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BIO FINAL EXAM

STUDY
PLAY
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

Melanin provides protection against ultraviolet (UV) radiation.
Keratinocytes produce a fibrous protein to protect the epidermis.
Langerhans cells activate the immune system.
Tactile cells anchor the skin to the body.
Tactile cells anchor the skin to the body.

This is the incorrect statement. Tactile cells, in conjunction with their sensory nerve endings, function as touch receptors. The hypodermis, not tactile cells anchors skin to the body.
Which of the following does NOT protect the skin from bacteria?

cathelicidins
defensins
the low pH of the skin
dermcidin
the temperature of the skin
the temperature of the skin

Correct
The temperature of the skin does not protect the skin against bacteria. In fact, the temperature of the skin is ideal for many types of bacteria.
Which skin appendages aid in cooling the body to prevent overheating on a hot day or during intense exercise?


eccrine sweat glands
apocrine sweat glands
sebaceous glands
ceruminous glands
Eccrine sweat glands

Correct
Eccrine (merocrine) sweat glands produce a watery secretion (called sweat) that is released onto the surface of skin in response to elevated body temperature. As body heat is used (thus removed) to convert the water of sweat to water vapor, body temperature decreases; this is called evaporative cooling.
Which structures of the dermis give rise to friction ridges (fingerprints)?

epidermal ridges
dermal papillae
flexure lines
dermal ridges
Dermal ridges

Correct
Dermal ridges cause the overlying epidermis to form epidermal ridges. Collectively these ridges are called friction ridges
Hair and nails are made primarily of calcium.

True
False
False

Correct
The primary component of hair and nails is hard keratin (not calcium), produced by keratinocytes.
A needle would pierce the epidermal layers of the forearm in which order?

basale, spinosum, granulosum, corneum
basale, spinosum, granulosum, lucidum, corneum
granulosum, basale, spinosum, corneum
corneum, granulosum, spinosum, basale
corneum, granulosum, spinosum, basale
Melanocytes and keratinocytes work together in protecting the skin from UV damage when keratinocytes ________.

maintain the appropriate temperature so the product of the melanocyte will not denature
accumulate the melanin granules on their superficial portion, forming a UV-blocking pigment layer
provide the melanocyte with a protective shield against abrasion
maintain the appropriate pH in order for the melanocyte to synthesize melanin granules
accumulate the melanin granules on their superficial portion, forming a UV-blocking pigment layer
What is the most important role of the arrector pili muscles in humans?

Cause the hair follicle to stand erect
Help retain heat
Defense
Force sebum out of the hair follicle to the skin surface
Cause the hair follicle to stand erect
Sudoriferous (sweat) glands are categorized as two distinct types. Which of the following are the two types of sweat glands?

sebaceous and merocrine
eccrine and apocrine
holocrine and mammary
mammary and ceruminous
eccrine and apocrine
Apocrine glands, which begin to function at puberty under hormonal influence, seem to play little role in thermoregulation. Where would we find these glands in the human body?

beneath the flexure lines in the body
in the palms of the hands and soles of the feet
in the axillary and anogenital area
in all body regions and buried deep in the dermis
in the axillary and anogenital area
Burns are devastating and debilitating because of loss of fluids and electrolytes from the body. How do physicians estimate the extent of burn damage associated with such dangerous fluid loss?

by using the "rule of nines"
by observing the tissues that are usually moist
through blood analysis
by measuring urinary output and fluid intake
by using the "rule of nines"
We are told that every surface we touch is teeming with bacterial cells, and bacteria are found in the pools we swim in, the water we wash with, and on the hands of friends. Why are we not inundated with bacterial infections on our skin?

Not all bacteria are harmful or thrive on the skin.
The low pH of the skin secretions retards the multiplication of bacteria on the skin.
All of these answers are correct.
Many bacteria are killed by bactericidal substances in the sebum and sweat.
All of these answers are correct.
Hyaline cartilage ________.

is the rarest of the skeletal cartilages
is found on the ends of bones that form movable joints
forms "shock-absorbing" pads between the vertebrae
gives shape to the external ear
is found on the ends of bones that form movable joints
The axial skeleton includes the ________.

bones of the arms
hip bones
ribs
bones of the legs
ribs
Choose the FALSE statement.

Long bones include all limb bones except the patella.
Sesamoid bones form within certain tendons.
Irregular bones include the vertebrae and hip bones.
The sternum is an example of a flat bone.
Long bones include all limb bones except the patella.
Osteoclasts ________.

form skeletal cartilage
calcify bone matrix
break down bone
form new bone
break down bone

Correct
Osteoclasts are bone-breaking (bone-resorption) cells.
The epiphyseal plate is ________.

where long bone lengthening occurs
the long axis of a bone
where yellow bone marrow is produced
the site of red bone marrow production
where long bone lengthening occurs

Correct
Long bones elongate from growth at the epiphyseal plate, a layer of hyaline cartilage between the epiphyses and diaphysis of long bones
What indicates that a long bone has reached its adult length?

the presence of osteoblasts
the presence of hyaline cartilage on the ends of the bone
the presence of osteons
closure of the epiphyseal plate
closure of the epiphyseal plate


Correct
The epiphyseal plate is a zone of hyaline cartilage between the epiphysis and diaphysis of a long bone. When the cartilage is replaced with bone and the plate closes (becoming an epiphyseal line), the bone has reached its maximum length.
What is the final stage in the healing of a bone fracture?

formation of a bony callus
formation of a fibrocartilaginous callus
bone remodeling
formation of a hematoma
bone remodeling

Correct
In order, here are the stages of bone fracture healing: (1) formation of a hematoma, (2) formation of a fibrocartilaginous callus, (3) formation of a bony callus, and (4) bone remodeling.
The structure of bone tissue suits the function. Which of the following bone tissues is adapted to support weight and withstand tension stress?

irregular bone
spongy bone
trabecular bone
compact bone
compact bone
The periosteum is secured to the underlying bone by dense connective tissue called ________.

Volkmann's canals
the struts of bone known as spicules
perforating (Sharpey's) fibers
a bony matrix with hyaline cartilage
perforating (Sharpey's) fibers
The structural unit of compact bone (osteon) resembles the growth rings of a tree trunk.

True
False
True
Each consecutive bone lamella has collagen fibers that wrap in alternating directions.

True
False
True
Why, or why not, is swimming recommended as an exercise to prevent osteoporosis?

Swimming is not recommended to prevent osteoporosis, as it is not considered a weight-bearing exercise.
Swimming is recommended to prevent osteoporosis, as it is considered a weight-bearing exercise.
Swimming is not recommended to prevent osteoporosis, as forces are applied in all directions on the bones simultaneously in swimming.
Swimming is recommended to prevent osteoporosis, as forces are applied in all directions on the bones simultaneously.
Swimming is not recommended to prevent osteoporosis, as it is not considered a weight-bearing exercise.
The ________ articulate(s) with the hip bones of the pelvis.

thoracic vertebrae
coccyx
sacrum
lumbar vertebrae
Sacrum

Correct
The sacrum articulates with the hip bones of the pelvis
If a herniated disc in the lumbar region is treated by surgically removing the intervertebral disc and doing a bone graft between the adjoining vertebrae, one of the consequences might be _________.

reduced flexibility of the spine in the lower back
gradual growth of a replacement intervertebral disc in the space between the vertebrae
increased shock absorbance qualities in the intervertebral discs located immediately above and below the graft in order to compensate for the removal of the herniated disc
All of the listed responses are correct.
reduced flexibility of the spine in the lower back

Correct
The intervertebral disc and space that it occupies provides room for vertebral bodies of adjacent vertebrae to flex and extend the vertebral column (spine).
The ribs that attach to the sternum are called ________.

floating ribs
true ribs
vertebral ribs
false ribs
true ribs

Correct
The superior seven rib pairs, called true ribs, attach directly to the sternum by individual costal cartilages.
Choose the FALSE statement.

The female pelvis is tilted further forward than the male pelvis.
The pelvic outlet is narrower in a female than in a male.
The female pelvis is thinner than that of a male.
The pubic arch is broader in the pelvis of a female than in the pelvis of a male.
The pelvic outlet is narrower in a female than in a male.

Correct
This is false; the pelvic outlet is narrower in a male than in a female. The female pelvis is modified for childbearing; it is wider, shallower and lighter than the male pelvis. The male pelvis has thicker/heavier bones with more prominent bone markings, acetabula that are larger and closer together, and a narrower, heart-shaped pelvic inlet.
Which of the following does NOT form part of the thoracic cage?

clavicle
thoracic vertebrae
sternum
ribs
clavicle

Correct
The clavicle is a part of the pectoral girdle; it does not form part of the thoracic cage.
How are the male and female pelves different?

The female pelvis has thicker bones with more prominent bone markings.
The pelvic inlet is heart-shaped in the male.
The male pelvis is usually wider, shallower, and lighter.
The acetabula are larger and closer together in the female.
The pelvic inlet is heart-shaped in the male.

Correct
The female pelvis is modified for childbearing; it is wider, shallower and lighter than the male pelvis. The male pelvis has thicker/heavier bones with more prominent bone markings, acetabula that are larger and closer together, and a narrower, heart-shaped pelvic inlet.
Which is the largest, longest, and strongest bone in the body?

os coxa
tibia
fibula
femur
Femur

Correct
The femur is the largest, longest, and strongest bone in the body. Its durable structure reflects the stress exerted on the femur as it bears the weight of the body when standing, walking, or running.
Which of the following bones is a part of the appendicular skeleton?

sternum
hyoid bone
mandible
humerus
Humerus

Correct
The humerus is part of the appendicular skeleton.
What is the major function of the intervertebral discs?

string the vertebrae together
absorb shock
prevent hyperextension of the spine
prevent hyperextension
absorb shock
The layman's name for the scapula is the collarbone.

True
False
False
The antebrachium is composed of which of the following two bones?

the humerus and the radius
the scapula and the clavicle
the radius and the ulna
the humerus and the clavicle
the radius and the ulna
The articulation that most closely resembles a hinge in the body involves which bones?

humerus-radius
femur-fibula
femur-tibia
humerus-ulna
humerus-ulna
The fibula is the major weight-bearing bone of the leg.

True
False
False
Describe fibrous joints.
Correct
In all three joints, bones are directly connected by dense fibrous tissue to form a joint lacking a cavity.
Functional classification of joints is based on ________.

the amount of movement allowed by the joint
whether a joint cavity is present
the size of the joint
the location of the joint
the amount of movement allowed by the joint

Correct
Functional classification is based on the amount of movement allowed by a joint. Structural classification focuses on the material binding the bones together, and whether a joint cavity is present.
Which of the following refers to a joint that is immovable?

diarthrosis
synarthrosis
synovial
amphiarthrosis
synarthrosis

Correct
Synarthroses are immovable joints and include sutures and syndesmoses.
Which of the following is NOT a factor that contributes to joint stability?

shape of the articulating surfaces
number and positioning of reinforcing ligaments
amount of muscle tone applied to tendons that cross the joint
amount of synovial fluid in the joint cavity
amount of synovial fluid in the joint cavity

Correct
The amount of synovial fluid in the joint cavity is not a factor that contributes to joint stability. The major role of synovial fluid is to lubricate the joint surfaces of freely movable (synovial) joints
The shoulder and hip are examples of ________.

condylar joints
pivot joints
plane joints
ball-and-socket joints
hinge joints
ball-and-socket joints

Correct
The shoulder and hip are examples of ball-and-socket joints.
Which of the following is NOT a structural feature of synovial joints?

reinforcing ligaments
bone ends united by fibrocartilage
bone ends covered with hyaline cartilage
a fluid-filled joint cavity
bone ends united by fibrocartilage

Correct
In synovial joints, bone ends are covered, but not united with cartilage. Hyaline (articular) cartilage covers the bone ends. The fibrocartilage found in some synovial joints, such as the knee joint, provides additional cushioning between opposing bone ends.
Which movement increases the angle between articulating bones?

adduction
extension
flexion
supination
extension

Correct
Extension involves movement along the sagittal plane that increases the angle between the articulating bones and typically straightens a flexed limb or body part.
Which joint has sacrificed stability to provide great freedom of movement?

elbow
ankle
knee
shoulder
shoulder

Correct
In the shoulder joint, stability has been sacrificed to provide the most freely moving joint in the body. The articulating bones provide minimal joint stability because of the size and "fit" of the articulating surfaces. The major stabilizing forces are soft tissue, in particular the tendons of the rotator cuff muscles (via muscle tone).
Fibrous joints are classified as ________.

hinge, saddle, and ellipsoidal
pivot, hinge, and ball and socket
symphysis, sacroiliac, and articular
sutures, syndesmoses, and gomphoses
sutures, syndesmoses, and gomphoses
In symphysis joints the articular surfaces of the bones are covered with ________.

hyaline cartilage
synovial membranes
tendon sheaths
fibrocartilage
hyaline cartilage
Articular cartilage found at the ends of the long bones serves to ________.

form the synovial membrane
produce red blood cells (hemopoiesis)
attach tendons
provide a smooth surface at the ends of synovial joints
provide a smooth surface at the ends of synovial joints
Bending your head back until it hurts is an example of ________.

flexion
extension
circumduction
hyperextension
hyperextension
What is moving a limb away from the median plane of the body along the frontal plane called?

adduction
inversion
abduction
dorsiflexion
abduction
Which of the following is CORRECTLY paired?

skeletal muscle: voluntary control
smooth muscle: striated
cardiac muscle: voluntary control
cardiac muscle: nonstriated
skeletal muscle: voluntary control

Correct
Correct; skeletal muscle is under voluntary control.
Which muscle characteristic describes the ability of muscle to respond to a stimulus?

extensibility
elasticity
contractility
excitability
excitability

Correct
Excitability, also termed responsiveness, is the ability to receive and respond to a stimulus, For example, skeletal muscle contracts in response to receiving chemical stimulation by a neurotransmitter called acetylcholine (ACh).
The cross bridge cycle is a series of molecular events that occur after excitation of the sarcolemma. What is a cross bridge?

ATP bound to a myosin head
Troponin bound to tropomyosin
A myosin head bound to actin
Calcium bound to troponin
A myosin head bound to actin

Correct
Yes! As soon as the activated myosin head forms a cross bridge with actin, the power stroke begins.
What structure is the functional unit of contraction in a skeletal muscle fiber?

The triad
The junctional folds of the sarcolemma
The cross bridge
The sarcomere
The sarcomere

Correct
Yes! A sarcomere is a regular arrangement of thin and thick myofilaments that extends from one Z disc to the next. A myofibril consists of a series of sarcomeres.
Calcium ions couple excitation of a skeletal muscle fiber to contraction of the fiber. Where are calcium ions stored within the fiber?

Calcium ions are stored in the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
Calcium ions are stored in the mitochondria.
Calcium ions are stored in the nuclei.
Calcium ions are stored in the transverse tubules.
Calcium ions are stored in the sarcoplasmic reticulum.


Correct
Yes! Sarcoplasmic reticulum is the specific name given to the smooth endoplasmic reticulum in muscle fibers. The sarcoplasmic reticulum is very elaborate in skeletal muscle fibers, allowing for significant storage of calcium ions.
After a power stroke, the myosin head must detach from actin before another power stroke can occur. What causes cross bridge detachment?

Acetylcholine binds to receptors in the junctional folds of the sarcolemma.
ATP binds to the myosin head.
ADP and inorganic phosphate are bound to the myosin head.
Calcium ions bind to troponin.
ADP and inorganic phosphate are bound to the myosin head.

Correct
Yes! The binding of ATP to the myosin head weakens the bond between myosin and actin, forcing the myosin head to detach. ATP also provides the energy for the next power stroke.
How does the myosin head obtain the energy required for activation?

The energy comes from the hydrolysis of GTP.
The energy comes from oxidative phophorylation.
The energy comes from the hydrolysis of ATP.
The energy comes from the direct phosphorylation of ADP by creatine phosphate
The energy comes from the hydrolysis of ATP.

Correct
Yes! Myosin is a large, complex protein with a binding site for actin. It also contains an ATPase. The energy released during the hydrolysis of ATP activates the myosin head.
What specific event triggers the uncovering of the myosin binding site on actin?

Calcium ions bind to troponin and change its shape.
Calcium release channels open in the sarcoplasmic reticulum, and calcium levels rise in the sarcoplasm.
Sodium ions bind to troponin and change its shape.
Calcium ions bind to tropomyosin and change its shape.
Calcium ions bind to troponin and change its shape.

Correct
Yes! The shape change caused by the binding of calcium to troponin shifts tropomyosin away from the myosin binding sites on actin.
When does cross bridge cycling end?

Cross bridge cycling ends when ATP binds to the myosin head.
Cross bridge cycling ends when calcium ions are passively transported back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
Cross bridge cycling ends when sufficient calcium has been actively transported back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum to allow calcium to unbind from troponin.
Cross bridge cycling ends when calcium release channels in the sarcoplasmic reticulum open.
Cross bridge cycling ends when sufficient calcium has been actively transported back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum to allow calcium to unbind from troponin.

Correct
Yes! The sarcoplasmic reticulum contains Ca2+-ATPases that actively transport Ca2+ into the SR. Without Ca2+, troponin returns to its resting shape, and tropomyosin glides over and covers the myosin binding sites on actin.
In a neuromuscular junction, synaptic vesicles in the motor neuron contain which neurotransmitter?

serotonin
acetylcholine (ACh)
norepinephrine
dopamine
acetylcholine (ACh)

Correct
Yes, acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter found in neuromuscular junctions
When an action potential arrives at the axon terminal of a motor neuron, which ion channels open?

voltage-gated potassium channels
voltage-gated sodium channels
chemically gated calcium channels
voltage-gated calcium channels
voltage-gated calcium channels

Correct
Yes, the action potential opens voltage-gated calcium channels and calcium rushes into the axon terminal, leading to the release of the neurotransmitter.
What means of membrane transport is used to release the neurotransmitter into the synaptic cleft?

exocytosis
a protein carrier
a channel
exocytosis

Correct
Yes, the synaptic vesicles (where the neurotransmitter is stored) merge with the membrane and release the neurotransmitter by exocytosis.
The binding of the neurotransmitter to receptors on the motor end plate causes which of the following to occur?

Binding causes chemically gated potassium channels to open in the motor end plate.
Binding of the neurotransmitter causes chemically gated sodium channels to open in the motor end plate.
Binding causes voltage-gated sodium channels to open in the motor endplate.
Binding causes potassium voltage-gated channels to open in the motor endplate.
Binding of the neurotransmitter causes chemically gated sodium channels to open in the motor end plate.

Correct
Yes, sodium enters the cell and causes depolarization. A small amount of potassium also leaves the motor end plate.
How is acetylcholine (ACh) removed from the synaptic cleft?

a reuptake pump on the axon terminal
acetylcholinesterase (AChE; an enzyme)
diffusion away from the synaptic cleft
acetylcholinesterase (AChE; an enzyme)

Correct
Yes, this enzyme is present in the synaptic cleft and breaks down acetylcholine.
The action potential on the muscle cell leads to contraction due to the release of calcium ions. Where are calcium ions stored in the muscle cell?

terminal cisternae of the sarcoplasmic reticulum
T tubule
sarcolemma
cytosol
terminal cisternae of the sarcoplasmic reticulum

Correct
Yes, calcium is stored in the terminal cisternae of the sarcoplasmic reticulum until it is released by an action potential.
The epimysium continuous with the tendon that connects the muscle to a bone?

True or false?
True

Correct
The dense connective tissue of the epimysium is continuous with the tendon that connects the muscle to a bone.
Actin is the chief component of the thin myofilaments.

True or false?
Correct
Actin is the chief component of the thin myofilaments.`
Calcium Ions bind to troponin to expose the actin for the cross bridge cycle.

True or false?
True.

Correct
Binding of calcium by troponin (B) removes the blocking action of tropomyosin along the thin myofilament. This allows myosin to bind to actin and form the cross bridge illustrated in this figure.
The smallest contractile unit of a muscle fiber is ________.

troponin
the sarcomere
the elastic filament
the myofilament
the sarcomere

Correct
The sarcomere is the smallest contractile unit of a muscle fiber, and the smallest functional unit of muscle. A sarcomere is the region of a myofibril between two successive Z discs; it primarily consists of thin and thick myofilaments.
The distance between Z discs ________ during muscle contraction.

decreases
increases
decreases and then increases
stays the same
decreases

Correct
During muscle contraction, the distance between Z discs decreases as the thin myofilaments slide across thick myofilaments, toward the M line in the center of each sarcomere. As the sarcomeres shorten, the myofibrils and, thus the myofibers shorten (contract).
The sliding filament model of contraction states that ________.

during contraction the thin myofilaments slide past T tubules so that the Z discs are overlapping
during contraction the thin myofilaments slide past the thick myofilaments so that calcium ions can be released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
during contraction the thin myofilaments slide past the thick myofilaments so that the actin and myosin myofilaments no longer overlap
during contraction the thin myofilaments slide past the thick myofilaments so that the actin and myosin myofilaments overlap to a greater degree
during contraction the thin myofilaments slide past the thick myofilaments so that the actin and myosin myofilaments overlap to a greater degree


Correct
The sliding filament model of contraction states that during contraction, the thin myofilaments slide past the thick myofilaments so that actin and myosin myofilaments overlap to a greater degree. In a relaxed muscle fiber, the thick and thin myofilaments overlap only at the ends of the A band.
Which organelle contains the contractile elements found in skeletal muscle?

myofibril
sarcoplasmic reticulum
sarcolemma
glycosome
myofibril

Correct
The myofibrils contain the contractile elements of skeletal muscles, the sarcomeres. The sarcomeres contain even smaller rod-like structures called myofilaments.
The type of muscle found in the walls of most hollow organs is ________.

unitary smooth muscle
cardiac muscle
skeletal muscle
multi unit smooth muscle
unitary smooth muscle

Correct
Smooth muscle is generally classified as being either unitary smooth muscle or multi unit smooth muscle. The type of muscle found in the walls of most hollow organs is unitary smooth muscle.
Rigor mortis occurs because ________.

sodium ions leak into the muscle causing continued contractions
the cells are dead
proteins are beginning to break down, thus preventing a flow of calcium ions
no ATP is available to release attached actin and myosin molecules
no ATP is available to release attached actin and myosin molecules
What is the functional unit of a skeletal muscle called?

the sarcoplasmic reticulum
a myofibril
a sarcomere
a myofilament
a sarcomere
Which of the following is the correct sequence of events for muscle contractions?

muscle cell action potential, neurotransmitter release, ATP-driven power stroke, calcium ion release from SR, sliding of myofilaments
neurotransmitter release, muscle cell action potential, motor neuron action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, sliding of myofilaments, ATP-driven power stroke
motor neuron action potential, neurotransmitter release, muscle cell action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, ATP-driven power stroke, sliding of myofilaments
neurotransmitter release, motor neuron action potential, muscle cell action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, ATP-driven power stroke
motor neuron action potential, neurotransmitter release, muscle cell action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, ATP-driven power stroke, sliding of myofilaments
Which of the following is NOT one of the basic functions of the nervous system?

control the activity of muscles and glands
integration of sensory input
regulation of neurogenesis
monitor changes occurring both inside and outside the body
regulation of neurogenesis

Correct
Most active during pre-natal development, neurogenesis (formation of neurons) is the process by which neurons are generated from neural stem cells. It is not one of the basic functions of the nervous system.
Which of the following allows us to consciously control our skeletal muscles?

the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system
the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system
the somatic nervous system
the afferent division of the nervous system
the somatic nervous system

Correct
The somatic nervous system is composed of somatic motor nerve fibers that conduct impulses from the central nervous system to skeletal muscles. It is often referred to as the voluntary nervous system because it allows us to consciously control our skeletal muscles.
What part of the nervous system performs information processing and integration?

sympathetic nervous system
central nervous system
parasympathetic nervous system
somatic nervous system
central nervous system

Correct
The central nervous system, which consists of the brain and spinal cord, is the integrating and control center of the nervous system. It interprets sensory input and dictates motor output based on reflexes, current conditions, and past experience.
What part of the neuron receives signals?
The dendrites and soma of the cell receive signals from other neurons.
Which area, on a neuron, would contain an abundance of vesicles containing neurotransmitter?
Correct
Neurotransmitters are stored in synaptic vesicles within axonal terminals for release into the synaptic cleft.
Which of the following peripheral nervous system (PNS) neuroglia form the myelin sheaths around larger nerve fibers in the PNS?

oligodendrocytes
Schwann cells
satellite cells
astrocytes
Schwann cells

Correct
Schwann cells (also called neurolemmocytes) surround all nerve fibers in the PNS and form myelin sheaths around the larger fibers. Myelin protects and electrically insulates nerve fibers, and it increases the transmission speed of nerve impulses.
Which of the following is the conducting region of the neuron?

dendrites
soma
terminal boutons
axon
axon

Correct
Functionally, the axon is the conducting region of the neuron. It generates nerve impulses and transmits them, typically away from the cell body, along the plasma membrane, or axolemma.
Which of the following is NOT a difference between graded potentials and action potentials?

Graded potentials can result from the opening of chemically gated channels; action potentials require the opening of voltage-gated channels.
Spatial summation is used to increase the amplitude of a graded potential; temporal summation is used to increase the amplitude of an action potential.
Greater stimulus intensity results in larger graded potentials, but not larger action potentials.
Graded potentials occur along dendrites, whereas action potentials occur along axons.
Graded potentials can result from the opening of chemically gated channels; action potentials require the opening of voltage-gated channels.
Spatial summation is used to increase the amplitude of a graded potential; temporal summation is used to increase the amplitude of an action potential.
Which of the following types of neurons carry impulses away from the central nervous system (CNS)?

afferent
association
motor
sensory
motor

Correct
Motor, or efferent, neurons carry impulses away from the CNS to the effector organs (muscles and glands) of the body periphery.
Ions are unequally distributed across the plasma membrane of all cells. This ion distribution creates an electrical potential difference across the membrane. What is the name given to this potential difference?

Threshold potential
Resting membrane potential (RMP)
Positive membrane potential
Action potential
Resting membrane potential (RMP)

Correct
Yes! The resting membrane potential is the baseline potential that can be recorded across the plasma membrane of an excitable cell prior to excitation.
Sodium and potassium ions can diffuse across the plasma membranes of all cells because of the presence of what type of channel?

Ligand-gated channels
Voltage-gated channels
Sodium-potassium ATPases
Leak channels
Leak channels


Yes. Leak channels for Na+ and K+ are ubiquitous, and they allow for the diffusion of these ions across plasma membranes.
On average, the resting membrane potential is -70 mV. What does the sign and magnitude of this value tell you?

The inside surface of the plasma membrane is much more negatively charged than the outside surface.
The inside surface of the plasma membrane is much more positively charged than the inside surface.
The outside surface of the plasma membrane is much more negatively charged than the inside surface.
There is no electrical potential difference between the inside and the outside surfaces of the plasma membrane.
The inside surface of the plasma membrane is much more negatively charged than the outside surface.

Correct
Yes! The inside surface of the plasma membrane accumulates more negative charge because of the presence of Na+ and K+ gradients and the selective permeability of the membrane to Na+ and K+.
The plasma membrane is much more permeable to K+ than to Na+. Why?

There are many more voltage-gated K+ channels than voltage-gated Na+ channels.
Ligand-gated cation channels favor a greater influx of Na+ than K+.
There are many more K+ leak channels than Na+ leak channels in the plasma membrane.
The Na+-K+ pumps transport more K+ into cells than Na+ out of cells.
There are many more K+ leak channels than Na+ leak channels in the plasma membrane.

Correct
Yes! More leak channels translates into more leakiness. Thus the outward flux of K+ is greater than the inward flux of Na+.
The resting membrane potential depends on two factors that influence the magnitude and direction of Na+ and K+ diffusion across the plasma membrane. Identify these two factors.

The presence of concentration gradients and voltage-gated channels
The presence of concentration gradients and Na+-K+ pumps
The presence of a resting membrane potential and leak channels
The presence of concentration gradients and leak channels
The presence of concentration gradients and leak channels

Correct
Yes! The concentration gradient and the large number of K+ leak channels allow for rather robust K+ diffusion out of a cell. In contrast, the concentration gradient and the relatively few Na+ leak channels allow for much less Na+ diffusion into a cell.
What prevents the Na+ and K+ gradients from dissipating?

Na+ cotransporter
Na+ and K+ leaks
Na+-K+ ATPase
H+-K+ ATPase
Na+-K+ ATPase

Correct
Yes! Also known as the Na+-K+ pump, or simply the pump, this transporter moves three Na+ out of the cell and two K+ into the cell for every ATP it hydrolyzes. This pumping action prevents the Na+ and K+ gradients from running down as these ions passively move through leak channels.
How is an action potential propagated along an axon?

Stimuli from the graded (local) potentials from the soma and dendrites depolarize the entire axon.
An influx of sodium ions from the current action potential depolarizes the adjacent area.
An efflux of potassium from the current action potential depolarizes the adjacent area.
An influx of sodium ions from the current action potential depolarizes the adjacent area.

Correct
Yes, the influx of sodium ions depolarizes adjacent areas, causing the membrane to reach threshold and cause an action potential. Thus, the action potential is regenerated at each new area.
Why does the action potential only move away from the cell body?

The areas that have had the action potential are refractory to a new action potential.
The flow of the sodium ions only goes in one direction—away from the cell body
The areas that have had the action potential are refractory to a new action potential.

Correct
Yes, sodium channels are inactivated in the area that just had the action potentia
The velocity of the action potential is fastest in which of the following axons?

a large unmyelinated axon
a small unmyelinated axon
a small myelinated axon
a small myelinated axon

Correct
Yes, the myelination acts as insulation and the action potential is generated only at the nodes of Ranvier. Propagation along myelinated axons is known as saltatory conduction.
The small space between the sending neuron and the receiving neuron is the

vesicle.
synaptic cleft.
synaptic terminal.
neurotransmitter.
calcium channel.
synaptic cleft.

Correct
The synaptic cleft is the small space between the sending neuron and the receiving neuron.
A molecule that carries information across a synaptic cleft is a

neurotransmitter.
synapse.
receiving neuron.
sending neuron.
synaptic cleft.
neurotransmitter.

Correct
Neurotransmitter molecules carry information across a synaptic cleft.
When calcium ions enter the synaptic terminal,

neurotransmitter molecules are quickly removed from the synaptic cleft.
they cause an action potential in the sending neuron.
the inside of the receiving neuron becomes more negative.
they cause vesicles containing neurotransmitter molecules to fuse to the plasma membrane of the sending neuron.
the inside of the receiving neuron becomes more positive.
they cause vesicles containing neurotransmitter molecules to fuse to the plasma membrane of the sending neuron.
When neurotransmitter molecules bind to receptors in the plasma membrane of the receiving neuron,

the receiving neuron becomes more negative inside.
the receiving neuron becomes more positive inside.
ion channels in the plasma membrane of the sending neuron open.
ion channels in the plasma membrane of the receiving neuron open.
vesicles in the synaptic terminal fuse to the plasma membrane of the sending neuron.
ion channels in the plasma membrane of the receiving neuron open.
If a signal from a sending neuron makes the receiving neuron more negative inside,

the sending neuron becomes more positive inside.
the receiving neuron is less likely to generate an action potential.
the receiving neuron immediately generates an action potential.
the sending neuron becomes more negative inside.
the receiving neuron is more likely to generate an action potential
the receiving neuron is less likely to generate an action potential.

Correct
If the receiving neuron is more negative inside, it is less likely to generate an action potential.
Unmyelinated fibers conduct impulses faster than myelinated fibers.

True
False
False.

Correct
Myelinated fibers (axons bearing a myelin sheath) conduct nerve impulses rapidly, whereas unmyelinated fibers conduct impulses more slowly. Note that myelin sheaths are associated only with axons; dendrites are always nonmyelinated.
What component of the reflex arc determines the response to a stimulus?

sensory neuron
effector
receptor
integration center
integration center

Correct
The integration center receives sensory information (input), determines the proper response, and then signals the appropriate effector(s) to produce the response.
Which of the choices below describes the ANS?

motor fibers that conduct nerve impulses from the CNS to smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands
sensory neurons that convey information from somatic receptors in the head, body wall, and limbs and from receptors from the special senses of vision, hearing, taste, and smell to the CNS
motor fibers that conduct nerve impulses from the CNS to skeletal muscles
sensory and motor neurons that supply the digestive tract
motor fibers that conduct nerve impulses from the CNS to smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands
The overlapping functions of the nervous system are sensory input, integration, and motor output.

True
False
True
The autonomic nervous system is under voluntary control; whereas, the somatic nervous system is involuntary.

True
False
False
The part of a neuron that conducts impulses away from its cell body is called a(n) ________.

Schwann cell
axon
dendrite
neurolemma
axon
Myelination of the nerve fibers in the central nervous system is the job of the oligodendrocyte.

True
False
True
If bacteria invaded the CNS tissue, microglia would migrate to the area to engulf and destroy them.

True
False
True
What does the central nervous system use to determine the strength of a stimulus?

origin of the stimulus
frequency of action potentials
type of stimulus receptor
size of action potentials
frequency of action potentials
Saltatory conduction is made possible by ________.

diphasic impulses
large nerve fibers
the myelin sheath
erratic transmission of nerve impulses
the myelin sheath
Which of the following is not true of graded potentials?

They increase amplitude as they move away from the stimulus point.
They can form on receptor endings.
They can be called postsynaptic potentials.
They are short-lived.
They increase amplitude as they move away from the stimulus point.
In myelinated axons the voltage-regulated sodium channels are concentrated at the nodes of Ranvier.

True
False
True
__________ forms a liquid cushion for CNS structures.

Cerebrospinal fluid
The dura mater
The pia mater
The blood-brain barrier
Cerebrospinal fluid


Correct
Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), found in and around the brain and spinal cord, forms a liquid cushion that gives buoyancy to CNS structures. By floating the jellylike brain, the CSF effectively reduces brain weight by 97% and prevents the delicate brain from crushing under its own weight. CSF also protects the brain and spinal cord from blows and other trauma. Additionally, although the brain has a rich blood supply, CSF helps to nourish the brain, and there is some evidence that it carries chemical signals (such as hormones and sleep- and appetite-inducing molecules) from one part of the brain to another.
Nerves that only carry impulses away from the central nervous system (CNS) are called __________.

afferent nerves
sensory nerves
motor nerves
mixed nerves
motor nerves

Correct
Nerves that only carry impulses away from the CNS are motor (efferent) nerves.
__________ are collections of neuron cell bodies associated with nerves in the peripheral nervous system (PNS).

Nuclei
Myelin sheaths
Ganglia
Fascicles
Ganglia

Correct
Ganglia are collections of neuron cell bodies associated with nerve fibers in the PNS, whereas nuclei are collections of neuron cell bodies in the CNS.
Another name for sweat glands is
sudoriferous glands
The two types of sweat glands are
eccrine and apocrine
Modified sweat glands that produce ear wax are called
ceruminous glands
Modified sweat glands that produce milk are called
mammary glands
The scientific name for oil glands is__________ these glands secrete oils and ___________
sebaceous gland; cell fragments
Secretions of the oil glands are stimulated by:
hormones or androgens
Small muscles at the base of hair follicles that contract to form goose bumps are called:
arrector pili
The part of the hair that shows is the _______ and the part of the dermis is called the _______
shaft; root
There are 3 concentric layers of the hair they are called: ____, ____, ____
The medulla, the cortex and the cuticle
The cells responsible for producing the pigment that results in hair colour are called
melanocytes
The functions of nails include: protection and scratching or identification and diagnosis
protection and scratching
Sweat is normally acidic or basic
acidic
The sweat gland that cause the body odour are found in the aural and pedal or axillary and anogenial regions
axillary and anogenial regions
Nails are modified from the epidermis/dermis/hypodermis
epidermis
What is sweat composed of?
Water, metabolic wastes, dermicidin, vitamin C and antibodies.
What are the main functions of muscle?
1. Movement. i.e walking.
2. Posture i.e able to sit up straight
3. Stabilize joints i.e knees won't buckle when exposed to pressure.
4. Generate heat i.e shivering
5. Protect internal organs i.e rectus abdominus
6. Regulate digestive functions i.e digestion of food w. smooth muscle.
What are the functional characteristics of muscle?
1. Excitability i.e can react to a stimulus
2. Contractility i.e can shorten
3. Extensibility i.e can extend
4. Elasticity i.e similiar to C and Exten
What are the main function of skin?
1. Protection:
i. Physical:tight junctions "water proofing"
ii:Chemical: Acid mantle low pH of sking. Dermicidin. Melanin prevents UV damage. Defensins kill bacteria. Cathelcidins prevent A strepococcus.
iii. Biological: Dendritic-->antigens>lymphocytes. Dermal macrophages.
2. Body temp-Dialation and constriction of blood vessels.
3. Cutaneous sensation-sensory receptors.
4.Blood resovoir: 5% of blood held in skin.
5. Metabolic functions: VIT D SYNTYH 4 BONE FORMATION.
6. Excretion: nitrogenous wastes, salts and oils.
What are the main functions of bone?
1. Support: gives organs support.
2 Protection: cranium/spinal cord.
3. Locomotion: muscles use as levers.
4. Hematopoeisis: Blood cell formation.
5. Mineral storage: Calcium and phosphorus.
6. Triglyceride: fat storage (YBM)
7. Hormone production: Osteocalcin.
Three main functional classifications of joints?
1. Fibrous (skull)
i. sutures, syndesmosis, gomphosis.
2. Cartilaginous (vertebrae)
3. Synovial: (elbow)
Three functional classifications?
1. Synarthrosis: IMMOVABLE (skull suture)
2. Amphiarthrosis: SLIGHTLY MOVABLE (Pubic symphsis)
3. Diarthrosis: FREELY MOVABLE. (Hip)
Three things that affect joint stability?
1. Size of articular surface. (Hip joint)
2. Ligament (B 2 B)
3. Tendons surrounding (M 2 B)
Name the types of joints in the body.
1. Plane joint. (Gliding, Noniaxial) (intercarpal joint)
2. Hinge joint ( Flexion/extension. Uniaxial) (elbow joint)
3. Pivot joint (rotation, uniaxial) ) (proximal radioulnar joints)
4. Condylar joint (F&E, A&A, biaxial) (wrist joints)
5. Saddle joint ( F&E, A&A, biaxial) (carpometacarpal joint of thumb)
6. Ball and socket (ALL, Multiaxial) (shoulder)
Name the functional classification of muscles.
1. Prime movers: Main muscle used.
2. Synergists: Stabilize muscles for prime mover.
3. Antagonist: Capable of the opposite action.
4. Fixators: stabilize joints.
What are the characteristics for naming muscles?
1. Location (intercostals)
2. Shape (deltoid=triangle)
3. Relative size (gluteus maximus)
4. Direction of muscle fibers (rectus abdominis)
5. # of origins (biceps femoris)
6. # of attachments (sternocleidomastoid0
7. Function of muscle (extensor carpi radialis)
What are the patterns of fascicle arrangements and examples.
1. Circular: Arrangement in a circle (orbicularis oris)
2. Convergent: fascicles converge to one tendon (pectoralis major)
3. Parallel: fascicles run along the long axis of the muscle (sartorius)
4. Fusiform: fasicles run along the long axis but are thicker. (biceps brachii)
5. Pennate: 3 forms
i: Unipennate: fascicles run down one side of the tendon. (extensor digitorum longus)
ii: Bipennate: fascicles run down opposite sides of the tendon. (rectus femoris)
iii. Multipennate: fascicles run down all sides of the tendon. (deltoid)
Which of the following best defines anatomy?
It is the study of how the body parts work and carry out their life-sustaining activities.
It is the study of the structure of body parts and their relationships to one another.
It is the study of all chemical reactions that occur within body cells.
It is the study of tissues.
It is the study of the structure of body parts and their relationships to one another.

Correct
Anatomy is the study of the structure of body parts and their relationships to one another.
Which of the following is the simplest level of structural organization in the human body?
tissue
chemical
cellular
organismal
Chemical
Correct
The simplest level of the structural hierarchy is the chemical level; chemicals (molecules) can be combined to form the structures of a cell
The study of large body structures, visible to the naked eye, such as the heart is called ________ anatomy.
developmental
microscopic
systemic
gross
gross
Which organ systems function as control systems, communicating with other cells/organs to regulate their activities?
nervous and endocrine systems
cardiovascular and endocrine systems
cardiovascular and digestive systems
nervous and cardiovascular systems
nervous and endocrine systems

Correct
Communication within the body is essential for homeostasis. Communication is accomplished chiefly by the nervous and endocrine systems, the body's control systems.
Which level of structural organization is considered to be the highest level?
organismal
cellular
chemical
organ
organismal


Correct
The highest level of organization is the organism, the living human being, Thus, the organismal level represents the sum total of all structural levels working together to keep us alive
A structure that is composed of two or more tissue types that work together to perform specific functions for the body is a(n) ________.
complex cell
organ
organ system
complex tissue
organ
A tissue consists of groups of similar cells that have a common function.
True
False
True
Which of the following represents the correct order in which the components interact in a homeostatic control system?
the effector, the stimulus, and the receptor
the receptor, the control center, and the effector
the variable, the receptor, and the set point
the receptor, the stimulus, and the effector
the receptor, the control center, and the effector

Correct
Regardless of the factor or event being regulated-the variable-all homeostatic control mechanisms are processes involving at least three components that work together. The first component, the receptor, is a sensor that monitors the environment and responds to changes by signaling (providing input to) the control center. The control center compares the input to the set point, which is the level or range at which a variable is to be maintained, and signals the appropriate effector(s). The effector produces the effect (change) that counteracts the initial problem (stimulus).
Lungs carry out an excretory function.
True
False
True
It is important for any organism to maintain its boundaries, so that its internal environment remains distinct from the external environment surrounding it.
True
False
True
Which of the following is the proper description of the human body in the anatomical position?
The body is erect with feet slightly apart and arms extending perpendicular to the torso along a straight line with the clavicle.
The body is erect with feet together, palms facing backward and the thumbs pointing toward the body.
The body is erect with feet slightly apart, and palms face forward with thumbs pointing away from the body.
The body is erect with feet together, and palms facing the thighs with thumbs pointing forward.
The body is erect with feet slightly apart, and palms face forward with thumbs pointing away from the body.

Correct
In the anatomical position, the body is erect with feet slightly apart and arms at the sides. This position is easy to remember because it resembles "standing at attention," except that the palms face forward and the thumbs point away from the body
Which of the following statements is correct?
The heart is dorsal to the sternum.
The sternum is posterior to the spine.
The sternum is dorsal to the spine.
The heart is posterior to the spine.
The heart is dorsal to the sternum.

Correct
The heart is dorsal (posterior) to the sternum. In humans, the terms dorsal and posterior are synonymous with one another, meaning "toward or at the back of the body," or behind.
In a homeostatic control mechanism, which component monitors the environment?
stimulus
control center
effector
receptor
receptor

Homeostasis refers to maintenance of relatively stable internal conditions even though the outside world changes continuously. Receptors monitor changes occurring both inside and outside the body and send this information (called input) to control centers for processing.
Homeostasis is the condition in which the body maintains ________.
a static state with no deviation from preset points
a dynamic state within an unlimited range, depending on circumstances
the lowest possible energy usage
a relatively stable internal environment, within limits
a relatively stable internal environment, within limits
Which of the following statements is correct?
The umbilicus is caudal to the chin.
The chin is caudal to the umbilicus.
The umbilicus is medial to the chin.
The umbilicus is superior to the chin.
Which of the following statements is correct?
The umbilicus is caudal to the chin.

The terms caudal and inferior are synonymous, meaning "away from the head end or toward the lower part of a structure or the body; below." The umbilicus is caudal (inferior) to the chin.
Part A The dorsal body cavity is divided into which of the following subdivisions?
the vertebral/spinal and cranial cavities
the vertebral/spinal and thoracic cavities
the thoracic, pleural, and abdominopelvic cavities
the vertebral/spinal, cranial, and pleural cavities
the vertebral/spinal and cranial cavities

The dorsal body cavity, which protects the fragile nervous system organs, has two subdivisions: the cranial cavity and the vertebral, or spinal, cavity.
The knee is proximal to the thigh.
True
False
False.
Correct
Proximal means closer to the origin of the body part or the point of attachment of a limb to the body trunk. Distal means farther from the origin of a body part or the point of attachment of a limb to the body trunk. In this case, because the thigh is closer to the body trunk than the knee, the knee is distal (not proximal) to the thigh.
We often see anatomical variations that render anatomical positions and directional terms inaccurate.
True
False
False .

Correct
Although we use common directional and regional terms to refer to all human bodies, humans often differ in their external and internal anatomies. Nonetheless, well over 90% of all structures present in any human body match the textbook descriptions. We seldom see extreme anatomical variations because they are incompatible with life.
The sagittal plane is a vertical plane that divides the body into right and left parts.
True
False
True

Correct
The sagittal plane is a vertical plane that divides the body into right and left parts.
The hand is ________ to the shoulder.
medial
distal
superior
proximal
distal

Correct
In anatomical position, the hand is distal to the shoulder. This means that the hand is further from the trunk of the body compared to the shoulder.
Which specific body cavity houses the heart and lungs?
dorsal
thoracic
pericardial
abdominopelvic
thoracic
Correct
The thoracic cavity contains the pericardial and pleural cavities, which in turn house the heart and lungs, respectively.
The regional term used to identify the thigh is ________.
coxal
femoral
crural
popliteal
femoral

Correct
Femoral refers to the thigh. The thigh bone is called the femur
Which directional term is used to describe the relationship of the skin relative to the skeletal muscles?
lateral
superficial
medial
deep
superficial

Correct
The skin covers the outside of the body, thus, it is superficial, or external, to the skeletal muscles.
A small family was traveling in its van and had a minor accident. The children in the back seats were wearing lap belts, but still sustained numerous bruises about the abdomen, and had some internal organ injuries. Why is this area more vulnerable to damage than others?
The abdominal organs have a thinner layer of fat to cushion them.
The abdominal cavity is the largest, and is thus most likely to receive damage.
The organs in the abdominal area not protected by serous membranes.
There are more organs present in the abdominal area, increasing the chance of damage.
The abdominal organs are not protected by a bony covering.
The abdominal organs are not protected by a bony covering.
What is the regional term for the hip region?
inguinal
coxal
pedal
manus
coxal
The heart lies in the ________ cavity.
pericardial
pleural
dorsal
superior mediastinal
pericardial
Which term means toward or at the back of the body, behind?
dorsal
lateral
anterior
distal
dorsal
The posterior knee area is called ________.
antecubital
crural
popliteal
sural
Antecubital
The anatomical position is characterized by all of the following except ________.
body erect
thumbs pointed laterally
palms turned posteriorly
arms at sides
palms turned posteriorly
Which of the following describes a parasagittal plane?
any sagittal plane except in the midline
a transverse cut just above the knees
any cut dividing the body into anterior and posterior portions
two cuts dividing the body into left and right halves
any sagittal plane except in the midline
Which of the following organs or structures would be found in the left iliac region?
intestines
appendix
liver
stomach
intestines
In which body cavities are the lungs located?
pericardial, ventral, and thoracic
mediastinal, thoracic, and ventral
pleural, ventral, and thoracic
pleural, dorsal, and abdominal
pleural, ventral, and thoracic
Which of these is not part of the dorsal cavity?
vertebral cavity
cranial cavity
thoracic cavity
spinal cord
thoracic cavity
In which quadrant of the abdominopelvic cavity is the stomach located?
left lower quadrant
left upper quadrant
right upper quadrant
right lower quadrant
left upper quadrant
The term pollex refers to the ________.
thumb
fingers
calf
great toe
thumb
The dorsal body cavity is the site of which of the following?
brain
lungs
intestines
liver
brain
The anatomical position is used ________.
for proper placement of a patient or a cadaver upon an operating table in order to reach all major organs
only when a body is lying down one one's back rather than stomach
rarely, because people don't usually assume this position during waking moments
as a standard reference point for directional terms regardless of the actual position of the body
as a standard reference point for directional terms regardless of the actual position of the body
What is a vertical section through the body, dividing it into left and right, called?
sagittal
regional
transverse
frontal
sagittal
What is a vertical section through the body, dividing it into anterior and posterior regions called?
sagittal
transverse
frontal
median
frontal
The anatomical position means the body is standing at attention with the palms facing forward and the thumbs pointing away from the body.
True
False
True
The elbow is proximal to the shoulder.
True
False
False
The epigastric region is superior to the umbilical region.
True
False
True
Which of the following is NOT one of the three major components of a typical eukaryotic cell?
plasma membrane
ribosome
nucleus
cytoplasm
ribosome

Correct
Ribosomes are organelles and they are located within one of the major components of the cell.
Which of the following acts as the digestive system of the cell, breaking down materials?
ribosome
endoplasmic reticulum
nucleus
lysosome
lysosome


Correct
Lysosomes use their enzymes to break down material, much as our digestive system breaks down the foods we consume. The root "lyse" means to loosen or separate, which is what the enzymes in lysosomes do to the chemical bonds in the items they digest.
Where in a typical eukaryotic cell would you expect to find genes?
in chromosomes within the cytosol
in the chromatin within the cell's cytoplasm
in the nucleolus within the nucleus
in the DNA within the cell's nucleus
in the DNA within the cell's nucleus

Correct
The nucleus houses the DNA, which contains the genes. Genes determine what proteins the cell can make, which in turn determines what the cell can do.
Which of the following statements about cells is FALSE?
Cells join together to form organelles, which then form our organs and organ systems.
Cells are the most basic units of life.
The cells in our bodies collectively carry out all of the functions necessary for us to stay alive.
Although human cells are diverse in size, shape, and function, they have essentially the same organelles and general structure.
Cells join together to form organelles, which then form our organs and organ systems.

Correct
Organelles are the functional parts of cells—they are inside the cells, in the cytoplasm. Cells join to form tissues, and the tissues then join to form the organs that work together in organ systems.
Which of the following is NOT a concept of the cell theory?
A cell is the basic structural and functional unit of living organisms.
The activity of an organism depends on both the individual and the collective activities of its cells.
The biochemical activities of cells are dictated by the relative number of their specific subcellular structures.
Cells are given life through a process known as spontaneous generation.
Cells are given life through a process known as spontaneous generation.

Correct
All cells arise from pre-existing cells through cell division. Thus, continuity of life from one generation to another has a cellular basis. The other three major concepts of cell theory are as follows. (1) A cell is the basic structural and functional unit of living organisms. When you define cell properties you are, in fact, defining the properties of life. (2) The activity of an organism depends on both the individual and the collective activities of its cells. (3) According to the principle of complementarity of structure and function, the biochemical activities of cells are dictated by the relative number of their specific subcellular structures.
Which of the following is the main component of the cell membrane?
carbohydrates
water
phospholipids
cholesterol
phospholipids

Correct
Although phospholipids have a polar head, the long fatty acid tails are nonpolar, making the membrane mostly nonpolar.
Which of the following is a characteristic of the cell membrane?
not permeable
semipermeable
fully permeable
impermeable
semipermeable

Correct
The cell membrane is semipermeable, or selectively permeable, because some things can easily pass through it while others cannot.
Which of the following is not a major function of proteins in the cell membrane?
anchoring cells to other structures
forming the entire glycocalyx
acting as receptors
forming channels
forming the entire glycocalyx
Correct
The glycocalyx is composed mostly of carbohydrates.
What part of a cell membrane is usually in contact with the interstitial fluid?
hydrophobic molecules
fatty acid tails
phosphate heads of phospholipids
cholesterol
phosphate heads of phospholipids
Correct
The phosphate heads of the phospholipids are polar, so they are attracted to the polar water molecules
The plasma membrane is made primarily of ________.
water
phospholipids
amino acids
nucleic acids
phospholipids

Correct
The plasma (cell) membrane is a phospholipid bilayer, composed of two parallel sheets of phospholipid molecules lying tail to tail, with their polar heads exposed to water on either side of the membrane. Each lollipop-shaped phospholipid molecule has a polar "head" that is charged and is hydrophilic (hydro = water, philic = loving), and an uncharged, nonpolar "tail" that is made of two fatty acid chains and is hydrophobic.
Which type of cell junction acts as anchors and distributes tension through a cellular sheet and reduces the chance of tearing when it is subjected to great mechanical stress?
desmosomes
connexons
gap junctions
tight junctions
desmosomes
Which of the following would not be a constituent of a plasma membrane?
glycolipids
glycoproteins
messenger RNA
phospholipids
messenger RNA
Cholesterol helps to stabilize the cell membrane while decreasing the mobility of the phospholipids.
True
False
True
A primary active transport process is one in which __________.
molecules move through transport proteins that have been activated by ATP
molecules pass directly through the phospholipid bilayer of the plasma membrane
an intracellular vesicle fuses with the plasma membrane and releases its contents to the extracellular fluid
the plasma membrane folds inward to form a vesicle containing extracellular material
molecules move across the plasma membrane without an input of energy
molecules move through transport proteins that have been activated by ATP

Correct
Yes! You've got it! Primary active transporters, such as the sodium-potassium ATPase (or pump), are activated when ATP is hydrolyzed. This activation allows for the transport of solutes across the plasma membrane against concentration gradients.
Some transport processes use transport proteins in the plasma membrane, but do not require ATP. This type of transport is known as _____.
active transport
facilitated diffusion
exocytosis
endocytosis
simple diffusion
facilitated diffusion


Correct
Yes! You've got it! Facilitated diffusion is a passive transport process during which molecules move down their concentration gradients through transport proteins.
Water moves across plasma membranes by osmosis, a process that is most similar to ____.
cotransport
simple diffusion
a process that requires energy from the cell
facilitated diffusion
active transport
a process that requires energy from the cell
facilitated diffusion
The sodium-potassium pump uses ATP to move sodium and potassium ions across the plasma membrane. This statement describes _____.
exocytosis
facilitated diffusion
primary active transport
secondary active transport
simple diffusion
primary active transport

Correct
Yes! You've got it! The sodium-potassium pump is activated by ATP. This activation allows the pump to transport sodium and potassium ions against their gradients
A vesicle fuses with the plasma membrane and releases its contents to the extracellular fluid. This statement describes _____.
simple diffusion
endocytosis
exocytosis
active transport
facilitated diffusion
exocytosis

Correct
Yes! You've got it! The term exocytosis literally means "out of the cell."
Which of the following best explains diffusion?
movement of molecules farther away from equilibrium
movement of molecules from where there are fewer of them to where there are more
movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration
exchange of nonpolar molecules for polar molecules
movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration

Correct
By diffusion, molecules spread out to maximize their space
Which of the following is most likely to move through the cell membrane by facilitated diffusion?
Na+
small lipids
O2
CO2
Na+

Correct
Ions move easily through water, which is polar, but cannot pass directly through the lipid (nonpolar) part of the cell membrane.
What is the basic difference between simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion across a cell membrane?
In facilitated diffusion, molecules only move with the aid of a protein in the membrane.
Simple diffusion is passive but facilitated diffusion is an active process that uses energy.
In simple diffusion, molecules move down the concentration gradient but in facilitated diffusion molecules move up the concentration gradient.
Simple diffusion requires molecules to move through special doorways in the cell membrane.
In facilitated diffusion, molecules only move with the aid of a protein in the membrane.

Correct
Facilitated diffusion allows molecules that cannot pass through the lipid component of the membrane to pass through via a more compatible protein channel or carrier. This includes ions and polar molecules.
Which of the following is least likely to increase the rate of diffusion?
high temperature
small molecule size
small concentration gradient
higher concentration of molecules
small concentration gradient
Correct
The larger the concentration gradient, the faster the rate of diffusion. Higher concentration means there are more collisions, so the molecules bounce away from each other more rapidly.
Which of the following is not required for osmosis to occur?
water
concentration gradient
energy
selectively permeable membrane
energy
Correct
Osmosis is a special type of diffusion, which is always a passive process.
Which of the following solutions contains the most solute?
equilibrium
hypertonic
isotonic
hypotonic
hypertonic

"Hyper" means "high," so a hypertonic solution has a higher solute concentration than the solution to which it is being compared.
In general, to maintain homeostasis the relationship between our intracellular and extracellular fluids should be which of the following?
intracellular should be hypotonic to extracellular
intracellular should be hypertonic to extracellular
isotonic to each other
intracellular and extracellular should both be hypertonic
isotonic to each other
In order to prevent the cells from either swelling or shrinking, the body fluids should be isotonic, meaning that they are at equilibrium.
If a person is severely dehydrated, their extracellular fluids will become hypertonic to the intracellular fluid. What do you predict will happen to the person's cells?
Extracellular fluids do not impact cell size, because cells contain intracellular fluid.
The cells will rupture.
The cells will swell.
The cells will lose water and shrink.
The cells will lose water and shrink.


The hypertonic extracellular fluid will draw water out of the hypotonic intracellular fluid, so the cells will shrink. This is called crenulation
Why are protein channels and carriers required for the movement of glucose into or out of the cell?
Glucose is repelled by the polar heads of the membrane phospholipid molecules.
Glucose is a relatively large chemical structure.
Glucose is a hydrophilic molecule.
The phospholipid region of the membrane is impermeable to all organic molecules.
Glucose is a hydrophilic molecule.
Correct
Glucose and other monosaccharides are polar hydrophilic molecules that are not able to traverse the hydrophobic region of the phospholipid bilayer.
________ is the diffusion of a solvent, such as water, across a selectively permeable membrane.
Unassisted diffusion
Osmosis
Simple diffusion
Facilitated diffusion
Osmosis

A special name, osmosis, is given to the unassisted diffusion of a solvent, usually water, through a selectively permeable membrane.
Solutions with a higher concentration of solutes than the concentration inside the cells are __________.
hypoosmotic
hypertonic
hypotonic
isotonic
hypertonic
Hypertonic solutions have a higher concentration of nonpenetrating solutes than seen in the cell (for example, a strong saline solution). Cells immersed in hypertonic solutions lose water and shrink, or crenate.
Which of the following statements is TRUE?
During endocytosis, substances from inside the cell are moved outside.
Endocytosis and exocytosis are passive transport mechanisms.
During exocytosis, substances from inside the cell are moved outside.
Endocytosis cannot occur unless exocytosis has occurred.
During exocytosis, substances from inside the cell are moved outside.

Vesicular transport processes that eject substances from the cell interior into the extracellular fluid are called exocytosis. Exocytosis is a form of active transport, thus it requires energy, usually in the form of ATP.
Which of the following processes allows cells to concentrate material that is present only in very small amounts in the extracellular fluid?
receptor-mediated endocytosis
phagocytosis
pinocytosis
transcytosis
receptor-mediated endocytosis

Receptor-mediated endocytosis is the main mechanism for the specific endocytosis and transcytosis of most macromolecules by body cells, and it is exquisitely selective. The mechanism also allows cells to concentrate material that is present only in very small amounts in the extracellular fluid.
Diffusion is a form of active transport.
True
False
False

Diffusion is a form of passive, not active, transport. Diffusion results from substances moving down their concentration gradient, a form of kinetic energy. In order to move, or actively pump, substances against their concentration gradient, energy must be used. ATP directly, or indirectly, provides the energy for active transport.
Why is the selective permeability of the plasma membrane essential for normal cell function?
Selective permeability allows cells to determine which proteins they should produce and retain.
Selective permeability allows cells to bind to one another in a fluid environment.
Selective permeability allows cells to communicate with each other by sharing large and small molecules.
Selective permeability allows cells to exclude some substances and allow others to pass into or out of the cell.
Selective permeability allows cells to exclude some substances and allow others to pass into or out of the cell.

Selective permeability of the plasma membrane ensures that the continual traffic across the membrane does not include undesirable substances. It also ensures that desirable cell contents are retained within the cell
What is the difference between active and passive transport across the plasma membrane?
Active transport implies that the cell is working with other cells, whereas passive transport implies that the cell does not cooperate with other cells.
Active transport means that the cell is actively going after substances that it wants to bring into the cell, whereas passive transport means that the cell just waits for the substance to cross the membrane.
Active transport is used to move substances down their concentration gradient, whereas passive transport is used to move substances against their concentration gradient.
Active transport is ATP dependent, whereas passive transport uses only the kinetic energy of the particles for movement across the plasma membrane.
Active transport is ATP dependent, whereas passive transport uses only the kinetic energy of the particles for movement across the plasma membrane.

Correct
In active transport, the cell provides the metabolic energy (ATP) needed to move substances across the plasma membrane (against their concentration gradient). In passive transport, substances cross the plasma membrane (down their concentration gradient) using kinetic energy, without any energy input from the cell.
Which vesicular transport process occurs primarily in some white blood cells and macrophages?
phagocytosis
intracellular vesicular trafficking
pinocytosis
exocytosis
phagocytosis
A red blood cell placed in pure water would ________.
neither shrink nor swell
swell initially, then shrink as equilibrium is reached
swell and burst
shrink
swell and burst
Which of these is not a function of the plasma membrane?
It prevents potassium ions from leaking out and sodium ions from crossing into the cell.
It encloses the cell contents in such a way that water in the body is divided into separate compartments.
It is selectively permeable but permits water and gases to cross.
It acts as a site of cell-to-cell interaction and recognition.
It prevents potassium ions from leaking out and sodium ions from crossing into the cell
Which of the following statements is correct regarding net diffusion?
The lower the temperature, the faster the rate.
Molecular weight of a substance does not affect the rate.
The rate is independent of temperature.

The greater the concentration gradient, the faster the rate.
The greater the concentration gradient, the faster the rate.
Once solid material is phagocytized and taken into a vacuole, which of the following statements best describes what happens?
The vacuole remains separated from the cytoplasm and the solid material persists unchanged.
A lysosome combines with the vacuole and digests the enclosed solid material.
A ribosome enters the vacuole and uses the amino acids in the "invader" to form new protein.
The phagocytized material is stored until further breakdown can occur..
A lysosome combines with the vacuole and digests the enclosed solid material.
.
Passive membrane transport processes include ________.
consumption of ATP
movement of water from an area of high solute concentration to an area of low concentration
movement of a substance down its concentration gradient
the use of transport proteins when moving substances from areas of low to high concentration
movement of a substance down its concentration gradient
Crenation (shrinking) is likely to occur in blood cells immersed in ________.
a hypertonic solution
blood plasma
a hypotonic solution
an isotonic solution
a hypertonic solution
In osmosis, movement of water occurs toward the solution with the lower solute concentration.
True
False
False
A process by which large particles may be taken into the cell for food, protection of the body, or for disposing of old or dead cells is called phagocytosis.
True
False
True
Diffusion movement always occurs from areas of greater to areas of lesser concentration.
True
False
True
Facilitated diffusion always requires a carrier protein.
True
False
False
What is the primary function of the mitochondria?
They build cholesterol.
They are the primary sites of protein production in a cell.
They are the main sites of ATP production.
They are the main sites of photosynthesis.
Mitochondria are threadlike or lozenge-shaped membranous organelles. In living cells they squirm, elongate, and change shape almost continuously. They are the power plants of a cell, providing most of its ATP supply.
Which organelle is responsible for synthesizing proteins?
ribosomes
Golgi apparatus
mitochondria
smooth endoplasmic reticulum
ribosomes


Proteins are synthesized at ribosomes. Free ribosomes float freely in the cytoplasm and produce soluble proteins that function in the cytosol, as well as those imported into mitochondria and some other organelles. Fixed ribosomes, which stud the rough endoplasmic reticulum, synthesize proteins destined either for incorporation into the cell membrane or lysosomes, or for export from the cell.
Lysosomes perform digestive functions within a cell.
True
False
True


Correct
Born as endosomes that contain inactive enzymes, lysosomes are spherical, membranous organelles containing activated digestive enzymes. Lysosomes are large and abundant within phagocytes, the cells that dispose of invading bacteria and cell debris. Lysosomal enzymes can digest almost all kinds of biological molecules. They work best in acidic conditions and so are called acid hydrolases.
Which cell organelle provides the majority of the ATP needed by the cell to carry out its metabolic reactions?
lysosome
ribosome
mitochondrion
Golgi apparatus
mitochondrion
Correct
Mitochondria are the site of the majority of ATP production because of the specialized enzymes on their cristae
Once solid material is phagocytized and taken into a vacuole, which of the following statements best describes what happens?

The vacuole remains separated from the cytoplasm and the solid material persists unchanged.
A lysosome combines with the vacuole and digests the enclosed solid material.
A ribosome enters the vacuole and uses the amino acids in the "invader" to form new protein.
The phagocytized material is stored until further breakdown can occur..
A lysosome combines with the vacuole and digests the enclosed solid material.
Passive membrane transport processes include ________.

consumption of ATP
movement of water from an area of high solute concentration to an area of low concentration
movement of a substance down its concentration gradient
the use of transport proteins when moving substances from areas of low to high concentration
movement of a substance down its concentration gradient
Which cell component helps to maintain the structural integrity of the cell?

peroxisome
centriole
cytoskeleton
ribosome
cytoskeleton

Correct
The cytoskeleton acts as the cell's "bones," "muscles," and "ligaments" by supporting cellular structures and providing the machinery to generate various cell movements.
The main component of the cytosol is ________.

sugars
salts
proteins
water
water
The functions of centrioles include ________.

serving as the site for ribosomal RNA synthesis
providing a whiplike beating motion to move substances along cell surfaces
producing ATP
organizing the mitotic spindle in cell division
organizing the mitotic spindle in cell division
Which phrase below correctly describes metaphase?

Sister chromatids are aligned at the metaphase plate
Centrosomes are attached at the metaphase plate
The centromeres are positioned continually along the spindle
The chromosomes in a sister chromatid begin to separate from one another
Sister chromatids are aligned at the metaphase plate
Select the correct activity occurring during anaphase.

Pairs of sister chromatids split from one another.
Chromatid pairs are move towards opposite poles of the cell.
Pairs of sister chromatids are clustered near the midline of the cell.
Chromosomes move towards opposite poles of the cell.
Chromosomes move towards opposite poles of the cell.
Which is true regarding cytokinesis?

The pinching in of the cytoplasm and cleavage furrow begins and ends after telophase is totally finished.
Cytokinesis always begins and ends in telophase.
Cytokinesis usually begins in anaphase.
The cytokinesis cleavage furrow is made by the mitosis spindle.
Cytokinesis usually begins in anaphase.
Which of the following builds new strands of DNA?

the lagging strand of DNA
DNA helicase
DNA polymerase
the leading strand of DNA
the replication fork
DNA polymerase

DNA polymerase is an enzyme that builds new strands of DNA. It does this by adding DNA nucleotides one at a time.
Which statement best describes strand characteristics as it relates to DNA replication?

The leading and lagging strands are both built continuously.
The leading and lagging strands are both built in fragments.
The lagging strand is built continuously, and the leading strand is built in pieces.
The leading strand is built continuously, and the lagging strand is built in pieces.
The leading strand is built continuously, and the lagging strand is built in pieces.



This statement is correct! Because strands in a DNA double helix run in opposite directions, the new strands must be made in different ways. The leading strand is built continuously.
During DNA replication, which nucleotide will bind to an A nucleotide in the original or parental DNA strand?

U
T
A
C
G
T

Correct
During DNA replication, A only binds with T and T only binds with A.
Which protein joins together the Okazaki fragments of DNA in the lagging strand?

the leading strand
DNA ligase
RNA
DNA polymerase
the replication fork
DNA ligase

Correct
DNA ligase joins the Okazaki fragments in the lagging strand, turning it into a continuous strand.
Which statement about DNA replication is FALSE?

Because the two strands of original or parental DNA run in opposite directions, the new strands must be made in different ways.
The lagging strand is made of a series of fragments that must be joined together to make a continuous strand.
DNA polymerase III builds a new strand by adding DNA nucleotides one at a time.
The two strands of original or parental DNA are separated during DNA replication.
DNA ligase adds nucleotides to the lagging strand
DNA ligase adds nucleotides to the lagging strand


You're correct! This statement is FALSE. DNA ligase joins the Okazaki fragments in the lagging strand, turning it into a continuous strand. It does not add nucleotides to the lagging strand.
During which phase of the cell cycle does DNA duplication, or replication, take place?

Anaphase
Metaphase
Interphase
Prophase
Interphase

Yes! DNA replicates during interphase. This process provides each new daughter cell with a full complement of genetic material.
When a double helix of DNA is replicated, two complete helices are formed. Together, these helices are called sister __________.

telomeres
chromatids
centromeres
chromosomes
chromatids
Yes! Each new daughter cell receives one of the sister chromatids. After the chromatids separate, each is considered a new chromosome. At the end of cell division, each new cell contains 23 pairs of chromosomes.
During which phase of mitosis do sister chromatids line up at the center of the cell?

Prophase
Metaphase
Anaphase
Telophase
Metaphase

Yes! Spindle microtubules from both poles of the cell attach to the sister chromatids and pull them in both directions. During metaphase, the sister chromatids are forced to the center of the cell.
During which phase of mitosis do the sister chromatids move apart?

Telophase
Anaphase
Metaphase
Prophase
Anaphase

Correct
Yes! During anaphase, the centromeres split and the spindle microtubules pull the sister chromatids to opposite poles of the cell. The single chromatids are now considered chromosomes.
During which phase of mitosis do nuclear envelopes and the nucleoli reappear?

Telophase
Metaphase
Anaphase
Prophase
Telophase

Yes! Telophase begins when the chromosomes stop moving. Nuclear envelopes form, and nucleoli reappear. Ultimately, the cell divides in two by a process known as cytokinesis.
During which phase of mitosis do the nuclear envelope and nucleoli disappear?

Metaphase
Telophase
Prophase
Anaphase
Prophase

Correct
Yes! Prophase is the first phase of mitosis. During this phase, the sister chromatids condense, the nuclear envelope and nucleoli disappear, and the spindle apparatus forms.
What is the name of the process by which the cytoplasm divides in two?

Cytokinesis
Microtubule shortening
Segregation
Cytoplasmic streaming
Cytokinesis

Yes! During cytokinesis, a ring of actin and myosin filaments contract to form a cleavage furrow and the cell divides in two.
Which of the following statements best explains why the leading and lagging strands are synthesized using two different mechanisms?
DNA polymerase must first synthesize the leading strand before initiating lagging strand synthesis.
Each parent DNA strand is composed of different base sequences.
The completed leading strand consists of RNA while the completed lagging strand consists of DNA.
The DNA is replicated in one direction, but DNA polymerase must work in opposite directions on each parent strand.
The DNA is replicated in one direction, but DNA polymerase must work in opposite directions on each parent strand.
After DNA replication is completed, each DNA double helix consists of ______.\

either two old strands or two new strands
one old parent strand and one new daughter strand
two newly synthesized strands that replace the old parent strands
strands that are mixtures of old and new nucleotides
one old parent strand and one new daughter strand


This mechanism is called semiconservative replication and is based on the ability of each strand of the DNA double helix to function as a template for the synthesis of the opposite strand.
During DNA replication, the covalent bonding of nucleotides into a new strand of DNA is performed by ________.

DNA polymerase
RNA polymerase
primase
DNA ligase
DNA polymerase is the enzyme that positions complementary nucleotides along the template strand and then covalently links them together into a new strand of DNA.
________ is a molecular "ferry" that brings amino acids to the ribosome to build a protein.

DNA
mRNA
t-RNA
rRNA
t-RNA

t-RNA serves as an adapter molecule; it ferries amino acids to the ribosome and participates in translation (the process by which amino acids are assembled into proteins).
During interphase of the cell life cycle, the parent cell divides into two daughter cells.

True
False
False

Mitosis is the phase of the cell cycle in which cell division occurs. Interphase is the phase of the cell life cycle in which the cell grows and carries on its usual activities.
What must happen before a body cell can begin mitotic cell division?

Its DNA must be divided in half so that half can go to one daughter cell and half can go to the other daughter cell.
Its DNA must be replicated exactly so that identical copies of the cell's genes can be passed on to each of its offspring.
The DNA is expelled from the cell so that it will not be affected by the division process.
The DNA undergoes mutation in order to increase variation in the cell population.
Its DNA must be replicated exactly so that identical copies of the cell's genes can be passed on to each of its offspring.


Before a body cell begins mitosis, it must replicate its DNA so that each daughter cell will have the same DNA as the parent cell.
Which of the following statements is correct regarding RNA?

If the base sequence of DNA is ATTGCA, the messenger RNA template will be UCCAGU.
rRNA is always attached to the rough ER.
There is exactly one specific type of mRNA for each amino acid.
Messenger RNA, transfer RNA, and ribosomal RNA play a role in protein synthesis.
Messenger RNA, transfer RNA, and ribosomal RNA play a role in protein synthesis.
Mitosis ________.

is division of the nucleus
is the formation of sex cells
creates diversity in genetic potential
is always a part of the cell cycle
is division of the nucleus
Which statement is the most correct regarding transcription/translation?

The nucleotide sequence in a tRNA anticodon is an exact copy of the DNA triplet that coded for it.
The nucleotide sequence in a mRNA codon is an exact copy of the DNA triplet that coded for it.
The nucleotide sequence in a mRNA codon is an exact copy of the DNA triplet that coded for it except that uracil is substituted for thymine.
The nucleotide sequence in a tRNA anticodon is an exact copy of the DNA triplet that coded for it except that uracil is substituted for thymine.
The nucleotide sequence in a tRNA anticodon is an exact copy of the DNA triplet that coded for it except that uracil is substituted for thymine.
In which stage of mitosis do the identical sets of chromosomes uncoil and resume their chromatin form?

anaphase
prophase
metaphase
telophase
telophase
If a tRNA had an AGC anticodon, it could attach to a(n) ________ mRNA codon.

AUG
UGA
TCG
UCG
UCG
Each daughter cell resulting from mitotic cell division has exactly as many chromosomes as the parent cell.

True
False
True
The orderly sequence of the phases of mitosis is prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase.

True
False
True
DNA transcription is another word for DNA replication.

True
False
False
Apoptosis is programmed cell suicide; cancer cells do not undergo this process.

True
False
True
The majority of whole blood is __________.
plasma
erythrocytes
leukocytes
platelets
plasma
What is hematocrit a measure of?

Hematocrit is the percentage of formed elements in a whole blood sample.
Hematocrit is the percentage of leukocytes and platelets in a whole blood sample.
Hematocrit is the percentage of erythrocytes in a whole blood sample.
Hematocrit is the percentage of plasma in a whole blood sample.
Hematocrit is the percentage of erythrocytes in a whole blood sample.
The __________ is the fluid portion of the blood.

hemoglobin
hematocrit
buffy coat
plasma
plasma
In a centrifuged sample of blood, what makes up the buffy coat?

white blood cells and platelets
red blood cells
plasma
platelets only
white blood cells and platelets

The buffy coat (the creamy white zone between the yellowish plasma and the red erythrocytes) consists of white blood cells and platelets. It constitutes less than 1% of whole blood.
Which of the following is not a distribution function of blood?

delivery of oxygen to body cells
transport of hormones to their target organs
transport of metabolic wastes from cells
transport of salts to maintain blood volume
transport of salts to maintain blood volume
Which of the following is true of the structure of an erythrocyte?

Erythrocytes are cell fragments.
Erythrocytes are a fixed shape and cannot change shape.
Erythrocytes are nucleated cells.
Erythrocytes are shaped like biconcave discs.
Erythrocytes are shaped like biconcave discs.
What is the name of the protein found in erythrocytes that allows for respiratory gas transport?


antibodies
hemoglobin
albumin
fibrinogen
hemoglobin
How many oxygen molecules can be transported by one hemoglobin molecule?

four
eight
two
four
Which of the following is best suited to the clotting process that occurs when blood vessels are ruptured?

lymphocytes
megakaryocyte
platelets
megakaryoblast
platelets
Choose the statement that is true concerning hemoglobin.


It is found in the plasma portion of blood.
When hemoglobin is not bound to oxygen, it appears blue.
It can bind a maximum of three oxygen molecules.
It is composed of four protein chains and four heme groups.
It is composed of four protein chains and four heme groups.
In adults, red blood cell production occurs in __________.

the thymus
the liver
yellow bone marrow
red bone marrow
red bone marrow
Choose the compatible transfusion.

Donate type O blood to a recipient with type AB blood.
Donate type AB blood to a recipient with type B blood.
Donate type B blood to a recipient with type O blood.
Donate type A blood to a recipient with type B blood.
Type O is the universal donor since these RBCs would lack A and B agglutinogens. People with type O blood can give blood to all the ABO blood groups.
Erythrocytes lack a nucleus.

True
False
True
During erythroblastosis fetalis, a Rh- mother's anti-Rh antibodies that have crossed the placenta will cause agglutination of the fetus's Rh+ RBCs. However, the reverse problem never happens when a Rh+ mother is pregnant with a Rh- fetus, that is, antibodies produced by the fetus cannot cause agglutination of the mother's Rh+ RBCs. This is true because ______.

agglutinins are physically too large to pass across the placenta
fetal antibodies are immature and non-functional
antibodies that can cause this agglutination are not produced by a fetus
the placenta is a barrier that prevents the passage of all antigens
antibodies that can cause this agglutination are not produced by a fetus

The (+) in Rh+means that the red blood cells of the fetus have this agglutinin (antigen) on their surface. Therefore, they don't produce antibodies to that surface protein. If the fetus made these antibodies agglutination would occur in their own (fetal) blood.
Which ABO blood type is considered to be the universal donor?

AB
A
O
B
O
Type O blood is considered to be the universal donor.
An individual who is blood type AB negative can ________.

donate to types A, B, and AB, but not to type O
receive any blood type in moderate amounts except that with the Rh antigen
donate to all blood types in moderate amounts
receive types A, B, and AB, but not type O
receive any blood type in moderate amounts except that with the Rh antigen
Fred's blood was determined to be AB positive. What does this mean?

There are no antibodies to A, to B, or to Rh antigens in the plasma.
His blood lacks Rh factor.
Antibodies to A and B are present in the red cells.
He can only receive blood from a donor who is AB positive.
There are no antibodies to A, to B, or to Rh antigens in the plasma.
The role of the coronary arteries is to __________.

direct blood to the pulmonary veins
supply blood to the heart tissue
move blood from the atria to the ventricles
direct blood to the aorta
supply blood to the heart tissue

The coronary arteries, as a part of the coronary circulatory route, supply blood to the heart tissue.
Which heart chamber sends deoxygenated blood to the lungs?

right ventricle
left atrium
left ventricle
right atrium
right ventricle

The right ventricle sends the deoxygenated blood to the lungs via the pulmonary trunk.
Into which chamber do the pulmonary veins send blood?

right ventricle
left atrium
left ventricle
right atrium
left atrium
Into which chamber of the heart do the superior vena cava, inferior vena cava, and coronary sinus return deoxygenated blood?

right atrium
left atrium
right ventricle
left ventricle
right atrium
The layers of the heart wall from superficial to deep are: __________.

epicardium, endocardium, and myocardium
myocardium, endocardium, and epicardium
epicardium, myocardium, and endocardium
endocardium, myocardium, and epicardium
epicardium, myocardium, and endocardium

The epicardium is the superficial layer of the heart wall with myocardium between the epicardium and the deepest layer of the heart wall, the endocardium.
The heart has __________ chambers and __________ valves.

two; two
four; four
four; two
two; four
four; four

The heart has four chambers (right atrium, right ventricle, left atrium, and left ventricle) and four valves (mitral valve, tricuspid valve, pulmonary semilunar valve, and aortic semilunar valve).
When viewing a dissected heart, it is easy to visually discern the right and left ventricles by ________.

finding the papillary muscles
tracing out where the auricles connect
locating the apex
noticing the thickness of the ventricle walls
noticing the thickness of the ventricle walls
The heart's pacemaker is the __________.

Purkinje fibers
atrioventricular node
atrioventricular bundle
sinoatrial node
sinoatrial node

The sinoatrial node (SA node), which is in the right atrial wall, is the heart's pacemaker. The autorhythmic cells of this node generate the sinus rhythm that determines heart rate.
What structures connect the individual heart muscle cells?

anastomoses
trabaculae carneae
chordae tendineae
intercalated discs
intercalated discs

Intercalated discs connect the heart muscle cells. They include desmosomes (anchoring junctions) and gap junctions (communicating junctions).
The order of impulse conduction in the heart, from beginning to end, is __________.

SA node, bundle branches, AV node, bundle of His, and Purkinje fibers
SA node, AV node, bundle of His, bundle branches, and Purkinje fibers
SA node, bundle of His, AV node, bundle branches, and Purkinje fibers
SA node, bundle branches, bundle of His, AV node, and Purkinje fibers
SA node, AV node, bundle of His, bundle branches, and Purkinje fibers


The impulses of the heart originate at the SA node (pacemaker). The impulse is then transmitted to the AV node (atrioventricular node), where the impulse slows down to allow the atria to completely contract and thereby fill the adjacent ventricles. The AV node then transmits the impulse to the bundle of His, which branches into left and right bundle branches. The bundle branches give rise to the Purkinje fibers, which transmit the impulse to the ventricle walls and stimulate ventricular contraction.
The P wave of a normal electrocardiogram indicates ________.

ventricular depolarization
atrial repolarization
ventricular repolarization
atrial depolarization
atrial depolarization
What constitutes the body's first line of defense against disease?

inflammation
intact skin and mucous membranes
the adaptive defense system
antimicrobial proteins and various phagocytic cells
intact skin and mucous membranes

The first line of defense against disease is intact skin and mucous membranes. If an antigen (pathogen) cannot enter the body, a secondary defense is unnecessary.
Cellular ingestion and destruction of particulate matter is called phagocytosis.

True
False
True
Substances capable of triggering the adaptive immune system and provoking an immune response are called antigens.

True
False
True
Choose the true statement regarding the primary versus the secondary immune response.

A primary response occurs faster than a secondary response.
A primary response leads to higher levels of antibodies than does a secondary response.
The antibodies produced in a primary response bind to antigens more efficiently than the antibodies produced in a secondary immune response.
A primary response results when naïve lymphocytes are activated, while a secondary response is a result of activating memory cells.
A primary response results when naïve lymphocytes are activated, while a secondary response is a result of activating memory cells.

A primary immune response is initiated when naïve lymphocytes are exposed to foreign antigens. Since naïve cells are being stimulated, the response is slower to progress than a secondary response in which memory lymphocytes are activated. In addition to being slower than the secondary response, the primary response yields fewer antibodies than a secondary response. Furthermore, primary response antibodies do not bind to antigens as efficiently as the antibodies produced in a secondary response. Lastly, a secondary response tends to last longer than a primary response.
__________ immunity protects a baby who is fed breast milk.

Natural active
Artificial passive
Artificial active
Natural passive
Natural passive


Natural immunity is achieved through natural, non-manmade means. Natural passive immunity occurs when an individual gets antibodies from another source--they are not self-made. In the case of a nursing infant, the process is natural and the baby is protected by antibodies received from the mother.
Which of the following statements does NOT describe the adaptive immune response?

It occurs immediately after the body is challenged by foreign material.
It is specific.
It is systemic.
It has memory.
It occurs immediately after the body is challenged by foreign material.

It does not occur immediately upon the body's exposure to the foreign material. It takes time for the body to mount an adaptive immune response, particularly longer upon a first exposure to the foreign material.
What mobilizes the adaptive defenses and provokes an immune response?

MHC proteins
antigens
interferons
pyrogens
antigens

Antigens (anything the body recognizes as foreign) are substances that can mobilize the adaptive defenses and provoke an immune response. Antigens are the ultimate targets of all adaptive immune responses.
How would you classify the antivenom used to treat poisonous snake bites?

active immunity, naturally acquired
passive immunity, artificially acquired
passive immunity, naturally acquired
active immunity, artificially acquired
passive immunity, artificially acquired
Which of the following best illustrates artificially acquired active humoral immunity?

antivenoms
antibodies received in breast milk
infection
vaccines
vaccines
Why are children given vaccinations?

to develop a disease in a mild state rather than have it later on in a more serious state
to develop antibodies against various diseases
to see whether the immune system is capable of defense against disease
to activate the cell-mediated defense against pathogens
to develop antibodies against various diseases


Active humoral immunity is acquired in two ways. It is (1) naturally acquired via an active viral or bacterial infection and (2) artificially acquired via vaccines. Vaccines "prime" the immune response by providing a first meeting with the antigen without an infection occurring. As a result, antibodies are developed against the disease without having to get the disease.
Which of the following is associated with passive immunity?

passage of IgG antibodies from a pregnant mother to her fetus
booster shot of vaccine
exposure to an antigen
infusion of weakened viruses
passage of IgG antibodies from a pregnant mother to her fetus
Antibody functions include all of the following except ________.

binding and inactivating chemical toxins released by bacteria or other microorganisms
cross-linking cell-bound antigens on red blood cells when blood types are properly matched
linking soluble antigens together so that they fall out of solution
targeting foreign cells so that complement proteins can cause cellular lysis
cross-linking cell-bound antigens on red blood cells when blood types are properly matched
The aorta is an example of a(n) __________.

vein
muscular artery
elastic artery
arteriole
elastic artery


Elastic arteries are thick-walled arteries near the heart. These arteries are the largest in diameter. Elastic arteries act as pressure reservoirs; they expand and contract as blood is ejected from the heart.
The outermost layer of a blood vessel is the tunica intima.

True
False
False
Gas and nutrient exchanges between the blood and tissues take place at the __________.

veins
arterioles
capillaries
arteries
capillaries


Capillaries are the sites for nutrient and gas exchanges between the blood and the interstitial fluid around tissues.
What type of tissue is found in the walls of the arteries that leave the heart but not in the walls of the large veins that enter the heart?

collagen fibers
endothelium
smooth muscle
elastic tissue
elastic tissue


The arteries contain elastic tissue because they receive blood under great pressure. They are pressure reservoirs, expanding and recoiling as blood is ejected from the heart. The veins do not have elastic tissue as they do not expand and recoil and are under low pressure.
Which statement best describes arteries?

All carry blood away from the heart.
All carry oxygenated blood to the heart.
All contain valves to prevent the backflow of blood.
Only large arteries are lined with endothelium.
All carry blood away from the heart.
The arteries that directly feed into the capillary beds are called ________.

venules
arterioles
elastic arteries
muscular arteries
arterioles
Which of the following is true about veins?

Veins carry blood away from the heart, while arteries carry blood to the heart.
Veins have valves; arteries do not.
Veins have a smaller diameter lumen than arteries.
Veins are more muscular than arteries.
Veins have valves; arteries do not.

Veins have valves; arteries do not. Veins have valves to prevent the backflow of blood.
Factors that aid venous return include all except ________.

pressure changes in the thorax
venous valves
urinary output
activity of skeletal muscles
urinary output
Which of the following blood pressure readings would be indicative of hypertension?

140/90 in a 70-year-old woman
120/80 in a 30-year-old man
170/96 in a 50-year-old man
110/60 in a 20-year-old woman
170/96 in a 50-year-old man
Which of the following would be a result of anaphylaxis (a systemic allergic reaction)?

hypovolemic shock
vascular shock
increased blood pressure
cardiogenic shock
Vascular shock


Vascular shock occurs when blood volume is normal but vasomotor tone is suddenly lost and vessels consequently exhibit extreme vasodilation. The massive vasodilation event leads to a drastic and dangerous drop in blood pressure. Vascular shock can be triggered by anaphylaxis, septic shock, and by certain bacterial toxins.
Blood from the lower limbs is returned to the heart via the __________.

abdominal aorta
thoracic aorta
superior vena cava
inferior vena cava
inferior vena cava

The inferior vena cava returns blood from the lower limbs to the heart.
Vasodilation will result in increased blood flow to a given tissue.

True
False
True
Which of the following is likely during vigorous exercise?

The skin will be cold and clammy.
Blood flow to the kidneys increases.
Blood will be diverted to the digestive organs.
Capillaries of the active muscles will be engorged with blood
Capillaries of the active muscles will be engorged with blood
Veins carry only oxygen deficient blood.

True
False
False
What part of the larynx covers the laryngeal inlet during swallowing to keep food out of the lower respiratory passages?

vocal folds
thyroid cartilage
epiglottis
glottis
epiglottis
Quiet inspiration is __________, and quiet expiration is __________.

an active process; a passive process
a passive process; an active process
a passive process; also a passive process
an active process; also an active process
an active process; a passive process
Which parts of the respiratory system function as the main sites of gas exchange?

trachea
primary bronchi
terminal bronchioles
alveoli
alveoli
The nose serves all the following functions except ________.

warming and humidifying the air
as the direct initiator of the cough reflex
cleansing the air
as a passageway for air movement
as the direct initiator of the cough reflex
The nose serves all the following functions except ________.

warming and humidifying the air
as the direct initiator of the cough reflex
cleansing the air
as a passageway for air movement
as the direct initiator of the cough reflex
Smoking diminishes ciliary action and eventually destroys the cilia.

True
False
True
The parietal pleura lines the thoracic wall.

True
False
True
Which muscles are activated during normal quiet inspiration?

scalenes, sternocleidomastoid, and pectoralis minor muscles
diaphragm and external intercostal muscles
oblique and transversus muscles
diaphragm and internal intercostal muscles
diaphragm and external intercostal muscles
What is the volume of the total amount of exchangeable air for a healthy, young adult male?



3600 ml
6000 ml
2400 ml
4800 ml
4800 ml
What is the amount of air that can be exhaled with the greatest possible exhalation after the deepest inhalation called?

expiratory reserve volume
inspiratory reserve volume
tidal volume
vital capacity
vital capacity
Surfactant helps to prevent the alveoli from collapsing by ________.

interfering with the cohesiveness of water molecules, thereby reducing the surface tension of alveolar fluid
warming the air before it enters
protecting the surface of alveoli from dehydration and other environmental variations
humidifying the air before it enters
interfering with the cohesiveness of water molecules, thereby reducing the surface tension of alveolar fluid
Which respiratory-associated muscles would contract if you were to blow up a balloon?

diaphragm contracts, internal intercostals would relax
diaphragm would contract, external intercostals would relax
external intercostals would contract and diaphragm would relax
internal intercostals and abdominal muscles would contract
internal intercostals and abdominal muscles would contract
Oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged in the lungs and through all cell membranes by ________.

osmosis
filtration
active transport
diffusion
diffusion
Which of the following promotes closure of the minivalves associated with lymph capillaries?

increasing pressure in the interstitial space
anchoring of endothelial cells to adjacent structures by collagen fibers
increasing pressure inside the lymph capillary
inflammation of tissues surrounding lymphatic capillaries
increasing pressure inside the lymph capillary
What do collecting lymphatic vessels NOT share in common with veins of the cardiovascular system?


three tunics or layers
presence of valves
thickness of the walls
fluids transported toward the heart
thickness of the walls
What is the main function of the lymphatic system?


The lymphatic system returns leaked fluid and plasma proteins that escape from the bloodstream to the blood.
The lymphatic system regulates blood pressure through the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone mechanism.
The lymphatic system makes blood cells through a process known as hematopoiesis.
The lymphatic system pumps and transports blood throughout the body.
The lymphatic system returns leaked fluid and plasma proteins that escape from the bloodstream to the blood.
Once collected, lymph is returned to __________.

the kidneys for filtration
arterial circulation
the liver for detoxification
venous circulation
venous circulation

From the terminal lymphatic ducts, lymph rejoins venous circulation via the subclavian veins.
Select the correct statement about lymph transport.

Lymph transport is faster than that occurring in veins.
Lymph transport is only necessary when illness causes tissue swelling.
Lymph transport depends on the movement of adjacent tissues, such as skeletal muscles.
Under normal conditions, lymph vessels are very high-pressure conduits.
Lymph transport depends on the movement of adjacent tissues, such as skeletal muscles.
Lymph capillaries are absent in all except which of the following?

digestive organs
CNS
bones and teeth
bone marrow
digestive organs
Large clusters of lymph nodes occur in all of the following locations except the ________.

lower extremities
inguinal region
axillary region
cervical region
lower extremities
Which of the following is not a normal component of lymph?

water
plasma proteins
ions
red blood cells
red blood cells
Like blood, lymph flows both to and from the heart.

True
False
False
Which of the following is NOT a lymphoid tissue/organ?

tonsils
spleen
Peyer's patches
bone marrow
bone marrow

Bone marrow is not lymphoid tissue. Yellow marrow is fat forming tissue and red marrow contains blood forming tissue.
Which lymphoid organ serves in immune surveillance and in filtering lymph?

the thymus
lymph nodes
the spleen
tonsils
lymph nodes

Lymph nodes function as lymph filters and immune surveillance units. They exist in large numbers and are located everywhere in the body, with the exception of the bones, teeth, bone marrow, and the entire central nervous system.
There are more efferent lymphatic vessels leaving a lymph node than there are afferent vessels entering a lymph node.

True
False
False
Peyer's patches are located __________.

in the liver
in the spleen
in the wall of the colon
in the wall of the small intestine
in the wall of the small intestine


Peyer's patches, or aggregated lymphoid nodules, are located in the wall of the distal portion of the small intestine
The most important role of the spleen is to provide a site for lymphocyte proliferation and immune surveillance and response.

True
False
False
How would you classify chewing food?


propulsion
ingestion
digestion
mechanical breakdown
mechanical breakdown
The major means of propelling food through the digestive tract is __________.

segmentation
swallowing
peristalsis
churning
peristalsis
When we ingest large molecules such as lipids, carbohydrates, and proteins, they must undergo catabolic reactions whereby enzymes split these molecules. This series of reactions is called ________.

mechanical digestion
secretion
absorption
chemical digestion
chemical digestion
Saliva does NOT __________.

contain carbohydrate-dissolving enzymes
aid in the chemical digestion of proteins
dissolve food chemicals so that they can be tasted
clean the mouth
aid in the chemical digestion of proteins
What is the function of the soft palate?

The soft palate rises reflexively to close off the nasopharynx when swallowing occurs.
The soft palate cleanses the mouth.
The soft palate provides a surface against which the tongue forces food during chewing.
The soft palate secures the tongue to the floor of the mouth and limits its posterior movement.
The soft palate rises reflexively to close off the nasopharynx when swallowing occurs.
The __________ guards the entry of food into the stomach.

diaphragm
pyloric sphincter
cardiac sphincter
ileocecal valve
cardiac sphincter
When swallowing, the epiglottis prevents food from entering the larynx.

True
False
True
In addition to storage and mechanical breakdown of food, the stomach ________.

is the first site where absorption takes place
initiates protein digestion and denatures proteins
is the first site where chemical digestion of starch takes place
is the only place where fats are completely digested
initiates protein digestion and denatures proteins
Chyme is created in the ________.

small intestine
esophagus
stomach
mouth
stomach
Bile is produced by the __________.

gallbladder
pancreas
liver
stomach
liver
Most digestion and absorption of nutrients occur in the __________.

small intestine
stomach
liver
large intestine
small intestine
The major function of the large intestine is to __________.

absorb water
absorb nutrients
make intrinsic factor
produce vitamins
absorb water
The pancreas has both an endocrine and an exocrine function.

True
False
True
Which of the following are mismatched?

lipase: fat digestion
protease: lipid digestion
amylase: carbohydrate digestion
nuclease: DNA and RNA digestion
protease: lipid digestion
Which of the following is NOT an endocrine gland?

thyroid
adrenal
pituitary
adenoid
adenoid
Pharyngeal tonsils, when enlarged, are commonly called adenoids and are lymphoid tissue, not endocrine glands.
What is the primary function of hormones?

cause allergic reactions
activate extracellular enzymes
alter cell activity
influence metabolic activity of glands by electrochemical impulses
alter cell activity
The primary function of hormones is to alter cell activity by altering plasma membrane permeability or membrane potential, stimulating synthesis of enzymes or regulating molecules, activating or deactivating enzymes, inducing secretory activity, or stimulating mitosis.
Which of the following hormones mainly serves to stimulate milk production by the breasts?

thyroid-stimulating hormone
prolactin
adrenocorticotropic hormone
follicle-stimulating hormone
prolactin

Prolactin (PL) stimulates the mammary glands of the breasts to produce milk.
Major hormones circulate to virtually all tissues.

True
False
True
Oxytocin ________.

controls milk production
is an adenohypophyseal secretion
exerts its most important effects during menstruation
release is an example of a positive feedback control mechanism
release is an example of a positive feedback control mechanism
Which of the following best describes the main effects of insulin?
synthesis of glucose from lactic acid and noncarbohydrate molecules
catabolize glycogen into glucose
lower blood glucose levels
release glucose into the blood by liver cells
lower blood glucose levels
What two structures constitute the renal corpuscle?

glomerulus and renal tubule
glomerulus and glomerular (Bowman's) capsule
renal tubule and collecting duct
proximal convoluted tubule and nephron loop
glomerulus and glomerular (Bowman's) capsule
In which kidney region are all renal corpuscles located?

renal cortex
renal columns
renal medulla
renal pelvis
renal cortex
The __________ collect(s) urine, which drains continuously from the papillae; the urine is then emptied into the __________.

renal pelvis; calyces
calyces; renal pelvis
renal pyramids; calyces
renal pyramids; renal pelvis
calyces; renal pelvis
Which of the following is the functional unit of the kidney?

renal pelvis
renal pyramid
nephron
renal corpuscle
nephron
The __________ keeps the urethra closed when urine is not being passed from the bladder and prevents leaking between voiding.

external urethral orifice
external urethral sphincter
prostatic urethra
internal urethral sphincter
internal urethral sphincter
Which of the following is NOT one of the things that must happen for micturition to occur?

The extrusor muscle must relax.
The internal urethral sphincter must open.
The detrusor muscle must contract.
The external urethral sphincter must open.
The extrusor muscle must relax.

There is no "extrusor" muscle; only the detrusor muscle.
The path urine takes after it is formed until it leaves the body is the urethra, urinary bladder, and finally the ureter.

True
False
False
Both the male and female urethras serve the urinary and the reproductive systems.

True
False
False
Which of the following acts as the trigger for the initiation of micturition (voiding)?

the pressure of the fluid in the bladder
the stretching of the bladder wall
motor neurons
the sympathetic efferents
the stretching of the bladder wall
Which of the male accessory ducts transports both sperm and urine?

ductus (vas) deferens
urethra
ejaculatory duct
epididymis
urethra
Why are the male testes located in the scrotum outside the body?

Their external location is necessary for penile development.
Immature sperm are temperature sensitive.
It helps the male secondary sexual characteristics develop.
The testes develop better outside the body.
Immature sperm are temperature sensitive.
During meiosis, what does crossover promote?


Crossover promotes the production of genetically identical gametes.
Crossover promotes a reduction in the number of chromosomes.
Crossover promotes a reduction in the number of cells produced.
Crossover promotes increased genetic variability among gametes.
Crossover promotes increased genetic variability among gametes.
Gametes are produced by meiosis.

True
False
True
The stage in meiosis where chromosomal exchange takes place is telophase.

True
False
False
The mammary glands belong to which of the following systems?
immune system
reproductive system
endocrine system
integumentary system
integumentary system
The __________ connects the uterus to the vagina.

round ligament
cervix
fimbriae
fallopian tube
cervix
The primary function of the uterus is to ________.

protect the ovaries
receive, retain, and nourish a fertilized ovum
regulate the ovarian and menstrual cycles
synthesize female hormones
receive, retain, and nourish a fertilized ovum
Fertilization generally occurs in the ________.

vagina
ovary
uterus
fallopian tubes
fallopian tubes
How many functional gametes are produced by oogenesis?
one functional gamete
two functional gametes
three functional gametes
four functional gametes
one functional gamete
Why does only one egg, rather than four eggs, develop during oogenesis, given that spermatogenesis results in four sperm formed from one stem cell?

The egg does not go through the meiotic division processes that the sperm undergo.
The unequal cytoplasmic division that results in one egg and three polar bodies ensures that a fertilized egg has ample nutrients for its journey to the uterus.
Actually, gametogenesis (oogenesis in the female and spermatogenesis in the male) produces four eggs and four sperm.
Only one egg can be fertilized at a time.
The unequal cytoplasmic division that results in one egg and three polar bodies ensures that a fertilized egg has ample nutrients for its journey to the uterus.