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What is the major carrier of the fat-soluble vitamins from the intestinal epithelial cell to the circulation...
d. Liposoluble binding proteins
Which of the following food substances can be converted to vitamin A in the body...
Which of the following is the name of the vitamin A compound that is active in the visual response...
What tissue contains the majority of the body's store of vitamin A...
c. Retinal cells
d. Intestinal mucosal cells
How many micrograms of dietary beta-carotene are equivalent to 1 retinol activity equivalent (RAE)...
On average, one retinol activity equivalent (RAE) is equal to about how many international units (IU)...
Which of the following foods is a very good source of vitamin A...
b. Pumpkin pie
c. Baked potato
d. Whole-grain bread
Vitamin A does not play an important role in which of the following processes...
a. Blood clotting
b. Growth of bones and teeth
c. Synthesis of visual pigment
d. Maintaining mucous membranes
An example of a symptom of Vitamin A deficiency is...
a. night- blindness
b. extended bleeding time
d. gums bleeding
Which of the following is the most likely side effect for a person who regularly consumes large quantities of carrots or carrot juice...
a. Bone pain
c. Skin yellowing
d. Vitamin A toxicity
n which of the following individuals would vitamin A toxicity be most likely to occur...
a. Adolescent women
b. Overweight adults
c. Those taking vitamin A supplements
d. Those consuming more than 100 g of carrots daily
Those taking vitamin A supplements
The adult RDA for vitamin A is approximately...
a. 400 mg.
b. 1,000 mg.
c. 800 retinol activity equivalents (RAE)
d. 5,000 retinol activity equivalents (RAE)
800 retinol activity equivalents (RAE)
Your sister Ellen has just joined the Peace Corps and will be working on ways to improve the nutritional status of children in Indonesia. .......
a. Sweet potato
b. Orange juice
c. Peanut butter
d. Powdered skim milk
All of the following organs are required for the complete synthesis of activated vitamin D except the...
Which of the following compounds serves as the major precursor for the body's synthesis of vitamin D...
d. Eicosapentanoic acid
What is/are the main function(s) of vitamin D...
a. Promotes secretion of calcitonin
b. Promotes synthesis of 7-dehydrocholesterol
c. Promotes synthesis of carotenoids and controls absorption of fat-soluble vitamins
d. Promotes calcium and phosphorus absorption and promotes calcium mobilization from bone
Promotes calcium and phosphorus absorption and promotes calcium mobilization from bone
All of the following are characteristics of vitamin D nutrition except...
a. deficient intake may lead to altered bone composition
b. excessive intake may lead to mineral deposits in the kidneys
c. fortified milk is the major dietary source in the U.S. population
d. the requirement is increased in most people who are exposed to the sun
the requirement is increased in most people who are exposed to the sun
Which of the following symptoms would indicate a vitamin D deficiency...
a. Bowed legs
b. Rupture of red blood cells
c. Frequent respiratory infections
d. Abnormally high blood calcium level
Which of the following is not known to promote vitamin D deficiency in the elderly...
a. Consumption of little or no milk
b. Excessive use of hypertension medications
c. Wearing protective clothing and using sunscreen while outdoors
d. Diminished capacity of liver and kidney synthesis of activated vitamin D
Excessive use of hypertension medications
Which of the following may result from excessive intakes of vitamin D by adults...
a. Increased bone density
b. Increased bone calcification
c. Deformity of leg bones, ribs, and skull
d. Mineral deposits in soft tissues such as the kidney
Mineral deposits in soft tissues such as the kidney
hich of the following enables much of the world's population to maintain adequate vitamin D status...
a. Outdoor exposure of the skin to sunlight
b. Wide availability of low-cost fish products
c. Wide availability of food assistance programs
d. World Health Organization distribution of vitamin D capsules
Outdoor exposure of the skin to sunlight
Which of the following is a naturally occurring food source of vitamin D...
a. Egg yolks
b. Red meats
c. Tomato juice
d. Whole-wheat bread
Which of the following is not a feature of vitamin D nutrition...
a. A dietary source is oily fish
b. The DRI fails to account for skin synthesis of vitamin D
c. Excessive exposure to the sun increases risk for vitamin D toxicity
d. People who are not outdoors are advised to drink at least 2 cups of vitamin D-fortified milk daily
Excessive exposure to the sun increases risk for vitamin D toxicity
The main function of vitamin E in the body is to act as a(n)...
d. free radical
How is vitamin E thought to play a role in reducing the risk of heart disease...
a. It inhibits absorption of dietary cholesterol
b. It slows oxidation of low-density lipoproteins
c. It interferes with cholesterol synthesis by the liver
d. It speeds removal of blood cholesterol by the liver
It slows oxidation of low-density lipoproteins
Which of the following disorders may result from vitamin E deficiency in people...
c. Muscular dystrophy
d. Erythrocyte hemolysis
Which of the following are major sources of vitamin E in the diet...
b. Citrus fruits
c. Vegetable oils
d. Milk and dairy products
In what chief capacity does vitamin K function...
a. Blood clotting
b. Energy metabolism
c. Calcium utilization
d. Epithelial tissue renewal
Which of the following is a feature of vitamin K...
a. A deficiency increases the risk for hemophilia
b. A deficiency leads to keratinization of the cornea
c. Bacteria in the intestines synthesize bioavailable vitamin K
d. There are multiple forms in the diet of which menadione is the naturally occurring form
Bacteria in the intestines synthesize bioavailable vitamin K
What type of foods should be controlled in individuals taking anticoagulant medicines...
a. Cold water fish
b. Processed soups
c. Enriched breads
d. Green leafy vegetables
Green leafy vegetables
Approximately what percentage of the body's store of vitamin K is derived from GI tract bacterial synthesis...
a. Less than 5
Which of the following is not a function of water in the body...
b. Source of energy
c. Maintains protein structure
d. Participant in chemical reactions
Source of energy
In the body, water that resides between cells is known as...
a. diuretic fluid.
b. interstitial fluid.
c. edematous fluid.
d. intravascular fluid.
All of the following are mild symptoms of dehydration except...
d. spastic muscles
Which of the following body structures helps to regulate thirst...
a. Brain stem
c. Optic nerve
Which of the following is a feature of water and nutrition...
a. Water intoxication is rare but can result in death
b. Water losses from the body are highest through the feces
c. Chronic high intakes increase the risk for bladder cancer
d. Soft water has significant concentrations of magnesium and calcium
Water intoxication is rare but can result in death
The average daily loss of water via the kidneys, lungs, feces, and skin is approximately....
a. 0 to 0.5 liters
b. 0.5 to 1.5 liters
c. 1.5 to 2.5 liters
d. 3.0 to 4.0 liters
1.5 to 2.5 liters
Approximately how many mL of water/day are produced by metabolism...
Which of the following types of drinking water contains the lowest amount of minerals...
a. Soft water
b. Hard water
c. Natural water
d. Distilled water
What organ provides the major control for homeostasis of body fluids...
d. Skeletal muscle
How does antidiuretic hormone function...
a. It activates renin
b. It activates angiotensin
c. It stimulates water reabsorption by the kidneys
d. It stimulates sodium reabsorption by the kidneys
It stimulates water reabsorption by the kidneys
Which of the following describes a way to make an electrolyte solution...
a. Dissolve a teaspoon of salt in a glass of water
b. Vigorously shake a mixture of corn oil and water
c. Dissolve a pinch of corn starch in a glass of water
d. Vigorously shake a pinch of table sugar in warm water
Dissolve a teaspoon of salt in a glass of water
What is the term for the pressure that develops when two solutions of varying concentrations of solutes are separated by a semi- permeable membrane...
c. Osmotic pressure
d. Hypertonic pressure
The normal blood pH range is approximately...
All of the following play important roles in acid-base balance except...
a. the gall bladder
b. the lungs
c. the kidneys
d. blood buffers
the gall bladder
What cardiovascular condition occurs most often in persons who consume too much sodium...
Which of the following does not have sodium...
a. baking soda
b. kosher salt
c. MSG or Accent™ (found in a lot of Chinese food)
d. high fructose corn syrup
high fructose corn syrup
How much sodium is contained in a fast-food deluxe hamburger that lists a salt content of 2.5 g? Hint:40% of NaCl (salt) is sodium. Hint: 1 gram= 1000mg
a. 100 mg
b. 125 mg
c. 1,000 mg
d. 2,500 mg
Which of the following is a major function of chloride...
a. Participates in wound healing
b. Helps maintain gastric acidity
c. Acts as principal intracellular electrolyte
d. Protects bone structures against degeneration
Helps maintain gastric acidity
All of the following are characteristics of chloride in nutrition except...
a. deficiencies are extremely rare.
b. intake is related, in large part, to sodium intake.
c. it is necessary for maintaining electrolyte balance of body fluids.
d. the recommended intake has recently been set at 10 mg/kg body weight.
the recommended intake has recently been set at 10 mg/kg body weight
Which of the following is the primary function of potassium...
a. Participates in wound healing
b. Helps maintain gastric acidity
c. Acts as principal intracellular electrolyte
d. Protects bone structures against degeneration
Acts as principal intracellular electrolyte
Which of the following is not a feature of potassium...
a. It leads to hyperglycemia
b. It leads to higher blood pressure
c. It can be prevented by consumption of potatoes with skins
d. It is common due to availability of only a few good food sources
It is common due to availability of only a few good food sources
Which of the following is a symptom of potassium deficiency...
a. Extreme thirst
b. Muscle weakness
c. Profound sweating
d. Lowered blood pressure
Which of the following is a poor source of potassium? Hint
a. baked potato with skins
c. white rice
All of the following are features of potassium in nutrition except...
a. processed foods are a major source
b. high intakes may protect against stroke
c. per serving size, legumes are a rich source
d. per serving size, bananas are a rich source
processed foods are a major source
As far as is known, which of the following is not a process that directly involves calcium...
a. pH regulation
b. Blood clotting
c. Nerve transmission
d. Maintenance of heart beat
Which of the following regulates the level of calcium in the blood...
a. Dietary intake of calcium
b. Glucagon and epinephrine
c. Dietary intake of phosphorus
d. Parathyroid hormone and calcitonin hormone
Parathyroid hormone and calcitonin hormone
Which of the following are good sources of dietary calcium...
c. Enriched grains
d. Certain green vegetables
Certain green vegetables
Which of the following shows the highest bioavailability for calcium...
d. Pinto beans
A measure of the amount at which a nutrient is absorbed and used by the body is termed...
a. net utilization.
c. biological value.
d. utilization efficiency
Which of the following is a protein that carries iron through the circulation to the tissues...
Which of the following is a characteristic of iron absorption...
a. MPF in plant foods enhances overall iron absorption
b. Ferritin in red meat interferes with ferrous iron absorption
c. Absorption of heme iron is about 50% higher than nonheme iron
d. Transferrin released from pancreatic juice regulates iron uptake from mucosal cells
Absorption of heme iron is about 50% higher than nonheme iron
How does vitamin C enhance iron absorption when consumed in the same meal...
a. It activates transferrin
b. It keeps iron in the reduced ferrous form
c. It releases iron from the proteins in the stomach
d. It complexes with iron and promotes mucosal transport
It keeps iron in the reduced ferrous form
Which of the following foods provides iron in the most absorbable form...
d. Orange juice
Which of the following nutrients enhances iron absorption from the intestinal tract...
c. Vitamin D
d. Vitamin C
Which of the following population groups is least susceptible to iron-deficiency anemia...
a. Older infants
b. Children 2-10 years of age
c. Women of childbearing age
d. Men 20-45 years of age
Men 20-45 years of age
The most common tests to diagnose iron deficiency include all of the following measures except...
a. size of red blood cells
b. number of red blood cells
c. DNA content of red blood cells
d. hemoglobin content of red blood cells
DNA content of red blood cells
In the United States, iron is currently added to which of the following foods...
a. Milk and cheese
b. Breads and cereals
c. Peanut butter and jellies
d. Orange juice and tomato juice
Breads and cereals
All of the following are considered heavy metals except...
Approximately how much iodized salt must be consumed to meet but not exceed the RDA for iodine...
a. 1 mg
b. 1/2 teaspoon
c. 1 teaspoon
d. 1 tablespoon
Which of the following foods has the riches source of iodine...
c. lake trout
d. orange juice
Simple goiter is caused by a dietary deficiency of...
b. sodium chloride
A classical sign of zinc deficiency is...
c. mottled teeth
d. growth retardation
The rare genetic disorders Menkes disease and Wilson's disease result from abnormal utilization of...
Which of the following is a feature of copper nutrition...
a. Absorption efficiency is similar to that of iron
b. It is involved in collagen synthesis and wound healing
c. Soft water may provide significant amounts in the diet
d. Deficiency is common in children of Middle East countries
It is involved in collagen synthesis and wound healing
Which of the following meats would be the best source of copper...
Fluoride deficiency is best known to lead to...
a. dental decay
c. discoloration of teeth
d. nutritional muscular dystrophy
Naturally occurring food sources of fluoride include all of the following except...
Which of the following is known to cause discolored enamel of the teeth...
a. Excessive fluoride in the water
b. Insufficient fluoride in the water
c. Excessive intake of simple sugars
d. Inability of the body to absorb fluoride
Excessive fluoride in the water
One of the chief functions of chromium is participation in the metabolism of...
Chromium deficiency is characterized by...
c. enlargement of the liver.
d. enlargement of the thyroid gland
Which of the following is a characteristic of chromium in nutrition...
a. A deficiency leads to hypothyroidism
b. Supplements are known to be helpful
c. Whole grains represent an excellent source
d. In the body, it enhances the action of ceruloplasmin
Whole grains represent an excellent source
Which of the following trace minerals is known to be involved in bone development...
The components of fitness include all of the following except...
c. bone fragility
d. cardiovascular endurance
Substantial health benefits may be achieved by engaging in a moderately intense level of exercise at a frequency of at least...
a. 10 minutes/day
b. 20 minutes/day
c. 2.5 hours/week
d. 5 hours/week
Which of the following is not
derived directly from cardiorespiratory conditioning...
a. Increased flexibility
b. Slowed resting pulse
c. Increased breathing efficiency
d. Increased blood volume and oxygen delivery
For maximum benefits, cardiorespiratory endurance episodes should be sustained for at least...
a. 20 minutes
b. 40 minutes
c. 1 hour
d. 2 hours
In weight training, muscle endurance can best be emphasized by combining a...
a. low number of repetitions with heavy weight
b. low number of repetitions with lighter weight
c. high number of repetitions with heavy weight
d. high number of repetitions with lighter weight
high number of repetitions with lighter weight
What high-energy compound acts as a reservoir of energy for the maintenance of a steady supply of ATP...
c. Fatty acids
d. Creatine phosphate
What substance contains the chemical energy that drives immediate muscle contraction...
d. fatty acids
What is the usual fate of muscle glycogen during exercise...
a. Utilized as a fuel within the muscle cells only
b. Released into the bloodstream to provide fuel for brain cells
c. Released into the bloodstream to replenish liver glycogen as needed
d. Utilized to support lung and heart function under conditions of intense physical performance
Utilized as a fuel within the muscle cells only
What dietary nutrients are most effective at raising muscle glycogen concentration...
d. Chromium and iron
A tissue deprived of an oxygen supply (anaerobic) during exercise would develop an accumulation of...
b. lactate (lactic acid)
d. TCA cycle intermediates
lactate (lactic acid)
What is the name of the biochemical pathway describing the conversion of lactate to glucose...
a. Cori cycle
b. Krebs cycle
d. Reverse glycolysis
When a marathon runner experiences the phenomenon known as "hitting the wall," what nutrient is most likely depleted...
d. Fatty acids
What type of meal and time of its ingestion promotes the most rapid restoration of glycogen stores after physical activity...
a. Mixed meal taken within 4 hours
b. Mixed meal taken within 30 minutes
c. High-carbohydrate meal taken within 2 hours
d. High-carbohydrate meal taken within 15 minutes
High-carbohydrate meal taken within 15 minutes
What cellular organelles are responsible for producing ATP aerobically...
b. Golgi bodies
d. Cell membranes
Which of the following describes fat utilization during physical activity...
a. Fat that is stored closest to the exercising muscle is oxidized first
b. Fat represents the major fuel source during sustained, moderate activity
c. Fat oxidization makes more of a contribution as the intensity of the exercise increases
d. Fat is burned in higher quantities during short, high-intensity exercises than prolonged, low-intensity exercises
Fat represents the major fuel source during sustained, moderate activity
Which of the following is a feature of iron nutrition in athletes...
a. Iron in sweat represents the major route of iron loss from the body
b. Iron losses occur from accelerated destruction of fragile, older blood cells
c. Iron deficiency affects a higher percentage of male athletes than female athletes
d. Sports anemia is successfully treated by increasing dietary iron to levels 2-3 times the RDA
Iron losses occur from accelerated destruction of fragile, older blood cells
Physical performance is noticeably affected when body water loss first reaches...
All of the following are characteristics of heat stroke except...
a. it is rarely fatal.
b. it is due, in part, to dehydration.
c. it is caused by heat buildup in the body.
d. its symptoms include headache, nausea, and mental changes.
it is rarely fatal.
Which of the following should be a component of a healthy diet for athletes...
a. Salt tablets
b. Protein powders
c. Nutrient-dense foods
d. Vitamin and mineral supplements
All of the following are characteristics of nutrition and pregnancy except...
a. underweight has little, if any, effect on fertility.
b. overweight men have low sperm counts that reduce fertility.
c. excess body fat in women interferes with the regular cycles of menstruation.
d. the woman's nutritional status is more important than the man's for the developing fetus.
underweight has little, if any, effect on fertility
Which of the following describes the capacity of a man to produce sperm and a woman to periodically produce a normal egg...
d. Implantation zone
What is the placenta...
a. An organ from which the infant receives nourishment from the mother
b. A muscular organ within which the infant develops before birth
c. The developing infant from the eighth week after conception until birth
d. The developing infant during its second through eighth week after conception
An organ from which the infant receives nourishment from the mother
What is the term given to the developing infant from the eighth week after conception until birth...
Gestation is generally divided into equal periods of...
a. 4 weeks, called quarters
b. 9 weeks, called quartiles
c. 4 months, called semesters
d. 3 months, called trimesters
3 months, called trimesters
All of the following statements are specific to the critical periods of cell division except...
a. malnutrition during pregnancy can affect fetal cell division
b. malnutrition during critical periods can have irreversible effects
c. high-nutrient-density food fed after the critical period can remedy a growth deficit
d. whatever nutrients are needed during a critical period must be supplied at that time
high-nutrient-density food fed after the critical period can remedy a growth deficit
Which of the following is a characteristic of neural tube defects...
a. They are found in about 1,000 newborns in the United States each year
b. They include common disorders such as liver and kidney disease
c. They can be prevented by supplementation of the pregnant woman's diet with vitamin B12
d. They can be prevented by supplementation of the pregnant woman's diet with vitamins A and E
They are found in about 1,000 newborns in the United States each year
Which of the following nutrients taken as a prenatal supplement has been found to be associated with a lower incidence of neural tube defects...
What is the most reliable indicator of an infant's future health status...
a. Infant's birth weight
b. Mother's weight before pregnancy
c. Mother's weight gain during pregnancy
d. Mother's nutrition status prior to pregnancy
Infant's birth weight
What is the recommended range of weight gain during pregnancy for a normal-weight woman...
a. 10-18 lbs
b. 19-24 lbs
c. 25-35 lbs
d. 38-44 lbs
All of the following are normal body responses to pregnancy except...
a. breast size increases
b. blood volume increases
c. body water level decreases
d. joints become more flexible
body water level decreases
To maintain physical fitness during pregnancy, all of the following activities are considered acceptable except...
c. playing singles tennis
d. 45-minute balanced exercise sessions 3 times/week
What is the recommended increase in daily energy intake for the third trimester of pregnancy...
a. 200 kcal
b. 300 kcal
c. 450 kcal
d. 540 kcal
Which of the following nutrients are required in higher amounts during pregnancy due to their roles in the synthesis of red blood cells...
a. Protein and chromium
b. Folate and vitamin B12
c. Calcium and vitamin A
d. Vitamin E and vitamin C
Folate and vitamin B12
According to the recommended food intake for pregnancy, which of the following food groups is the only one that is provided in sufficient amounts by this menu...
All of the following reflect a state of iron nutrition in pregnancy except...
a. the mineral is conserved during this period.
b. absorption of the mineral increases due to higher blood transferrin.
c. most women enter pregnancy with adequate stores of the mineral.
d. stores of the mineral are transferred to the fetus even with low dietary intake
most women enter pregnancy with adequate stores of the mineral.
During pregnancy, which of the following nutrients show a dramatic increase in absorption...
a. Salt and sugar
b. Protein and fat
c. Calcium and iron
d. Thiamin and ascorbic acid
Calcium and iron
The common problems of pregnancy include all of the following except...
d. low blood pressure
low blood pressure
Which of the following is the standard classification for a low-birth weight infant...
a. 3 lbs or less
b. 4 lbs or less
c. 5 lbs or less
d. 6 lbs or less
5 lbs or less
What is the name of the condition characterized by high blood pressure, edema, and protein in the urine of a pregnant woman...
b. gestational diabetes
c. teratogenic hypertension
c. pregnancy-induced blood pressure crisis
What is gestational diabetes...
a. A severe form of type 1 diabetes in newborns
b. Abnormal blood glucose maintenance during pregnancy
c. Reactive hypoglycemia expressed during the third trimester of pregnancy
d. A temporary loss of insulin secretion during the first trimester of pregnancy
Abnormal blood glucose maintenance during pregnancy
Which of the following is a characteristic of gestational diabetes...
a. It predicts risk of diabetes for the infant
b. It occurs in over one-half of normal weight women
c. It leads to adult-onset diabetes in about a third of the women
d. It occurs more often in women with a history of having premature births
It leads to adult-onset diabetes in about a third of the women
With few exceptions, all of the following substances or practices should be totally eliminated during pregnancy except...
a. cigarette smoking
b. weight-loss dieting
c. artificial sweeteners
d. alcohol consumption
What is the risk of giving birth to a child with Down syndrome for a woman who is 40 years old compared with a 20 year old....
a. One-half as much
b. About the same
c. much higher
What is fetal alcohol syndrome...
a. congenital defects including brain and facial deformation that occur in the fetus when the mother drinks alcohol during the pregnancy
b. Trisomy 21 genetic disease that occurs more frequently with advanced maternal age
c. incomplete closure of neural tube due to mutations or dietary deficiencies in first trimester
congenital defects including brain and facial deformation that occur in the fetus when the mother drinks alcohol during the pregnancy
Which of the following recommendations for pregnant women and alcohol intake has been issued by the U.S. Surgeon General...
a. They should drink absolutely no alcohol
b. They should refrain from drinking hard liquor only
c. They are permitted to ingest no more than 2 drinks per day
d. They are permitted to ingest small amounts of alcohol during the first 3 months but none thereafter
They should drink absolutely no alcohol
All of the following are effects of tobacco use in pregnancy except...
a. an increased risk for SIDS.
b. an increased risk for fetal death.
c. an increased risk for macrosomia.
d. an increased risk for vaginal bleeding.
an increased risk for macrosomia
The number of extra kcalories per day needed to produce a normal supply of milk during the first six months of lactation is approximately...
Which of the following is a function of prolactin...
a. It reverses the effects of certain mutagens
b. It reverses the effects of certain teratogens
c. It acts on mammary glands to stimulate milk release
d. It acts on mammary glands to promote milk production
It acts on mammary glands to promote milk production
A positive relationship exists between sudden infant death syndrome and which of the following behaviors during pregnancy...
a. Lack of exercise
b. High fish intake
c. Cigarette smoking
d. Vitamin C supplements
What would be a normal body weight after 1 year for a healthy infant with a birth weight of 8 lbs...
a. 12 lbs
b. 16 lbs
c. 24 lbs
d. 35 lbs
What is the approximate energy requirement of infants, in kcalories per kilogram body weight...
What organ in the infant uses more than half of the day's total energy intake...
d. Skeletal muscle
Breast milk as the sole source of nutrition, up to the first 6 months in healthy infants, is satisfactory for all nutrients except...
b. vitamin D.
c. iron and folate.
d. zinc and vitamin A.
Which of the following represents a good age to introduce solid foods to infants...
a. Two weeks
b. Two months
c. Five months
d. One year
Which of the following nutrients need to be supplied first by solid foods in a baby's diet...
a. Vitamin C and iron
b. Vitamin A and zinc
c. Vitamin B12 and fluoride
d. Vitamin E and magnesium
Vitamin C and iron
Approximately how many kcal per day does an average 6 year old need to obtain...
The food pyramid for children recommends that children 2-5 eat how many cups of fruits and vegetables...
a. 1.5 cups of vegetables and 1 cup of fruit
b. 2 cups of vegetables and 1 cups of fruit
c. 5 cups of vegetables and 2 cups of fruit
1.5 cups of vegetables and 1 cup of fruit
Children between 4-18 years old should consume how much fat...
a. less than 20%
b. more than 50%
c. between 25 and 35%
d. less than 10%
between 25 and 35%
How much more total energy does a normal-weight 10 year old need vs. a 1 year old...
Which of the following is the most prevalent nutrient deficiency among U.S. and Canadian children...
d. Vitamin C
A life-threatening whole-body allergic reaction is known as...
a. anaphylactic shock.
b. hyperhistamine response.
c. hyporespiratory syndrome.
d. wheezing food intolerance.
A child known to be allergic to peanuts who begins to show signs such as difficulty breathing, swelling of the tongue, and severe abdominal discomfort is most likely in immediate need of a life-saving injection of...
Persons who show adverse reactions to foods such as increased pulse rate, nausea, and hives, but do not
show antibodies to the offending foods, are displaying...
a. food intolerances.
b. delayed allergies.
c. subclinical allergies.
d. undiagnosed food toxicities.
Approximately what percentage of U.S. children between 2 and 19 years of age are overweight...
The typical can of soft drink contains the equivalent of how many teaspoons of sugar...
Which of the following is a feature of nutrition and behavior in children...
a. Hyperactivity responds favorably to a low-sugar diet
b. The adverse effects from caffeine first appear only after drinking 6 cans of cola in one day
c. Television commercials featuring snack foods have been found to affect children's food preferences
d. Because most children are sensitive to the stimulating effects of caffeine, they are able to control their intake of cola beverages
Television commercials featuring snack foods have been found to affect children's food preferences
Which of the following is an effective strategy for dealing with obesity in a child...
a. Encourage the individual to eat quickly and then leave the table
b. Institute new eating habits such as teaching the individual to clean the food plate
c. Engage the individual in at least 1 hour per day of moderate to vigorous physical activity
Engage the individual in at least 1 hour per day of moderate to vigorous physical activity
Which of the following practices is not among the recommendations to help children develop an interest in vegetables...
a. Serve vegetables warm, not hot
b. Serve vegetables separately on the plate
c. Serve vegetables undercooked and crunchy
d. Serve vegetables with the promise that after they are eaten, dessert will follow
Serve vegetables with the promise that after they are eaten, dessert will follow
All of the following are features of snacking in children except...
a. snacking should be prevented.
b. sweet snacks are preferred to bland ones.
c. snacks should be as nutritious as regular meal foods.
d. children select healthier snacks when their parents are watching.
snacking should be prevented
Which of the following is not among the recommended methods for introducing new foods to children...
a. Offer foods one at a time
b. Offer foods in small amounts
c. Create a pleasant eating atmosphere
d. Present new foods at the end of the meal
Present new foods at the end of the meal
What minimum fraction of the RDA for key nutrients for children 10-12 years of age should be provided by public school lunches...
Which of the following is a feature of public school food programs...
a. They must follow the Dietary Guidelines for Americans
b. They allow for low-fat menus while still meeting the needs for iron
c. They ensure a lunch period long enough to consume the entire meal
d. They are overwhelmingly preferred over the foods obtained by students through on-site vending machines and snack bars
They must follow the Dietary Guidelines for Americans
What is the approximate duration of the adolescent growth spurt...
a. 6 months
b. 1 year
c. 2 years
d. 6 years
Which of the following is a characteristic of the adolescent period...
a. Obesity occurs more often in African-American females
b. Appetite for red meat increases in females to meet iron needs
c. More nutrient-dense foods are needed by males because of their faster development
d. The risk for calcium insufficiency is greatest in males due to their high intake of soft drinks
Obesity occurs more often in African-American females
All of the following are features of the iron RDA for adolescents except...
a.the RDA for 13 year old makes and femalesis about the same
b. the RDA increases during the growth spurt for both males and females.
c. iron intakes often do not meet increasing needs for growth for males and females.
d. the frequency of iron deficiency is similar among males and females of the same age.
the frequency of iron deficiency is similar among males and females of the same age
Approximately how much caffeine is delivered by a typical cola beverage...
a. 5-20 mg
b. 30-55 mg
c. 75 mg
d. 150 mg
What is the fastest-growing age group in the United States...
a. 21-30 years
b. 35-50 years
c. Over 65 years
d. Over 85 years
Over 85 years
What is the most important predictor of a person's mobility in the later years...
b. Alcohol use
c. Chronological age
d. Regular physical activity
Regular physical activity
The relationship of overweight and health risks diminishes with age, starting after age...
What is sarcopenia...
a. Loss of central visual activity
b. Loss of muscle mass and strength associated with aging
c. Aging-induced chronic inflammation of the stomach
d. Intestinal dysmotility from excessive use of laxatives
Loss of muscle mass and strength associated with aging
A person with dysphagia has...
a. no teeth
b. low immunity
c. difficulty swallowing
d. diminished muscle mass
Atrophic gastritis is typically characterized by all of the following signs except...
a. inflamed stomach mucosa
b. lack of hydrochloric acid
c. abundant bacteria in the stomach
d. insufficient secretion of pepsinogen and gastrin
insufficient secretion of pepsinogen and gastrin
Among the elderly, malnutrition is most common in those living...
a. in nursing homes
b. with their children
c. at home with others
d. at home by themselves
in nursing homes
What is the highest age group recognized in the Dietary Reference Intakes...
a. 40 years and over
b. 50 years and over
c. 65 years and over
d. 71 years and older
71 years and older
Approximately what percentage decline in total energy expenditure is seen in a 70 year old versus a 30 year old...
Which of the following is a feature of elderly people and water metabolism...
a. They do not feel thirsty or recognize dryness of the mouth
b. They have a higher total body water content compared with younger adults
c. They show increased frequency of urination, which results in higher requirements
d. They frequently show symptoms of over-hydration such as mental lapses and disorientation
They do not feel thirsty or recognize dryness of the mouth
What is the minimum number of glasses of water per day recommended for older adults...
To prevent and treat the high incidence of constipation in the elderly, all of the following practices are known to be effective except...
a. eating more legumes
b. drinking more water
c. increasing physical activity
d. taking vitamin B12 injections
taking vitamin B12 injections
A condition that increases the likelihood of iron deficiency in older people is...
a. lack of intrinsic factor
b. loss of iron due to menopause
c. blood loss from yearly physical testing procedures
d. poor iron absorption due to reduced stomach acid secretion and/or use of antacids
poor iron absorption due to reduced stomach acid secretion and/or use of antacids
What nutrients appear to be protective of cataract formation...
a. Iron and calcium
b. Chromium and zinc
c. Vitamin B12 and folate
d. Vitamin C and vitamin E
Vitamin C and vitamin E
Which of the following foods seems to benefit rheumatoid arthritis in some people...
b. Olive oil
c. Iodized salt
d. Refined cereals
Which of the following is not a common feature of gout...
a. It affects mostly men
b. It is a form of arthritis
c. It results from uric acid crystals in the joints
d. It is treated by reducing intake of milk products
It is treated by reducing intake of milk products
What percentage of U.S. adults are affected by Alzheimer's disease after age 70...
Goals of the federal Older Americans Act nutrition program include the provision of all of the following except...
a. transportation services
b. high-cost nutritious meals
c. opportunity for social interactions
d. counseling and referral to other social services
high-cost nutritious meals
All of the following are features of the Meals on Wheels program except...
a. it is administered by volunteers.
b. it operates at least 5 days a week.
c. it provides the same social benefits as congregate meals.
d. the only qualification to receive benefits is achieving the age of 60 years
it provides the same social benefits as congregate meals
What fraction of prescription drugs sold in the United States is taken by people over 65 years of age...
Which of the following leading causes of death in the United States does not bear a relationship to die...
b. Heart disease
c. Diabetes mellitus
d. Pneumonia and influenza
Pneumonia and influenza
Which of the following may be classified as a risk factor for coronary heart disease...
a. BMI of 26
b. Low LDL-cholesterol levels
c. High HDL-cholesterol levels
d. High C-reactive protein levels
High C-reactive protein levels
What disease accounts for the majority of deaths in U.S. women...
b. Lung cancer
c. Breast cancer
d. Coronary heart disease
Coronary heart disease
What blood cholesterol carrier is of greatest concern in atherosclerosis...
A person who produces a normal amount of insulin but whose cells show suboptimal response is said to be...
b. insulin resistant.
d. pancreatic beta-cell deficient.
Which of the following is not one of the factors that would lead a person with high blood pressure to develop the metabolic syndrome...
a. Diuretic use
b. Insulin resistance
c. Abdominal obesity
d. High blood triglycerides
Risk factors for coronary heart disease that can be minimized by behavioral change include all of the following except...
To lower a high blood cholesterol level, all of the following are recommended except...
a. consume 2 servings/week of fish.
b. consume 300 mg or less of cholesterol per day.
c. lower the saturated fat intake to ≤7% total energy.
d. decrease the carbohydrate intake to <50% of total energy.
decrease the carbohydrate intake to <50% of total energy
The DASH diet is actually the acronym for...
a. Dramatic Alternatives to Solving HIV.
b. Diabetes And Sodium Hyperglycemia.
c. Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension.
d. Disorders-Associated Severe Hyperlipidemia
Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension
Which of the following is not among the recommendations by health professionals to treat hypertension...
a. Increase fiber intake
b. Eat foods high in potassium
c. If overweight, reduce weight
d. Decrease intake of dairy products to avoid sodium
Decrease intake of dairy products to avoid sodium
People who use diuretics are most at risk of developing imbalances of...
In which of the following conditions would the pancreas be unable to synthesize insulin...
b. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
c. Type 2 diabetes mellitus
d. Adult-onset diabetes mellitus
Type 1 diabetes mellitus
All of the following are among the symptoms of diabetes except...
d. swollen lymph nodes
swollen lymph nodes
The excessive thirst common in diabetes is known as...
Which of the following is known to speed up the passage of substances through the large intestine, thereby decreasing exposure time to carcinogens...
c. Omega-3 fats
d. Refined starches
Which of the following foods is known to contain abundant amounts of phytonutrients that protect against cancers of the esophagus and endometrium...
a. Fermented dairy foods
b. Cruciferous vegetables
c. Allium-rich vegetables
d. Lycopene-rich vegetables
Being obese is known to increase the probabilities of contracting all of the following diseases except...
Which of the following affects the immune system the most...
a. protein deficiencies
b. carbohydrate imbalances
c. fat deficiencies
Diets rich in fiber, phytochemicals, and the antioxidant nutrients (beta-carotene, Vitamin C and Vitamin E) help protect against chronic diseases...
What is C- reactive protein...
a. an inflammation protein that is predictive of heart attack
b. a type of immune cell
c. a type of plaque that builds up in the arteries
d. a clot that is blocking blood flow in the heart
an inflammation protein that is predictive of heart attack
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