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CCNA Guide to Cisco Networking Review Questions Chapters 7-14

STUDY
PLAY
1) What is the administrative distance of RIP?

A) 100
B) 110
C) 120
D) 90
C. 120
2) Link-state routing protocols _________.
(Choose all that apply)

A) Use link-state advertisements to notify neighbor routers of route changes
B) Send routing tables to neighbors
C) Reach convergence faster than distance vector routing protocols
D) Determine the best path via the hop count algorithm
A. Use link-state advertisements to notify neighbor routers of route changes
C. Reach convergence faster than distance vector routing protocols.
3) RIP has a maximum hop count of ____.

A) 255
B) 16
C) 15
D) 254
C. 15
4) Which command enables RIP on a router.

A) router network RIP
B) router rip
C) router igrp
D) router ospf
B. router rip
5) Which command will show the IP routing table of a router?

A) show ip route
B) show ip protocol
C) debug ip igrp events
D) show run
A. show ip route
6) Nonroutable protocols are able to pass packets among multiple networks?

A) True
B) False
B. False
7) IGRP can use which of the following as metrics? (Choose all that apply)

A) Hop count
B) Bandwidth
C) Delay
D) Split horizon
A) Hop count
B) Bandwidth
C) Delay
8) Which of the following is a routed protocol?
(Choose all that apply)

A) NetBEUI
B) TCP/IP
C) IPX/SPX
D) RIP
E) Split horizon
B) TCP/IP
C) IPX/SPX
9) Which of the following helps to prevent routing loops?
(Choose all that apply)

A) Split horizon
B) Count-to-infinity
C) Hold-down timers
D) Split horizon with poison reverse
A) Split horizon
C) Hold-down timers
D) Split horizon with poison reverse
10) At which router prompt can you use the router rip command?

A) RouterB#
B) RouterB>
C) RouterB(config)#
D) RouterB(config-router)#
C) RouterB(config)#
11) At which router prompt can you issue the network [network #] command?

A) RouterB#
B) RouterB>
C) RouterB(config)#
D) RouterB(config-router)#
D) RouterB(config-router)#
12) The debug ip rip command can be used in user mode and privilege mode.

A) True
B) False
B. False
13) Which of the following routing protocols can route between autonomous systems?
(Choose all that apply)

A) IGRP
B) RIP
C) BGP
D) EGP
C) BGP
D) EGP
14) What type of routing protocol is used within autonomous systems?

A) Exterior Gateway Protocols
B) TCP/IP
C) NetBEUI
D) Interior Gateway Protocol
D. Interior Gateway Protocol
15) RIP and IGRP both advertise a route to a particular network. Which route will be added to the routing table?

A) The RIP route
B) The IGRP route
C) NetBEUI
D) BGP-enhanced IGRP
B. The IGRP route
16) What command is used to display RIP timers?

A) show ip route
B) show run
C) debug ip rip
D) show ip protocol
D. show ip protocol
17) What two commands are needed to configure RIP on a router?
(Choose all that apply)

A) network rip
B) router rip
C) router network rip
D) network [network #]
B) router rip
D) network [network #]
18) A metric is a variable used to determine the suitability of a route.

A) True
B) False
A. True
19) A major drawback of link-state routing protocols is:

A) Routing by rumor
B) Increased memory and processing required on routers
C) Show time to convergence
D) Inability to adapt to network topology changes
B. Increased memory and processing required on routers
20) Which of the following commands would enable a routing protocol that is only concerned with hop count?

A) router# router igrp
B) router(config)# router igrp
C) router# router rip
D) router(config)# router rip
E) router# router ospf
D. router(config)# router rip
21) Which of the following are true about administrative distance?
(Choose all that apply)

A) The higher the administrative distance, the more desirable the route
B) Administrative distances are used with static routes
C) The default administrative distance for RIP is 120
D) The default administrative distance for static routes is higher than those for dynamic routes.
E) The default administrative distance for a connected network is lower that for the default route of IGRP
B) Administrative distances are used with static routes
C) The default administrative distance for RIP is 120
E) The default administrative distance for a connected network is lower that for the default route of IGRP
22) What does the number 240 stand for in the following command?

Router(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 240

A) Number of masked bits
B) Decimal subnet mask
C) Number of hops
D) Administrative distance
E) Autonomous network number
D. Administrative distance
23) If you want to monitor real-time RIP traffic, which command would you type?

A) router> router rip
B) router# router rip
C) router# show rip
D) router(config)# show rip
E) router# debug ip rip
E. router# debug ip rip
24) Which of the following does RIP support?
(Choose all that apply)

A) Load balancing
B) Link reliability metric
C) Bandwidth metric
D) Delay metric
A. Load balancing
1) What command injects a default route into an OSPF network?

A) Passive-interface
B) Loopback default
C) Router ospf
D) Default-information originate
Default-information originate
2) Classless routing protocols carry subnet mask information in their routing table updates?

A) True
B) False
True
3) The process ID must match on all routers in an OSPF network?

A) True
B) False
False
4) What command switches RIP to version 2?

A) router rip 2
B) version 2
C) rip version 2
D) ripV2 on
version 2
5) What command turns off automatic summarization to major network boundaries in both RIPv2 and EIGRP?

A) summarization off
B) no summary
C) no auto-summary
D) no ip classless
no auto-summary
6) In what state are OSPF neighbors, when bidirectional communication has been established and adjacencies have been formed?

A) Passive
B) Up
C) DR
D) FULL
FULL
7) Which type of authentication sends only a hash across the link between two authenticating peers?

A) MD5
B) Clear text
C) Signed secret keys
D) Shared keys
MD5
8) What command places the 192.168.12.32/27 network into OSPF area 0?

A) Network 192.168.12.0 area 0
B) Network 192.168.12.32 area 0
C) Network 192.168.12.32 255.255.255.225 area 0
D) Network 192.168.12.32 0.0.0.31 area 0
Network 192.168.12.32 0.0.0.31 area 0
9) EIGRP uses the same metric as IGRP multiplied by________.
256
10) What feature of OSPF allows it to use a hierarchical design?

A) Areas
B) Auto summarization
C) Wildcard masks
D) Neighbors adjacencies
Areas
11) Cisco routers can be configured to send and receive RIPv1 updates on a per-interface basis.

A) True
B) False
True
12) What protocol is used by RIGRP to transport its routing protocol information?

A) TCP
B) UDP
C) RTP
D) DR/BDR
RTP
13) Which of the following commands enables EIGRP on a router with an autonomous system number of 101?

A) Router EIGRP
B) Router EIGRP 101
C) Router 101 EIGRP
D) As 101
Router EIGRP 101
14) What algorithm is used by OSPF for path selection?

A) DUAL
B) Open Path First
C) Shortest Path First
D) Default-information Originate
Shortest Path First
15) A backup route in EIGRP is a(n)? ______
Feasible Successor
16) OSPF timers must match for neighbors to from adjacencies.

A) True
B) False
True
17) EIGRP timers must match for neighbors to form adjacencies.

A) True
B) False
False
18) Which of the following commands would ensure that a router becomes the DR on a broadcast, multi-access network?

A) IP OSPF priority 256
B) IP OSPF DR on
C) IP OSPF priority 0
D) None of the above
None of the above
19) What command displays the successors and feasible successors for EIGRP?

A) Show IP route
B) Show IP EIGRP topology
C) Show IP OSPF topology
D) Show IP topology
Show IP EIGRP topology
20) What command displays area authentication information?

A) show ip route
B) show ip ospf
C) show ip ospf authentication
D) show authentication
show ip ospf
21) The OSPF priority range assigned to a router is _____.
D255
22) Clear text is the most secure authentication supported by OSPF.

A) True
B) False
False
23) Which of the following is used by EIGRP for path determination?

A) DUAL
B) Dijkstra's Shortest Path First Algorithm
C) Wildcard masks
D) Priority
A) DUAL
24) What is the default OSPF cost for FastEthernet (assuming the default reference bandwidth)?

A) 40
B) 255
C) 0
D) 1
1
1) What is used on routers to hide intranet addresses from the Internet?

A) PAP
B) CHAP
C) NAT
D) FRAT
NAT
2) Which flavor of NAT maps multiple internal IP addresses to a single external IP address?

A) PAP
B) CHAP
C) NAT
D) PAT
PAT
3) How does overlapping occur?

A) The network administrator does not plan for internet connectivity
B) The network administrator uses registered IP addresses without getting permission
C) Both a and b
D) None of the above
C) Both a and b
4) When would it be most appropriate to configure static NAT?

A) When you want to guarantee that a particular device is always associated with the same public IP address
B) When you do not care what public IP address is used by a device
C) When the inside-to-outside IP address mapping is not important
D) When you want every inside IP address to translate to a single public IP address
When you want to guarantee that a particular device is always associated with the same public IP address
5) What is the purpose of the ip nat inside command?

A) To tell the router to use static NAT
B) To tell the router to use dynamic NAT
C) To tell the router to enter NAT configuration mode
D) To tell the router that the current interface is the be considered the inside interface
To tell the router that the current interface is the be considered the inside interface
6) The DNS service is required in order to browse the web.

A) True
B) False
False
7) Which of the following commands statically maps a name to an IP address?

A) ip name-server
B) ip host
C) ip address
D) ip name
ip host
8) Which of the following commands disables the default DNS lookup function on a Cisco router?

A) no ip domain-lookup
B) no lookup
C) no ip-lookup
D) no ip domain-name lookup
no ip domain-lookup
9) Which of the following commands directs the router to a DNS server for IP-to-name resolution?

A) ip host
B) ip address
C) ip name
D) ip name-server
ip name-server
10) If you have disabled the lookup function on your Cisco router, you will have to re-enable it if you want to use a DNS server to resolve names on your router.

A) True
B) False
True
11) Which of the following is not a DHCP packet type?

A) DHCP OFFER
B) DHCP SYN
C) DHCP REQUEST
D) DHCP ACK
E) DHCP DISCOVER
DHCP SYN
12) What is the purpose of the service dhcp command?

A) Starts monitoring the DHCP service
B) Turns off DHCP debugging
C) Enables DHCP
D) Disables DHCP
Enables DHCP
13) Where is the DHCP database typically stored?

A) On the router
B) On the server
C) On a CD or DVD
D) The database is not stored
On the server
14) Which of the following are optional when configuring your router to be a DHCP server?

A) Default gateway
B) IP address
C) Subnet mask
D) DNS server address
E) WINS server address
F) Domain name
A) Default gateway
D) DNS server address
E) WINS server address
F) Domain name
15) Which of the following monitoring commands displays any IP addresses leased by the DHCP server and the corresponding MAC address of the host?

A) show ip dhcp pool
B) show dhcp
C) show ip dhcp binding
D) show binding
show ip dhcp binding
16) Which of the following monitoring commands displays DHCP pool specific information?

A) show ip dhcp pool
B) show dhcp
C) show ip dhcp binding
D) show binding
show ip dhcp pool
17) Cisco's SDM can be used to configure network services such as DNS and DHCP.

A) True
B) False
True
18) What is the difference between configuring dynamic NAT and PAT on a cisco router using the SDM?

A) The access list that defines the inside addresses will be different
B) You will select overload instead of dynamic in the Add Address Translation Rule dialog box
C) The direction selected for PAT will be from outside to inside rather than from inside to outside
D) You will translate to an interface rather than to a pool of addresses
You will translate to an interface rather than to a pool of addresses
19) It is easier to configure a pointer to a DNS server using the command-line interface rather than the SDM.

A) True
B) False
True
20) What is another name for a wildcard mask?

A) Inverse mask
B) Obtuse mask
C) Backwards mask
D) Flip mask
Inverse mask
1) Which wildcard mask would apply an access list line to all packets from network 172.25.0.0?

A) 255.255.255.0
B) 255.255.0.0
C) 255.254.0.0
D) 0.0.255.255
0.0.255.255
2) Standard IP access lists filter traffic based on which of the following?
(Choose all that apply)

A) Destination IP address
B) IP protocol
C) Port number
D) Source IP address
Source IP address
3) Wildcard masks use a __________ to signify which bits of an address are significant.
Zero
4) Which command shows only the IP access lists on a router?

A) show access-lists
B) show ipx access-lists
C) show ip access-lists
D) show interface
show ip access-lists
5) Which commands allow you to view the interfaces that have IP access lists applied to them?

A) show interfaces
B) show ip interface
C) show ip traffic
D) show ip conters
show ip interface
6) Which host and wildcard mask pair does the any keyword represent?

A) 255.255.255.255 0.0.0.0
B) 0.0.255.255 0.0.0.0
C) 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0
D) 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255
0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255
7) Which command is used to apply an IP access list to an interface?

A) ip access-group [list #] [in | out]
B) ip access-group permit 100
C) ip access-group [list #] [permit | deny]
D) show ip interface
ip access-group [list #] [in | out]
8) Access lists are .
(Choose all that apply.)

A) Used to filter traffic and control network security
B) Applied as either inbound or outbound filters
C) Sequential permit or deny statements
D) Built into the routers firmware
A) Used to filter traffic and control network security
B) Applied as either inbound or outbound filters
C) Sequential permit or deny statements
9) Standard IP access lists are represented by the number range.

A) 100 - 199
B) 1 - 99
C) 1000 - 1099
D) 200 - 299
1 - 99
12) The show access-lists command displays .

A) Access lists applied to interfaces
B) All access lists on the routers
C) Only IP access lists on the router
D) Only IPX access lists on the router
All access lists on the routers
13) At which of the following prompts would you create an access list?

A) routerC#
B) routerC>
C) routerC (config-if) #
D) routerC (config)
routerC (config)
14) At which of the following prompts would you apply an access list to an interface?

A) routerC#
B) routerC>
C) routerC (config-if) #
D) routerC (config)
routerC (config-if) #
15) Which of the following host and corresponding wildcard mask pairs represent the same value as host 172.29.2.2

A) 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255
B) 172.29.2.2 0.0.0.0
C) 255.255.255.255 0.0.0.0
D) 0.0.0.0 172.29.2.2
172.29.2.2 0.0.0.0
16) A router can have one access list per protocol, per direction on each interface.

A) True
B) False
True
17) Which of the following is a benefit of using named lists?

A) The syntax is identical to using numbered lists
B) Fewer lists are allowed, so it is easier to remember them
C) You are not constrained by the 100 lists per filter type limit
D) Using named lists offers no benefits
You are not constrained by the 100 lists per filter type limit
18) What happens if a list is applied to an interface and then the list itself is removed?

A) The commands will be executed and all traffic will be denied
B) The commands will be executed and all traffic will be permitted
C) The commands will not be executed and all traffic will be permitted
D) None of the above.
The commands will be executed and all traffic will be permitted
19) What is true of the host keyword?
(Choose all that apply)

A) It can only be used with extended IP lists
B) It can be used with standard and extended IP lists.
C) It replaces the 0.0.0.255 wildcard mask
D) It replaces the 0.0.0.0 wildcard mask
E) It is placed before the IP address with which it is associated
F) It is placed after the IP address with which it is associated
B) It can be used with standard and extended IP lists.
D) It replaces the 0.0.0.0 wildcard mask
E) It is placed before the IP address with which it is associated
20) What is the purpose of the "established" parameter?

A) To establish a connection between the sender and receiver
B) To prevent any traffic into a network
C) To prevent any traffic into a network that did not originate from that network
D) To permit all TCP traffic but not IP traffic into the established network
To prevent any traffic into a network that did not originate from that network
21) All access lists presented in this chapter, except standard IP lists, should be placed where?

A) As close to the source as possible
B) As close to the destination as possible
C) As close to the serial interface as possible
D) As close to the tftp server as possible
As close to the source as possible
22) Which command links an access list to the VTY lines?

A) ip access-group
B) ip access-class
C) vty access-class
D) access-class
access-class
23) Which SDM wizard allows you to configure a DMZ?

A) Firewall configuration wizard
B) Security configuration wizard
C) Basic firewall wizard
D) Advanced firewall wizard
Advanced firewall wizard
24) List the three Basic Firewall security settings.

A) 1st
B) 2nd
C) 3rd
A) High
B) Medium
C) Low
25) The SDM cannot be used to create complex access control lists.

A) True
B) False
False
1) If you want to use CHAP authentication, which protocol would you employ?

A) Multilink
B) PAP
C) Frame Relay
D) PPP relay
PPP relay
2) What is the default encapsulation type on serial interfaces of Cisco routers?

A) PPP
B) HDLC
C) SDLC
D) Frame Relay
HDLC
3) Which of the following is an NCP?
(Choose all that apply)

A) IPXCP
B) HDLC
C) SDLC
D) ATCP
E) IPCP
A) IPXCP
D) ATCP
E) IPCP
4) PPP was derived from ________.

A) Frame Relay
B) HDLC
C) RBOC
D) ISDN
HDLC
5) What is a common reason for looping an interface?

A) To achieve greater bandwidth
B) To drop nonessential frames
C) To increase packet size
D) testing
testing
6) Which of the following is a unique number that helps devices discover looped interfaces?

A) MAC
B) LCP
C) Magic number
D) Bandwidth
Magic number
7) Which of the following employs the strongest encryption technique?

A) Plain text
B) PAP
C) CHAP
D) Clear text
CHAP
8) If you want your router to use CHAP and then PAP authentication, which of the following commands would be correct?

A) router>ppp au chap pap
B) router# ppp authentication chap pap
C) router(config-if) #ppp au pap chap
D) router (config-if) #ppp au chap pap
E) router(config) # ppp authentication chap pap
router (config-if) #ppp au chap pap
9) Which WAN protocol did PPP replace?

A) HDLC
B) SDLC
C) SLIP
D) APD
SLIP
10) Which protocol is used to automatically build the Frame Relay map along with LMI?

A) ARP
B) RARP
C) Inverse ARP
D) DLCI
Inverse ARP
11) To make DLCI number globally significant, LMI causes routers to issue that advertise the DLCI numbers.

A) unicasts
B) keepalives
C) broadcasts
D) multicasts
broadcasts
12) When negotiating a data transfer rate for Frame Relay with a telecommunications provider, the rate agreed upon is the

A) Keepalive rate
B) CIR
C) EBS
D) DDR
CIR
13) The address portion of the Frame Relay frame contains which of the following pieces of information?
(Choose all that apply)

A) DLCI
B) FECN
C) Flag
D) BECN
E) FCS
A) DLCI
B) FECN
14) The line speed of a frame relay connection is known as the _______.

A) Access rate
B) CBS
C) EBS
D) CIR
Access rate
15) ______ Numbers are locally significant in Frame Relay connections and are used to identify specific virtual circuits.

A) DLCI
B) PDN
C) ARP
D) LMI
DLCI
16) To prevent routing loops, Frame Relay uses _________.

A) Loopback attack
B) Split horizon
C) Event horizon
D) DLCI numbers
Split horizon
17) Frame relay is more efficient than older WAN encapsulation methods because error correction is handled by ________ Frame Relay communications.

A) Lower layers
B) DLCI
C) LMI
D) Upper layers
Upper layers
18) Frame relay uses ______ to combine multiple data streams on one connection.

A) Duplexing
B) Simplexing
C) Multiplexing
D) Encoding
Multiplexing
19) What is the purpose of keepalive packets?

A) To reduce data transfer rates
B) To keep PVCs active
C) To increase data transfer rates
D) To negotiate connection speed
To keep PVCs active
20) Which of the following layers do WAN specifications typically define?
(Choose all that apply)

A) Physical
B) Data Link
C) Network
D) Transport
E) Presentation
A) Physical
B) Data Link
21) In frame Relay, what would be considered the DCE?

A) Customer's router
B) Terminal adapter
C) PPP
D) Frame Relay Switch
Frame Relay Switch
22) What was formerly CITT?

A) ASCII
B) ANSI
C) ITU-T
D) EBCDIC
ITU-T
23) What is another term used to describe a Frame Relay switch?

A) FRND
B) FRAD
C) PDN
D) PSTN
FRAD
24) Which of the following would be a subinterface for Serial 1/0?

A) S0/0.1
B) S0/0.2
C) S0/1.2
D) S0/2.1
S0/1.2
25) What does LMI stand for?

A) Logical Management Interface
B) Local Management Interface
C) Logical Maintenance Interconnect
D) Logical Maintenance Interface
Local Management Interface
26) What are the three possible connection states for a DLCI?
(Choose all that apply)

A) Interactive
B) Active
C) Inactive
D) Disconnected
E) Deleted
A) Interactive
B) Active
E) Deleted
27) Which of the following does not allow broadcasts to be sent to multiple destinations through a single interface?

A) LMI
B) Subinterfaces
C) LCP
D) MBA
E) NBMA
Subinterfaces
28) Which of the following is a type of virtual circuit? (Choose all that apply)

A) MVC
B) PVC
C) SVC
D) QVC
PVC
29) Which of the following are LMI encapsulation types supported by Cisco routers? (Choose all that apply)

A) LMI 2
B) Cisco
C) Ansi
D) v923i
E) q933a
B) Cisco
C) Ansi
E) q933a
30) Which of the following is the default LMI encapsulation type for a Cisco router?

A) LMI 2
B) Cisco
C) Ansi
D) v923i
E) q933a
Cisco
31) What does the router (config-if)#encap fr command do?

A) Sets the enable mode prompt to fr
B) Enables Frame Relay on the first serial interface
C) Sets the encapsulation to Frame Relay
D) Sets the language to French
Sets the encapsulation to Frame Relay
32) Which of the following command would show statistics for a virtual circuit?

A) router>sh frame map
B) router#sh frame map
C) router#sh frame pvc
D) router(config-if) #sh frame pvc
router#sh frame pvc
33) What Frame Relay encapsulation must be configured on Cisco routers that are attached to non-Cisco routers?

A) ietf
B) cisco
C) ansi
D) q933a
ietf
34) How often are Frame Relay keepalive packets sent by default?

A) every 30 seconds
B) every 10 seconds
C) once every hour on the half-hour
D) once every hour on the hour
E) once every 30 minutes
every 10 seconds
1) What does a switch build into its table to successfully send data to that device?

A) Routing address
B) IP address
C) Bridge address
D) MAC address
MAC address
2) Which of the following types of switching methods reads the first 64 bytes of a frame before forwarding it?

A) Store and forward
B) Cut through
C) Fragment free
D) Adaptive
Fragment free
4) Which devices look at a MAC address when making their forwarding decision? (Choose all that apply)

A) Switch
B) Repeater
C) Bridge
D) Router
Switch
5) Which of the following network media provides the lowest latency?

A) STP
B) Category 3 UTP
C) Category 4 UTP
D) Category 5 UTP
E) Fiber-optic cable
Fiber-optic cable
6) Which of the following correctly describes microsegmentation?

A) Creating additional segments with passive hubs
B) Creating additional segments with routers
C) Creating additional segments wit fewer users per segment via layer 2
D) Limiting network segments to no more than 10 users
Creating additional segments wit fewer users per segment via layer 2
7) Which of the following Ethernet error describes a packet that has a bad FCS and is over 1518 bytes?
A) Runt
B) Short
C) Jabber
D) Bad FCS frame
Jabber
8) When two Ethernet stations are able to send more than 64 bytes of their data frames before detecting a collision, this is called a.

A) Jabber
B) Jam signal
C) Slot time
D) Late collision
Late collision
9) The minimum size of an Ethernet Frame should be bytes.

A) 32
B) 64
C) 512
D) 1518
64
10) Collisions and Ethernet errors typically occur with the first bytes of an Ethernet frame, which is why fragment-free switching catches most Ethernet errors.
A) 64
B) 512
C) 1024
D) 1518
A) 64
11) Which of the following describes a method of Ethernet networking that does not have collisions?

A) Fast Ethernet
B) 100-Mbps Ethernet
C) Full-duplex Ethernet
D) Half-duplex Ethernet
C) Full-duplex Ethernet
12) Which of the following switching types has the highest latency?
A) Store-and-forward
B) Cut-through
C) Adaptive
D) Fragment-free
Store-and-forward
13) If a broadcast from one computer causes multiple stations to respond with additional broadcast traffic, and the level of broadcast traffic goes above 126 broadcasts per second, the situation is deemed a(n) ___________________.

A) Broadcast storms
B) Transmission overload
C) Excessive burst
D) Jabber
A) Broadcast storms
14) Which of the following fall under the heading of Fast Ethernet?
(Choose all that apply)

A) 10BaseT
B) 100BaseT
C) 10BaseF
D) 100Base-TX
E) 100Base-T4
B) 100BaseT
D) 100Base-TX
E) 100Base-T4
15) Which IEEE standard governs Fast Ethernet?

A) 802.3a
B) 802.3u
C) 802.3g
D) 802.3b
802.3u
16) Which of the following can divide a collision domain?
(Choose all that apply)

A) Switch
B) Bridge
C) Router
D) Hub
A) Switch
B) Bridge
C) Router
17) Which of the following allows you to limit the number of MAC addresses learned by a switch port?

A) max switchport port-security 10
B) switchport port-security maximum 10
C) switch port-security maximum 10
D) switchport security maximum 10
B) switchport port-security maximum 10
18) What benefits would your network have by replacing all 10Mbps hubs with 10Mbps Catalyst switches?
(Choose all that apply)

A) Increase the number of broadcast domains
B) Decrease the number of broadcast domains
C) Increase the number of collision domains
D) Decrease the number of collision domains
E) Increase the bandwidth between stations that are directly connected to the switch
F) Allow for full-duplex operations between nodes directly connected to the switch.
C) Increase the number of collision domains
E) Increase the bandwidth between stations that are directly connected to the switch
F) Allow for full-duplex operations between nodes directly connected to the switch
19) Which statements are true about half-duplex Ethernet?

A) In half-duplex mode, CSMA/CD is turned on
B) In half-duplex mode, CSMA/CD is turned off
C) On a 10Mbps link, communicating nodes would have 10Mbps of bandwidth available to them
D) Half-duplex transmission is mandatory if nodes are directly connected to a hub that is connected to a switch
E) Half-duplex transmission is mandatory if nodes are directly connected to a switch
F) Because separate circuits are used by communicating end nodes in half-duplex, collisions will not occur
A) In half-duplex mode, CSMA/CD is turned on
D) Half-duplex transmission is mandatory if nodes are directly connected to a hub that is connected to a switch
20) Which statement is true about store and forward switching?
(Choose all that apply)

A) Only the header of a frame is read before the switch forwards the frame
B) The switch stores the frame and calculates the CRC before forwarding the frame
C) Both latency and error rates are decreased
D) Both latency and error rates are increased
E) Latency is increased while error rate is decreased
B) The switch stores the frame and calculates the CRC before forwarding the frame.
E) Latency is increased while error rate is decreased.
21) When collisions are above 5% you should consider:

A) Segmenting the LAN
B) Increasing traffic on the LAN
C) Monitoring traffic on the LAN
D) Adding hubs to the LAN
Segmenting the LAN
22) Which of the following advantages can Cisco switches can provide over hubs? (Choose all that apply)
A) Increase the number of collision domains
B) Increased bandwidth for individual users
C) Reduced latency
D) Concurrent frame forwarding
A) Increase the number of collision domains
B) Increased bandwidth for individual users
D) Concurrent frame forwarding
23) Which of the following are true of half-duplex operation on a CSMA/CD network?
(Choose all that apply)

A) The transmitting NIC loops back its transmission.
B) The NIC listens to the media before transmitting
C) The transmitting NIC compares the original frame with the looped-back frame to determine whether there was a collision
D) Collisions are not possible in a half-duplex Ethernet
A) The transmitting NIC loops back its transmission.
B) The NIC listens to the media before transmitting
C) The transmitting NIC compares the original frame with the looped-back frame to determine whether there was a collision
24) The switching method begins forwarding the incoming frame immediately after reading the destination address.

A) Cut-through
B) Store and forward
C) Adaptive
D) Fragment free
Cut-through
25) What command is used to set a port on a switch to full-duplex mode?

A) mode full-duplex
B) duplex full
C) switch full
D) port full
duplex full
1) The IEEE standard 802.1q recommends which type of VLAN identification method?

A) Frame filtering
B) Frame tagging
C) Frame segmenting
D) Frame sequencing
Frame tagging
2) What are the five STP port states?
(Choose all that apply)

A) Learning
B) Listener
C) Disabled
D) Forwarding
E) Listening
F) Forwarder
G) Blocking
A) Learning
B) Listener
C) Disabled
D) Forwarding
E) Listening
G) Blocking
3) By default, implementing a switched network increases the number of collision domains. Which switching technology allows for a decrease in the size of broadcast domains?

A) Spanning Tree Protocol
B) Filtering and forwarding
C) Virtual LANs
D) VTP Pruning
Virtual LANs
4) For what was the Spanning Tree Protocol created?

A) Prevent bridges from forwarding information out of ports that received the information
B) Prevent routing loops in a routed internetwork
C) Avoid loops in a bridged network with redundant paths
D) Assist in the depletion of IP addresses
Avoid loops in a bridged network with redundant paths
5) Which of the following are reasons that a bridge port would be placed in the forwarding state?
(Choose all that apply)

A) The port is on the root bridge
B) The port is connected to multiple bridges
C) The port is the root port
D) The port is not working
A) The port is on the root bridge.
C) The port is the root port.
6) In what three VTP modes can a switch be set?

A) Server, client, virtual
B) Server, host, transparent
C) Server, host, volatile
D) Server, client, transparent
Server, client, transparent
7) Which statements are true about VTP pruning?

A) It is enabled by default
B) It is disabled by default
C) It is used to allow two spanning-trees to work simultaneously on the same segment of wire
D) It increases the available bandwidth
E) It increases the amount of needless traffic on a network.
B) It is disabled by default
C) It is used to allow two
spanning-trees to work simultaneously on the same segment of wire
D) It increases the available bandwidth
8) For a VLAN to span two or more switches, what must be configured?

A) a switches duplex feature
B) a VTP management domain
C) a VPMs
D) a trunk connection
a trunk connection
9) After entering the interface configuration mode for a port on a 2950 switch, which command would assign the port to VLAN 10?

A) vlan-membership static 10
B) switchport access vlan 10
C) vlan static 10
D) vlan 10 static-membership
switchport access vlan 10
10) Which of the following allows you to reorganize broadcast domains no matter what the physical configuration dictates?

A) router
B) VLAN
C) Bridge
D) Switch
B) VLAN
11) If you attach a hub with five stations to a switch port that is configured for VLANs, in how many different VLANs will the devices on the hubs be located?
A) five
B) three
C) two
D) one
D) one
12) Which of the following are advantages to VLANs? (Choose all that apply)

A) VLANs make relocating devices easier
B) Separate VLANs do not require routers
C) VLANs increase effective bandwidth utilization
D) VLANs restructure broadcast domains
A) VLANs make relocating devices easier
C) VLANs increase effective bandwidth utilization
D) VLANs restructure broadcast domains
13) Which of the following is a security benefit that routers provide on VLANs?

A) dividing broadcast domains
B) dividing collision domains
C) allowing for the creation of access lists
D) bridging IP to IPX layer 3 protocol gap
allowing for the creation of access lists
14) Which of the following are VTP modes of operation? (Choose all that apply)
A) client
B) server
C) transparent
D) blocking
A) client
B) server
C) transparent
15) Which command would delete the VLAN database on a switch?

A) delete vlan.dat
B) delete flash:vlan.dat
C) erase flash:vlan.dat
D) erase vlan.dat
delete flash:vlan.dat
16) Which command allows you to create a VTP domain named XYZDOM?

A) VTP XYZDOM Domain
B) Domain VTP XYZDOM
C) VTP Domain XYZDOM
D) Domain XYZDOM VTP
VTP Domain XYZDOM
17) Which statement is true about PortFast?

A) PortFast is used when you need to delay the amount of time it takes for a port to transition to the forwarding state.
B) PortFast is available on Cisco routers only
C) PortFast prevents a port from entering the forwarding state
D) PortFast allows a switch port to move to the forwarding state quicker
PortFast allows a switch port to move to the forwarding state quicker
18) Which command allows you to create VLAN 2 and name it AccountingVLAN?

A) Switch (config-vlan) #Vlan 2 name AccountingVlan
B) Switch (vlan) #Vlan 2 name AccountingVlan
C) Switch (config) #Vlan 2 name AccountingVlan
D) Switch(vlan-config) #Vlan 2 name AccountingVlan
B) Switch (vlan) #Vlan 2 name AccountingVlan
C) Switch (config) #Vlan 2 name AccountingVlan
19) Which command allows you to add ports to VLANs?

A) Switchport mode access
B) Switchport access mode
C) Access mode switchport
D) Mode switchport access
A) Switchport mode access
20) Which command allows you to give a description to a port on a switch?

A) Name
B) Information
C) Description
D) Named port
Named port
21) Which command allows you to give a description to a port on a switch?

A) Name
B) Information
C) Description
D) Named port
Description
22) Which command allows you to see the spanning-tree configuration for VLAN 3 only?

A) Switch (config) #show spanning-tree
B) Switch#show spanning-tree vlan 3
C) Switch (config) #show spanning-tree vlan 3
D) Switch#show spanning tree vlan 3
Switch#show spanning-tree vlan 3
23) Which VLAN is the default VLAN for a switch?

A) VLAN A
B) VLAN 1
C) VLAN 10
D) VLAN 100
VLAN 1
24) What is the default STP priority for a switch on a network?

A) 32768
B) 32769
C) 8192
D) 4096
32768
25) Which command would set VLAN 1 with a priority of 4096?

A) Spanning-tree vlan 1 priority 4096
B) Spanning-tree priority vlan 14096
C) Spanning-tree priority 4096 vlan 1
D) Spanning-tree priority 1
Spanning-tree priority vlan 14096
_____ networks have computers that are servers and computers that act as clients to those servers.

a. EMI
b. Peer-to-peer
c. Peer-to-node
d. Client/server
Client/Server
A _____ spans multiple geographic areas and is usually connected by common telecommunication carriers.

a. LAN
b. SAN
c. WAN
d. MAN
WAN
The term _____ refers to a series of storage devices, such as tapes, hard drives, & CDs, that are networked together to provide very fast data storage for a network or subnetwork.

a. MAN
b. WAN
c. SAN
d. LAN
SAN
The part of the company's network that allows access to employees is called the ____, which is completely separate from the Internet.

a. intranet
b. LAN
c. SAN
d. extranet
intranet
The OSI model _____ layer defines the mechanical, electrical, & procedural events occur during the physical transmission of electronic signals on the wire.

a. Physical
b. Transport
c. Data Link
d. Network
Physical
The _____ sublayer of the Data Link layer defines how data is packaged for the network.

a. MAC
b. RPC
c. CRC
d. LLC
LLC
A(n) _____ address is a 48-bit address represented as a 12-digit hexadecimal number given to each network card during production.

a. CRC
b. RPC
c. LLC
d. MAC
MAC
The protocols at the Network Layer allow computer to route packets to remote networks using a _____ address.

a. burned in
b. BIA
c. logical
d. physical
Logical
_____ protocols, such as User Datagram Protocol (UDP), do not require an ACK.

a. Presentation-layer
b. Connection-oriented
c. Connectionless
d. Network-layer
Connectionless
Each layer in a protocol stack may add a(n) _____ to the data as it is passed down the layers.

a. PDU
b. MTU
c. CRC
d. LLC
Protocol Data Unit (PDU)
On analog networks, devices that boost the signal are called _____.

a. routers
b. amplifiers
c. hubs
d. repeaters
Amplifiers
If a single access point is available in infrastructure mode, then the mode is said to be a(n) _____.

a. Virtual Service Set (VSS)
b. Extended Service Set (ESS)
c. Basic Service Set (BSS)
d. Logical Service Set (LSS)
Basic Service Set (BSS)
A _____ filters traffic between network segments by examining the destination MAC address.

a. hub
b. repeater
c. router
d. bridge
Bridge
Switches filter based on _____ addresses.

a. logical
b. IP
c. MAC
d. TCP/IP
MAC
Routers operate at the _____ layer of the OSI model.

a. Network
b. Transport
c. Data Link
d. Physical
Network
_____ are commonly used to connect networks to the Internet.

a. Bridges
b. Switches
c. Routers
d. Hubs
Routers
A(n) _____ is usually a combination of hardware & software. Its purpose is to translate between different protocol suites.

a. amplifier
b. gateway
c. hub
d. router
Gateway
_____ is a network access method (or media access method) originated by the University of Hawaii.

a. FDDI
b. AppleTalk
c. Ethernet
d. Token Ring
Ethernet
A _____ is the physical area in which a frame collision might occur.

a. signal domain
b. jam area
c. jam domain
d. collision domain
Collision domain
Fast Ethernet is defined under the IEEE _____ standard.

a. 802.3b
b. 802.3f
c. 802.3u
d. 802.3z
802.3u
In _____ communication, devices can send and receive signals simultaneously.

a. full-duplex
b. mutx
c. half-duplex
d. single-duplex
Full-duplex
The term that describes all the physical components of a network.
Networking hardware
A defined method for communicating between systems.
Protocol
A wireless transmission media.
Infrared
Devices that boost the network signal.
Repeaters
Allows communication, security, & distribution of data, files, & applications over a network.
Network Operating system (NOS)
Frequently caused by nearby motors or fluorescent lighting.
ElectroMagnetic Interference (EMI)
The programs used to run a network.
Networking software
When every computer on a network acts as both a client and a server.
Peer-to-peer network
Developed as an industry standard for companies to use when developing network hardware and software to ensure complete compatibility.
OSI model
A group of network devices that will receive LAN broadcast traffic from each other.
Broadcast domain
A generic connection device used to tie several networking cable together to create a link between different stations on a network.
Hub
Preventing communications between just two computers from being by computer on the broadcast to every computer on the network or segment.
Microsegmentation
When two or more stations in the transmission of excessive broadcast traffic.
Broadcast storm
Networks connected by multiple routers.
Internetworks
A part of a network that is divided logically or physically from the rest of the network.
Segment
Wireless network name.
Service Set Identifier (SSID)
A frame destined for all computers on the network.
Broadcast frame
Degradation of signal clarity.
Attenuation
The _____ is used at the Data Link layer to establish, configure, and test the connection.

a. NCP
b. ATCP
c. IPCP
d. LCP
LCP
In a production environment, you can use the _____ command from interface configuration mode, which will automatically shut down that interface when looping is detected.

a. off-looped-interface
b. looped off
c. down-when-looped
d. off-when-lopped
down-when-looped
_____ checks the reliability of the link by monitoring the number of errors, latency between requests, connection retries, and connection failures on the PPP link.

a. LQM
b. PAP
c. CHAP
LCDI
LQM
_____ is a communications technique for sending data over high-speed digital connections operating at anywhere from 56 Kbps to 44.736 Mbps or higher.

a. Frame Relay
b. PPP
c. Slip
d. DLCI
Frame Relay
A(n) _____ implementation prevents routing update information received on one physical interface from being rebroadcast to other devices through that same physical interface.

a. PVC
b. keepalive
c. SDLC
d. split horizon
Split horizon
When the sum of the data arriving over all virtual circuits exceeds that access rate, the situation is called _____.

a. undersubscription
b. oversubscription
c. overrate
d. underrate
Oversubscription
The Frame Relay _____ topology is like the bus LAN topology; nodes are simply strung along in a daisychained fashion.

a. full mesh
b. star
c. partial mesh
d. peer
Peer
The _____ is the most popular Frame Relay topology.

a. full mesh
b. peer
c. star
d. partial mesh
Star
The _____ is the most expensive Frame Relay topology to implement because each router has a direct connection to every other router.

a. full mesh
b. star
c. partial mesh
d. peer
Full mesh
You can check your Frame Relay configuration by using _____ commands.

a. status
b. show
c. check
d. dlci - interface
Show
A(n) _____ is the physical area in which a packet collision might occur.

a. backoff domain
b. collision domain
c. IPG domain
d. jam domain
Collision domain
Stations on a network _____ packets to other stations to make their presence known on the network and to carry out normal network tasks such as IP address-to-MAC address resolution.

a. broadcast
b. unicast
c. multicast
d. anycast
Broadcast
A(n) _____ occurs when two stations transmit more than 64 bytes of data frames before dete4cting a collision.

a. jabber
b. NIC error
c. late collision
d. alignment error
Late collision
A bridge maintains a _____ that maps the MAC addresses on each segment to the corresponding port on the bridge to which each segment is connected.

a. multicast table
b. map table
c. bandwidth table
d. bridging table
Bridging table
A _____operates at layer 3 of the OSI reference model. It interprets the Network layer protocol and makes forwarding decisions based on the layer 3 address.

a. switch
b. router
c. bridge
d. hub
Router
_____ switches read the entire frame, no matter how large, into their buffers before forwarding.

a. Fast-forward
b. Store-and-forward
c. fragment-free
d. cut-through
Store-and-forward
_____ represents an effort to provide more error-reducing benefits than cut-through switching, while keeping latency lower than does store-and-forward switching.

a. Fragment-free forwarding
b. Fast forwarding
c. Adaptive cut-through forwarding.
d. Adaptive fast forwarding
Fragment-free forwarding
Fragment-free switches are also known as _____ switches.

a. fast forwading
b. error sensing
c. cut-through
d. modified cut-through
Modified cut-through
Two types of operating systems are in use on Cisco switches: IOS-bassed and _____.

a. terminal-based
b. command-based
c. set-based
d. prompt-based
Set-based
To start configuration mode, first type _____ at the command prompt.

a. cfg trmnl
b. config tty
c. config t
d. cfg t
config t
Generally speaking, a switch does not require an IP address, because switches operate mainly on Layer 2 (_____ addresses).

a. IP
b. TCP
c. IPX
d. MAC
MAC
To view the configuration of a port, use the ____ command.

a. display
b. show
c. interface
d. port
Show
An encapsulation type for serial interface communications.
PPP
A routing technique that reduces the chance of routing loops on a network.
Split horizon
Allow the simultaneous use of multiple Network layer protocols and are required for each protocol that uses PPP.
NCPs
A packet switching & encapsulation technology that functions at the Physical & Data Link layers of the OSI reference model.
Frame relay
Switching equipment supplied by a telecommunications provider that serves as a connection to the public data network (PDN).
DCE
Virtual interfaces associated with a physical interface.
Subinterfaces
A table in RAM that defines the remote interface to which a specific DLCI number is mapped.
Frame Relay map
A type of serial device that was developed by Cisco & T3Plus Networking.
HSSI
Map virtual circuits to layer 3 protocol addresses.
DLCI numbers
A frame with an FCS error and an octet missing.
Alignment error
Virtual local area network that allows you to logically segment a network.
VLAN
Switches that require all attached network interface devices to use the same transmit/receive speed.
Symmetric switching
A sudden rush of network transmissions that causes all other network communication to slow down due to the volume of data competing for access to the same bandwidth on the communication medium.
Broadcast storm
Segments a network by filtering traffic at the Data Link layer.
Bridge
The length of time that is required to forward, send, or otherwise propagate a data frame.
Latency
Also know as error sensing.
Adaptive cut-through forwarding
Limits collision domains to five segments of wire, four repeaters, and/or hubs, and three populated hubs between any two stations on a 10-Mbps network.
5-4-3 rule
Ethernet contention method.
CSMA/CD
Which of the following best describes the Presentation layer?

A. establishes, maintains, & manages sessions between applications.
B. translates, encrypts, or prepares data from the Application layer for network transmission.
C. handles routing information for data packets.
Translates, encrypts, or prepares data from the Application layer for network transmission.
Which of the following best describes the Newtork layers?

A. handles routing information for data packets.
B. provides the electrical & mechanical transmission of data.
C. handles link control & uses the MAC address on the (NIC).
Handles routing information for data packets.
Which of the following best describes the Session layers?

A. handles link control & uses the MAC address on the (NIC).
B. provides the electrical & mechanical transmission of data.
C. establishes, maintains, & manages sessions between applications.
Establishes, maintains, & manages sessions between applications
Which of the following best describes the Transport layer?

A. provides the electrical & mechanical transmission of data.
B. handles link control & uses the MAC address on the (NIC).
C. segments & reassembles data & provides either connection-oriented or connectionless communications.
Segments & reassembles data & provides either connection-oriented or connectionless communications.
Which of the following best describes the Data Link layer?

A. provides the electrical & mechanical transmission of data.
B. handles link control & uses the MAC address on the (NIC).
C. establishes, maintains, & manages sessions between applications.
Handles link control & uses the MAC address on the (NIC).
Which of the following best describes the Physical layer?

A. establishes, maintains, & manages sessions between applications.
B. provides network services to the user.
C. provides the electrical & mechanical transmission of data.
Provides the electrical & mechanical transmission of data.
Which of the following best describes the Application layer?

A. establishes, maintains, & manages sessions between applications.
B. translates, encrypts, or prepares data for network transmission.
C. provides network services to the user.
Provides network services to the user.
Connection-oriented services are also known as _____ services.

a. reliable
b. unreliable
c. datagram
Reliable
Connectionless services are also called _____ services.

a. reliable
b. acknowledgment
c. unreliable
Unreliable
Which of the following describes services that receive an acknowledgment from the destination? (Choose all that apply.)

a. datagram
b. reliable
c. connection-oriented
d. connectionless
B. Reliable
C. Connection-oriented
Place the following steps of data encapsulation in their correct descending order:

a. frame headers & trailers added
b. segment header added
c. bit transmission
d. packet creation & network header
e. data conversion
1. Data conversion
2. Segment header added
3. Packet creation & network header
4. Frame headers & trailers added
5. Bit transmission
Which of the following best describes a LAN?

A. a network contained with in a single geographic area such as a building or floor in a building
B. a countrywide network that spans multiple geographic locations.
C. a large network that is connected by both publicly & privately maintained cabling spread over multiple geographic locations.
A network that is contained in a single geographic area such as a building or floor in a building.
Before networks, what did people use to transfer files?

a. sneakernet
b. protocols
c. interface cards
d. Ethernet
Sneakernet
A protocol is to a computer as a(n) _____ is to a person.

a. identity
b. personality
c. language
d. personal philosophy
Language
Communications on a network originate at the ______.

a. destination
b. breaker
c. peak
d. source
Source
Transmitted signals are bound for a _____ computer.

a. destination
b. breaker
c. peak
d. source
Destination
Information transmitted on a network is called a(n) _____.

a. package
b. expresser
c. data destination
d. data frame
e. E-pack
Package
Which of the following are layers of the OSI model? (Choose all that apply.)

a. OSI
b. Physical
c. IEEE
d. Data Link
Physical & Data Link
Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for media access & packaging data into frames?

a. Network layer
b. Physical layer
c. Data Link layer
d. Transport layer
C. Data Link layer
At which layer of the OSI model will encryption & compression occur?

a. Presentation layer
b. Session layer
c. Application layer
d. Network layer
Presentation layer
Lists the layers of the OSI model from layer 7 to layer 1?
Application,
Presentation,
Session,
Transport,
Network,
Data Link,
Physical
The _____ layer is responsible for finding the best path route packets within an internetwork.

a. Transport
b. Network
c. Session
d. Data Link
Network
The network access method used by Ethernet networks.
Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection (CSMA/CD)
A private communications link over public communications infrastructure, such as the Internet.
Virtual Private Network (VPN)
A computer language used to query, manipulate, and communicate with databases.
Structured Query Language (SQL)
True or False:

In 1954, the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) presented the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model.
False:

Because: it was in1984.
True or False:

Computers must use a common protocol to communicate properly.
True
True or False:

Peer communication allows error checking to occur on two separate layers simultaneously.
True
True or False

Many LANs & WANs contain several segments. Dividing a network into segments reduces performance.
False:

Because: Dividing a network into segments increase performance.
Also called the MAC address. It is burned into the network interface (NIC) during the manufacturing process.
Physical address
A group of data that is transmitted across a network.
Packet
The process that ensures that data was not corrupted during transmission. This is accomplished by comparing CRC calculations before & after transmission.
Cyclic Redundancy check (CRC)
A network address that can be assigned and modified by the person in charge of the network.
Logical address
A subsystem of networked storage devices that are physically separate from the severs.
Storage area network (SAN)
The invention & evolution of the Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) protocol suite resulted from a coordinated effort by the U.S. ____.

a. DOD
b. SRI
c. UCLS
d. IEEE
DOD
The _____ layer in the TCP/IP model determines the connectionless or connection-oriented services.

a. Network Interface
b. Transport
c. Application
d. Internetwork
Transport
_____ uses a one-to-one mapping or one-to many mapping method to allow one or more private IP clients to gain access to the Internet by mapping the private IP addresses to public IP addresses.

a. DHCP
b. NAT
c. WINS
d. NetBEUI
NAT
_____ must be used if you want clients outside your network to access services on your servers.

a. Static NAT
b. Dynamic NAT
c. PAT
d. Dynamic PAT
Static NAT
To differentiate between the connections, _____ uses multiple public TCP & UDP ports to create unique sockets that map to internal IP addresses.

a. PAT
b. static NAT
c. dynamic NAT
d. virtual NAT
PAT
NAT servers use ____ to send connections from external clients to the Web server on the internal network.

a. nat relay
b. port forwarding
c. port relay
d. dhcp relay
Port forwarding
The _____ command enables DNS if it has previously been disabled.

a. ip domain-lookup
b. domain-lookup on
c. ip name-server
d. ip dns enable
ip domain-lookup
Which statement accurately defines IPsec?
a. IPSec is an authentication protocol.
b. IPSec is a Cisco-proprietary suite of protocols that allows for secure communication.
c. IPSec is an industry-standard suite of protocols that allows for secure communication.
d. IPsec supports RADIUS and TACACS+.
c. IPSec is an industry-standard suite of protocols that allows for secure communication.
Which command establishes an SSH key pair?

a. SshRouter(config)#crypto key generate rsa
b. SshRouter(config)#crypto-key generate rsa
c. SshRouter(config)#crypto generate rsa
d. SshRouter(config)#crypto key-generate rsa
a. SshRouter(config)#crypto key generate rsa
What two methods can be used to configure VPNs on a Cisco router?

a. IPSec
b. RADIUS
c. CLI
d. SDM
e. ESP
c. CLI
d. SDM
What services are provided by an IPS? (Choose all that apply.)

a. examine data packets
b. authenticate users
c. account for users time on the network
d. drop malicious packets
a. examine data packets
d. drop malicious packets
What services are provided by an IDS?

a. examine data packets
b. authenticate users
c. account for users time on the network
d. insert malicious packets
a. examine data packets
What is the correct command sequence to protect all five of a router's VTY lines with SSH?

a. SshRouter(config)#line vty 0 1
SshRouter)config-line)#transport input ssh
b. SshRouter(config)#line vty 0 4
SshRouter)config-line)#transport input ssh
c.SshRouter(config)#line con 0 1
SshRouter)config-line)#transport input ssh
d. SshRouter(config)#line vty 0 4
SshRouter)config-line)#transport input ssh
d. SshRouter(config)#line vty 0 4
SshRouter)config-line)#transport input ssh
Which three protocols are supported by IPSec?

a. ESP
b. 3DES
c. MD5
d. SHA
e. IKE
f. AH
a. ESP
d. SHA
f. AH
What two modes are supported by IPSec?

a. traversing mode
b. forwarding mode
c. tunnel mode
d. transport mode
c. tunnel mode
d. transport mode
Which command successfully sets the SSH Timeout for connections to 1 minute and 30 seconds?

a. ip ssh-time-out 90
b. ip ssh time-out 1min 30sec
c. ip ssh-time-out 1min 30sec
d. ip ssh time-out 90
d. ip ssh time-out 90
What functionality is supported by the Cisco SDM? (Choose all that apply.)

a. RADIUS
b. Security Audit
c. PPTP
d. VPN configuration
b. Security Audit
d. VPN configuration
What authentication algorithms are supported by IPSec? (Choose all that apply.)

a. ESP
b. 3DE5
c. MD5
d. SHA
e. IKE
f. AH
c. MD5
d. SHA
What encryption algorithms are supported by IPSec? (Choose all that apply.)

a. ESP
b. 3DES
c. MD5
d. SHA
e. IKE
f. AH
g. AES
b. 3DES
g. AES
Which tunneling protocols provide a secure tunnel for the data to travel through? (Choose all that apply)

a. AH
b. IPSec
c. GRE
d. L2TP
e. PPTP
a. AH
d. L2TP
e. PPTP
Which protocols provide AAA services on Cisco routers? (Choose all that apply.)

a. SSH
b. RADIUS
c. SSL
d. TACACS+
e. ESP
b. RADIUS
d. TACACS+
The term "authentication" in Cisco's AAA model refers to what service?

a. regulation of a user's allowable activities on a device
b. process to validate users
c. the ability to verify data as it traverses the network
d. the ability to verify data as it traverses the network
b. process to validate users
The term "authorization" in Cisco's AAA model refers to what service?

a. the ability to verify data as it traverses the network
b. the ability to track user activity
c. process to validate users
d. regulation of a user's allowable activities on a device
d. regulation of a user's allowable activities on a device