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NASM PRACTICE TEST

NASM
Get Quizlet's official NASM - 1 term, 1 practice question, 1 full practice test
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Terms in this set (100)

Identify a feature of the exercises in the power level of reactive training.
d. They help improve neuromuscular efficiency.
Identify a goal of Maximum Strength Training.
d. To improve peak force
_____ is produced primarily in the ovaries in the female and gives rise to female secondary sexual characteristics
a. Estrogen
In the context of selecting an appropriate speed of movement during training, muscular endurance and stabilization is best developed with a(n):
a. slow repetition tempo.
Which of the following is part of the objective information collected in a fitness assessment?
d. Physiological measurements
In the human body, the ankle is more _____ to the hip than the knee.
c. distal
Which of the following is true of stage III of a stage training exercise program?
a. The warm-up phase for clients with a heart rate between 65 percent and 75 percent is about 10 minutes.
Statistical data relating to the population and the particular groups in it are called _________.
c. Demographics
In which of the following cases should the medicine ball rotation chest pass be avoided?
c. When the client has potential back problems
While performing a squat, lowering the body towards the ground is considered a(n) _____ of the muscle.
d. eccentric action
A lower crossed syndrome is characterized by:
a. an anterior tilt to the pelvis.
When foam-rolling the hip flexor, which of the following actions is most likely to increase compression into the low back?
d. Placing the hips on the ground
_____ is the movement of the arm or thigh in the transverse plane from a lateral position to an anterior position when the joint is in an anteriorly flexed position.
d. Horizontal adduction
Ice skating is an example of a _____.
b. reactive-power exercise
The highest rate of oxygen transport and utilization achieved at maximal physical exertion is called _____.
c. maximal oxygen consumption
While performing cable rotation, in order to decrease stress to the low back, it is important to pivot the back leg into triple extension: hip extension, knee extension, and _____.
a. ankle plantarflexion
Why should fitness professionals set a session plan before beginning training sessions for clients?
c. It helps fitness professionals keep track of a client when they have several clients.
Which of the following is a similarity between association and dissociation strategies during exercise?
d. Both allow clients to shift their focus during exercise.
When performing the single-leg dumbbell scaption, what is the immediate regression?
c. Two legs
An eccentric motion is synonymous with _____.
c. deceleration
Exercises help establish optimal landing mechanics in the _____ level of reactive training.
a. stabilization
Which of the following is a regression of the two-leg, alternating-arm standing cable row exercise?
a. Seated cable row exercise
Which of the following statements is true of the body mass index (BMI)?
c. The risk of chronic disease increases in proportion to the rise in BMI in both adults and adolescents.
During a static postural assessment, a personal trainer observes that a client has protracted shoulders and a forward head. Which of the following muscles would he expect to be shortened?
d. Sternocleidomastoid and pectoralis major
A client is performing a standard push-up and the trainer notes a low-back arch. Which of the following muscles are most likely weak or underactive?
c. Transverse abdominis
_____ is an example of a strength exercise during resistance training workouts.
b. Bench press
Which of the following muscles does the single-leg balance engage?
d. Gluteus Maximus
Which of the following statements is true of the strength level of reactive training?
c. Exercises in this level require great specificity, speed, and neural demand.
An individual exercises regularly, but has not yet maintained the behavior for 6 months. In which of the following sections of the Stages of Change model is this individual?
c. Action
Operations activities are those that ________
c. Do not directly generate revenue
What is the best example of performing an exercise in a proprioceptively enriched environment?
c. Dumbbell chest press on stability ball
The belief in one's ability to succeed in a specific situation is termed __________.
b. Self-efficacy
Which of the following is a benefit of performing self-myofascial release after a workout?
a. It helps speed up the recovery.
Miguel is a 20-year-old client with a desired training intensity of 50% of his maximal heart rate. He has a resting heart rate of 35 bpm. Calculate Miguel's target heart rate.
a. 118 beats per minute
Large-scale facilities typically have ___________
d. Multiple locations
Identify the purpose of stretch-shortening cycles.
c. To produce the necessary force to change the direction of an object's center of mass efficiently
Which of the following is the process of getting oxygen from the environment to the tissues of the body?
c. Diffusion
The _____ can also be used to determine training intensities of the bench press.
a. upper extremity strength assessment
An aspiring fitness trainer's first goal is to:
a. obtain a certification from a recognized and accredited organization.
The cumulative sensory input to the central nervous system from all mechanoreceptors that sense body position and limb movement is called _____.
a. proprioception
Which of the following is most likely to happen in the first 30 minutes of the initial session of behavioral coaching?
b. Talking and getting to know a client's needs and goals
Exercises involve little motion through the spine and pelvis in _____ training.
a. core-stabilization
A _________ trait changes over time.
b. Dynamic
The focus in the stage II of stage training is on:
c. increasing the workload of an exercise activity.
Reactive training improves neuromuscular efficiency and improves the range of speed set by the _____.
c. central nervous system
Which of the following is true of the Valsalva maneuver?
b. It refers to the maneuver in which a person attempts to exhale forcibly through closed glottis.
Which of the following is considered a subjective assessment?
c. Lifestyle
_____ is the preferred method to measure maximal oxygen consumption.
b. The submaximal exercise test
How long does pressure need to be held on the tender spot while using self-myofascial release?
d. 30 seconds minimum
Which of the following should be ensured when training a client who is a beginner?
b. They should be given moderate-intensity activities.
According to the Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model, which of the following corresponds to the first phase of training?
c. Stabilization endurance training
Landing behind the ball of the foot while performing power exercises would _____.
b. ensure proper force distribution through the foot and lower extremity
What is the effect of beta-blockers on the heart?
b. They decrease the heart rate.
Credibility can be obtained by ___________.
c. Being a role model
The Durnin-Womersley percent body fat test includes the __________ as a site for testing.
a. Iliac crest
While attempting butt kick, a reactive stabilization exercise, an individual should avoid _____.
a. arching the lower back
John is performing static stretching on his calf muscles. During the stretching, however, John feels tension in his calf muscles. Identify the action during the procedure that is most likely to have caused the muscle tension in his calf muscles.
d. He let his heel hang off a step.
Identify the method used to estimate the amount of subcutaneous fat beneath the skin.
b. Skinfold measurement
Which system is responsible for generating the internal tension that manipulates the bones of the body to produce movements?
d. Muscular system
While performing the cable lift exercise, Hannah begins to experience difficulty and pain. In this case, what should the fitness professional ask her to do?
c. Regress to the resistance band lift
A certified personal trainer is working for two weeks on a cruise ship as a guest instructor. According to the Code of Professional Conduct, which of the following clients is the personal trainer allowed to train?
a. A 60-year-old man who has cardiac arrhythmia, a written medical clearance to exercise, and prescribed restrictions on which exercises to avoid.
The science concerned with the internal and external forces acting on the human body and the effects produced by these forces is known as _____.
d. biomechanics
In the endocrine system, the _____ secretes hormones such as corticosteroids and catecholamines in response to stress.
a. adrenal gland
Which of the following scenarios illustrates high self-efficacy?
b. An individual adheres to his or her exercise regimen regardless of the temptation.
A barrier to establishing rapport is___________.
a. Being disinterested.
The knees on a squat should __________.
c. Track in line with the 2nd and 3rd toes
Identify a characteristic of muscle spindles.
a. They are sensitive to change in length of muscle and the rate of that change.
When an individual performs chest presses, the range of motion at the shoulder joint is determined by the load one is lifting and _____.
c. tissue extensibility
While pressing overhead during a Multiplanar Step-Up Balance, Curl, to Overhead Press exercise for body stabilization, it is important to make sure that the low back does not arch as it may indicate weakness of the intrinsic core stabilizers and tightness of the _____ muscle.
a. latissimus dorsi
Jenna is an active member of a fitness club who regularly attends her fitness program. However, she has to go on a three-week long trip to another city, which will disrupt her exercise schedule. In order to maintain her progress at the fitness club, she decides to stay at a hotel that has a gym. Which of the following strategies has Jenna utilized?
c. Problem-focused coping
_________ services are similar and share a beneficial relationship with other service offerings.
c. Complementary goods
Which of the following scenarios best demonstrates a trainer's skills at encouraging a client to practice self-monitoring?
d. Have a client keep an exercise log on a calendar to help keep him motivated.
A new client tells the personal trainer that although he exercises occasionally, he is now ready to try a different approach to become a regular exerciser. This an example of which section of the Stages of Change model?
c. Preparation
When performing a _____, the resistance must be placed in such a way to resist elbow extension.
a. standing triceps extension
Recertification requires that the fitness professional obtain ________ CEUs every 2 years.
b. 2.0
Which of the following is true of the interval sessions in a stage training exercise program?
a. It should ideally be in the work-to-rest ratio of 1:3.
The study of personality, values, opinions, attitudes, interests, and lifestyles is called _________.
a. Psychographics
The _____ is an imaginary bisector that divides the body into front and back halves.
c. frontal plane
A squat jump with stabilization exercise requires a client to hold the landing position for about _____.
d. 3-5 seconds
High-volume training with low intensity produces an:
b. increased metabolic rate.
Which of the following is a function of the respiratory system?
b. Bringing oxygen into the lungs and removing carbon dioxide from the lungs
The training strategy for Strength Endurance Training involves using _____.
b. superset
The Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q) is primarily aimed at identifying an individual's
a. level of risk for cardiovascular disease.
Low-volume training with high intensity produces an:
a. increased rate of force production.
Measuring a client's resting heart rate by lightly placing two fingers along the lateral side of the arm in line and just above the thumb is the example of recording a client's
a. radial pulse.
Bracing occurs when a person contracts the abdominal, _____, and buttock muscles at the same time.
a. lower back
Which is the preferred pulse point to record a person's heart rate?
a. Radial artery
Which of the following methods uses a percentage of a client's estimated maximal heart rate to calculate target heart rate?
b. Peak maximal heart rate
Which of the following is part of the subjective information gathered in a fitness assessment?
c. Occupation
Body Mass Index (BMI) is a quick and easy method to determine:
c. whether a client's weight is appropriate for his or her height.
In order to develop maximal strength or power, training will require _____.
d. a series of exercises, one after the other, with minimal rest periods in between.
Which of the following constitutes the local stabilization system?
d. Type I muscle fibers
Bracing is referred to as a(n) _____ of global muscles, such as the rectus abdominis, external obliques, and quadratus lumborum.
d. co-contraction
_____ refers to a position on the same side of the body.
a. Ipsilateral
Mark performs a whole body vibration exercise that focuses on the gluteus maximus, quadriceps, and erector spinae. He has no previous history of back or shoulder problems. However, with time, Mark begins to complain of pain in the neck and middle back regions. Which of the following is most likely to have led to his discomfort?
c. Looking up during the exercise
Which of the following is the correct order for the stage of change model?
b. Precontemplation, Contemplation, Preparation, Action, Maintenance
The second exercise during Strength Endurance Training is a stabilization exercise in a controllable environment that challenges the stabilization muscles in order to increase one's ability to maintain _____.
d. body posture
Multiplanar step-up to balance is an example of a _____.
c. balance-strength exercise
What is blood pressure (BP)?
a. It is the pressure of the circulating blood against the walls of the blood vessels.
Which of the following is a small chamber located superiorly on either side of the heart that gathers blood returning to the heart?
a. Atrium
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