Earth Science Multiple Choice
Terms in this set (247)
historical geology involves the study of rock strata, fossils, and geologic events, utilizing the geologic time scale as a reference; physical geology includes the study of how rocks form and of how erosion shapes the land surface
What are the basic differences between the disciplines of physical and historical geology?
A) Physical geology involves the study of rock strata, fossils, and deposition in relation to plate movements in the geologic past; historical geology charts how and where the plates were moving in the past.
B) Physical geology is the study of fossils and sequences of rock strata; historical geology is the study of how rocks and minerals were used in the past.
C) Historical geology involves the study of rock strata, fossils, and geologic events, utilizing the geologic time scale as a reference; physical geology includes the study of how rocks form and of how erosion shapes the land surface.
D) None of the above—physical geology and historical geology are essentially the same.
The first minerals to be mined were ________ and ________.
A) gold, silver B) lead, quartz C) copper, bronze D) flint, chert
because it is less dense than the material around it
Why does magma rise toward the Earth's surface?
A) because it is a liquid
B) because it is less dense than the material around it
C) because it is immiscible and cannot combine with the material around it
D) because it is hot
high confining pressure increases friction on the fault
Faults are "locked" because ________.
A) major faults occur at plate boundaries that only move occasionally
B) otherwise they would have earthquakes all the time
C) high confining pressure increases friction on the fault
D) earthquakes only form when the rocks are free to move
E) elastic rebound occurs on faults
water lines were badly damage so that firemen could not put out the fires
In the 1906 San Francisco earthquake, much of the damage was due to fires because ________.
A) a cow kicked over a lantern in a barn and started the fires
B) the shaking caused gas lines to rupture everywhere and these ignited to cause huge fire storms in the city
C) electric power lines fell and caused sparks that started fires
D) water lines were badly damage so that firemen could not put out the fires
When an earthquake occurs, energy radiates in all directions from its source. The source is also referred to as the ________.
A) focus B) inertial point C) seismic zone D) epicenter
During the 1906 San Francisco earthquake, the movement of the Pacific Plate was approximately ________.
A) 10 cm B) 1 meter C) 100 meters D) 10 meters E) 1 cm
Major earthquakes are often followed by somewhat smaller events known as ________.
A) aftershocks B) foreshocks C) hyposhocks D) tremors
Enough stress must build up over time on a fault to overcome friction.
In elastic rebound theory, what must occur to produce an earthquake?
A) The ground needs to absorb enough water to lubricate the surface of the fault.
B) Tidal forces need to be at a maximum to increase the energy applied to the fault.
C) Rocks must break in order to produce slip on a fault.
D) Enough stress must build up over time on a fault to overcome friction.
the earthquakes on these faults are underwater and could displace large amounts of water from the oceans
Megathrusts between subducting oceanic crust and an overriding plate are a potential source of tsunamis because ________.
A) one side of the fault is on land and the other is underwater so an earthquake could cause a landslide or tsunami depending on which side moved
B) oceanic crust is "thrust" over the continent along a megathrust so that forces the land downward producing a tsunami
C) the earthquakes on these faults are underwater and could displace large amounts of water from the oceans
D) the earthquakes on these faults are underwater and could release large amounts of water from the asthenosphere
The position on Earth's surface directly above the earthquake source is called the ________.
A) epicenter B) focus C) seismic zone D) inertial point
stress continues to build up all the time and when it is great enough to overcome friction there will be an earthquake and then the process will start over again
Earthquakes along the San Andreas fault zone, for example, are repetitive—they reoccur in roughly the same regions over and over again—separated by decades or centuries because ________.
A) plate boundaries move at regular rates so the interactions across plate boundaries are predictable and regular
B) stress continues to build up all the time and when it is great enough to overcome friction there will be an earthquake and then the process will start over again
C) faults are always moving or creeping so an earthquake will occur whenever two sides meet that have the right properties for an earthquake
D) there are areas that are weak and always break when small amounts of energy are applied to them
the area surrounding a region that experienced a large earthquake needs time to adjust to the displacements on the main fault
Aftershocks occur because ________.
A) the day after a large earthquake there are tidal forces that continue to create additional earthquakes
B) the area surrounding a region that experienced a large earthquake needs time to adjust to the displacements on the main fault
C) there are always small earthquakes on major faults, but we do not notice them until there is a large event that makes us aware of them
D) seismic energy continues to build up for a period of time after a major earthquake
On a typical seismogram, ________ will show the highest amplitudes.
A) S waves B) surface waves C) body waves D) P waves
________ have the highest velocities
A) Surface waves
B) Secondary waves (S-waves)
C) Refracted S-waves D) Primary waves (P-waves)
P and S waves travel through solids and P waves travel through liquids.
Which one of the following statements is correct?
A) P waves travel through solids; S waves do not.
B) P and S waves travel through solids and P waves travel through liquids.
C) P and S waves travel through liquids, but S waves do not travel through solids.
D) P and S waves travel through liquids, but P waves do not travel through solids.
Overall, this type of seismic wave is the most destructive.
A) tsunami B) S wave C) surface wave D) P wave
are faster than S waves and surface waves
P waves ________.
A) produce the strongest ground shaking B) have higher amplitudes than do S waves
C) propagate only in solids D) are faster than S waves and surface waves
the direction to the earthquake focus
The earliest seismographs were designed by the Chinese nearly 2000 years ago to measure ________.
A) the magnitude of an earthquake B) the depth of an earthquake focus
C) the intensity of an earthquake D) the direction to the earthquake focus
Modern seismographs rely on ________ to record the ground motion from an earthquake.
A) buoyancy B) density C) mass D) inertia
________ is the maximum possible damage designation on the Mercalli scale.
A) XII B) 3 C) 10 D) X
I to XII that rates the structural damage due to an earthquake
The Mercalli Scale is a scale from ________.
A) I to XII that rates the structural damage due to an earthquake
B) 1 to 10 that rates the energy released by an earthquake
C) 1 to 12 that rates the energy required for faulting to occur
D) I to X that rates the total energy released during the main quake and all aftershocks
amplitude of the largest seismic wave
The Richter magnitude of an earthquake is determined from the ________.
A) duration of the earthquake B) amplitude of the largest seismic wave
C) intensity of the earthquake D) arrival time of P and S waves
Which of the following is determined by making direct observations in the area affected by an earthquake?
A) focus or hypocenter B) magnitude C) epicenter D) intensity
Which of the following is determined by measuring the amplitude of waves recorded from an earthquake?
A) epicenter B) magnitude C) intensity D) focus or hypocenter
The Moment magnitude measures the total energy released by an earthquake.
Why is the Moment magnitude scale favored over the Richter magnitude scale?
A) The Moment magnitude measures the total energy released by an earthquake.
B) The moment magnitude carries the calculated values out to more decimal places so it is more precise.
C) The Richter magnitude is based on older models of seismographs that are no longer used to record earthquakes.
D) The Richter magnitude always underestimates the amount of energy released by an earthquake.
Approximately how much more energy is released in a 6.5 Richter magnitude earthquake than in one with a Richter magnitude of 5.5?
A) 900 times B) 100 times C) 10 times D) 30 times
in general, the current building codes are adequate, but people should be aware of the hazards in this area
The figure below shows the intensity of an Earthquake in northern California that affected much of the same areas that were damaged by the 1906 earthquake in a very similar manner. Based on this information, ________.
A) people should not be allowed to build homes in the intensity VIII regions because the U.S. taxpayer has to pay to rebuild after such an earthquake
B) in general, the current building codes are adequate, but people should be aware of the hazards in this area
C) construction methods are clearly inadequate in the high intensity areas, and all homes in those areas need to be reinforced
D) people who live in the high intensity regions should be required to carry earthquake insurance
the difference in travel time between the P and the S wave
One measurement that is widely used to determine how far the focus of an earthquake is from the seismograph where it is recorded is ________.
A) the amplitude of the S-wave
B) the difference in amplitude between the P and the S wave
C) the difference in travel time between the P and the S wave
D) the amplitude of the P-wave
where older buildings were built on a thick layer of sediment
Structural damage from seismic vibrations would be worse ________.
A) where older buildings were built on a thick layer of sediment
B) where buildings are made mostly of wood
C) where the focus is about 800 kilometers below the surface
D) where buildings were built to code on solid rock
when an earthquake occurs in the seafloor like along an oceanic plate boundary
A tsunami can occur ________.
A) when an explosive volcanic eruption occurs in someplace like Hawaii or Alaska
B) when an earthquake occurs in the seafloor like along an oceanic plate boundary
C) any time there is an earthquake anywhere
D) when an earthquake occurs along a coastline like in Japan or Indonesia
E) All of the above are correct
the construction methods in Haiti were not as good as those used in Japan
The 2011 earthquake and tsunami in Japan killed approximately 21,000 people while the 2010 earthquake in Haiti killed approximately 316,000 people because ________.
A) the earthquake in Haiti generated a very large tsunami that killed most of the people
B) the earthquake in Haiti was a larger magnitude (released more energy) than the one in Japan
C) the construction methods in Haiti were not as good as those used in Japan
D) the population of Haiti was much greater than that of northern Japan where the earthquake occurred
E) All of the above were factors.
the proximity to a plate boundary
Which of the following is not a significant factor contributing to the damage caused by an earthquake?
A) the construction techniques and materials used in the region
B) the types of ground materials that are built on in the region
C) the duration of the vibrations
D) the proximity to a plate boundary
The best building material to use in an earthquake prone region is ________.
A) wood B) concrete C) stone D) brick
the water will withdraw from the beach farther than usual
If you are on a beach, you might recognize that a tsunami is approaching because ________.
A) the water will withdraw from the beach farther than usual
B) the water will run up on the beach farther than usual
C) waves will gradually get higher and higher as the tsunami approaches
D) waves will gradually get closer together and approach the beach faster than normal
less than 1 second (they are instantaneous)
Felt earthquakes usually last for ________.
A) less than 1 second (they are instantaneous) B) 10 to 60 seconds
C) 1 to 10 seconds D) 1 to 10 minutes
pore spaces between particles in unconsolidated sediments close and displace fluids
Liquefaction, where normally solid material behaves more like a fluid during an earthquake, occurs because ________.
A) friction from the vibrations melt rock and produce magmas
B) pore spaces between particles in unconsolidated sediments close and displace fluids
C) cracking in the rocks allows fluids to flow into the area and increase the amount of liquids in the subsurface
D) rock particles dissolve and mix with the fluids in the subsurface to become a liquid
a convergent boundary such as the Peru-Chile trench
Earthquakes with a very deep focus are usually located along ________.
A) a divergent plate boundary such as the Mid-Atlantic Ridge
B) a convergent boundary such as the Peru-Chile trench
C) a transform boundary such as the San Andreas
D) a hot spot chain such as the Hawaiian Islands
he collision of the African Plate with Eurasia
Large megathrust earthquakes in the mountainous regions flanking the Mediterranean sea are generally due to ________.
A) the collision of the Indian Plate with Eurasia
B) the collision of the Indian Plate with Southeast Asia
C) the collision of the African Plate with Eurasia
D) the collision of the African Plate with Southeast Asia
looking for precursors such as changes in topography, animal behavior, foreshocks, radon emission, etc that might signal an imminent earthquake
Short term earthquake prediction research has focused on ________.
A) measuring the rate of motion on various faults and the strength of the rocks along the faults to determine when the stress buildup will exceed the strength of the rocks
B) looking at when and where earthquakes have occurred in the past to develop a model for the timing of future earthquakes
C) measuring vertical changes in elevation along faults to determine whether a fault zone is inflating before a major rupture
D) looking for precursors such as changes in topography, animal behavior, foreshocks, radon emission, etc that might signal an imminent earthquake
somewhat good for very long term statistical analyses based on ideas like mapping seismic gaps
Earthquake prediction is ________.
A) not possible
B) generally good if you live in an area along a plate boundary because we know how fast the plates are moving and can measure the stress accumulation
C) possible for short times before some earthquakes based on things like animal behavior, but the U.S. does not make use of this method.
D) somewhat good for very long term statistical analyses based on ideas like mapping seismic gaps
the assumption that large faults break in a cyclical manner
Long term earthquake prediction is based on ________.
A) measurements of strain accumulation
B) measurements of the plate motions and rate of stress accumulation
C) observations of things like animal behavior, radon gas emissions, and changes in topography
D) the assumption that large faults break in a cyclical manner
faults are storing elastic strain
Seismic gaps are places where scientists think that ________.
A) faults are storing elastic strain B) earthquakes are unlikely to occur
C) faults are creeping smoothly D) faults are storing stress
in Southern California because it has been nearly 300 years since the last major earthquake in that area
The next large earthquake on the San Andreas Fault zone in California is considered likely to be ________.
A) in Southern California because it has been nearly 300 years since the last major earthquake in that area
B) in San Francisco because large earthquakes there are thought to occur every 75 years and the last large earthquake was in 1906
C) in northern California because the last major earthquake was in central California and the plate boundary is moving the stress to the northwest.
D) All of the fault system is considered equally likely because the plate motion is uniform and all areas are affected equally.
What is the probability that a large earthquake (M > 6.7) will occur in the San Francisco area between 2003 and 2032?
A) 85% B) 62% C) 23% D) 44%
Which of the following is not a way that seismic waves travel in the earth?
A) diffusion B) diffraction C) refraction D) reflection
the temperature increased so that iron and nickel melted
During the earliest history of the earth, ________ .
A) the temperature increased so that iron and nickel melted
B) the earth did not have any radioactive material
C) the earth was cold and lacked any source of heat.
D) almost all of the material was radioactive, and it decayed to the compositions we have today.
The deepest well that has ever been drilled on the earth is ________ deep, about 1/500th of the radius of the earth.
A) 31.4 km B) 40.5 km C) 20.7 km D) 12.3 km
the earth was heated after its formation resulting in melting and redistribution of major chemical compositions
The earth's major layers formed because ________.
A) the earth's mantle grew like a crystal forming around the earth's core but the crust was exposed to space and stayed more like the original material
B) the earth was heated after its formation resulting in melting and redistribution of major chemical compositions
C) radioactive decay caused materials to change over time and resulted in the layering
D) the chemical composition of the solar nebula changed over time
the earth was heated after its formation resulting in melting and redistribution of major chemical compositions
The earth's major layers formed because ________.
A) the earth's mantle grew like a crystal forming around the earth's core but the crust was exposed to space and stayed more like the original material
B) radioactive decay caused materials to change over time and resulted in the layering
C) the earth was heated after its formation resulting in melting and redistribution of major chemical compositions
D) the chemical composition of the solar nebula changed over time
The crust is compositionally distinct from the mantle, but the lithosphere is the rigid part of the crust and mantle.
What is the major difference between the crust and the lithosphere?
A) The crust is cool and the lithosphere is hot.
B) The crust is located between the lithosphere and the asthenosphere.
C) The crust is located above the lithosphere.
D) The crust is the rigid part of the earth and the lithosphere will flow.
E) The crust is compositionally distinct from the mantle, but the lithosphere is the rigid part of the crust and mantle
Oceanic crust is composed primarily of ________.
A) sandstone B) granite C) basalt D) andesite
It must be exposed at the surface of the Earth.
What is required for an igneous rock to weather?
A) It must move downslope under the influence of gravity.
B) It must be exposed at the surface of the Earth.
C) It must be deposited by water or ice.
D) It must be uplifted from where it was emplaced.
What is the most common place for sediment to be deposited?
A) rivers B) mountains C) beaches D) oceans
It is just a name change, and lava is what magma is called if it reaches the surface of the Earth.
What is the difference between "magma" and "lava"?
A) Magma makes igneous rocks and lava forms volcanoes.
B) It is just a name change, and lava is what magma is called if it reaches the surface of the Earth.
C) Magma is formed deep in the Earth and lava forms near the surface of the Earth.
D) Magma is less dense than lava.
Yosemite National Park
Which of the following places is well known for its intrusive igneous rocks that were exposed by erosion?
A) Yellowstone National Park B) Mount St. Helens Volcano
C) Yosemite National Park D) Hawaii
They run out of space.
Why do crystals in a magma stop growing during cooling?A) They run out of space.
B) They run out of heat.
C) The pressure from rocks above becomes too great and the magma stops growing crystals.
D) They become too dense to grow.
very small crystals
If magma or lava cools quickly, the resulting igneous rock will have ________.
A) very large crystals B) very small crystals
C) more variations in mineral types D) more silicate minerals
Which of the following is not a dark silicate mineral?
A) quartz B) biotite C) amphibole D) pyroxene
are denser than granitic compositional rocks
Igneous rocks with an andesitic composition ________.
A) are denser than basaltic compositional rocks
B) make up most of the sea floor
C) are found primarily in continental interiors
D) are denser than granitic compositional rocks
It is the main constituent of the Earth's crust.
Which of the following is not true of peridotite?
A) It is composed almost entirely of olivine and pyroxene.
B) It is rarely found at the Earth's surface.
C) It is denser than basaltic rocks.
D) It is the main constituent of the Earth's crust.
aluminum, sodium, and potassium
Rocks that contain high amounts of silica typically also contain ________.
A) aluminum, sodium, and potassium B) iron, magnesium, potassium
C) aluminum, magnesium, and potassium D) calcium, magnesium, and potassium
the slow cooling at depth allows large crystals to grow
Intrusive igneous rocks are often characterized as coarse-grained because ________.
A) the pressures at depth cause them to have a rough texture
B) small holes from escaping gases leave them rough and course
C) the uplift process that exposes the rock fractures them and makes them rough
D) the slow cooling at depth allows large crystals to grow
a magma that has partially crystallized slowly moves to a different location where it then cools rapidly.
A porphyritic texture where large crystals are embedded in a matrix of small crystal may form when ________.
A) crystals of different compositions cool at different rates
B) climate change causes crystals to cool at different rates
C) a magma that has partially crystallized slowly moves to a different location where it then cools rapidly.
D) crystals of different compositions grow to different sizes
Obsidian exhibits a ________ texture.
A) fine-grained B) coarse-grained C) glassy D) porphyritic
Which igneous texture is characterized by two distinctively different crystal sizes?
A) porphyritic B) coarse-grained C) fine-grained D) glassy
have a similar texture
Granite and gabbro ________.
A) are similar in both texture and mineral composition
B) have a similar mineral composition
C) are not similar in either texture or mineral composition
D) have a similar texture
Rhyolite is the fine-grained equivalent of this igneous rock.
A) diorite B) granite C) basalt D) andesite
Which one of the following is an igneous rock?
A) limestone B) shale C) slate D) rhyolite
Select from the list below the coarse-grained rock which is composed mainly of quartz and potassium feldspar.
A) basalt B) granite C) diorite D) andesite
records the rock's cooling history
The texture of an igneous rock ________.
A) determines the color of the rock B) is controlled by the composition of magma
C) is caused by leaching D) records the rock's cooling history
by crystallization of magma
Igneous rock is formed ________.
A) by changes in mineral composition B) at great depth within Earth
C) by crystallization of magma D) by the weathering of preexisting rocks
weathering alters the rock
The first step in turning a rock into a sediment is ________.
A) rock is broken into small pieces during the transportation phase
C) weathering alters the rock
D) gravity and erosional agents (wind, water, etc.) remove material from the parent rock
settling out of a fluid
Most sediment is formed by ________.
A) settling out of a fluid
B) the rapid distribution of material in a mountain stream
C) rocks that erode from the bottoms of glaciers
D) the downhill movement of material during mass wasting
Which of the following is an economically important sedimentary rock?
A) calcite B) marble C) pumice D) coal
clay and quartz
Which of the following pairs are likely products of weathering granite?
A) clay and quartz B) olivine and pyroxene
C) feldspar and mica D) sandstone and calcite
Which of the following is not a product of the chemical weathering of potassium feldspar?
A) potassium ions B) silica C) iron oxide D) clay
Detrital sedimentary rocks are typically classified on the basis of their ________.
A) texture B) provenance C) particle size D) lithology
only a short distance
Breccia, a rock with angular particles, is likely to have traveled ________.
A) in a glacier B) only a short distance
C) a long distance D) in a mountain stream
When sand lithifies, the resulting rock is commonly called ________.
A) breccia B) shale C) conglomerate D) sandstone
The most common sedimentary rock is ________.
A) conglomerate B) breccia C) sandstone D) shale
those settings have relatively still water
Silts and clays are commonly deposited in lakes, lagoons, swamps and marine environments because ________.
A) those settings have highly varied activities and multiple inlets for water
B) those settings are more basic
C) those settings have relatively still water
D) those settings are more acidic
carried in solution
Chemical sedimentary rocks form from materials ________.
A) that form weak bonds with oxygen B) too fine to see without a microscope
C) carried in solution D) all of the above
biochemical sediments secreted by marine organisms
Limestone is formed primarily through ________.
A) chemical interactions between ocean bottom sediments and ions in sea water
B) biochemical sediments secreted by marine organisms
C) direct precipitation from seawater
D) evaporation of calcite rich seawater
the hard parts of microscopic organisms that accumulate on the sea floor
Chalk forms from ________.
A) evaporation of magnesium rich waters
B) direct precipitation from seawater
C) magnesium rich fluids that chemically alter limestone bearing reefs
D) the hard parts of microscopic organisms that accumulate on the sea floor
Which one of the following is not related to chemical weathering?
A) frost wedging B) hydrolysis C) oxidation D) decomposition
in a warm, humid climate
Chemical weathering would be most effective ________.
A) equally in any kind of climate B) in a cold, dry climate
C) in a warm, dry climate D) in a warm, humid climate
when carbon dioxide from the air contacts the moisture in the cave
Travertine, a form of limestone commonly found in caves, forms ________.
A) when water in a cave is heated
B) when carbon dioxide from the air contacts the moisture in the cave
C) when water in a cave is cooled
D) when carbon dioxide in the water escapes into the air
Death Valley is a site where ________ sedimentary rocks are common.A) detrital B) evaporite C) clastic D) biochemical
incomplete decomposition of organic matter due to a lack of oxygen
An important condition for the formation of coal is ________.
A) decomposition of organic matter with abundant oxygen
B) abundant plant and animal life in a region
C) incomplete decomposition of organic matter due to a lack of oxygen
D) acid rich waters that reduce the organic matter to pure carbon
Sedimentary rocks comprise approximately ________ percent of Earth's outermost 10 miles.
A) 30 B) 50 C) 15 D) 5
Which rock type is associated with a high-energy environment (such as a very turbulent stream)?
A) shale B) conglomerate C) chert D) none of these
Detrital sediments would predominate in all of the following environments except ________.
A) river floodplain B) swamp C) delta D) salt flat
Compaction would probably be most significant as a lithification process for ________.
A) breccia B) shale C) sandstone D) conglomerate
The most abundant chemical sedimentary rock is ________.
A) rock salt B) dolomite C) limestone D) chert
evaporates; chemical, sedimentary rocks
Which of the following best describes bedded gypsum and rock salt?
A) evaporates; chemical, sedimentary rocks
B) detrital sedimentary rocks
C) varieties of coal and peat
D) varieties of dolostone
freshwater coastal swamps and bogs
Coal beds originate in ________.
A) freshwater coastal swamps and bogs
B) channels of fast-moving streams
C) shallow lakes in a dry, desert region
D) deep, marine basins below wave action
the weight of the sediments deposited above the compacting sediments
The common source of pressure during compaction of sediments is ________.
A) the weight of the sediments deposited above the compacting sediments
B) the weight of the compacting sediments causing internal pressure
C) the pressure of the sediments pushing the compacting sediments out of the way during deposition
D) the weight of water above the sediments after they are deposited
For a geologist, the most important characteristic of a sedimentary rock is its ________.
experiences conditions that are significantly different from those that formed the rock
Metamorphism occurs when a rock ________.
A) experiences conditions that are significantly different from those that formed the rock
B) experiences conditions that include high temperatures
C) experiences conditions that are similar to those that formed the rock
D) experiences conditions that include high pressures
The low grade metamorphism of shale produces ________.
A) slate B) marble C) schist D) gneiss
All of the above
Mountain building causes metamorphism because ________.
A) mountains are heavy and they push shallow, cool rocks to depths where they get heated
B) mountains form by the gradual buildup of material that comes from other areas and this can produce an uneven pressure on rocks
C) mountains are heavy and they compress the rocks under them.
D) all of the above
The most important agent(s) of metamorphism, according to your text, is (are) ________.
A) confining pressure B) differential stress
C) chemically active fluids D) heat
driving chemical reactions that lead to recrystallization
The major role of thermal energy (heat) in metamorphism is ________.
A) increasing the processes of dissolution and flow of different minerals
B) providing energy for the physical changes that occur during metamorphism
C) reducing the strength of rocks so that stress can be an effective agent of change
D) driving chemical reactions that lead to recrystallization
In an area where the temperature increase with depth averages 20°C per kilometer, the temperature at a depth of 5 kilometers would be ________.
A) 50°C B) 20°C C) 200°C D) 100°C
The quartz in granite begins to melt at 650°C, so if we find a migmatite where quartz has melted in a granitic rock and we know the temperature in the region increased with depth by about 25°C per kilometer, we could estimate the depth that the rock had been at to be about ________.
A) 23.5 km B) 12.5 km C) 26.0 km D) 18.0 km
forces are applied equally in all directions
Confining pressure is where ________.
A) forces are applied equally in all directions
B) pressure is parallel to the bedding planes
C) pressure is applied in a cubic region
D) forces are applied from the top and the bottom equally
flatten and elongate
When rocks experience high temperatures and differential stresses deep in the Earth, their grains tend to ________.
A) fracture along planes of weakness
B) form new minerals
C) break in small fragments like a piece of fine crystal
D) flatten and elongate
more acidic than regular fluids
Chemically active fluids are ________.
A) more basic than regular fluids
B) more acidic than regular fluids
C) fluids that contain large quantities of oxygen which reacts with most minerals to form new minerals during metamorphism
D) fluids that readily change to gases at surface conditions
direction perpendicular to the compressional stress
Recrystallization during metamorphism causes grains to grow longer in the ________.
A) horizontal direction
B) direction perpendicular to the compressional stress
C) direction of maximum differential stress
D) direction parallel to the compressional stress
Slate is ________ than shale.
A) denser B) lighter C) darker D) more planar
bedding planes and strata
Which of the following is not an example of a foliation in a metamorphic rock?
A) bedding planes and strata
B) parallel alignment of platy or flat minerals
C) parallel alignment of flattened pebbles
D) compositional banding
all of the above
Which of the following changes may occur during metamorphism?
A) The rock becomes more compact.
B) Certain minerals may recrystallize.
C) Crystals may grow larger.
D) all of the above
The common rock produced by the metamorphism of limestone is ________.
A) marble B) gneiss C) mica schist D) phyllite
________ is composed of alternating bands of light and dark silicate minerals.
A) Phyllite B) Mica schist C) Marble D) Gneiss
The primary agent of contact metamorphism is ________.
A) folding B) stress C) heat D) strain
slate, phyllite, schist
Which of the following lists the rocks in the order of increasing grain size and increasing grade of metamorphism?
A) slate, schist, phyllite
B) phyllite, slate, schist
C) schist, slate, phyllite
D) slate, phyllite, schist
Magma differentiation tends to produce deposits of ________ near the base of intrusions.
A) gold B) chromite C) copper D) silver
the final crystallizing parts of a magma
The very large crystals of quartz, feldspar, and muscovite found in pegmatites form from ________.
A) the final crystallizing parts of a magma
B) the middle crystallizing parts of a magma
C) the early crystallizing parts of a magma
D) all of the above
The minerals gold, silver and mercury are often found in ________.
A) disseminated deposits
B) hydrothermal veins
C) alteration of limestone
D) the lower parts of an intrusion
coal forms in swamps and oil/gas form in marine environments
A major difference between coal and oil/gas is ________.
A) coal forms in shallow marine environments and oil/gas form in swamps
B) coal forms in swamps and oil/gas form in marine environments
C) coal forms on land from dinosaurs and oil/gas form from ancient fish
D) coal forms in deep marine environments and oil/gas form in shallow marine environments
permeability and porosity
In order to get oil and gas in sufficient quantities to make a profit, an oil trap must exist with ________.
A) shale with little or no sulfur
B) no fractures or structure
C) permeability and porosity
D) lateral continuity that allows fluids to migrate
Which of the following is not a criterion for defining something as a mineral?
A) Generally inorganic
C) Naturally occurring
D) Orderly crystalline structure
Which of the following is a mineral as defined by a geologist?
A) concrete B) water C) salt D) boulder E) sugar
They do not have a well-defined chemical composition.
Why are boulders not a mineral?
A) They are not naturally occurring.
B) They do not have a well-defined chemical composition.
C) They are organic.
D) They do not have an orderly crystalline structure.
E) They are not solid.
Limestone is composed almost entirely of calcite which has the chemical formula CaCO3. As a result, limestone is classified as ________.
A) a rock
B) a mineral
C) both a mineral and a rock
D) neither a mineral nor a rock because it is organic
In a mineral the constituent atoms are bonded in a regular, repetitive, internal structure; a rock is a lithified or consolidated aggregate of different mineral grains.
Which of the following best defines a mineral and a rock?
A) In a mineral the constituent atoms are bonded in a regular, repetitive, internal structure; a rock is a lithified or consolidated aggregate of different mineral grains.
B) A rock consists of atoms bonded in a regular, geometrically predictable arrangement; a mineral is a consolidated aggregate of different rock particles.
C) A mineral consists of its constituent atoms arranged in a geometrically repetitive structure; in a rock, the atoms are randomly bonded without any geometric pattern.
D) A rock has an orderly, repetitive, geometrical, internal arrangement of minerals; a mineral is a lithified or consolidated aggregate of rocks.
They can be a liquid, solid, or gas.
Which one of the following is not true for minerals?
A) They can be a liquid, solid, or gas.
B) They have a specific, internal, crystalline structure.
C) Many have a specific, predictable chemical composition.
D) They can be identified by characteristic physical properties.
Which of the following is not a fundamental particle found in atoms?
A) electron B) protons C) neutron D) selectron
protons in the nucleus
Atoms of the same element, zinc for example, have the same number of ________.
A) electrons in the valence bond level
B) neutrons in the outer nuclear shell
C) electrons in the nucleus
D) protons in the nucleus
Which the following denotes the positively charged particles in an atom's nucleus?
A) electrons B) protons C) isotrons D) neutrons
An atom's mass number is 13 and its atomic number is 6. How many neutrons are in its nucleus?
A) 7 B) 19 C) 13 D) 6
during the big band when the universe was formed
Heavy elements like Pb (lead) and U (Uranium) were generated ________.
A) during the big band when the universe was formed
B) by humans in nuclear reactors
C) by the Sun and expelled to the solar system via the solar wind\
D) during collapse of a star and subsequent nuclear synthesis in a supernova
Which of the following minerals is not a chemical compound?
A) pyrite (FeS) B) quartz (SiO2) C) halite (NaCl) D) graphite (C)
When Calcium (Ca) bonds with oxygen, it gives up two electrons. What is the charge of the Ca ion in this compound?
A) -1 B) +2 C) -2 D) +1
outer electron shell because these electrons can be readily exchanged with adjacent atoms
Which electrons are responsible for most chemical bonding?
A) outer electron shell because these electrons can be readily exchanged with adjacent atoms
B) middle electron shell because they are intermediate in distance between the nucleus and the adjacent atom that bonds with the atom
C) innermost electron shell because the electrons can be transferred to the nucleus
D) Any electron can exchange with adjacent atoms to form a bond; there is no preference.
It behaves as a metal ion, giving up two electrons to form a +2 ion.
Element 20, Ca, has what chemical property?
A) It tends to form covalent bonds and an ion with a charge of +1.
B) It tends to be inert, and thus is dispersed throughout the crust.
C) It behaves as a metal ion, giving up two electrons to form a +2 ion.
D) It behaves as a nonmetal, accepting electrons to form an ion with charge -2.
are chemically similar because they lie directly below each other on the periodic table
Element 17 (Cl) and 9 (F) ________.
A) behave as metals because they lie on the right side of the periodic table
B) are chemically very different because they lie directly below each other on the periodic table
C) are chemically similar because they lie directly below each other on the periodic table
D) are chemically relatively inert because they adjacent to the inert gases on the periodic table
K is to Rb
Be is to Mg as ________.
A) K is to Mg B) Ti is to V C) Ti is to F D) K is to Rb
number of protons
The columns of the periodic table divide atoms by their ________.
A) atomic mass
B) number of neutrons
C) number of protons
D) number of valence electrons
Atoms that share electrons have a(n) ________ bond.
A) ionic B) metallic C) covalent D) partial
When electrons are shared amongst all atoms, the resulting bond is a(n) ________ bond.
A) ionic B) covalent C) metallic D) partial
The bond between sodium (Na) and Chlorine (Cl) to form halite (salt) is a(n) ________ bond.
A) ionic B) metallic C) covalent D) valent
The bond between two hydrogen atoms (a covalent bond) is based on the force of attraction between ________.
A) two atoms
B) two ions
C) protons in the nuclei and electrons surrounding the nuclei
D) two nuclei
ionic bonds do not result in the attraction of oppositely charged atoms, but covalent and metallic bonds do
One significant difference between an ionic bond, where electrons are taken from one atom and added to another atom, and a covalent or metallic bond, where electrons are shared, is ________.
A) ionic bonds make a material more malleable than covalent and metallic bonds
B) ionic bonds are stronger than covalent or metallic bonds
C) ionic bonds do not result in the attraction of oppositely charged atoms, but covalent and metallic bonds do
D) ionic bonds produce ions but covalent and metallic bonds do not produce ions
Atoms that have an electrical charge due to a gain or loss of electrons are called ________.
A) isotopes B) periodic elements C) ions D) isochrons
What mineral is the hardest known substance in nature?
A) muscovite B) diamond C) native gold D) silicate
Which mineral reacts readily with cool, dilute hydrochloric acid to produce visible bubbles of carbon dioxide gas?
A) gypsum B) plagioclase C) calcite D) quartz
The resistance of a mineral to abrasion is known as ________.
A) luster B) streak C) cleavage D) hardness
The strong tendency of certain minerals to break along smooth, parallel planes is known as ________.
A) cleavage B) habit C) streak D) cracking luster
The most unreliable (variable) diagnostic property of minerals such as quartz is ________.
A) specific gravity B) color C) habit D) hardness
galena, quartz, water, wood
Wood floats in water, 1 gram is defined as the mass of 1 cubic centimeter of water, a cubic centimeter of quartz weighs ~2.65 g and a cubic centimeter of galena weighs about 7.5 g. The density of these materials from highest to lowest is ________.
A) wood, quartz, galena, water B) galena, quartz, wood, water
C) water, wood, quartz, galena D) galena, quartz, water, wood
The atoms are arranged in orderly arrangements that form strongly bonded sheets separated by weak bonds between the sheets.
What does the tendency of micas to produce thin cleavage flakes suggest about its crystal structure?
A) The structure is characterized by rings that form an interlocking network, forming planar sheets.
B) The atoms are arranged in orderly arrangements that form strongly bonded sheets separated by weak bonds between the sheets.
C) The structure is produced by flow in the igneous rock, aligning glass layers within the crystal structure.
D) The crystal structure is characterized by complex polymerized mats that form a sheetlike structure.
Angles are important when looking at which physical properties of minerals?
A) cleavages B) conchoidal fractures
C) bands of different luster D) color streaks
Which of the following physical properties is not generally used to identify most minerals?
A) hardness B) smell C) cleavage D) luster
NaCl (halite) or KCl (sylvite)
Geologists may choose to lick a mineral to identify it. What mineral is the geologist expecting with this test?
A) NaCl (halite) or KCl (sylvite)
B) a sulfide bearing rock which will taste like rotten eggs
C) None, it clears the dust off the sample so he/she can see if more clearly.
D) None, they are clearing the hydrochloric acid from the sample to rerun a test for calcite.
Which of the following describes the light reflecting and transmission characteristics of a mineral?
A) virtual absorption B) fluorescence C) luster D) color streak
The crystal structure contains planes along which chemical bonding is much weaker than other directions.
When a mineral fractures along a cleavage plane, what does this suggest about the crystal structure of the mineral?
A) The crystal grows only planar faces that become weak zones that form cleavage.
B) The crystal structure contains planes along which chemical bonding is much weaker than other directions.
C) The crystal contains warped planes called twin planes that weaken the crystal structure and allow it fracture along a planar surface, causing cleavage.
D) The atoms are arranged in a simple orderly arrangement with uniform bonding.
The acid reacts with the mineral to release CO2 gas that is bound into the crystal as carbonate ion.
Why do the minerals calcite and dolomite bubble with the mineral or its powder are placed in hydrochloric acid?
A) Both minerals are metal hydrides, and when placed in hydrochloric acid they give off hydrogen gas.
B) The acid and the mineral together react with oxygen in the air, releasing CO2 gas.
C) Both minerals are sulfides, and the acid reacts to release sulfur dioxide gas.
D) The acid reacts with the mineral to release CO2 gas that is bound into the crystal as carbonate ion.
a pseudomorph (false form) of fluorite from replacement of a salt, potassium chlorite, that grows in octahedral crystals
The mineral fluorite is commonly sold in mineral shops as octahedral (8-sided) objects. This shape originates from ________.
A)) cutting a larger crystal along four perfect cleavage planes, forming a cleavage fragment
B) the typical crystal form of fluorite
C) the growth of fluorite in caves and is the form the crystals grow in the open cavern
D) a pseudomorph (false form) of fluorite from replacement of a salt, potassium chlorite, that grows in octahedral crystals
The planar faces that form the object are crystal faces that grow when the crystals grew into a void.
Quartz has a characteristic conchoidal fracture, yet rock shops often sell quartz as elongate six sided objects with a pointed termination. What causes this shape?
A) The planar faces that form the object are crystal faces that grow when the crystals grew into a void.
B) Quartz usually is amorphous, consistent with its conchoidal fracture, but when it grows it grows against minerals with planar faces, causing this shape.
C) You should never buy a crystal like this because it is clearly fake, only artificial crystals grow this way.
D) The rock shop cuts them that way with abrasives. The facets are cut to give the crystals more "power" for the crystal people.
gold has a higher density and specific gravity than quartz and olivine
A cubic centimeter of quartz, olivine, and gold weighs 2.5, 3.0, and 19.8 grams, respectively. This indicates that ________.
A) gold and olivine are silicates, whereas quartz is elemental silicon
B) olivine and quartz powders are harder than metallic gold
C) gold has a higher density and specific gravity than quartz and olivine
D) gold is 6 to 7 times harder than olivine and quartz
Although it is relatively common, limestone is an economically important rock type because its major constituent mineral, ________, is used in the production of ________.
A) halite, halogen B) calcite, cement C) halite, salt D) calcite, calcium
Which of the following is not a common rock forming mineral?
A) potassium B) carbon C) magnesium D) iron
silicon and oxygen
Which two elements combine to make most of the common rock forming minerals in the crust?
A) silicon and oxygen
B) silicon and nitrogen
C) carbon and nitrogen
D) carbon and oxygen
E) nitrogen and oxygen
The most common group of rock forming minerals is ________.
A) the silicates B) carbonate C) the halides D) the sulfates
The most common group of silicates is ________.
A) granite B) mica C) quartz D) feldspar
4 oxygens and 1 silicon
The basic building block of a silicate is composed of ________.
A) 3 oxygens and 1 silicon
B) 2 oxygens and 1 silicon
C) 4 oxygens and 1 silicon
D) 1 oxygen and 1 silicon
from cooling molten rock
Silicates most commonly form ________.
A) from cooling molten rock
B) at the surface of the earth
C) from other silicates
D) under extreme pressure
a silicate that forms from weathering of other silicates
Clay is an example of ________.
A) a sulfate that forms from weathering of other sulfates
B) a carbonate that forms from weathering of other carbonates
C) a silicate that forms from weathering of other silicates
D) a halide that forms from weathering of other halides
potassium, calcium, sodium, and aluminum
Light colored silicates have a specific gravity of about 2.7 grams/cm3 are composed primarily of the silica tetrahedra and ________.
A) iron, magnesium, calcium, and sodium
B) aluminum, magnesium, calcium, and iron
C) potassium, calcium, sodium, and aluminum
D) magnesium, aluminum, sodium, and calcium
E) potassium, aluminum, magnesium, and sodium
from mechanical weathering of any rock
Clay minerals are light silicates that form ________.
A) from mechanical weathering of any rock
B) from pressure and heat.
C) from molten rock
D) from chemical weathering of igneous rocks
iron and magnesium
Dark Silicates have a specific gravity of 3.2 to 3.6 and are composed primarily of silica tetrahedral and ________.
A) potassium and iron
B) iron and magnesium
C) potassium and calcium
D) aluminum and magnesium
E) aluminum and sodium
Carbonates always include ________.
B) Cl-1, F-1, or Br-1
Cl-1, F-1, or Br-1
Halides always include ________.
B) Cl-1, F-1, or Br-1
Sulfates always include ________.
B) Cl-1, F-1, or Br-1
Gypsum, which is widely used in plaster and wallboard, is a member of the ________ group.
A) halide B) carbonate C) silicate D) sulfate
Dolomite is a magnesium-rich member of the ________ group.
A) sulfate B) carbonate C) halide D) silicate
Which of the following minerals is a silicate?
A) halite B) feldspar C) hematite D) calcite
Which one of the following mineral groups exhibits a sheet-like silicate structure?
A) feldspars B) carbonates C) pyroxenes D) micas
Which common mineral is composed entirely of silicon and oxygen?
A) diamond B) olivine C) quartz D) calcite
A naturally occurring concentration of one or more metallic minerals that can be extracted economically is a(n) ________.
A) resource B) reserve C) ore D) tailing
Which of the following is a renewable resource?
A) ice B) rock salt C) coal D) helium gas
Ore deposits of the element ________ do not require extreme concentrations because it is one of the most abundant elements in the Earth's crust.
A) uranium B) carbon C) boron D) aluminum
What theory dramatically improved geologist's ability to predict where certain ore deposits were formed?
A) plate tectonics
B) quantum mechanics
D) faulting theory
Deposits of which of the following minerals would never be considered an ore?
A) hematite B) chalcophyrite C) quartz D) galena
The old miners were wasteful and left large amounts of ore in the ground.
In the late 20th century most metal prices were very low but metal prices increased dramatically in the early 21st century. Simultaneously, the early 21st century saw extensive "brownfields exploration" in which companies went to old mining areas and extracted old mine wastes or reopened old mine workings. What is the primary explanation for this activity?
A) The companies were only interested acquiring properties through a sleazy land grab, and had no intention of doing anything with the deposits assuming no one cared about brownfields.
B) The increase of metal prices made mineral resources that were previously uneconomic into ores that could potentially be extracted profitably.
C) Environmental regulations make it impossible to explore anywhere but old mining areas, so this was the only place the companies could look for deposits.
D) The old miners were wasteful and left large amounts of ore in the ground.
tens of thousands to millions of years
What kind of time span is required to produce most mineral deposits?
A) billions of years
B) tens of thousands to millions of years
C) 1-100 years, or about a human life span
D) We have no way of knowing this, but most were formed at the same time as the Earth.
The study of Earth's atmosphere is known as ________.
A) cosmology B) oceanography C) astronomy D) meteorology
None of the above; Earth Science makes use of all of these sciences.
Which science is not used within the Earth sciences?
E) None of the above; Earth Science makes use of all of these sciences.
the study of the atmosphere
Oceanography is the study of the oceans and geology is the study of the earth, so what is meteorology?
A) the study of the Sun's impact on the upper atmosphere
B) the study of how to be a TV newscaster
C) the study of meteors
D) the study of the atmosphere
Oceanographers, because the fossils can tell us about periods when the earth was covered with water to the height of Mt. Everest
Sedimentary rocks with marine fossils are exposed at the top of Mt. Everest. Which scientists would make most use of this observation in their study?
A) Oceanographers, because the fossils can tell us about periods when the earth was covered with water to the height of Mt. Everest
B) Geologists, because their elevation is related to physical geology and fossils are related to Earth history
C) Meteorologists, because they could use the fossils as a guide to ancient climates
D) Astronomers, because they can study how life came from outer space to Earth
Hurricanes and tornadoes are natural disasters. What branch of the Earth sciences studies the origin of these phenomena?
A) Meteorology B) Geology C) Oceanography D) Astronomy
Hurricanes are natural disasters. Which branch of the Earth sciences studies the impact of this phenomenon on coastal environments?
A) Meteorology B) Geology C) Oceanography D) Astronomy
Tsunamis and earthquakes have killed millions of people during human history. What branch of the Earth sciences is the main group that studies these phenomena?
A) Meteorology B) Geology C) Oceanography D) Astronomy
If you want to buy a house in an area and you are worried there may be an earthquake hazard, who would be the best person to ask for advice on this hazard?
A) a physicist B) an astrologer C) a civil engineer D) a geologist
The earth is estimated to be approximately 4.6 billion years old. Life appeared early in the history of Earth, but metazoans (multicelled organisms) did not appear until about 600 million years ago. If the history of Earth were compressed into a single year, when would metazoans appear?
A) late November B) mid-December C) late January D) late September
chemical refining of petroleum
Which of the following would not typically be considered an Earth Science study?
A) studies of impact craters on the moon
B) studies of volcanic eruptions
C) studies of acid mine waters and the bacteria that live in those waters
D) chemical refining of petroleum
a meteorologist with knowledge of oceanography
Climate change is a well-known human problem and remains controversial despite widespread scientific agreement on the issue. Although most scientists are familiar with the issues, if you were a congressman and wanted an informed analysis of the problem, which of the following would be most likely to give you the most complete analysis?
A) a physicist
B) a meteorologist with knowledge of oceanography
C) an astronomer
D) a geologist with knowledge of astronomy
A ________ is a well-tested and widely accepted view that best explains certain scientific
A) generalization B) theory C) hypothesis D) law
to identify the patterns in nature and use that information to predict the future
The primary goal of Earth Science is ________.
A) to identify the patterns in nature and use that information to predict the future
B) to develop things that will benefit mankind
C) to protect the environment
D) to locate resources
assumption of conclusions without prior experimentation or observation
All of the following are possible steps of scientific investigation except for ________.
A) the development of one or more working hypotheses or models to explain facts
B) development of observations and experiments to test the hypotheses
C) assumption of conclusions without prior experimentation or observation
D) the collection of scientific facts through observation and measurement
It must predict something other than the observations it was based on.
Which of the following is not necessary for a hypothesis to be accepted by the scientific community?
A) It must predict something other than the observations it was based on.
B) It must be based on observations or facts.
C) It must be testable.
D) There must be alternative hypotheses proposed.
The ________ explains how our solar system probably formed from a giant cloud of gases and dispersed solid particles.
A) nebular theory B) protogalactic theory
C) extrastellar solar hypothesis D) planetary compression theory
Which of the following is not a planet?
A) Venus B) Saturn C) Neptune D) Europa
All of the chemical elements in our solar system were forged in an ancient star that went supernova.
In the television series "Cosmos" the astronomer Carl Sagan used to say, "We are all made of star stuff." What did he mean by that?
A) All of the chemical elements were formed during the big bang when the universe began, so we are like the stars.
B) All of the chemical elements in our solar system were forged in an ancient star that went supernova.
C) We all have to potential to be stars.
D) The earth has incorporated large amounts of chemical material from the solar wind, so our bodies carry this material.
Immense heat was released within the colliding bodies as gravitational potential energy was converted to heat.
In the proto-solar system nebula, gravity pulled matter together to form larger bodies. As they collided,what happened to these bodies?
A) The objects broke apart to form asteroids, much like a neutron colliding with a heavy atom produces fission.
B) The objects temporarily broke apart and then reformed into large objects, cooling rapidly during the breakup period.
C) Oblique collisions caused individual bodies to spin.
D) Immense heat was released within the colliding bodies as gravitational potential energy was converted to heat.
These light elements are blown away from the inner planets by the solar wind.
Light elements like hydrogen and helium form a large percentage of the outer planets and Sun is made up primarily of hydrogen. Why are these elements nearly absent from the inner planets?
A) It is a mystery that has never been solved by science.
B) Hydrogen and helium have all been bound up by chemical reactions on the inner planets and are held in rock.
C) These light elements are blown away from the inner planets by the solar wind.
D) The Sun captured all of the hydrogen during its formation.
frozen water, carbon dioxide, and methane
Comets are made up primarily of ________.
A) silicate minerals, like rocks on Earth
B) frozen hydrogen
C) iron-nickel alloys
D) frozen water, carbon dioxide, and methane
the outer solar system where planetesimals, rocky debris and comets orbit outside beyond the outer planets but cross into the inner solar system at times
The Oort cloud is ________.
A) the outer solar system where planetesimals, rocky debris and comets orbit outside beyond the outer planets but cross into the inner solar system at times
B) the asteroid belt
C) an unusual type of cloud formed when meteorites strike the earth
D) another name for the inner solar system, just before the Sun became hot enough for nuclear fusion
The ________ refers to the sum total of all life on Earth.
A) atmosphere B) geosphere C) biosphere D) hydrosphere
The ________ refers to the water-dominated parts of the earth.
A) geosphere B) hydrosphere C) atmosphere D) biosphere
The largest of Earth's spheres is the ________.
A) geosphere B) atmosphere C) biosphere D) hydrosphere
all of the above
Soil belongs to the ________.
E) All of the above
The exchange of energy between the surface of the earth, the atmosphere, and space causes ________.
A) temperature B) glaciers C) topography D) weather
inner core, outer core, mantle, crust
In correct order from the center outward, Earth includes which units?
A) inner core, crust, mantle, hydrosphere
B) core, inner mantle, outer mantle, crust
C) core, crust, mantle, hydrosphere
D) inner core, outer core, mantle, crust
solid iron-nickel alloy
The composition of the earth's inner core is thought to be ________.
A) peridotite B) basalt
C) solid iron-nickel alloy D) granite
The asthenosphere is actually a part of the ________ of the earth.
A) crust B) outer core C) inner core D) mantle
The ________ is thought to be a liquid, metallic region in the earth's interior.
A) inner core B) mantle C) lithosphere D) outer core
The ________ is the thinnest layer of the earth.
A) inner core B) mantle C) outer core D) crust
The ________ forms the relatively cool, brittle tectonic plates.
A) lithosphere B) astrosphere C) eosphere D) asthenosphere
heat transfer between the earth's interior and the surface of the earth
Which of the following energy sources is thought to drive the lateral motions of Earth's lithospheric plates?
A) swirling movements of the molten iron particles in the outer core
B) gravitational attractive forces of the Sun and Moon
C) heat transfer between the earth's interior and the surface of the earth
D) electrical and magnetic fields localized in the inner core
sites where cold, downgoing convective cells, the plates, descent into the mantle
Convergent plate boundaries are ________.
A) sites where cold, downgoing convective cells, the plates, descent into the mantle
B) sites of supervolcanos like Yellowstone
C) sites where heat from the earth's interior is vented to the surface as volcanoes
D) areas where two plates slide laterally past one another, generating earthquakes, like the San Andrea fault
Oceanic crust is generated at ________.
A) spreading ridges
B) convergent plate margins
C) hot spots on the sea floor, like Iceland
D) transform plate margins
areas in the interior of continents that have not experienced mountain building for billions of years
Continental shields and platforms represent ________.
A) names given to Paleozoic mountain belts
B) sites where continents collide, analogous to warriors clashing shields
C) areas in the interior of continents that have not experienced mountain building for billions of years
D) sedimentary basins with inland seas shaped like a shield, like Hudson's bay
Which of the following layers in the earth has the highest density?
A) Lower mantle B) Outer Core C) Asthenosphere D) Lithosphere
The Andes Mountains in South America are formed by ________.
A) sea floor spreading
B) back-arc contraction
C) continental collision
The Himalayan Mountains and adjacent Tibet are a mountain system formed by ________.
A) back-arc contraction
C) continental collision
D) sea floor spreading
the rate of growth of human hair or fingernails
Which of the following is a reasonable approximation of the rate that plates move?
A) the speed a turtle walks
B) the speed of deep ocean currents
C) the speed of a mountain glacier
D) the rate of growth of human hair or fingernails
iron and magnesium
What two chemical elements are most abundant in the deep interior of the earth?
A) magnesium and oxygen B) silicon and oxygen
C) iron and magnesium D) hydrogen and helium
A major cause of the differences in elevation between ocean basins and continents is ________.
A) mass B) density C) temperature D) viscosity
Ocean floor averages about ________ km depth below sea level.
A) 8 B) 4 C) 2 D) 6
composed primarily of basalt
Ocean crust is denser than continental crust because ocean crust is ________.
A) thinner than continental crust
B) composed primarily of granite
C) thicker than continental crust
D) composed primarily of basalt
in the interior of continents
Flat, stable areas of continental crust tend to be located ________.
A) in the interior of continents
B) along coastlines
C) near desert regions
D) in areas that receive large amounts of rainfall
located around the Pacific Ocean
Major mountain belts on the earth are ________.
A) over 10 km high
B) older than smaller mountain belts because they have had enough time to grow large
C) made of granite because it is low density and allows for maximum growth
D) located around the Pacific Ocean
flat areas that include rocks older than 1 billion years old
Shield areas in continental interiors are characterized by ________.
A) ancient coastal regions that have become abandoned and eroded
B) flat river valleys that cut through older mountain ranges
C) linear chains of mountains less than 100 million years old
D) flat areas that include rocks older than 1 billion years old
Which of the following is not considered to be part of a typical ocean basin?
A) a linear chain of volcanoes
B) granitic intrusions
C) deep canyons
D) large expanses of flat plains
transform plate boundaries
Deep ocean trenches typically are not located adjacent to ________.
A) transform plate boundaries
B) young continental mountains
C) abyssal plains
D) volcanic island arc chains
layers of igneous rocks
Long oceanic mountain chains typically are characterized by ________.
A) highly deformed sedimentary rocks
B) layers of igneous rocks
C) granitic plutons and batholiths
D) rocks older than 1 billion years old
along the margins of continents
Active mountain belts are most likely to be found ________.
A) scattered throughout continents
B) along the margins of continents
C) along only the eastern margins of continents
D) in the interior regions of continents
landward of the continental slope
The continental shelf is located ________.
A) landward of the continental slope
B) between the continental rise and the abyssal plains
C) between the continental slope and continental rise
D) seaward of the continental slope
The most prominent features on the ocean floor are the ________.
A) oceanic ridges
B) lava plateaus
D) deep-ocean trenches
A(n) ________ system is one in which energy moves freely in and out, but no matter enters or leaves the system.
A) feedback B) closed C) open D) equilibrated
positive feedback mechanisms
Mechanisms that enhance or drive change are known as ________.
A) negative feedback mechanisms
B) positive feedback mechanisms
C) open feedback mechanisms
D) closed feedback mechanisms
heat from Earth's interior, the Sun
What is the source of the energy that powers the Earth system?
A) heat from Earth's interior
B) the Sun
C) both A and B
D) none of the above
the study of minerals
Which of the following is not a system?
A) the Pacific Ocean and the west coast of North America
B) the biosphere
C) the study of minerals
D) soil, plants, rock, soil organisms, and animals
study how minerals influence organisms living on them, how they react with water to produce soil forming minerals, or study how wind transports minerals as dust and influences climate
A mineralogist studies minerals and their origins. A mineralogist studying the Earth system would ________.
A) study how minerals influence organisms living on them, how they react with water to produce soil forming minerals, or study how wind transports minerals as dust and influences climate
B) do the same thing, studying minerals and their origins, as any other mineralogist
C) study how minerals form rocks
D) Minerals can never be used to study the Earth system.
YOU MIGHT ALSO LIKE...
SCIN 100 Final
Earth Science Ch. 1-...
geology test 2
ESCI 1001 Quiz 2
OTHER SETS BY THIS CREATOR
THIS SET IS OFTEN IN FOLDERS WITH...
CH.8- Quiz 1
Geology 1401 Chapter 9 review
Earth Science Test 2