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Micro Chapter 21-27

Terms in this set (70)

The following are all complications of streptococcal pharyngitis except
a) glomerulonephritis.
b) scarlet fever.
c) subacute bacterial endocarditis.
d) acute rheumatic fever.
e) Reye's syndrome.
e) Reye's syndrome.
All of the following are true of diphtheria except
a) a membrane that forms in the throat can cause suffocation.
b) a toxin is produced that interferes with ribosome function.
c) the causative organism typically invades the bloodstream.
d) immunization with a toxoid prevents the disease.
e) nerve injury with paralysis is common.
c) the causative organism typically invades the bloodstream.
Adenoviral infections and the common cold are both
a) caused by picornaviruses.
b) often associated with fever.
c) associated with severe sore throat.
d) lower respiratory infections.
e) avoided by handwashing.
e) avoided by handwashing.
All are true of mycoplasmal pneumonia except
a)
it is a mycosis.
b)
it usually does not require hospitalization.
c)
penicillin is ineffective for treatment.
d)
it is the leading cause of bacterial pneumonia in college students.
e)
the infectious dose of the causative organism is low.
a)
it is a mycosis.
All of the following are true of Legionnaires' disease except
a)
the causative organism can grow inside protozoa.
b)
it spreads readily from person to person.
c)
it is more likely to occur in long-term cigarette smokers than in nonsmokers.
d)
it is often associated with diarrhea or other intestinal symptoms.
e)
it can be contracted from household water supplies.
b)
it spreads readily from person to person.
Which of the following infectious agents is most likely to cause a pandemic?
a)
Influenza A virus
b)
Streptococcus pyogenes
c)
Histoplasma capsulatum
d)
Sin Nombre virus
e)
Coccidioides immitis
a)
Influenza A virus
Respiratory syncytial virus
a)
is a leading cause of serious lower respiratory tract infections in infants.
b)
is an enveloped DNA virus of the adenovirus family.
c)
attaches to host cell membranes by means of neuraminidase.
d)
poses no threat to elderly people.
e)
mainly causes disease in the summer months.
a)
is a leading cause of serious lower respiratory tract infections in infants.
In the United States, hantaviruses
a)
are limited to southwestern states.
b)
are carried only by deer mice.
c)
infect human beings with a fatality rate of about 30%.
d)
were first identified in the early 1970s.
e)
are contracted mainly in bat caves.
c)
infect human beings with a fatality rate of about 30%.
All of the following are true of coccidioidomycosis except
a)
it is contracted by inhaling arthrospores.
b)
it is caused by a dimorphic fungus.
c)
endospores are produced within a spherule.
d)
it is more common in Maryland than in California.
e)
it is often associated with painful nodules on the legs.
d)
it is more common in Maryland than in California.
The disease histoplasmosis
a)
is caused by an encapsulated bacterium.
b)
is contracted by inhaling arthrospores.
c)
occurs mostly in hot, dry, and dusty areas of the American Southwest.
d)
is a threat to AIDS patients living in areas bordering the Mississippi River.
e)
is commonly fatal for pigeons and bats.
d)
is a threat to AIDS patients living in areas bordering the Mississippi River.
Which of the following conditions is important in the ecology of the skin?
a)
Temperature
b)
Salt concentration
c)
Lipids
d)
pH
e)
All of the above
e)
All of the above
Staphylococcus aureus can be responsible for all of the following conditions except
a)
impetigo.
b)
food poisoning.
c)
toxic shock syndrome.
d)
scalded skin syndrome.
e)
athlete's foot.
e)
athlete's foot.
The main effect of staphylococcal protein A is to
a)
interfere with phagocytosis.
b)
enhance the attachment of the Fc portion of antibody to phagocytes.
c)
coagulate plasma.
d)
kill white blood cells.
e)
degrade collagen.
a)
interfere with phagocytosis.
Which of the following contributes to the virulence of Streptococcus pyogenes?
a)
Protease
b)
Hyaluronidase
c)
DNase
d)
All of the above
e)
None of the above
d)
All of the above
Which of the following statements is true of streptococcal impetigo?
a)
It is caused by a Gram-negative rod.
b)
It cannot be transmitted from one person to another.
c)
Pathogenic streptococci all produce coagulase.
d)
All of the above.
e)
None of the above.
e)
None of the above.
All of the following are true of Rocky Mountain spotted fever except
a)
the disease is most prevalent in the western United States.
b)
it is caused by an obligate intracellular bacterium.
c)
it is a zoonosis transmitted to humans by ticks.
d)
those with the disease characteristically develop a hemorrhagic rash.
e)
antibiotic therapy is usually curative if given early in the disease.
a)
the disease is most prevalent in the western United States.
All of the following are true of Lyme disease except
a)
it is caused by a spirochete.
b)
it is transmitted by certain species of ticks.
c)
it occurs only in the region around Lyme, Connecticut.
d)
most cases get a rash that looks like a target.
e)
it can cause heart and nervous system damage.
c)
it occurs only in the region around Lyme, Connecticut.
Which of the following statements is more likely to be true of measles (rubeola) than German measles (rubella)?
a)
Koplik spots are present.
b)
It causes birth defects.
c)
It causes only a mild illness.
d)
Humans are the only natural host.
e)
Attenuated virus vaccine is available for prevention.
a)
Koplik spots are present.
All of the following must be cultivated in cell cultures instead of cell-free media except
a)
Rickettsia rickettsii.
b)
rubella virus.
c)
varicella-zoster virus.
d)
Borrelia burgdorferi.
e)
rubeola virus.
d)
Borrelia burgdorferi.
All of the following might contribute to development of ringworm or other superficial cutaneous mycoses except
a)
obesity.
b)
playing with kittens.
c)
rubber boots.
d)
using skin powder.
e)
dermatophyte virulence.
d)
using skin powder.
Which of the following about Staphylococcus aureus is false?
a)
It is generally coagulase-positive.
b)
Its infectious dose is increased in the presence of foreign material.
c)
Some strains infecting wounds can cause toxic shock.
d)
Nasal carriers have an increased the risk of surgical wound infection.
e)
It is pyogenic.
b)
Its infectious dose is increased in the presence of foreign material.
Which of these statements about Streptococcus pyogenes is false?
a)
It is a Gram-positive coccus occurring in chains.
b)
Some strains that infect wounds can cause toxic shock.
c)
Some strains that infect wounds can cause necrotizing fasciitis.
d)
It can cause puerperal fever.
e)
A vaccine is available for preventing S. pyogenes infections.
e)
A vaccine is available for preventing S. pyogenes infections.
Choose the one false statement about Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
a)
It is widespread in nature.
b)
Some strains can grow in distilled water.
c)
It is a Gram-positive rod.
d)
It produces pigments that together are green.
e)
Under certain circumstances, it can grow anaerobically.
c)
It is a Gram-positive rod.
Which of these statements about tetanus is true?
a)
It can start from a bee sting.
b)
Immunization is carried out using tiny doses of killed C. tetani.
c)
Those who recover from the disease are immune for life.
d)
Tetanus immune globulin does not prevent the disease.
e)
It is easy to avoid exposure to spores of the causative organism.
a)
It can start from a bee sting.
Choose the one true statement about gas gangrene.
a)
There are few or no leukocytes in the wound drainage.
b)
It is best to rely on antibacterial medications and avoid disfiguring surgery.
c)
A toxoid is generally used to protect against the disease.
d)
Only one antitoxin is used for treating all cases of the disease.
e)
It is easy to avoid spores of the causative agent.
a)
There are few or no leukocytes in the wound drainage.
Which of the following statements about actinomycosis is false?
a)
It can occur in cattle.
b)
It is caused by a branching filamentous bacterium.
c)
It always appears on the jaw.
d)
It can arise from intestinal surgery.
e)
Its abscesses can penetrate bone.
c)
It always appears on the jaw.
Which of the following statements about Pasteurella multocida is false?
a)
Infections generally respond to a penicillin.
b)
It can cause epidemics of fatal disease in domestic animals.
c)
It is commonly found in the mouths of biting animals, including humans.
d)
A vaccine is used to prevent P. multocida disease in people.
e)
Cat bites are more likely to result in P. multocida infections than dog bites.
d)
A vaccine is used to prevent P. multocida disease in people.
Which of these statements about cat scratch disease is false?
a)
It is a common cause of chronic lymph node enlargement in children.
b)
It is a serious threat to individuals with AIDS.
c)
Cat scratches are the only mode of transmission to humans.
d)
It does not spread person to person.
e)
It can affect the brain or heart valves in a small percentage of cases.
c)
Cat scratches are the only mode of transmission to humans.
The following statements about Streptobacillus moniliformis are all true except
a)
it can be transmitted by food contaminated with rodent feces.
b)
pet store workers are at increased risk of infection.
c)
it can be transmitted by the bites of animals other than rats.
d)
human infection is characterized by irregular fevers, rash, and joint pain.
e)
it is a Gram-positive spore-forming rod.
e)
it is a Gram-positive spore-forming rod.
Which statement concerning sporotrichosis is false?
a)
It is characterized by ulcerating lesions along the path of a lymphatic vessel.
b)
Person-to-person transmission is common.
c)
It can occur in epidemics.
d)
It can persist for years if not treated.
e)
The causative organism is a dimorphic fungus.
b)
Person-to-person transmission is common.
Which of the following about intestinal bacteria is false?
a)
They produce vitamins.
b)
They can produce carcinogens.
c)
They are mostly aerobes.
d)
They produce gas from indigestible substances in foods.
e)
They include potential pathogens.
c)
They are mostly aerobes.
All of the following attributes of Streptococcus mutans are important in tooth decay except
a)
it produces endotoxin, which triggers an inflammatory response.
b)
it can grow at pH below 5.
c)
it produces lactic acid.
d)
it synthesizes glucan.
e)
it stores fermentable polysaccharide.
a)
it produces endotoxin, which triggers an inflammatory response.
Helicobacter pylori has all of the following characteristics except
a)
it is a helical bacterium with sheathed flagella.
b)
it has not been cultivated in vitro.
c)
it produces a powerful urease.
d)
it causes long-term infections, lasting for years.
e)
it can cause stomach ulcers.
b)
it has not been cultivated in vitro.
Vibrio cholerae pathogenesis involves all of the following except
a)
attachment to the small intestinal epithelium.
b)
production of cholera toxin.
c)
lysogenic conversion.
d)
acid resistance.
e)
watery diarrhea.
d)
acid resistance.
Which of the following statements concerning Salmonella enterica serotype Typhi is false?
a)
It is commonly acquired from domestic animals.
b)
It can colonize the gallbladder for years.
c)
It is highly resistant to killing by bile.
d)
It can destroy Peyer's patches.
e)
It causes typhoid fever.
a)
It is commonly acquired from domestic animals.
Which statement about rotaviral gastroenteritis is false?
a)
A vaccine is available to prevent the disease.
b)
On a worldwide basis, most of the deaths are due to dehydration.
c)
Most cases of the disease occur in infants and children.
d)
The causative agent infects mainly the stomach.
e)
The disease is transmitted by the fecal-oral route.
d)
The causative agent infects mainly the stomach.
Which of the following statements about noroviruses is false?
a)
They are the most common cause of viral gastroenteritis in the United States.
b)
They have a low infectious dose.
c)
They generally cause vomiting lasting 1 to 2 weeks.
d)
Immunity does not last long.
e)
They are a category B bioterrorism agent.
c)
They generally cause vomiting lasting 1 to 2 weeks.
Which of the following statements about hepatitis is false?
a)
Both RNA and DNA viruses can cause hepatitis.
b)
Some kinds of hepatitis can be prevented by vaccines.
c)
HCV infections are often associated with injected-drug abuse.
d)
Lifelong carriers of hepatitis A are common.
e)
Hepatitis A spreads by the fecal-oral route.
d)
Lifelong carriers of hepatitis A are common.
Which of the following statements about hepatitis B virus is false?
a)
Replication involves reverse transcriptase.
b)
Infected persons may have large numbers of non-infectious viral particles circulating in their bloodstream.
c)
In the United States, infection rates have been steadily increasing over the last few years.
d)
Asymptomatic infections can last for years.
e)
Infection can result in cirrhosis.
c)
In the United States, infection rates have been steadily increasing over the last few years.
Choose the most accurate statement about cryptosporidiosis.
a)
Waterborne transmission is unlikely.
b)
The host range of the causative agent is narrow.
c)
It is prevented by chlorination of drinking water.
d)
Person-to-person spread does not occur.
e)
The life cycle of the causative agent occurs within small intestinal epithelial cells.
e)
The life cycle of the causative agent occurs within small intestinal epithelial cells.
Which of the following infection fighters are found in lymph?
a)
Leukocytes
b)
Antibodies
c)
Complement
d)
Interferon
e)
All of the above
e)
All of the above
Which of the following statements about the spleen is false?
a)
It routinely produces new blood cells.
b)
It cleanses the blood of foreign material and damaged cells.
c)
It contains B cells.
d)
It consists of red pulp and white pulp.
e)
It enlarges in a number of infectious diseases.
a)
It routinely produces new blood cells.
Which one of the following statements about SBE is false?
a)
It sometimes develops in patients who have had rheumatic fever.
b)
It is usually caused by normal microbiota of the mouth or skin.
c)
It is generally a rapidly progressing disease.
d)
Injected-drug abuse can be a risk factor in developing the disease.
e)
It can lead to a stroke.
c)
It is generally a rapidly progressing disease.
Choose the one true statement about sepsis.
a)
It is a rare healthcare-associated disease.
b)
The output of urine increases if shock develops.
c)
It can be caused only by anaerobic bacteria.
d)
An antibiotic that kills the causative organism can be depended on to cure the disease.
e)
Lung damage is an important cause of death.
e)
Lung damage is an important cause of death.
Which of these statements about tularemia is false?
a)
It can be contracted from muskrats and bobcats.
b)
Biting insects and ticks can transmit the disease.
c)
The causative organism has growth requirements similar to those of E. coli.
d)
A steep-walled ulcer at the site of entry of the bacteria and enlargement of nearby lymph nodes is characteristic.
e)
It can be treated effectively with antibiotics.
c)
The causative organism has growth requirements similar to those of E. coli.
Which of the following statements about brucellosis is false?
a)
Fevers that come and go over a long period of time gave it the name "undulant fever."
b)
The causative agent can infect via mucous membranes.
c)
The causative agent is readily killed by phagocytes.
d)
The disease in cattle is characterized by chronic infection.
e)
Butchers are advised to wear goggles or a face shield to help protect against the disease.
c)
The causative agent is readily killed by phagocytes.
Which statement about Yersinia pestis is false?
a)
Conditions inside human phagocytes activate virulence genes.
b)
The bacterium can form biofilms in the flea digestive system.
c)
Yops protein increases phagocytosis.
d)
The organism resembles a safety pin in certain stained preparations.
e)
It was responsible for the "black death" in Europe during the 1300s.
c)
Yops protein increases phagocytosis.
Which of the following statements about yellow fever is false?
a)
There is no animal reservoir.
b)
The name "yellow" comes from the fact that many victims have jaundice.
c)
Certain mosquitoes are biological hosts for the causative agent.
d)
Outbreaks of the disease could occur in the United States because a suitable vector is present.
e)
An attenuated vaccine is widely used to prevent the disease.
a)
There is no animal reservoir.
The malarial form infectious for mosquitoes is called a
a)
gametocyte.
b)
trophozoite.
c)
sporozoite.
d)
schizont.
e)
merozoite.
a)
gametocyte.
Which of the following statements about malaria is true?
a)
Transmission cannot occur in temperate climates.
b)
Transmission usually occurs with the bite of a male Anopheles mosquito.
c)
The disease is currently well controlled in tropical Africa.
d)
P. falciparum infects only old RBCs and therefore causes milder disease than other Plasmodium species.
e)
The characteristic recurrent fevers are associated with release of merozoites from RBCs.
e)
The characteristic recurrent fevers are associated with release of merozoites from RBCs.
Which is the best way to prevent meningococcal meningitis in individuals intimately exposed to the disease?
a)
Vaccinate them against Neisseria meningitidis.
b)
Treat them with the antibiotic rifampin.
c)
Culture their throat and hospitalize them for observation.
d)
Withdraw a sample of spinal fluid and begin antibacterial treatment if the cell count is high and the glucose level is low.
e)
Have them return to their usual activities, but seek medical evaluation if symptoms of meningitis occur.
b)
Treat them with the antibiotic rifampin.
Which of these statements concerning the causative agent of listeriosis is false?
a)
It can cause meningitis during the first month of life.
b)
It is a Gram-positive rod that can grow in refrigerated food.
c)
It is usually transmitted by the respiratory route.
d)
Infection can result in bacteremia.
e)
It is widespread in natural waters and vegetation.
c)
It is usually transmitted by the respiratory route.
Which of these statements concerning Hansen's disease is false?
a)
It is not common in the United States.
b)
An early symptom is loss of sensation, sweating, and hair in a localized patch of skin.
c)
The incubation period is usually less than 1 month.
d)
Treatment should include more than one antimicrobial medication given at the same time.
e)
The form the disease takes depends on the individual's immune status.
c)
The incubation period is usually less than 1 month.
Which of these statements concerning foodborne botulism is false?
a)
It is not a central nervous system infection.
b)
Blurred vision is an early symptom.
c)
Food can taste normal but still cause botulism.
d)
Treatment is based on choosing the correct antibiotic.
e)
Control of the disease depends largely on proper food-canning techniques.
d)
Treatment is based on choosing the correct antibiotic.
Which of the following statements about viral meningitis is true?
a)
Vaccines are generally available to protect against the disease.
b)
The main symptom is muscle paralysis.
c)
Transmission is often by the fecal-oral route.
d)
The causative agents do not survive well in the environment.
e)
Recovery is rarely complete.
c)
Transmission is often by the fecal-oral route.
Which of these statements concerning arboviral encephalitis is false?
a)
It is likely to occur in epidemics.
b)
Mosquitoes can be an important vector.
c)
Epilepsy, paralysis, and thinking difficulties are among the possible sequels to the disease.
d)
Use of sentinel chickens helps warn about the disease.
e)
In the United States, the disease is primarily a zoonosis involving cattle.
e)
In the United States, the disease is primarily a zoonosis involving cattle.
Which of these statements concerning poliomyelitis is false?
a)
The sensory nerves are usually involved.
b)
It can be caused by any of three specific polioviruses.
c)
Only a small fraction of those infected will develop the disease.
d)
The disease is transmitted via the fecal-oral route.
e)
A post-polio syndrome can develop years after recovery from the original illness.
a)
The sensory nerves are usually involved.
Which of these statements concerning cryptococcal meningoencephalitis is true?
a)
It is caused by a yeast with a large capsule.
b)
It is a disease of trees transmissible to humans.
c)
It typically attacks the meninges but spares the brain.
d)
Person-to-person transmission commonly occurs.
e)
It is seen only in persons who are immunocompromised.
a)
It is caused by a yeast with a large capsule.
Which of these statements concerning African sleeping sickness is true?
a)
It is transmitted by a species of biting mosquito.
b)
It is a threat to visitors to tropical Africa.
c)
The onset of sleepiness is usually within 2 weeks of contracting the disease.
d)
It is caused by free-living protozoa.
e)
Distribution of the disease is determined mainly by the distribution of standing water.
b)
It is a threat to visitors to tropical Africa.
Which of these statements concerning Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD) and vCJD is true?
a)
CJD occurs in children; vCJD occurs in adults over 45.
b)
CJD and vCJD are fatal in under 50% of cases.
c)
CJD is caused by prions; vCJD is a viral infection.
d)
Only humans suffer from diseases like CJD and vCJD.
e)
Both CJD and vCJD produce a spongy appearance in affected brain tissue.
e)
Both CJD and vCJD produce a spongy appearance in affected brain tissue.
Which of the following about bacterial cystitis is false?
a)
About one-third of all women will have it at some time during their life.
b)
Catheterization of the bladder markedly increases the risk of contracting the disease.
c)
Individuals who have a bladder catheter in place indefinitely risk bladder infections with multiple species of intestinal bacteria at the same time.
d)
Bladder infections occur as often in men as they do in women.
e)
Bladder infections can be asymptomatic
d)
Bladder infections occur as often in men as they do in women.
Choose the one correct statement about leptospirosis.
a)
Humans are the only reservoir.
b)
Most infections produce severe symptoms.
c)
Transmission is by the fecal-oral route.
d)
It can lead to unnecessary abdominal surgery.
e)
An effective vaccine is generally available for preventing human
d)
It can lead to unnecessary abdominal surgery.
Which one of the following statements about bacterial vaginosis is false?
a)
It is the most common vaginal disease in women of childbearing age.
b)
In pregnant women, it is associated with premature delivery.
c)
Inflammation of the vagina is a constant feature of the disease.
d)
The vaginal microbiota shows a significant decrease in lactobacilli and a marked increase in anaerobic bacteria.
e)
The cause is unknown.
c)
Inflammation of the vagina is a constant feature of the disease.
Pick the one false statement about vulvovaginal candidiasis.
a)
It often involves the external genitalia.
b)
It is readily transmitted by sexual intercourse.
c)
It is caused by a yeast present among the normal vaginal microbiota in about one-third of healthy women.
d)
It is associated with prolonged antibiotic use.
e)
It involves increased risk late in pregnancy.
b)
It is readily transmitted by sexual intercourse.
All of the following statements about staphylococcal toxic shock are true except
a)
it can lead to kidney failure.
b)
the causative organism usually does not enter the bloodstream.
c)
it occurs only in tampon users.
d)
the causative organism produces superantigens.
e)
person-to-person spread does not occur.
c)
it occurs only in tampon users.
Which of the following statements about gonorrhea is false?
a)
The incubation period is less than a week.
b)
Disseminated gonococcal infection (DGI) is almost invariably preceded by prominent urogenital symptoms.
c)
DGI can result in arthritis of the knee.
d)
Phase and antigenic variation helps the causative organism evade the immune response.
e)
Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is common in untreated women.
b)
Disseminated gonococcal infection (DGI) is almost invariably preceded by prominent urogenital symptoms.
Which one of these statements about chlamydial genital infections is false?
a)
The incubation period is usually shorter than in gonorrhea.
b)
Infected cells develop inclusion bodies.
c)
Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) can be complicated by infection of the surface of the liver.
d)
Tissue damage largely results from cell-mediated immunity.
e)
Fallopian tube damage can occur in the absence of symptoms.
a)
The incubation period is usually shorter than in gonorrhea.
Which symptom is least likely to occur as a result of tertiary syphilis?
a)
Gummas
b)
White patches on mucous membranes
c)
Emotional instability
d)
Stroke
e)
Blindness
b)
White patches on mucous membranes
Which of the following statements about HIV/AIDS is false?
a)
HIV is transmitted by body fluids such as blood and semen.
b)
Antiretroviral medications can cure AIDS.
c)
Unusual cancers and infections indicate the start of AIDS.
d)
HIV can be transmitted transplacentally to a fetus.
e)
HIV infects white blood cells, destroying the immune system.
b)
Antiretroviral medications can cure AIDS.
All of the following are true of "trich" (trichomoniasis) except
a)
it can cause burning pain on urination and painful testes in men.
b)
it occurs worldwide.
c)
asymptomatic carriers are rare.
d)
transmission can be prevented by proper use of condoms.
e)
individuals with multiple sex partners are at high risk of contracting the disease.
c)
asymptomatic carriers are rare.
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