the risks first.
A company's server room flooded and five years of data were lost. Server administrators implemented a
disaster recovery plan before the flood that included a backup process with a daily tape rotation
schedule. Which of the following would have best minimized the impact of the flood?
A. Establishing a cold site.
B. Establishing remote notification for flooding.
C. Installing a raised floor in the server room.
D. Storing backup tapes at an offsite location.
Answer: D
The impact of the flooding would be minimized if the tapes were stored at an offsite location which presumable
would not be affected by the flooding.
Open access needs to be maintained to the server room so that work flow is not impeded. Data on the
servers is extremely sensitive and physical security should be maintained. Which of the following actions
most effectively meets these criteria?
A. Installing alarms on servers.
B. Disabling removable media drives on the servers.
C. Placing servers in a locked room with a human guard.
D. Using lockable server cabinets with keys issued to authorized users.
Answer: D
Preventing physical access to the servers would be the most effective precaution.
Incorrect Answers
Alarms on the servers would be awkward.
Disabling removable media in the servers would not prevent any users from copying sensitive data from the
servers to other computers on the network.
A locked room with a human guard would be an expensive solution.
A technician is called to perform maintenance on a server. While performing his tasks, he notices that the
tape backups are located on a bookshelf outside the server room. Which of the following
recommendations, if any, should be made to the system administrator?
A. The tapes should be stored in a lockable cabinet outside the server room.
B. The bookshelf should be moved inside the server room.
C. The tapes should be stored in a secure offsite location.
D. No recommendation is necessary. This is a common practice to allow quick access in the event of a
server failure.
Answer: A
The tapes should not be publicly accessible. Where the tapes should be stored depends on several factors that
are not listed in this scenario:
• Is the access to the server room restricted?
• What type of backups are stored in the cabinet?
• Do the company store some backups off-site already?
However, it seems most prudent to recommend that the tapes should be stored in a lockable cabinet outside the
server room.
Incorrect Answers
Moving the bookshelf inside the server room might not help if access to the server room is not restricted.
The tapes might be daily backup tapes that are rotated during the week. The company may already have an offsite
storage procedure for backup tapes.
Public access to the backup tapes is unacceptable. We must make a recommendation.
A company is building a new server. After the operating system is installed and the drivers are
configured, the system log contains errors that are difficult to understand. Everything appears to be
correctly configured and the drivers are up to date. Which of the following should be done next?
A. Research the error code.
B. Obtain an OS patch from the vendor.
C. Begin disabling services, rebooting each time.
D. Replace each peripheral one at a time until the errors go away.
Answer: A
We should try to investigate the error code and see if the issue is known by the OS vendor or the some hardware
vendor. We could, for example, search the knowledge base of the OS vendor.
Incorrect Answers
Before installing an OS patch we should research the error code for known issues.
Disabling services or replacing peripheral would not be the first troubleshooting steps since they require a lot of
effort.
A server is maintained by a group of administrators. When a commonly accessed application is used, the
server crashes. After discussing the issue with the server team, the technician learns that the problem has
happened several times in the recent past. What troubleshooting step should be taken first?
A. Check the application manufacturer's knowledge base.
B. Call the software vendor to see if there is a patch to correct this issue.
C. Call the hardware technical support to see if this is a known hardware limitation.
D. Check the server's logbook to determine what changed prior to the server's first crash.
Answer: D
Often a problem is caused by a change in the system. Locating the change, if any, that occurred before the first
crash would most certainly be very useful for troubleshooting the problem.
A customer is contemplating creating a two-node cluster with a SCSI shared storage configuration to
provide quick fault recovery. For which of the following failures will this cluster provide quick fault
recover?
A. One server in the cluster loses all power.
B. The computer room loses all power for an hour or more.
C. The shared SCSI storage system for the cluster loses all power.
D. The shared SCSI storage system for the cluster loses two disk drives.
Answer: A
A cluster is used for failover protection. If one node fails another node in the cluster takes its place.
Note: The cluster service can detect a hardware or a software failure (for example that one server stops due to a
power loss) and quickly assign the application or service responsibility to another node in the cluster. This
process is called failover.
Reference: MCSE Training kit (70-223) Microsoft Windows 2000 Advanced Clustering Services, Overview of
Microsoft Cluster Service, page 6.
Incorrect answers
If the computer room loses power both the nodes in the cluster would be shut down.
If the shared SCSI storage system fails both nodes in the cluster would be unable to operate.
An onsite technician is at a client's site to perform a warranty replacement of a FRU (Field Replacable
Unit) in Novell IntranetWare 4.11 server. The technician is unsure of how to shut down the server
properly. When calling into the help desk, the technician inquired about which commands should be
entered before powering off the server. Which commands should the help desk tell the technician to use?
I. Shutdown
II. Exit
III. Down
IV. Killservices
A. I then II
B. II then III
C. III then II
D. IV then I
Answer: C
First we must down the server with the DOWN command, then we exit to DOS with the EXIT command.
We DOWN command must precede the EXIT command, not vice versa.
Note: NetWare 4.11 console commands
DOWN - Shuts down Server activity
EXIT - Returns to DOS after the server has been DOWN(ed)
A system administrator has been notified twice this week that an application has failed, causing a critical
server to crash. The server has generated an output file. He decided to run a set of performance monitors
on the server to evaluate what is the most likely cause of the crash. What else should be done, if anything,
to aid in problem determination?
A. Cluster the server with another for load balancing.
B. Send the output file to the application group or vendor for analysis.
C. Move the application to a new server with more RAM and a faster processor.
D. Do nothing, because it is probably an anomaly and is unlikely to happen again.
Answer: B
The output file could be send either to the application developer or to the OS vendor for further analysis. This
could be costly however.
Incorrect Answers
Clustering is used for failover workload distribution. Clustering would not solve any problem with a critical
server.
More RAM and faster processor would improve performance, but moving the application to another server not
aid in determining the cause of the crash.
The problem has already occurred twice. It is not anomaly.
Hot-plug PCI card technology relies on the Network OS to support this feature. Which of the following
items is most relevant for implementing this technology?
A. Adapter BIOS
B. Server design
C. Adapter driver
D. Server manufacturer
Answer: A
The Adapter BIOS must support Hot-plugging.
Several users have had problems accessing the company's intranet server named SERVER1. A technician
has attempted to ping the server and receives the following message:
C:\ ping server1
Unknown host server1
Which of the following should be done next?
A. Try to "tracert server1".
B. Reboot the intranet server.
C. Reload the TCP/IP protocol stack on the server.
D. Put the server in the local machine's host table.
Answer: A
Several users, but not all users, have problem accessing SERVER1. This indicates that it is a local problem.
If ping fails we already know that tracert would fail. However, the tracert command could show where in the
path between the client and the server the error occurs. The clients could have an incorrect default gateway
setting or a router may work incorrectly. Since it is very easy to test a tracert command it seems like the best
troubleshooting step to try next.
Incorrect Answers
Since only some of the users have this problem there is no need to make any changes on the server: there is no
need to reboot the server or reconfigure the TCP/IP protocol on the server.
There could be a name resolution problem. The client may not be able to resolve the host name server1 to an IP
address. We could add a mapping from Server1 to the IP address of server at the local hosts file on the clients.
However, this would require considerable administrative effort. Furthermore this file is not known as a host
table.
The file servers regularly download antivirus updates from the vendor's FTP server. The automatic
updates have not occurred on these servers for the last three updates. Which of the following actions
should be taken to isolate this problem?
I. Verify connectivity to the vendor's FTP server.
II. Ping another server on the network.
III. Check the server logs for errors.
IV. Reboot the server to restart all services.
A. I and II only
B. II and IV only
C. I, II, and III only
D. I, II, III, and IV
Answer: C
We could verify the connectivity of these servers. We should check both the connectivity with the vendor and
local connectivity. (I and II)
We should also check the server logs for any related errors or warning. (III)
Rebooting the server and restarting all services should only be used as a last desperate attempt. It would not be
particularly useful for isolating the problem.
A sever technician is called to a customer site to troubleshoot SCSI timeouts. The customer has a mix of
Fast-Wide SCSI drives and UltraWide SCSI drivers. Which of the following should be performed first?
A. Run diagnostics and look for information to diagnose the error.
B. Power cycle the server and drives to start from a known-good position-
C. Replace the UltraWide drives so that only Fast-Wide drives are in the system.
D. Recommend that the jumpers on the UltraWide drives be changed to work with Fast-Wide drives on the
same bus.
Answer: A
We should run diagnostics in order to diagnose the problem.
Incorrect Answers
UltraWide and FastWide drives are compatible. There is no need to replace the UltraWide drives. There is no
need to change any jumpers for compatibility.
While offsite, a network administrator receives a page from the server that a drive in the array has failed.
From the current location, how can the administrator confirm the failure and determine whether
corrective action has taken place?
A. Return to the server site, check the drive, and replace if necessary.
B. Using a dial-up connection to the server, check the RAID log to confirm the rebuild with the hot spare.
C. Contact an administrator at the server site and have them stop RAID services, perform a data integrity
check, and then restart RAID services.
D. Using the system management software, stop RAID services, have an administrator at the server site
check the drive, and then restart the service.
Answer: B
From the current location the network administrator can use connect remotely, using a dial-up connection for
example, to the server and check the RAID logs. He could diagnose the problem and determine the action that
need to be taken. The problem might even be fixed remotely.
Incorrect Answers
It is not necessary to physically visit the site, or get help from an on-site administrator, just to confirm the
failure and decide the action. This can be done remotely.
A customer reports that the new server shows only one of the two installed PCI Ethernet controllers.
They request a service call to have one of the controllers replaced. Before ordering the replacement
controller, which of the following actions should be taken first?
A. Remove the drivers for the controllers and reinstall.
B. Update the controller's drivers to the latest version.
C. Remove each controller to determine the faulty controller.
D. Examine controller configuration data and vendor specifications.
Answer: C
Before replacing the faulty controller we must be sure we replace the correct one.
Incorrect Answers
We have already decided to replace the controllers. It is too late to reinstall or update the driver of the
controller. It would also be a waste of time to check the controller's configuration data and vendor
specifications.
The server diagnostic tool is reporting a faulty memory module in a non-mission-critical server. What
should the technician attempt next?
A. Buy a new memory module and clear the error in the diagnostic tool.
B. Check to see if the error moves with the module when it is placed in a different slot.
C. Replace all the modules in the bank with known good ones and clear the error in the diagnostic tool.
D. Cold boot the system, clear the error in the diagnostic log, and wait to see if the error occurs again.
Answer: B
Since the server is a non-mission critical server it seems prudent to try to locate and replace only the faulty
memory module
Incorrect Answers
A: We need to replace the faulty memory module, not just buy a new one.
C: If the server was mission-critical we should immediately replace all memory with known good ones.
However, the server is not mission-critical.
D: Cold-booting the system would most likely not be helpful resolving the hardware error.
All of the following combinations will result in a valid network connection EXCEPT?
A. Server to MDI port with straight cable.
B. Server to MDI-X port with straight cable.
C. Server to workstation with crossover cable.
D. MDI hub port to MDI hub port with crossover cable.
Answer: A
Explanation: Network adapters are wired MDI. MDI connected MDI requires a crossover cable, not a straight
cable (Rule 1).
Note 1: TestKing's two rules on connecting MDI and MDI-X
1. MDI port connected to another MDI port or MDI-X port connected to another MDI-X port: use
crossover cable.
2. MDI-X port connected to MDI port: use a straight-through connecting cable.
Note 2: Network adapters are wired MDI.
Incorrect Answers
B: MDI connected MDX requires straight cable (Rule 2).
C: MDI to MDI: use crossover cable (Rule 1).
D: MDI to MDI: use crossover cable (Rule 1).
On a Microsoft Windows 2000 server named TestKing, the DHCP service has been installed and a scope
created on a server, but the clients are not getting assigned IP addresses. Which of the following is most
likely the problem?
A. The scope was not activated.
B. Lease expiration has not been set.
C. No MAC address is assigned in the scope.
D. The DHCP service does not have a reservation configured.
Answer: A
Explanation: A DCHP scope must be activated.
Incorrect Answers
B: Lease expiration has a default value. Lease expiration must only be set if you want to configure a nondefault
value.
C: DHCP dos not use MAC addresses. DHCP leases logical addresses, IP addresses, not physical MAC
addresses.
D: The DHCP server itself cannot have a reservation configured. The DHCP server should have static IP
configuration.
When a RAID 5 array is configured with a hot spare, what is the minimum number of drives required?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Answer: B
Explanation: A regular RAID 5 array requires three drives. With one hot spar we most use at least four drives.
After Microsoft Windows NT or Windows 2000 is installed, which of the following is the best step to take
in order to optimize virtual-memory speed?
A. Place the Pagefile.sys on the slave hard drive.
B. Enlarge the Win386.swp file to twice the physical RAM size.
C. Place the Pagefile.sys file on a separate hard drive from the operating system.
D. Decrease the minimum size and increase the maximum size of the Pagefile.sys file.
Answer: C
Explanation: In Windows NT/2000/XP the pagefile is named Pagefile.sys. Moving the pagefile away from the
system partition to a separate disk would increase performance since data can be read in parallel from the
system disk and the pagefile disk.
Incorrect Answers
A: Putting on a slave drive would not have any particular benefits compared to use it on a master drive.
B: Legacy Windows OSes like Windows 9x and Windows 3.11 use the Win386.swp file. This file is not used
in Windows NT/2000/XP/.NET.
D: The default page file size configured by the OS is best for most computers. There would be need to
reconfigure the minimum and the maximum size of the Pagefile.sys file.
The company TestKing inc. installs all of their servers using a DOS boot disk with network support.
Which of the following operating systems could they install?
I. Unix
II. IBM OS/2
III. Microsoft Windows NT or Windows 2000
IV. Novel NetWare
A. I and III only.
B. I and IV only.
C. I, II and III only.
D. I, II, III, and IV.
Answer: D
Explanation:
I. UNIX, in particular, can be installed from a network share using a DOS boot disk.
II. IBM OS/2 is built upon DOS.
III: Windows NT and Windows 2000 can be installed from a network share using a DOS boot disk.
IV: Novel NetWare can be from a network share using a DOS boot disk.
A server hardware technician has installed an external DLT drive. During the boot process, the device is
not recognized by the BIOS. Which steps should be taken to troubleshoot the problem?
I. Verify that the controller is recognized by the OS.
II. Make sure that the DLT drive has power.
III. Verify that the device drivers have been loaded.
IV. Verify the cabling is connected securely and is the proper type.
A. III only.
B. II and IV only.
C. II and III only.
D. I, II, and IV only
Answer: B
Explanation:
II: The DLT driver must have power to function.
IV. The cabling between the drive and the PC must be securely connected and with the proper type.
Incorrect Answers
A, C: BIOS does not use any device drivers to detect hardware during the boot process.
D: The BIOS phase of the boot process occurs before the OS is loaded. Whether the OS recognizes the
controller or not would not affect the BIOS recognition process.
A customer requires a server that will use the maximum amount of storage space possible while obtaining
the greatest performance. Fault tolerance is not an issue for this installation. Which of the following is the
best RAID solution for the server?
A. Ultra2 SCSI using RAID 0.
B. Ultra2 SCSI using RAID 1.
C. Ultra2 SCSI using RAID 0/1.
D. Wide Ultra2 SCSI using RAID 5.
Answer: A
Explanation: RAID 0, disk striping gives highest performance and as 100% disk utilization as long as the disks
are of equal size. It does not provide fault tolerance, but that is not required either.
Incorrect Answers
B: RAID 1, disk mirror, is not so fast since data need to be written twice. Furthermore, disk utilization is only
50%,
C: RAID 0-1, is a combination of disk striping and disk mirroring. Each mirror disk is striped. Still, data need
to be written twice and disk utilization is only 50%,
D: RAID 5 use one disk as parity and has there lower speed and lower disk utilization compared to RAID 0.
The external peripheral connection with the highest potential data transfer rate is?
A. USB
B. SCSI
C. IEEE-1294
D. Ultra ATA 100
Answer: B
Explanation: SCSI is the fastest interface by a huge margin. SCSI-4 (Ultra320), for example, has a maximum
speed of 320MB/s.
Incorrect Answers
A: But USB has a maximum speed of 12 Mbps.
C: The IEEE-1294 Parallel communication standard supports both forward and reverse data transmission
directions, as well as bi-directional modes. However, it is quite slow compared to SCSI.
D: Ultra ATA 100 has a maximum speed of 100MBps.
TestKing inc recently added a new network adapter to the server but it does not work. The third-party
drivers are updated but there is no change. The NIC is certified compatible by the Network OS vendor
and passed diagnostics. Which of the following actions should be done next?
A. Replace the NIC.
B. Use a debugging tool.
C. Reinstall the Network OS.
D. Check Network OS vendor for OS update.
Answer: D
Explanation: We should check for that latest version of network adapter device driver.
Incorrect Answers
A: We should look for updated drivers first.
B: Debugging tools are not used to troubleshoot Network adapters.
C: There is no need to reinstall the OS.
A technician with six 9-GB drives available needs to create a fault-tolerant array with a capacity of at
least 28 GB. Which of the following RAID options will best fulfill these requirements?
I. RAID 0
II. RAID 1
III. RAID 5
IV. RAID 0/1
A. III only.
B. III and IV only.
C. I, II, and IV only.
D. II, II, and IV only.
Answer: A
Explanation:
I. RAID 0, disk striping, is not fault tolerant.
II. RAID 1, disk mirroring, use only two disks.
III. RAID 5, disk striping with parity, uses one disk for parity. In this scenario it would leave 8 disks for
data. 56GB would be used for data.
IV. RAID 0/1 combines disk striping and disk mirroring. In this scenario each stripe in the mirror would
consists of three 9-GB drivers. Only 27GB of data could be stored in the mirror.
A new hardware RAID controller has been installed but is not recognized by the server BIOS. Which of
the following could be done to solve the problem?
I. Update the system firmware.
II. Update the RAID controller firmware.
III. Make the IRQ available.
IV. Install the Network OS driver.
A. I and II only.
B. III and IV only.
C. I, II, and III only.
D. I, II, III, and IV.
Answer: A
Explanation:
I. A BIOS upgrade might enable the BIOS to detect the RAID controller.
II. Updating RAID controller firmware could also enable the BIOS to detect the RAID controller..
III. An IRQ conflict would not prevent the system from detecting the device.
IV. The BIOS does not use Network OS drivers.
An operating system vendor has just released a new patch on its Website. Which of the following should
be done before installing the patch on the production server?
I. Read the manual that came with the system.
II. Test the patch on a test system.
III. Download the patch and install it on the system.
IV. Verify the system has the type of problem the patch fixes.
A. I and IV only.
B. II and III only.
C. II and IV only.
D. I, III, and IV only
Answer: C
Explanation:
I. We should read the documentation of the patch, but we do no review the manual of the system.
II. We should test the patch before putting it into a production environment.
III. We should not immediately download and install the patch.
IV. The patch might not apply to the needs of this particular server.
Which of the following is NOT a valid reason for documenting the network configuration?
A. Troubleshooting a network problem.
B. Allowing users to recheck network design.
C. Determining how network changes can be made.
D. Minimizing the learning curve for a new administrator.
Answer: B
Explanation: Users should not, in general, be allowed to check network design.
Network documentation would help in troubleshooting network problems, be an aide with network changes are
being planning, and it would also help a new administrator.
A customer company TestKing inc wishes to install the vendor-supplied system-monitoring agents for a
server. Which of the following protocols would most likely be a prerequisite for these agents?
A. SNMP
B. TFTP
C. SMTP
D. DTMF
Answer: A
Explanation: SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) is used for monitoring network traffic.
Specifically SNMP is used to manage system monitoring agents.
Incorrect Answers
B: Trivial File Transfer Protocol is used to transfer files.
C: Simple Mail Transfer Protocol is used is used to transfer e-mails.
D: DTMF (Dual-Tone Multi-Frequency) does not apply here.
Which of the following is the LEAST important consideration when baselining a server?
A. Disk I/O.
B. Server's role.
C. CPU utilization.
D. Memory utilization.
Answer: B
Explanation: A baseline is produced by monitoring the performance of the server. Disk I/O, CPU utilization,
and memory utilization data should be produced.
Which of the following configurations would provide the maximum data throughput to each device?
A. HVD (High Voltage Differential) and SE (Single Ended) devices on a separate bus.
B. LVD (Low Voltage Differential) and SE (Single Ended) devices on a separate bus.
C. HVD (High Voltage Differential) and SE (Single Ended) devices on the same bus.
D. UltraWide devices on a wide bus.
Answer: B
Explanation: LVD is compatible with SE devices. LVD doubles the throughput.
Incorrect Answers
A, C: HVD devices are not compatible with SE devices. HVD is mainly used for longer distances, up to 25
meters, in noisy environments.
D: Ultra Wide devices supports speeds up to 40MBps. A wide bus would restrict the speed to 10MBps
however.
A file server and monitor are connected to a fully charged UPS. UPS software was configured on the
server to systematically shut down after 20 minutes of power less. During a 60-minutes power outage, the
server and monitor both powered off after 35 minutes. Why did the server not systematically shut down?
A. The UPS was improperly sized for this configuration.
B. A standard RS232 cable was used to attach the UPS to the filer server.
C. The Network OS software did not contain the required service patches and upgrades.
D. The monitor's power cord was plugged into the back of the server.
The monitor experienced a power surge causing the server to reset.
Answer: C
Explanation: This seems to be a communication problem between the UPS and the server. It could be software
related.
Incorrect Answers
A: If the UPS was improperly sized and not have enough capacity it would shut down before the 20 minutes
interval.
B: Most UPS devices connect to the server through a serial cable. RS-232 is standard serial interface.
D: There server was shut down after 35 minutes. It should have been shut down within 20 minutes. Event
though you should not put the monitor in the UPS the monitor was not cause of this problem.
A server with two processors and six available DIMM memory slots requires additional RAM. Which of
the following is the proper procedure for adding additional RAM?
A. Add additional memory in DIMM slots 3 and 4.
B. Add additional memory in DIMM slots 7 and 8.
C. Place all the memory in the slots closest to the fastest processor.
D. Check server documentation for proper placement of additional memory.
Answer: D
Explanation: Some servers require the installation of two DIMMs at a time. Some support the installation of
one DIMM at a time. We should consult the server documanation.
A database server named TestKingDB is receiving a RAID controller upgrade. The new controller is
identical to the existing controller, except that it has a larger cache buffer with its own battery backup.
The network administrators report that they currently perform nightly differential backups of the
server.
Which of the following is NOT required before the RAID controller is upgraded?
A. Backup to tape.
B. Verify the backups.
C. Change cache policy.
D. Schedule server downtime.
Answer: C
Explanation: There is no such thing as cache policy as far as RAID controllers are concerned.
Incorrect Answers
A: We should let the backup process finish.
B: We should verify the validity of the backup before making a major change of the server. This would enable
us to revert to the previous state.
D: We must take the server down and should schedule the replacement at the next server downtime.
A company's file server currently uses an Ultra SCSI controller and Ultra SCSI hard disk drives. The
server hardware technician is instructed to improve performance with a new SCSI solution that provides
80 MB/sec transfer rate. Which type of SCSI solution best meets the requirement?
A. Upgrade the controller and drives to Ultra2 Wide.
B. Upgrade the controller to Ultra 160 and the drives to Wide SCSI.
C. Use the existing drives and upgrade the controller to Ultra2 Wide.
D. Use the existing controller and upgrade the existing drives to Ultra2 Wide.
Answer: A
Explanation: Ultra2 Wide supports speeds up to 80MBps.
Incorrect Answers
B: Wide SCSI supports speeds up to 10MBps
C: The drives would be bottlenecks since Ultra SCSI has a maximum speed of 20MBps.
D: The SCSI controllers would be bottlenecks since Ultra SCSI has a maximum speed of 20MBps.
An engineer at TestKing has installed an SMP-compliant Network OS on a dual-processor server. The
BIOS detects two processors, but only one processor is recognized by the Network OS. Which of the
following actions should be performed to enable the second processor?
A. Apply the latest Network OS patches.
B. Update the BIOS to the current version.
C. Configure the Network OS kernel for SMP support.
D. Update the stepping level on the second processor.
Answer: C
Explanation: The Network OS kernel must be configured for multiprocessor support. On Windows
2000/XP/.NET computers this is referred to as replacing the Hardware Abstraction Level (HAL).
Incorrect Answers
A: The OS has multiprocessor support since it is SMP-compliant.
B: The BIOS already detects both CPUs.
D: We don't need to configure the second processor.
After a memory upgrade, a critical sever is crashing due to single-bit memory errors. Which of the
following would correct this problem?
A. SDRAM
B. ECC memory.
C. EDO memory.
D. Fast Page Mode memory.
Answer: B
Explanation: ECC (error correction) memories are able to handle single bit errors.
Incorrect Answers
A, C: SDRAM or EDO in general have no way from recovering from errors.
D: Fast Page Mode memory is an old type of memory which has no particular advantages.
When a system monitoring agent upgrade is performed at TestKing inc, the following tasks should be
included in the checklist:
• Obtain the latest Network OS and driver updates.
• Review instructions and FAQs.
• Test and pilot the change.
Which of the following tasks should also be included in the above list?
A. Compare to the baseline.
B. Review the Network OS's HCL.
C. Inform network users of the change.
D. Review the README file on the Network OS's CD.
Answer: A
Explanation: We should check the baseline in order to see if the updated monitoring agent has any affect on
the performance of the system.
Incorrect Answers
B: We are doing a software upgrade so there would be no need to check the Hardware Compability List.
C: Users in general have no interest in network monitoring.
D: The README file on the Network OS's CD contains important information. However, we have reviewed
the instructions and the FAQs already so there would not be much use to check the README file on the OS
CD.
A server technician is upgrading the following components in a server:
Internal Devices:
• A video adapter.
• A network adapter.
External Devices:
• An external modem.
• An external tape backup unit.
When should the technician load drivers and test them?
A. After each device is installed.
B. After all devices are installed.
C. After all internal devices are installed, then again after all external devices are installed.
D. After the video adapter is installed, then install the remaining devices, load drivers and test again.
Answer: C
Explanation: We should start by installing the internal devices. We then verify that the internal device drivers
are ok. Then we install one external device one at a time and verify that it is functioning correctly before
installing the next device.
Due to the increasing number of users, a second NIC is installed in the server TestKingApp. When
TestKingApp is booted, the Network OS fails to load. TestKingApp is powered off, then restarted and the
Network OS loads, but the tape drive connected to its own SCSI adapter is not functioning.
The administrator performs a system shutdown, removes power from TestKingApp, then reseats all of
the PCI adapters installed, connects power, then restarts the TestKingApp. The network OS loads, the
tape driver works, but the server has no network connectivity.
Which of the following has the administrator failed to perform?
A. Check the HCL for the TestKingApp.
B. Verify sufficient IRQs exist.
C. Install the driver for the NIC.
D. Add memory to handle the workload.
Answer: B
Explanation: A hardware conflict has occurred. Hardware conflicts are usually IRQ conflicts; two devices try
to use the same IRQ. The administrator should have checked that availability of IRQs before installing the new
device.
Incorrect Answers
A: Apparently the device was working after the PCIs were reseated so it seems compatible with the OS.
C: A missing device driver for one device would not cause another device to malfunction.
D: The problem is not caused due to low memory.
In windows 98, you have installed a v90 modem. You check your dial up networking connection and find
you are connected at 115kbs. This figure has been read from?
A. Your ISP
B. Your modem
C. Your com port
D. Your CMOS
Answer: C