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Dash 8 Systems CQT
Terms in this set (286)
Pitch Disconnect Handle pulled, free movement of the left yoke causes deflection of which elevator?
Standby Elevator trim is armed by?
Red guarded switch
Ailerons are mechanically linked to which yoke?
Roll spoilers are mechanically linked to which control wheel?
Aileron trim is accomplished by?
Trim Spring tab-Right Aileron
SPLR 1 switchlight hydraulically controls which spoilers
SPLR 2 switchlight hydraulically controls which spoilers
SPLR 1 AND SPLR 2 switchlights will illuminate when?
Roll disconnect pulled & right control wheel deflected greater than 50 degrees
One spoiler switchlight (SPLR 1 OR SPLR 2) will illuminate when?
Clutch mechanism operates
Spoiler deployment in the ground mode requires?
Power levers flt idle
Flight/Taxi switch at flight
Illumination of the Spoiler Advisory Lights mean?
- Pwr levers at or near flight idle
- Flight/Taxi switch to Flight
- Weight on all three gear
When these conditions are met, the spoiler advisory lights will illuminate, and, if hydraulic pressure is available, the spoilers will deploy fully to slow the aircraft and dump lift.
Positive indication of Roll Spoiler Deployment is provided by?
Which Hydraulic system powers the Rudder?
Pressing a Rudder switchlight will cause what to happen?
Respective actuator to depressurize & opposite to receive 3000 PSI, RUD FULL PRESS caution light
Full Rudder travel is restricted with the Flap Selector at 0 by how many degrees?
Which Hydraulic System powers the Flaps?
The Flap Drive Caution Light indicates?
Secondary cable under a load
Asymmetric Flap Extension is protected by?
Force limiters & secondary drive cable
What does the Flap Power Caution Light indicate?
Reduced power to the flap hydraulic motor
What does the #1 Rudder Hydraulic Caution Light indicate?
Loss of Pressure to the #1 Rudder
What does the Rudder Full Pressure Caution Light indicate?
One Actuator is receiving 3000 psi
What does the Rudder Pressure Caution Light indicate?
Failure of Pressure Regulator to Reduce Pressure at Airspeeds Above 140 or increase pressure at airspeeds below 140.
Roll Spoiler Inboard Hydraulic Caution Light indicates?
Hydraulic depressurization of inboard
roll spoilers actuator
If the Roll Spoiler Inboard Ground Caution Light illuminates on touchdown, will the Inboard
Spoilers deploy in the Ground Mode?
No. If illuminated at touchdown, inboard roll spoilers remain in flight mode.
An important crew consideration with an elevator jam is?
Do not change the flap setting.
The maximum airspeed when operating with one rudder actuator at a full 3000 psi is?
Can the flaps be configured with a Flap Drive Caution Light illuminated, why?
Yes, secondary cable will still drive jackscrews and transfer gearbox
Will the Flaps configure to a normal position with the #1 Engine Shutdown?
How are the Roll Spoilers operating in the Ground Mode normally retracted after landing and
clearing the runway?
Once clear of the runway, the spoilers can be retracted by selecting
the Flight/Taxi switch to Taxi.
The Autopilot may not be used following a roll or pitch disconnect?
At speeds above 140 kts (150 kts in the 300's), how is roll control accomplished?
Ailerons and Inboard Spoilers
Which flight control surface(s) receive(s) input from the Air Data computer?
The Rudder, and Roll Spoilers through rudder actuators which receive airpseed informtion from the ADC
For the propeller synchrophase system, which prop is the master and which is the slave?
#1 is the Master #2 is the Slave
At what prop RPM will the over-speed governor PNEUMATICALLY control the prop?
At what prop RPM will the over-speed governor HYDRAULICALLY control the prop?
Max prop rpm in reverse is?
What are the major components of the Propeller Reduction Gearbox section of the PW-120A
Describe the Beta Backup System?
A beta backup system provides protection against the propeller entering beta ground range unintentionally due to a PCU malfunction (while the power lever is above ground range).
When do the prop Ground Range lights illuminate?
Whenever the power levers are selected below the flight idle gate, and the propeller blade angle decreases to 17.5 degrees or less, the lights will illuminate. This tells the crew that the propellers are in the ground portion of the Beta range.
Once armed, what triggers an Autofeather? (on the 100's)
One engine remains at or above 50% TQ
the Engine that is failing drops below 22% TQ for 3 secs.
Once the Aux Feathering Pump is selected to Feather, how long will it run?
Once the Aux Feathering Pump is selected to Unfeather, how long will it run?
Is automatic Power Uptrim available if the Autofeather is disarmed?
Will the Alternate Feather/Unfeather system work if the engine is not running?
Yes, one cycle
The props should be within how many rpm before activating the Synchrophase System?
The Synchrophase System uses the #1 prop as the Master and the #2 prop as the Slave?
What indication would you have if an ECU has failed on a PW120A?
In all failure instances, the
ENG MANUAL caution light will illuminate.
Is Power Uptrim available if the Autofeather System is disarmed?
No. The ECU will run in it's normal mode.
An engine failure after takeoff with the Autofeather selected & armed, how much will the good engine's torque be uptrimmed?
If electrical power is removed from an engine instrument (i.e. Torque, ITT, etc.), what will the
Pointer drops to zero
Digital Indicator is blank
What do the Condition Levers control?
1-set propeller RPM in the forward range.
2-Manual Feather, and fuel on/off control.
What kind of protection is provided for Nh (high pressure compressor rotor) overspeed?
Overspeed protection is provided by separate overspeed circuits in each ECU.
over-speed circuits shut down the ECU's fuel schedule mode circuits to initiate manual mode engine operation;
ENG MANUAL light is on
What cockpit caution or advisory lights would be illuminated if an ECU fails or is not operating?
Why is the ECU Rating Selector placed at TOP for takeoff?
To prevent significant power loss from occurring during takeoff, the enrichement solenoid valve is opened independantly of the ECU
While on takeoff, a non-critical input of the ECU will cause an engine rollback.
No...If the failed input is
of a non-critical nature, the ECU will fail, but it will freeze the fuel schedule at the last point, and the engine will not roll back.
What main functions do the Power Levers control?
1-Constant Speed Range, they schedule Fuel to increase/decrease torque.
2-In the beta range they control the propeller blade angle.
During Quiet Taxi mode the ECU will maintain prop RPM at?
Power Uptrim on a PW120A will boost output power to?
At what Nh speed does the ECU activate overspeed protection?
Engine ignition is automatically activated when?
During Engine Start (in Norm position)
In ECU Manual Mode you have Np underspeed and Nh overspeed protection.
False. All requirements for engine operations are in place, but all automatic functions associated withe the ECU are dissabled.
Once an Nh overspeed has occured, can you select the ECU back on?
No. A lockout circuit will prevent the ECU from returning to normal operation when NH drops below 102%
What components are used to schedule fuel?
In the DHC-8 100, what occurs to the pitch command bar when the TOGA button is pushed?
It will instruct you to pitch UP to approximately 10-12 degrees.
In the DHC-8 300, what occurs to the pitch command bar when the TOGA button is pushed?
It will instruct you to pitch UP to approximately 9 degrees
How can you change from one Flight Guidance Computer to another in the Dash?
Selecting the Left or Right HSI Button
At _____ feet to go, the altitude alert annunciator on each altimeter illuminates and sounds a
warning horn for one second. At _____ feet to level off the light extinguish.
Activation of the stick shaker/stick pusher will cause what light to illuminate?
Dual Coupled Approach mode becomes active when?
When tracking both localizer and glideslope signals, AND radio altitude is below 1200 feet and both navigation receivers
are valid, the system will transition to the dual HSI mode of operation.
What does an asterisk on the ID-802 panel indicate?
Indicates the system is in the capture phase and will extinguish when the aircraft is tracking the selected radial.
The autopilot/yaw damper channels must be selected to the associated HSI side in order for the
AFCS to operate correctly
Pressing the STBY button on the Flight Guidance Controller will cancel the Flight Director and
turn off the Autopilot if it is on
In a DHC-8 100, the NAV/SEL button must be selected to the captain's side when using what
mode of navigation?
The autopilot may be used during single engine operations after re-trimming.
The RESET button on the ID-802 panel is used to clear messages on which line?
Disengage/Caution/Conditional Status Messages line 2
On which line of the ID-802 panel are active flight director modes displayed?
For approaches to runways where the glideslope is inoperative, which mode should be selected?
Glideslope capture is inhibited until localizer capture has occurred.
What component provides information to and triggers the overspeed warning horn?
Air Data Computer
The standby altimeter receives its information from the Air Data Computer.
From the Alternate Static Source selection
How many Air Data Computers are there?
The AHRS provides attitude and heading information to which components?
How many AHRS are there?
Which components are provided information by the pitot static system?
airspeed indicators, standby altimeter, air data computers and the cabin pressure controller.
The ADC provides information to the AHRS computer.
EFIS (if installed)
Which ADC is used for FGC operation?
The one that is selected by the HSI SEL
When will the AHRS system enter "BASIC" mode automatically?
When True Airpseed becomes invalid from the ADC
The Captains RMI information is supplied by the #2 AHRS.
True, along with the FOs HSI
The Copilots HSI information is supplied by the #2 AHRS.
True It is supplied by the #2 AHRS along with the Captains RMI
If an EADI screen fails, the EHSI screen will automatically switch to a composite mode.
False, turn off by use the dimmer switch.
The #1 and #2 AHRS receive heading information from flux valves located where?
In the Wing-tips
Where does the SAHS receive its heading information from?
Flux valve in the tail.
How can you regain your EADI and EHSI displays if a symbol generator fails.
Press REV 1 time and the operating Instrument will cross-fill the data.
With the accumulator charged to 3000 psi, how many parking brake applications do you have?
Approximately 4 applications
Is the anti-skid available when using the emergency brake?
The tiller provides ___ degrees of nosewheel steering either side of center.
Where does the normal braking system receive its hydraulic power from?
# 1 Hydraulic System FARPIN
The rudder pedals provide approximately ___ degrees of nosewheel steering either side of center with the nosewheel steering turned on.
Must the gear lever lock release button be held down when making a gear selection?
A LDG GEAR INOP caution light indicates a failure associated with what valve?
Failure of a Gear Door Squencing Valve
The solenoid sequence valve gets its signal to open or close the gear doors from the PSEU.
True. Sequencing and indication for the gear and gear doors is controlled by the Proximity Switch Electronic Unit (PSEU).
How long do the anti-skid lights stay on when testing is performed on the ground?
3 seconds - in flight
6 seconds - on ground
Which component monitors the position of the uplocks, downlocks, and gear door positions?
Interrogates each sensor several times a second.
Where does the emergency parking brake receive its hydraulic pressure from?
#2 Hydraulic System
When will the landing gear warning horn sound?
Not Down and Locked
Flaps Set 15 or greater,
Autofeather System Off
Power Levers Below Takeoff Setting
Not Down and Locked
One or both Power Levers near FLT IDLE
Airspeed Below 130
When can the landing gear warning horn be muted?
Landing gear is not down and locked, one or both Power Levers at or near Flight Idle, and airspeed below 130 knots.
With anti-skid on and operating, at what point are the brakes available after touchdown?
When the Wheels spin up to at least 35 knots, or 2.5 seconds after touchdown
Does the LDG GEAR INOP caution light require an alternate gear extension?
Yes. Normal extension will cause damage due to failure of a door valve
During an alternate gear extension, if the landing gear fails to free-fall to the down and locked position the main and nose gear can be manually pumped down.
No. Only the main landing gear can be pumped into position. The nose wheel free falls.
How many degrees will the nose wheel free-caster left or right of center?
Which gear doors remain open after a normal extension?
Nose - Rear doors Mains - Forward doors
Which components are operated by the #2 Hydraulic system?
Ruder (Upper)(Acuator #2)
Ground Spoilers (deactivated)
What automatically controls the standby hydraulic pump when in the NORM position?
When the Flap Lever Selection Handle (trigger)
What is the maximum capacity of the #1 and #2 hydraulic reservoirs respectively?
What is meant by the illumination of the ENG HYD PUMP caution light?
No.1 or No. 2 Engine-driven pump has failed (pressure below 2000 psi.
What is the primary purpose of the power transfer unit (PTU)?
The PTU uses #1 system pressure and #2 system fluid to operate the landing
gear in an emergency.
Which components are operated by the #1 Hydraulic system?
Rudder (#1 Actuator) (Lower)
Which hydraulic system are the flaps a part of?
No. 1 Hydraulic System
Which hydraulic system are the Anti-skid Brakes a part of?
No, 1 Hydraulic System
Which hydraulic system is the #1 Rudder Actuator a part of?
No. 1 Hydrauloic System
Which hydraulic system are the Inboard Roll Spoilers a part of?
No. 1 Hydraulic System
Which hydraulic system are the Normal Wheel Brakes a part of?
No. 1 Hydraullic System
Which hydraulic system is the PTU a part of?
No. 1 Hydraulic System
Which hydraulic system is the Nose Wheel Steering a part of?
No. 2 Hydraulic System
Which hydraulic system are the Outboard Roll Spoilers a part of?
No. 2 Hydraulic System
Which hydraulic system is the #2 Rudder Actuator a part of?
No. 2 Hydraulic System
Which hydraulic system are the Landing Gear a part of?
No. 2 Hydraulic System
Which hydraulic system is the Emergency/Parking Brake a part of?
No. 2 Hydraulic System
What type of electric power is supplied to the standby pumps?
How is the hydraulic emergency shutoff valve actuated?
PULL FUEL OFF Handle on the Fire Control panel
Normal output volume of an engine driven hydraulic pump is _____ gpm.
The STBY HYD PUMP HOT caution light indicates that the pump motor is overheated and the crew should do what?
Nothing. It will be available as soon as it cools.
The standby pressure gauge always reads the pressure of the standby hydraulic pump only?
Indicates pressure produced by the #1 (left scale) and #2 (right scale) electrically driven standby hydraulic pumps
What is one proprietary name for the hydraulic fluid used on the DHC-8?
When will the PTU turn on automatically?
#2 Engine oil pressure light on.
Gear selector UP.
Gear not UP & LOCKED
If the #2 engine fails, the PTU will energize as soon as the gear is selected up, and will shut down once the gear is up and locked. No action is required to be
taken by the flight crew.
The "Norm" position of the standby hydraulic pumps means that the pumps are what?
They will Turn ON when Flaps are selected.
How is the PTU turned on manually?
The minimum dispatch hydraulic quantity for the #1 and #2 systems are___and ___ respectively.
#1 1.5 qts
#2 3.0 qts
The normal hydraulic system pressure via the engine driven pump is _____ psi.
The ENG HYD PUMP caution light illuminates when the engine driven hydraulic pump output pressure falls below _____ psi.
The FLAP POWER caution light illuminates when the hydraulic pressure at the flap motor falls
below _____ psi
Hydraulic pressure in flap power unit during flap extension or retraction is below 1,500 psi (3,000 normal).
The rudder isolation valve is installed on which model(s)?
100 and 300
A Loss of electrical power to the hydraulic quantity indicators is indicated by_____?
A Red Indicator at the bottom of the gauge indicates which gauge has lost power. It is pops out.
What is the pilot action for a MAIN BATT HOT warning light?
Select Main Battery OFF
Monitor Main Battery Temperature
What (is/are) the Immediate Action Item(s) associated with the MAIN BATT HOT warning light?
Affected battery, verify over temperature.
Affected battery select off
The AC generators provide power for which buses?
Left and Right Variable AC Buses
A "L AC BUS" or "R AC BUS" caution light indicates a fault on which bus?
The fault is on the associated variable ac bus, Left or Right
If a DC Generator fails in flight, will its respective Main Bus be powered?
Main DC Buses will tie to provide power
How are the DC Generators cooled?
DC Generators are Air Cooled
Which buses are powered directly by the TRU's?
Left and Right Secondary Bus
Left and Right Main Bus
What do the TRU's do?
Reduces 115 Volts variable AC to 28 fixed Volts AC
Is there an ON / OFF switch for the TRU's?
No. There is a Circuit Breaker for each TRU.
What are the only times (other than when on external power or the APU is operating), that the Main to Secondary buses tie?
When the Bus Tie Logic System detects no power from output from BOTH generators, and BOTH TRUs are on-line...
Or, No power output from BOTH TRUs and BOTH Generators are on-line
How are the AC Generators cooled?
How many DC Generators are on the Dash?
If an AC Gen failed in flight, would its own AC bus be powered?
When an AC generator is off
line the inoperative AC generator GCU will automatically switch to a cross tie
position. The operating generator will then provide AC power to both variable
What are the input and output voltages of the inverters?
26 fixed VDC IN
115 fixed AC OUT @ 400hz fixed frequencey
Will an AC Generator be "on line" when its respective prop is in feather?
Minimum RPM is 780
Why is the max load limitation of a DC Gen only 0.7 when on the ground?
To prevent overheating (through current load) on the ground
Which buses are powered directly by the DC generators?
Each generator feeds its
respective Main Bus, which operate independently during flight, all bus-ties being
If a TRU fails in flight, will the Secondary Bus on the same side be powered?
If a TRU Failure occurs, the Secondary DC
buses tie. If a double TRU failure occurs,
Secondary DC buses tie to Main DC buses.
The Maximum DC Generator load meter reading during flight ops is?
The Bus Fault Reset Switch______
An attempt to restore power from the other bus may be made by momentary selecting the
bus fault reset switch to BUS FAULT RESET. This rearms the BBPU.
Maximum AC Generator load meter reading in flight is?
Maximum Inverter loadmeter reading for ground and flight ops is?
The normal voltage of an AC Generator is?
115 +- 2.8v
The AC Generator output voltage is regulated to within plus or minus how many volts?
A 26 vac caution light could illuminate under several conditions. What are they?
Loss of power on left 26-volt fixedfrequency
bus and possible loss of
power on 115-VAC fixed-frequency
What happens to the Main Bus Tie when the DC BUS caution light illuminates?
Bus bar protection unit inhibits buses from
then after seven-to-nine-second delay, isolates and shuts down the affected DC generator and removes affected battery from faulty main bus.
All services on affected left or right main DC buses are affected.
Max AC Generator loadmeter reading for ground ops above +10 degrees C is?
Minimum battery voltage for starting is?
The DC Generators produce how many volts?
Max TRU loadmeter reading on the ground is?
Max TRU loadmeter reading in flight is?
The primary purpose of the Aux Batt switch is to ?
Switching the AUX BATT switch ON enables charging of the auxiliary battery from the left main feeder bus.
The Dash 8 - 300 batteries are rated at how many amps?
Main is 24 volt dc 40 ampre hour
Aux is 24 volt dc 40 ampre hour
How can the Left Main Bus be powered with only battery power available?
Select MAIN BUS TIE (ON)
If DC external power is still powering the electrical system, will a DC Generator come online
after an engine start?
What does the GCU on the AC Generators maintain?
A consant 115 vac +-2.8 volts
If the Left Essential DC Bus fails, which inverter will be offline?
The Primary will go offline
The Left TRU supplies power directly to which bus?
Left Secondary Bus
What minimum voltage must the TRU's produce before the TRU undervoltage relay disconnects
the TRU from the Secondary Bus
What happens when you pull the "PULL FUEL OFF" handle?
Arms the extinguisher
Closes the fuel Shut off valve
Closes the hydraulic emergency shut off valves.
Must both smoke detectors sense a baggage compartment smoke condition in order for an indication to be received on the flight deck?
No. Either detector will activate the alarm.
Where are the two engine fire extinguisher bottles located?
In left wing root fairing
How can you confirm a fire bottle has discharged from the cockpit?
The amber bottle discharge light goes out.
The discharge fire bottle circuits are powered by what bus?
Hot Bat Bus
What is the power source for the Fire Detection Loops?
The Fire Detection Loop warning circuits, left nacelle and right nacelle, are powered by their respective Essential Bus as well as being cross-wired to the opposite side Essential Bus.
How many detection loops are installed per engine?
2 in each nacelle
Loop A and B
What is the cockpit indication of an engine fire?
MASTER WANRING (RED)
WARNING CHECK FIRE DET (RED)
ENGINE FIRE PRESS TO RESET (2 red)
PULL FUEL OFF HANDLE
may be illuminated
How is an engine fire identified and verified?
PULL FUEL OFF HANDLE
for the affected engine is Illuminated
What do the amber fire bottle lights indicate?
Fire bottle is armed electrically and has adequate pressure
DHC-8 incorporates a two-shot capability extinguishing system. What does this mean?
2 Shots into one Nacelle
1 shot into each Nacelle
What fire detection/protection is provided for the lavatory?
An automatically activated fire extinguisher is located inside the waste disposal bin (roof of the bin) in the lavatory and smoke detector.
If the flight crew must use the cockpit fire extinguisher, what should the crew do?
Must don oxygen masks and use oxygen 100%
How many lights should you see when conducting the APU fire test?
FUEL VALVE CLOSED (white)
Master CAUTION (amber)
Master WARNING (red)
APU Caution (amber)
CHECK FIRE DET (red)
When a fire is detected by the loop around the APU, the fire bottle will operate automatically as long as what bus has power?
Will the APU fire extinguisher switch operate manually without the Battery Master switch on?
What is the automatic feature associated with the ACM PACK HOT caution light in a DHC-8
All engine bleeds to the pack shut off.
What happens when a #1 or #2 BLEED HOT caution light illuminates?
Normal operation is automatically interrupted and bleed air is shut off until supply duct cools. Then caution light goes out and normal operation resumes
FLT COMPT DUCT HOT caution light causes which set of valves to drive to full cool position?
AIR COND PACK HOT caution light indicates that excessive temperature is being sensed
Can the Flight Compartment Fan (pre mod 8/1538) be switched on in flight?
If a cooler cabin temperature is selected, what will the ACM pack bypass valve do?
Opens to allow bleed air into the acm
Can the crew select cabin temp in the "manual" mode while the flight compartment temp controller is in the auto mode?
Can pressurization be maintained with only one bleed source available?
Is the cargo area pressurized?
Does the pressurization toggle switch have to be in manual for the manual increase knob to work?
What is the difference between the forward outflow selector and the manual increase knob?
They both open the forward outflow valve, but the manual increase knob allows a modulated opening.
How is the rear outflow valve powered?
Suction created by the 18 PSI de-ice system air flowing through a veturi and Left main DC pwr.
What happens to the rear outflow valve upon touchdown?
WOW switch will cause it to open
What does the "fault" light indicate on the pressurization panel?
Illuminates 2 seconds during test.
If continuous, there is a system malfunction
What happens when the pressurization toggle switch is selected to the "manual" position?
The rear outflow valve closes and pressurization is accomplished by modulating the forward outflow valve
What occurs when the pressurization toggle switch is selected to the "auto" position?
Cabin Altitude Computer signals aft outflow valve to maintain cabin altitude selected
What does the CABIN PRESS warning light indicate?
Cabin Altitude has exceeded 10,000 ft
What is the position of the rear outflow valve when the aircraft is on the ground? (Engines running, bleeds on)
WOW keeps the outflow valve open when on the ground
When controlling pressurization manually, the manual increase knob should be turned which
way to decrease cabin altitude?
Clockwise Increases altitude
Counterclockwise Decreases altitude
Are both outflow valves capable of automatic pressure relief at 5.8 +/- .15 PSI?
What should the cabin altitude be if you are flying at FL 250?
Will the aircraft pressurize with the bleeds off?
What is the cabin rate of change when the rate knob is at the index?
500 fpm up and 300 fpm down
How do we change from fully automatic mode to semi-automatic mode for the pressurization
Cabin alt Mode AUTO
Cabin Alt Auto CAB SET
Cabin Alt Rate Index mark
Cabin Alt Ind Desired Cabin Alt
Baro Current setting
Manual control FUll counterclockwise
What does the MIN/MAX rheostat on the bleed control panel do?
Controls bleed air flow rate to the packs.
What type of overheat protection is available for the windshield heat system?
If an overheat condition occurs (42c is norm), the system is de-energized.
What does the Lor R ELEV HORN HEAT caution light indicate?
Fault in circuit or indicated elevator heat is selected off with DC electrical system energized
Elevator horn heat is provided by
115 volts variable AC power
How long does each de-ice boot inflate in the automatic mode?
How long is the dwell time when the auto mode selector is set to FAST?
How long is the dwell time when the auto mode selector is set to slow?
How long does each boot pair inflate in MANUAL mode?
As long as the switch is in postion
When does the "PITOT HEAT" caution light illuminate?
Fault in circuit or 1 pitot heater selected OFF with DC electrical system energized
DE ICE PRESS Caution light illuminated when?
When a loss of bleed air causes the pressure in the de-ice system to fall below 5.5 psi.
The stall warning transducers are powered by?
28 vdc on the ground
115 vac inflight
In MANUAL mode, full inflation of a boot is indicated by?
The green indicator light will remain on as long as the manual rotary switch is in that position.
How many fuel tanks are installed on the DHC-8 100 and 300 airframe?
What are the divisions within each fuel tank?
How is fuel moved from the Main Tank to the Collector Tank?
In each wing, by means of 3 Scavenger Pumps powered by motive force, and by openings managed by 3 Flapper Valves
How is the fuel supplied to the Engine Driven Fuel Pump?
By means of the Ejector Boost Pump, powered by motive force.
What provides positive pressurization of the fuel tanks?
NACA Vents located on the outboard underside of each wing.
Is gravity fueling possible?
What are the limiations of gravity fueling?
APU must be OFF. Cabin Door must be OPEN. Cabin must be attended if passengers are on board.
What is the total useable fuel capacity of the fuel tanks?
5,678 lbs or 2,389 each side.
In Cruise Flight, is it possible to obtain Uptrim?
No. The Autofeather is required to be armed. It is not armed in this phase of flight.
What is the meaning of the LOW FUEL Light?
130 lbs remaining.
However, this may occur at 700 lbs due to how the fuel is spread out in the tank.
T or F On some Older aircraft, the EMER NORM switch is located where the HOT MIC/ON switch is normally located.
T or F The Pilot function of the PA overrides the Flight Attendant PA function.
Can the crew select cabin temp in the MANUAL mode while the Flight Compartment temp controller is in the AUTO mode?
T or F Glideslope Capture is inhibited until Localizer capture has occurred.
T or F The Auto Pilot / Yaw damper channels must be selected to the associated HSI in order for the AFCS to operate properly
A 26 VAC Caution Light will illuminate under the following conditions
115 VAC Fixed bus Fault
Stepdown Transformer Fault
26 VAC Fixed bus Fault
If the Left Essential DC Bus fails, which Inverter will go offline?
DEICE PRESS Caution light illuminates when?
De-ice pressure is below 5.5 psi
How long do the Anti-Skid lights stay on during a ground test, and air test?
6 seconds on ground
3 seconds in air
40 amp hour
3 Battery Swithces
Main Batt Hot
Aux Batt Hot
4- 115VAC Fixed Freq.
2- 115VAC Varible Freq.
The accessory gear box is driven by what?
The GCU changes the DC starter/gen from start to generate when?
DC Gen GCU
Regulates to 28 VDC regarless of speed and load
Trips the gen offline during a malfunction
Transforms- Steps voltage down
Rectifies- AC to DC
How is the DC Gen Cooled
What does the TRU undervoltage relay do?
>18vdc- connects to secondary buss
<18vdc- removes/ disconnects from secondary bus
What uses 3 phase AC
SBY HYD Pumps
The AC Gen GCU monitors what?
Speed to regulate gen output to a constant 115 +-2.8volts.
Bus fault Protection
Cross Ties if malfunction
How many inverters are there and what do they do?
Primary, Secondary, Auxiliary.
Inverts- 28 VDC to 115VAC, 400Hz
Paralleling Control Unit does what?
Applies AC power from all 3 inverters in parallel to both 115VAC.
How many volts to start the APU?
Right Main Bus- 22VDC to start APU.
Can the APU operate in air?
No, only certified for ground ops. and is weight switched to right main gear.
Bus Tie Logic
28VDC main and secondary busses tie automatically with an inop power source.
Manual Switch for Main Buses but will tie regardless
Secondary Busses only tie automatically.
Total Power failure of the electrical system...
will operate a minimum of 30 mins. (essential services only)
Main to Secondary bus-ties
0- TRU's / 2- DC Gens
2- TRU's/ 0- DC Gens
Also close w/ DC external power or APU Gen online.
Monitors GCU for over current situations (short) and when the GCU exceeds output of 400 amps after start.
Starting allows 1500 amps
Inhibit main-to-main-to secondary busses (isolation)
Still issue- cuts batt and aux batt to isolate bus
CAS- DC Bus
Can the foward outflow valve be open on the ground?
No, needs differential pressure.
Manual pressuraziation mode...
modulates the foward outflow valve.
What is the difference between the foward outflow selector and the foward valve?
Valve- full closed or open
BLEED HOT caution light
Shuts off effected bleed
Rate selector knob detent, min, max
Which ways can the cabin alt manually increase?
Auto/Dump/Man switch to dump (rear only)
Manual mode would modulate the foward outflow valve.
Norm to cab set- raise the cabin alt. to ope the rear valve.
The rear outflow valve is closed on the ground when it loses power.
True, it needs 18 psi and power from the L main DC bus. No power and pressure mean the valve is closed.
How many position lights are on the a/c?
2- each wing
2- on the tail
How many emergency exits are on the a/c?
4 (service door doesnt count on the 300)
Emergency equipment on the flight deck
2 Crash axe
3 Emergency checklist
4 2 flashlights
5 Fire extinguisher
6 Escape rope
7 2 Smoke goggles
8 HYD pump handle
9 Life Vests
10 Portable O2 masks
Positive indication of an engine fire.
Lit up fire off handle
Pulling the fuel off handle:
1 Arms the fire bottles
2 Closes the fuel valve
3 closes the HYD shutoff valve
What busses are the fire dection loops on?
THIS SET IS OFTEN IN FOLDERS WITH...
DASH 8 AUTOFLIGHT
DASH 8 FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS
DASH 8 ELECTRICAL
DASH 8 FIRE PROTECTION
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