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Biology II Exam 1

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Darwin proposed that natural selection occurs in an environment by
A. favoring heritable features that make the organism better suited to survive and reproduce.
B .producing a constant number of offspring while in that environment.
C. surviving for a fixed amount of time.
D. resisting the environment and keeping the environment from changing.
E. favoring those individuals with the most favorable acquired characteristics.
A. favoring heritable features that make the organism better suited to survive and reproduce.
Features that increase the likelihood of survival and reproduction by an organism in a particular environment are called
A. genes
B. fitness
C. mutations
D. adaptations
E. selection
D. Adaptations
The total of all the alleles of all the genes in a population can be thought of as
A. an allele mixture
B. a gene pool
C. a genetic melting point
D. a genome
E. variant genes
B. a gene pool
A restriction in genetic variability caused by a drastic reduction in population size is called a
A.founder effect.
B. Hardy-Weinberg effect.
C. bottleneck effect.
D.polymorphic effect.
E.adaptive effect.
C. bottleneck effect
The type of non-random mating that causes the frequencies of particular genotypes to differ greatly from those predicted by the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is called
A. mutation
B. assisted mating.
C.genetic drift.
D. selection
E. assortative mating.
E. assortative mating.
The shape of the beaks of Darwin's finches and industrial melanism are often cited as examples of the process of _______________ leading to evolutionary change.
A.artificial selection
B.coevolution
C.intelligent design
D.founder effect
E. natural selection
E. natural selection
Industrial melanism is a term
A.describing the color change induced by living in industrialized areas.
B.explaining that the darker moths have higher mutation rates because of industrialization.
C.describing the evolutionary process in which initially light-colored organisms become dark as a result of natural selection.
D.explaining that the darker moths having higher reproductive success because of their pigmentation.
E. describing the widespread implementation of pollution controls.
C.describing the evolutionary process in which initially light-colored organisms become dark as a result of natural selection.
Natural selection has favored the dark form of the peppered moth in areas subject to severe air pollution, perhaps because on darkened trees moth-eating birds see them less easily. As pollution abated, the light forms were favored because
A.they were less visible after the lichens returned.
B.of migration from more polluted areas.
C. of mutation.
D.they were preyed on more.
E.of a bottleneck effect.
A.they were less visible after the lichens returned.
Considerably more phenotypic variation exists in domesticated varieties of species like dogs and cabbages than exists in non-domesticated species like lions and maple trees. Which one of the following statements best explains why this is true?
A. There is no selection and mating is random under domestication.
B.During domestication, very high rates of mutation are induced.
C.Genetic drift is important because domestication involves small
populations.
D. Many domesticated varieties would not survive in the natural world.
E. Domesticated species exhibit "hybrid vigor" (heterosis).
D. Many domesticated varieties would not survive in the natural world.
After 35 generations (about 1 year's time), the two populations R and S were studied. Researchers found
A. no change was seen; it's much too soon.
B.some slight increase of bristle numbers was already evident.
C. a vast, overlapping range of bristle numbers was seen.
D.a slight increase in bristles in S, a slight decrease in R, with a little overlap in the middle ranges.
E.a huge increase in S, a huge decrease in R, with no overlap whatsoever.
E.a huge increase in S, a huge decrease in R, with no overlap whatsoever.
Over the long run, mutations are important to evolution because
A. they are the original source of genetic variation
B.once an allele is lost through mutation, another mutation to that same allele cannot occur
C. most mutation rates are one in a thousand
D.whether good or bad, mutations increase the fitness of an individual
E.mutations are usually beneficial to the progeny
A. they are the original source of genetic variation
The genetic contribution of an individual to succeeding generations, compared with that of other individuals in the population, is known as
A.variation.
B.microevolution.
C.macroevolution.
D.fitness.
E. adaptive makeup.
D.fitness.
The frequency of a particular allele within a population can be changed, over time, by
A.genetic outflow.
B.large population size.
C.selection.
D.inheritance of acquired characteristics.
E.random mating.
C. selection.
The gene pool includes
A.all of the fitness within a population.
B.all of the individuals within a population.
C.all of the mutations within a population.
D.all of the adaptations within a population.
E.all of the alleles of genes within a population.
E.all of the alleles of genes within a population.
- Which of the following is not required for evolution by natural selection?
A.Time
B.Variation
C.Genetic inheritance
D.Selection
E.Sexual reproduction
E.Sexual reproduction
- In a population at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the frequency of the a allele is 0.60. What is the frequency of individuals heterozygous for the A gene?
A. 0.16
B. 0.24
C. 0.36
D. 0.40
E. 0.48
E. 0.48
- Suppose you have a population of flour beetles with 1,000 individuals. Normally the beetles are red; however, this population is polymorphic for a mutant autosomal body color, black, designated by b/b. Red is dominant to black, so B/B and B/b genotypes are red. Assume the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, with equal frequencies of the two alleles.
A. 0.5 red; 0.5 black
B. 0.75 red; 0.25 black
C. 0.25 red; 0.75 black
D. 0
E.Insufficient information is given to answer the question
B. 0.75 red; 0.25 black
- Which of the following would be expected to produce the smallest evolutionary change in a given period of time in a population of birds?
A. Mutation
B.Natural selection
C. Migration
D. Assortative mating
E.Gene flow
A. Mutation
- Which of the following would be expected to produce the largest evolutionary change in a given period of time in a population of birds?
A. Mutation
B.Natural selection
C. Migration
D. Assortative mating
E.Gene flow
C. Migration
- Assortative and disassortative mating are similar in that both
A.change only the expected Hardy-Weinberg allele frequencies in a population.
B.change only the expected Hardy-Weinberg genotype frequencies in a population.
C.change both the expected Hardy-Weinberg allele and genotype frequencies in a population.
D.are kinds of selection pressure.
E. are examples of random mating.
B.change only the expected Hardy-Weinberg genotype frequencies in a population.
- Compared with Hardy-Weinberg predictions, populations that have practiced assortative mating have
A. fewer homozygotes.
B. less natural selection.
C. more heterozygotes.
D.more homozygotes.
E.more mutations.
D.more homozygotes.
In order for natural selection to occur within a population, certain conditions must be met. One such condition is
A, phenotypic differences resulting from environmental conditions.
B. frequent mutations that are inherited.
C. low rates of immigration.
D.phenotypic variations that are genetic.
E.heterozygosity must be very low.
D.phenotypic variations that are genetic.
The Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium conditions for populations of organisms result in
A.polymorphic alleles
B.assortative mating
C.natural selection
D.maintenance of recessive alleles in the gene pool
E.no evolutionary changes
E.no evolutionary changes
Which of the following is not a cause of changes in the genetic structure of population?
1.Mutation
2.Gene flow
3.Genetic drift
4.Random mating
5.Natural selection
4.Random mating
The several hundred species of picture-winged fruit flies of the Hawaiian Islands are genetically very similar, yet they all differ markedly from their ancestral population in Asia. This is probably an example of
A.sexual selection.
B.directional selection.
C.disruptive selection.
D. founder effect.
E. gene flow.
D. founder effect.
The California populations of the Northern elephant seal are descendants from a very small population of seals that was over-hunted in the 1890s. Heterozygosity in this population would be expected to be ________ due to _______________.
A.slight; a bottleneck effect
B. slight; the founder effect
C.great; disruptive selection
D.great; a bottleneck effect
E.great; assortive mating
A.slight; a bottleneck effect
In disruptive selection, over time
A.a population goes extinct.
B.the most extreme outliers of a population are eliminated (e.g., the largest beaks and smallest beaks are eliminated).
C.the population is strongly selected for in one direction (e.g., larger beak size).
D.the population is strongly selected for in two directions (e.g., larger beak size and smaller beak size).
E. a population increases its variation (e.g., a wide selection of all beak sizes).
D.the population is strongly selected for in two directions (e.g., larger beak size and smaller beak size).
Which of the following results in small, drab organisms, and favors early reproduction?
A. directional selection
B.stabilizing selection
C.disruptive selection
D.guppies with pike cichlids and killifish
E.guppies with killifish
D.guppies with pike cichlids and killifish
In which of the following is the midrange of an array of phenotypes favored?
A.directional selection
B.stabilizing selection
C.disruptive selection
D.guppies with pike cichlids and killifish
E.guppies with killifish
B. stabilizing selection
Which of the following results in large, colorful organisms, and favors later reproduction?
A.directional selection
B.stabilizing selection
C.disruptive selection
D.guppies with pike cichlids and killifish
E.guppies with killifish
E.guppies with killifish
Which of the following favors an array of phenotypes?
A.directional selection
B.stabilizing selection
C.disruptive selection
D.guppies with pike cichlids and killifish
E.guppies with killifish
C.disruptive selection
Cheetahs have been through a genetic bottleneck; evidence for this is that
A. the body is long, thin, and graceful
B.there is very little genetic variability
C.these cats are members of an endangered species
D.they originally came from eastern Africa
B.there is very little genetic variability
The frequency of a particular allele within a population can be changed, over time, by
A.large population size
B. selection
C. inheritance of acquired characteristics
D. random mating
B. selection
When selection acts to eliminate one extreme from an array of phenotypes it is called
A. natural selection.
B. stabilizing selection.
C.disruptive selection.
D.directional selection.
E. artificial selection.
D.directional selection.
If all of the assumptions of the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium were met, what would happen to the frequency of the recessive allele after many generations of mating?
A.Increase
B. Decrease
C.Remain the same
D.It depends on the starting frequencies
C.Remain the same
which of the following sets of allele frequencies would produce the greatest proportion of heterozygotes?
A. p = 0.9 q = 0.1
B. p = 0.7 q = 0.3
C. p = 0.5 q = 0.5
D. p = 0.2 q = 0.8
E. p = 0.05 q = 0.95
C. p = 0.5 q = 0.5
-_______ selection occurs when the extremes of a population contribute relatively few offspring to the next generation as compared to average members of the original population

A. Corrective
B. Directional
C. Stabilizing
D. Disruptive
E.Natural
C. Stabilizing
-In directional selection, over time the population that is strongly selected for is
A.the mid-range.
B.the most extreme outliers of a population are eliminated.
C. the population is strongly selected for in one direction.
D.the population is strongly selected for in two directions.
E.a population increases its variation.
C. the population is strongly selected for in one direction.
-What is fitness?
A.A measure of reproductive success
B.The rate of survival of a species
C.A measure of an animal's top speed
D.A measure of the overall size of an individual
A.A measure of reproductive success
-About 80% of the alleles present in thoroughbred horses can be dated back to 31 known ancestors from the late eighteenth century. As a result, one would expect
A.low rates of mutation
B.many polymorphic alleles
C.little variation in physiology and behavior
D.Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium
C.little variation in physiology and behavior
Which of the following is not a cause of changes in the genetic structure of population?
A.Mutation
B.Gene flow
C.Genetic drift
D.Random mating
E.Natural selection
D.Random mating
Suppose that females of a species of beetles prefer to mate with males that have relatively rare color patterns. This observation would be an illustration of
A.genetic drift
B.the founder effect
C.frequency-dependent selection
D.disruptive selection
C.frequency-dependent selection
In a West African finch species, birds with large or small bills survive better than birds with intermediate-sized bills. The type of natural selection operating on these bird populations is _______ selection
A. directional
B. disruptive
C. stabilizing
D. nonrandom
E.sexual
B. disruptive
When selection acts to eliminate one extreme from an array of phenotypes it is called
A.stabilizing selection
B.disruptive selection
C.directional selection
D.artificial selection
C.directional selection
In your group, which of the following statements about the laboratory and field studies on evolution of protective coloration in the guppy is false?
A.Pike cichlids are only found below waterfalls.
B.Guppies transferred to pools above waterfalls remained drab if killifish were present there.
C.Guppy predation was greater in pools below waterfalls than above waterfalls.
D.Substantial evolutionary changes in guppy populations can occur in as few as several years.
B.Guppies transferred to pools above waterfalls remained drab if killifish were present there.
The key point in Darwin's theory is that the ___________ imposes the conditions that determine the results of selection and thus the direction of selection.
A.parent
B. gene
C.individual
D.environment
D.environment
The genetic contribution of an individual to succeeding generations, compared with that of other individuals in the population, is known as
A.variation.
B.microevolution.
C.macroevolution.
fitness.
D.fitness.
D.fitness.
Hardy-Weinberg pointed out that the original proportions of the genotypes in a population would remain constant from generation to generation if certain assumptions are met. Which one of the following is not a Hardy-Weinberg condition?
A.The population is very large.
B.No gene flow occurs.
C. No selection occurs.
D. No polymorphic loci exist in the population.
D. No polymorphic loci exist in the population.
Natural selection varies the shape of the beaks among Darwin's finches in response
A.to the available food supply
B. to the available nest building material supplies
C.to presence of ectoparasites on their feathers
D. to the need to improve their feather preening abilities
A.to the available food supply
Which of the following is not important to the concept of natural selection, but does factor into artificial selection?
A.Most organisms are capable of producing more offspring than typically survive.
B.Phenotypic variation of a species has variable appeal to humans interested in that species.
C.Phenotypic variation exists within populations.
D.Phenotypic variation can influence reproductive success.
E.Phenotypic variation within a species is due in part to inherited characteristics.
B.Phenotypic variation of a species has variable appeal to humans interested in that species.
- In England during the 1850's higher levels of industrial pollution darkened the trunks of trees found around industrial areas. What affect did this have on the local moth populations?
A. Light winged moths became common
B.Dark winged moths experienced less predation from birds
C. Dark winged moths became more common due to camouflage
D. 1, 2, 3 are correct
E. 2 & 3 are correct
E. 2 & 3 are correct
- For a gene with two alternative alleles, a (frequency p) and a (frequency q), the term in the algebraic form of the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium for the heterozygote genotype frequency is
1. p^2.
2. q^2
3. 2pq
4. (p+q)^2
3. 2pq
- In comparing artificial and natural selection, which of the following statements is true?
A. Artificial selection is slower than natural selection.
B. Artificial selection is reversible; natural selection is not.
C.Artificial selection can produce maladaptive structures, natural selection cannot.
D.Artificial selection cannot produce changes as large as changes produced by natural selection.
E.In artificial selection, the magnitude of the selection pressure can be varied; in natural selection, it cannot.
C.Artificial selection can produce maladaptive structures, natural selection cannot.
Since the 1970's researchers have been tracking change beak depth of one particular species of finch on one of the Galapagos Islands. What has their data demonstrated?
A.There has been no change in beak depth, at least nothing worth writing home about
B.Beak depth is determined by the amount of nutrition a juvenile bird receives, it is largely an environmental trait
C.During dry years birds with large beaks have the advantage and the average beak size increases in the next generation, the trend is reversed during wet years
D.Natural selection has little or no influence on the beak shape
C.During dry years birds with large beaks have the advantage and the average beak size increases in the next generation, the trend is reversed during wet years
As pollution control measures were implemented in England, the levels of soot on forest trees began to decline during the latter half of the 20th century. What effect did this have on the distribution of moth coloration?
A. Dark winged forms became more common
B.Light winded forms became even rarer
C.Dark winged forms became less and less common
D.There was no change on the distribution of the different color forms
C.Dark winged forms became less and less common
In experiments using artificial selection to change the number of bristles in the fruit fly Drosophila melanogaster, the resulting populations of flies
A.showed stabilizing selection.
B.showed disruptive selection.
C.exhibited large changes in bristle number after 35 generations.
D.were unable to interbreed with wild type flies.
C.exhibited large changes in bristle number after 35 generations.
If a person wanted flies with lots of bristles on their abdomens as pets, he could achieve this by only allowing the flies with the most bristles on their abdomens reproduce. What would this be an example of?
A.Heterozygote advantage
B.Natural selection
C.Directional selection
D. Stabilizing selection
E.Artificial selection
C.Directional selection
(group) Considerably more phenotypic variation exists in domesticated varieties of species like dogs and cabbages than exists in non-domesticated species like lions and maple trees. Which one of the following statements best explains why this is true?
A. There is no selection and mating is random under domestication.
B.During domestication, very high rates of mutation are induced.
C.Genetic drift is important because domestication involves small populations.
D.Many domesticated varieties would not survive in the natural world.
E.Domesticated species exhibit "hybrid vigor" (heterosis).
D.Many domesticated varieties would not survive in the natural world.
In the case of the toothed whales, the fossil record
A. shows they evolved from fish.
B. shows they evolved from swimming dinosaurs.
C. shows they evolved from a land mammal with hooves.
D. has fragmentary evidence that cannot be explained.
E. has no evidence about how they evolved.
C. shows they evolved from a land mammal with hooves.
You see a sign on a door that reads "Homologous Structures Inside." You go in and find
A. structures of animals that appear to have evolved from different parts of their bodies.
B. structures of animals that have difference appearances and functions but seem to have evolved from the same body part in a common ancestor.
C. structures of animals that have the same appearances and functions but obviously no common ancestor.
D. structures of animals that have different appearances and functions but different ancestors.
B. structures of animals that have difference appearances and functions but seem to have evolved from the same body part in a common ancestor.
The side toes of a horse, the pelvis of the whale, and the human appendix are all examples of structures that resemble structures of presumed ancestors, which are known as
A. analogous structures.
B. homologous structures.
C. vestigial structures.
D. homeotic mutations.
E. acquired structures.
C. vestigial structures.
The observation that different geographical areas sometimes exhibit plant and animal communities of similar appearance, even though the individual plants and animals are not closely related, is called
A. the fossil record.
B. homology.
C. convergent evolution.
D. divergent evolution.
E. adaptation.
C. convergent evolution.
Which of the following is the best reason that the origin of species according to creation science should not be included in the curriculum of biology courses?
A. It is not a scientifically testable theory.
B. It has proven to be false.
C. It has been superseded by more modern theories.
D. It is contrary to the beliefs of most scientists.
E. It constitutes the teaching of religion.
A. It is not a scientifically testable theory.
The most precise method of obtaining estimates of the absolute ages of geological deposits is
A. measure rates of sedimentary rock formation
B. measure the ratios of various radioactive isotopes in the deposits
C. apply the principle of superposition (younger deposits above older deposits)
D. study the sequence of fossil types in the deposits
B. measure the ratios of various radioactive isotopes in the deposits
Progressive changes in fossils of different ages provides one of the strongest lines of evidence for
A. extinction
B. evolution
C. coevolution
D. adaptation
E. mutation
B. evolution
Vestigial structures are
A. Structures found in different species that have similar functions
B. Structure with different appearances and functions but have a common ancestor
C. Examples of convergent evolution
D. Non-functional structures left over from an organism's evolutionary past
D. Non-functional structures left over from an organism's evolutionary past
Evolution is said to violate the second law of thermodynamics. Which of the following statements best describes why this is not true?
A. Evolution produces as many complex forms as it does less complex forms, balancing things out.
B. Because evolution is a random process, it does not require an input of energy.
C. Earth is not a closed system; it constantly receives an input of energy from the sun.
D. The disorder generated by extinction balances the order created by evolution.
C. Earth is not a closed system; it constantly receives an input of energy from the sun.
An underlying feature of scientific inquiry is the _____.
A. automatic acceptance of the scientific community of other scientists work
B. absolute certainty of scientific explanations
C. static nature of scientific knowledge
D. assumption of natural causality
D. assumption of natural causality
- (group) Coloration in the peppered moth (Biston betularia) is determined by a single gene with two alleles showing complete dominance. Dark moths are homozygous dominant or heterozygous for the gene, light moths are homozygous recessive. In a sample of 100 moths, you determine that 64 of the moths are dark. According to the Hardy-Weinberg rule, the expected frequency of the dominant allele is ____.
A. 0.4
B. 0.36
C. 0.6
D. 0.64
...
- The wings of birds and butterflies are examples of structures that resemble each other and have similar function, but are the result of parallel evolution in separate lineages. These structures are called
A. analogous structures.
B. homologous structures.
C. vestigial structures.
D. embryonic structures.
E. homozygous structures.
A. analogous structures.
- A scientific theory is
A. a well-formed opinion as to how nature works.
B. an unquestioned fact about how nature works.
C. an explanation with a compelling amount of supporting evidence for how nature works.
D. an educated guess as to how nature works.
C. an explanation with a compelling amount of supporting evidence for how nature works.
- Ultimately, the validity of a scientific theory depends on:
A. its level of complexity.
B. how long ago the theory was proposed.
C. the number of scientists that support it.
D. the extent to which it explains observations.
E. public opinion.
D. the extent to which it explains observations.
- Darwin argued that:
A. all organisms are descended from a common ancestor.
B. supernatural forces have shaped differences between species.
C. humans are the direct descendants of monkeys.
D. artificial selection lead to different species in nature.
A. all organisms are descended from a common ancestor.
Which one of the following features of Archaeopteryx clearly demonstrates that it was on the evolutionary line leading from dinosaurs to birds?
A. egg-laying ability
B. teeth
C. feathers
D. bony tail
E. claws on forelimbs
C. feathers
Which of the following features of ancient horses is not an adaptation for living on open grasslands?
A. multiple toes
B. complex patterns of ridges on molar and premolars
C. lengthening of limbs
D. increase in body size
E. high-speed locomotion
A. multiple toes
Similar habitats often place similar selection pressures on different species. This often leads to unrelated species having features in common. What is this an example of?
A. Vestigial structures
B. Convergent evolution
C. Homologous traits
D. Artificial selection
B. Convergent evolution
Continental drift is the
A. The formation of canyons by water erosion
B. Slow movement of plates across the earth's surface
C. The accumulation of different traits in species separate by large areas
D. The splitting of one species into two distinct species
E. The rise of sea level caused by increased global temperatures
B. Slow movement of plates across the earth's surface
The shape of the beaks of Darwin's finches, industrial melanism in moths, and sickle-cell disease are often cited by scientists as examples of the process of _______________ leading to evolutionary change.
A. artificial selection
B. coevolution
C. intelligent design
D. natural selection
D. natural selection
Many species might coexist in a particular environment by occupying different areas called
A. biomes.
B. habitats.
C. territories.
D. domains.
E. ranges.
B. habitats.
A type of isolating mechanism that leads to reproductive isolation after a hybrid zygote has formed is called a _____________ isolating mechanism.
A. hybridization
B. postzygotic
C. prezygotic
D. adaptive
E. differential
B. postzygotic
All of the following are examples of prezygotic isolating mechanisms except
A. ecological isolation.
B. temporal isolation.
C. mechanical incompatibility.
D. hybrid sterility.
E. prevention of gamete fusion.
D. hybrid sterility.
The biological species concept proposed by Ernst Mayr emphasizes all of the following except
A. hybridization between different species.
B. production of fertile offspring within the species.
C. natural populations.
D. reproductive isolation from other species.
E. interbreeding within the species.
A. hybridization between different species.
Ginkgo trees occur in Asia and North America. Despite their geographic separation by the Pacific Ocean, biologists consider them the same species. What aspect of the biological species concept accounts for this?
A. They are reproductively isolated
B. They are potentially capable of exchanging genes
C. They are exchanging genes across the ocean
D. They have different evolutionary ancestries
E. They have formed a large hybrid zone
B. They are potentially capable of exchanging genes
Once species have formed, they keep their identity by
A. developmental differences.
B. genetic blocks.
C. isolating mechanisms.
D. somatic mutations.
E. structural modifications.
C. isolating mechanisms.
When species are kept separate by preventing the formation of hybrid zygotes, the mechanism that keeps the species separate is known as a _____________ isolating mechanism.
A. hybridization
B. postzygotic
C. prezygotic
D. Adaptive
E. differential
C. prezygotic
Which one of the following could not apply to a postzygotic isolating mechanism?
A. Hybrids are sterile.
B. Hybrids develop abnormally.
C. Hybrids fail to become established in nature.
D. Hybrids are selected against.
E. Hybrids cannot be formed.
E. Hybrids cannot be formed.
- A gene pool consists of all the alleles
A. of an individual's genotype
B. present in a specific population
C. that occur in a species throughout its evolutionary existence
D. that contribute to the next generation of a population
B. present in a specific population
Which of the following phrases is not an essential part of the biological species concept?
A. morphologically distinct
B. reproductive isolation
C. independent evolutionary unit
D. actually or potentially interbreeding
E. no gene flow with other species
A. morphologically distinct
Sympatric refers to species which are
A. hybridizing
B. separating
C. present in the same environment
D. present in different environments
C. present in the same environment
Different courtship rituals in different animal species is an example of
A. mechanical isolation
B. hybrid zones
C. hybrid vigor
D. behavioral isolation
D. behavioral isolation
Natural hybrids between distantly related animal species are typically
A. more fit than their parents
B. sterile
C. creating lots of new species
D. reducing the number of species
B. sterile
D. pseudoobscura and D. persimilis are two species of flies that live in the western US. The geographic range of D. persimilis, which is much smaller than that of D. pseudoobscura, is enclosed within the range of D. pseudoobscura. Findings by Mohamed Noor and others show that D. pseudoobscura taken from areas that overlap with D. persimilis are less likely to mate with D. persimilis than are the D. pseudoobscura flies from populations that do not experience D. persimilis. What is the most likely explanation for these results?
A. Temporal isolation
B. The Dobzhansky-Muller model
C. Reinforcement
D. The Darwin effect
E. Adaptive radiation
C. Reinforcement
The type of speciation that results in the formation of separate species as a result of geographic isolation is called ____________ speciation.
A. gradual
B. sympatric
C. allopatric
D. sexual
E. adaptive
C. allopatric
If populations within the same area split into species, the process is known as
A. sympatric speciation.
B. allopatric speciation.
C. racial speciation.
D. ecotypical speciation.
E. reproductive speciation.
A. sympatric speciation.
The production of new species through hybridization is sometimes made easier in plants by
A. adaptation.
B. meiosis.
C. parthenogenesis.
D. hybrid sterility.
E. polyploidy.
E. polyploidy.
Species formation among alpine buttercups in New Zealand was promoted by
A. mechanical isolation.
B. gametic isolation.
C. periodic isolation by glaciation.
D. temporal isolation.
E. geographical isolation.
C. periodic isolation by glaciation.
The model that assumes that evolution proceeds with slow successive change in a given evolutionary line is referred to as
A. successive descent model.
B. punctuated equilibrium.
C. gradualism.
D. the allopatric model.
E. the sympatric model.
C. gradualism.
In the case of the toothed whales, the fossil record
A. shows they evolved from fish.
B. shows they evolved from swimming dinosaurs.
C. shows they evolved from a land mammal with hooves.
D. has fragmentary evidence that cannot be explained.
C. shows they evolved from a land mammal with hooves.
The production of new species through hybridization is especially important in
A. finches.
B. fruit flies.
C. humans.
D. plants.
D. plants.
The idea that speciation occurs is rapid bursts followed by long periods without change in species is called
A. Reverse Selection
B. Punctuated equilibrium
C. Adaptive radiation
D. Gradualism
E. Mass extinction
B. Punctuated equilibrium
A group of closely related species that have recent evolved from a common ancestor by occupying different parts of a habitat is an example of
A. Mass extinction
B. Allopatric speciation
C. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium
D. Adaptive radiation
E. Polyploidy
D. Adaptive radiation
Which of the following is false?
A. Over the history of the Earth the overall trend is a steady increase in the number of species
B. Mass extinctions appear to affect all types of species equally
C. One of the extinctions resulted in a loss of half the species of plants and animals on Earth
D. One of the mass extinctions may have been caused by an asteroid hitting Earth
B. Mass extinctions appear to affect all types of species equally
- Character displacement is most similar in mechanism and outcome to
A. Stabilizing selection
B. Disruptive selection
C. Directional selection
D. Punctuated equilibrium
B. Disruptive selection
- Which of the following conditions would not favor rapid speciation?
A. Specialized diets of certain insects
B. Sexual selection
C. Good dispersal ability
D. Reproductive isolation
C. Good dispersal ability
- Which of the following is not a reason that the Galapagos Islands and the Hawaiian Islands have so many endemic species of flies and birds?
A. numerous islands in archipelago
B. adequate distance between islands to allow divergence
C. founder effect when islands are colonized
D. character displacement
E. numerous volcanic events
E. numerous volcanic events
Which one of the following statements about the Lake Victoria cichlid fishes is false?
A. The adaptive radiation of the estimated 300 species of cichlid fish was very rapid and took place during the last 200,000 years.
B. The adaptive radiation of the Lake Victoria cichlids may have resulted from a key evolutionary innovation.
C. The diversity of the Lake Victoria cichlids continues today because the lake is devoid of predators.
D. Many of the Lake Victoria cichlids have very specialized adaptations that allow them to occupy diverse habitats within the lake.
C. The diversity of the Lake Victoria cichlids continues today because the lake is devoid of predators.
Which of the following often involves polyploidy?
A. Extinction
B. Allopatric speciation in animals
C. Adaptive radiation
D. Sympatric speciation in plants
D. Sympatric speciation in plants
The diversity of cichlids in Lake Victoria appears to be due to
A. the large number of species originally brought there from other lakes by flooding
B. glaciation dividing the lake into many smaller lakes
C. the large number of isolated islands in the lake
D. the key innovation of a second set of jaws, allowing specialization on many different food sources
D. the key innovation of a second set of jaws, allowing specialization on many different food sources
Adaptive radiation is best described as the existence of
A. groups of closely related species recently evolved from a common ancestor.
B. groups of distantly related species recently evolved from a common ancestor.
C. groups of closely related species recently evolved from different ancestors through hybridization.
D. individuals of closely related species that originated in different areas within diverse habitats, but that have rejoined as a single species.
A. groups of closely related species recently evolved from a common ancestor.
Which of the following is thought to play a role in the adaptive radiation of Drosophila in Hawaii, Darwin's finches in the Galapagos, buttercups in New Zealand, and cichlids in Lake Victoria.
A. Presence of islands
B. Tropical temperatures
C. Tourists releasing pets
D. Fragmented habitat
D. Fragmented habitat
Which of the following is true about speciation on island archipelagos?
A. Speciation is slow because it depends on emigration from the mainland.
B. Most speciation occurs allopatrically.
C. Ecological competition may cause new species to go extinct slowing speciation.
D. Speciation by polyploidy is most common.
B. Most speciation occurs allopatrically.
Characteristics that have arisen in organisms as a result of common evolutionary descent are said to be ______________ characteristics.
A. homologous
B. homoplastic
C. adaptive
D. derived
E. ancestral
E. ancestral
Characteristics between the branch points of a cladogram that are shared by all organisms above the branch point and are not present in any below it are called
A. homologous characters.
B. homoplastic characters.
C. ancestral characters.
D. derived characters.
E. novel characters.
D. derived characters.
Adaptive radiation is likely to produce several to many
A. key innovations.
B. species clusters.
C. sterile hybrids.
D. reproductive isolating mechanisms.
E. races.
B. species clusters.
A group is considered monophyletic if
A. all members of the group share a common ancestor that is included in the group.
B. not all descendants of the common ancestor are included.
all members share homoplastic traits.
C. the group does not contain the most recent common ancestor.
D. it is the most parsimonious grouping.
A. all members of the group share a common ancestor that is included in the group.
Derived character states shared by clade members are called
A. ancestral traits.
B. homoplasies.
C. synapomorphies.
D. plesiomorphies.
E. symplesiomorphies.
C. synapomorphies.
Character states shared by the ancestor or outgroup of a clade are called
A. derived traits.
B. homoplasies.
C. synapomorphies.
D. plesiomorphies.
E. symplesiomorphies.
E. symplesiomorphies.
The most useful characters for determining phylogenetic relationships are synapomorphies, best described as
A. common ancestral characters
B. analogous characters
C. shared derived characters
D. homoplasy characters
C. shared derived characters
- (group) In your group: Characteristics that have arisen in organisms as a result of common evolutionary descent are said to be ______________ characteristics.
A. homologous
B. adaptive
C. derived
D. ancestral
D. ancestral
Birds, snakes, lizards, turtles, and crocodiles are all thought to share a common ancestor and several homologous traits. Assuming that this is true, these groups of animals would best represent
A. a polyphyletic group.
B. a monophyletic group.
C. homoplastic convergence.
D. several clades.
D. a species cluster.
B. a monophyletic group.
A group is considered paraphyletic if
A. all members of the group share a common ancestor.
B. not all descendants of the common ancestor are included.
C. the common ancestor of the group is not included in the group.
D. the group does not contain the most recent common ancestor.
E. it is the most parsimonious grouping.
B. not all descendants of the common ancestor are included.
A clade is
A. a type of phylogenetic tree
B. a group of evolutionarily related species that share a common ancestor
C. a tool for constructing phylogenetic trees
D. an extinct species
E. an ancestral species
B. a group of evolutionarily related species that share a common ancestor
Taxonomists strive to include taxa in biological classifications that are
A. monophyletic
B. paraphyletic
C. polyphyletic
D. homoplastic
E. monomorphic
A. monophyletic
Homoplasies can result from
A. convergent evolution.
B. evolutionary reversals.
C. both convergent evolution and evolutionary reversals.
D. divergent evolution.
E. adaptive radiations.
C. both convergent evolution and evolutionary reversals.
Parental care in dinosaurs, crocodiles, and birds is an example of
A. homoplasy caused by convergence.
B. homoplasy caused by common descent.
C. homoplasy caused by evolutionary reversal.
D. homology caused by convergence.
E. homology caused by common descent.
E. homology caused by common descent.
The evolution of plant-conducting tubes (sieve tubes) in land plants and brown algae is an example of
A. homoplasy caused by convergence.
B. homoplasy caused by common descent.
C. homoplasy caused by evolutionary reversal.
D. homology caused by convergence.
E. homology caused by common descent.
A. homoplasy caused by convergence.
Adaptive radiation is likely to produce several to many
A. key innovations.
B. species clusters.
C. sterile hybrids.
D. reproductive isolating mechanisms.
E. races.
B. species clusters.
Derived character states shared by clade members are called
A. ancestral traits.
B. homoplasies.
C. synapomorphies.
D. plesiomorphies.
E. symplesiomorphies.
C. synapomorphies.
Character states shared by the ancestor or outgroup of a clade are called
A. derived traits.
B. homoplasies.
C. synapomorphies.
D. plesiomorphies.
E. symplesiomorphies.
E. symplesiomorphies.
Which of the following would be a synapomorphy that would be used to separate a monkey and a rabbit from a lizard, frog, and shark?
A. Lungs
B. a tail
C. Heart
D. Teeth
E. Mammary glands
E. Mammary glands
Homoplasies can result from
A. convergent evolution
B. evolutionary reversals.
C. both convergent evolution and evolutionary reversals.
D. divergent evolution.
E. adaptive radiations.
C. both convergent evolution and evolutionary reversals.
Why is the presence of wings not used to determine the phylogeny of mammals and birds
A. Not derived traits
B. Not ancestral traits
C. Not homologous traits
D. Not all birds can fly
C. Not homologous traits
The presence of wings in both birds and mammals would be an example of a(n)
A. evolutionary reversal
B. synapomorphy
C. outgroup
D. homoplasy
D. homoplasy
Convergent evolution is
A. the evolution of similar forms in different lineages when exposed to the same selective pressures
B. the formation of one species from two distinct species
C. a common form of artificial selection
D. referred to as descent without modification
A. the evolution of similar forms in different lineages when exposed to the same selective pressures
HIV, human immunodeficiency virus, is the causative agent of AIDS. Which of the following statements is false?
A. HIV mutates rapidly in infected individuals.
B. HIV is amenable to phylogenetic analysis.
C. HIV was transmitted to humans from a simian source just once.
D. HIV has spread rapidly in humans worldwide.
C. HIV was transmitted to humans from a simian source just once.
Which of the following represents a monophyletic group?
A. mosses, liverworts, and hornworts
B. ferns and club mosses
C. ferns, whisk ferns, and horsetails
D. liverworts and hornworts
E. Charophytes and mosses
C. ferns, whisk ferns, and horsetails
Which plants are characterized by a conducting system, the possession of cuticles, specialized stems, and roots, stomata, and, in many species, seeds?
A. liverworts
B. mosses
C. tracheophyte
D. horsetails
E. club mosses
C. tracheophyte
Plants as well as brown, green, and red algae show a basic life cycle which involves the alternation of generations between a(n)
A. spore and pollen.
B. megaspore and a microspore.
C. seed and a cone.
D. sporophyte and a gametophyte.
E. egg and a sperm.
D. sporophyte and a gametophyte.
A bryologist (a scientist that studies mosses, and their allies) gives a lecture to your biology class. In her lecture, she makes a reference to fern reproduction. She says, "Fern spores germinate into ____."
A. gametophytes, which are often heart-shaped and have rhizoids that anchor the fern to the substrate
B. gametophytes, which are often heart-shaped and have roots that anchor the fern to the substrate
C. sporophytes, which are often heart-shaped and have rhizoids that anchor the fern to the substrate
D. sporophytes, which are often heart-shaped and have roots that anchor the fern to the substrate
A. gametophytes, which are often heart-shaped and have rhizoids that anchor the fern to the substrate
Which of the following groups is most closely related to the tracheophytes?
A. Bryophytes
B. Charophytes
C. Liverworts
D. Hornworts
E. Pterophyta
A. Bryophytes
Which of the following is not a defining characteristic of green plants?
A. Photosynthetic
B. Aquatic
C. Cell wall made of cellulose
D. Eukaryotic
B. Aquatic
Which of the following is thought to be the common ancestor of all terrestrial plants?
A. Sponges
B. Bacteria
C. Ferns
D. Green algae
D. Green algae
To reproduce sexually, bryophytes, such as mosses, require
A. small, non-showy flowers that are fertilized with pollen from another plant.
B. free water external to the plant.
C. high temperatures.
D. insect pollination.
B. free water external to the plant.
Within the life cycle of a pine, which of the following structures are haploid?
A. Nucleus
B. Tracheids
C. Xylem
D. Pollen grain
...
A unique feature of angiosperms is
A. roots
B. seeds
C. fruit
D. pollen
C. fruit
- In most regions of Earth today, land flora consists predominantly of
A. angiosperms
B. gymnosperms
C. ferns
D. bryophytes
A. angiosperms
Plants, and their predecessors, green algae, do not share the property of
A. containing chlorophylls a and b, and carotenoids.
B. containing cellulose-rich cell walls.
C. containing a system of roots and stems.
D. containing starch as the primary food storage product.
E. forming a cell plate during cytokinesis.
C. containing a system of roots and stems.
Which of the following innovations was not involved specifically in the highly successful colonization of land by aquatic plants?
A. Photosynthesis
B. Cuticle
C. Roots
D. Vascular tissue
A. Photosynthesis
Which of the following was a key innovation specifically involved in the evolution of large trees like giant redwoods?
A. Vascular tissues
B. Flowers
C. Fruit
D. Coevolution with birds and insects
A. Vascular tissues
Angiosperms are primarily characterized by all of the following except
A. ovules are enclosed within other tissues at the time of pollination.
B. a seed develops within a carpel.
C. the ovary matures into the fruit.
D. free water is required for pollination.
E. they bear flowers which are modified stems bearing modified leaves.
D. free water is required for pollination.
All tracheophyte plants are characterized by all of the following except
A. specialized conducting systems.
B. waxy cuticle.
C. stomata.
D. homospory or heterospory.
E. seeds.
E. seeds.
Xylem tissue may contain each of these cell types except
A. vessel members.
B. tracheids.
C. sieve cells.
D. fibers.
E. rays.
C. sieve cells.
Primary growth in plants originates in
A. apical meristems.
B. lateral meristems.
C. vascular cambium.
D. cork cambium.
E. tracheids.
A. apical meristems.
Which of the following is not true about sclerenchyma?
A. These cells have thick, tough secondary walls.
B. They may lack living protoplasts when mature.
C. These cells are mainly to transport oxygen and carbon dioxide throughout the leaf.
D. Their secondary walls may be impregnated with lignin.
E. Two examples are fibers and sclereids.
C. These cells are mainly to transport oxygen and carbon dioxide throughout the leaf.
Annual rings in a tree trunk result from
A. deposition of colored materials in the oldest cells.
B. the variation in cell size due to different growth conditions throughout a year.
C. the alternation of xylem and phloem produced in one year.
D. the kinds of cells, parenchyma or sclerenchyma, produced by the cambium.
E. the proportion of wood cells and cork cells in the xylem.
B. the variation in cell size due to different growth conditions throughout a year.
If you examined a cross section of a woody stem under the microscope and located the vascular cambium, everything inside of the vascular cambium ring (towards the center of the stem) would be
A. xylem (primary and secondary).
B. xylem (only primary).
C. phloem (primary and secondary).
D. phloem (only secondary).
E. phelloderm.
A. xylem (primary and secondary).
Which of the following does not function as a site of active cell division?
A. Shoot apical meristem
B. Root apical meristem
C. Parenchyma meristem
D. Cork cambium
C. Parenchyma meristem
Which of the following consists of dead cells with thick cells walls, that are primarily used to support the plant?
A. Parenchyma
B. Collenchyma
C. Sclerenchyma
D. Trienchyma
C. Sclerenchyma
____ are used to allow gas exchange in leaves whereas _____ are used to maximize water uptake in roots
A. stomata, root hairs
B. xylem, root hairs
C. stomata, phloem
D. trichomes, xylem
A. stomata, root hairs
The endodermis is found in the ____ and is used to regulate ______ .
A. leaf, gas exchange
B. shoot, plant growth
C. shoot, photosynthesis
D. root, water & nutrient transport into the plant
D. root, water & nutrient transport into the plant
The functional equivalent of arteries and veins in plants are
A. roots and shoots
B. xylem and phloem
C. stomata and trichomes
E. parenchyma and collenchyma
B. xylem and phloem
- (group) Group Question: Of the following structures, which one is not a specialized cell of the epidermis?
A. Sclereids
B. Guard cells
C. Trichomes
D. Oil glands
A. Sclereids
- (group) In certain plants, some of the roots may be modified to carry out unusual functions. Which of these is not an example of one of these special functions?
A. Move the plant
B. Help absorb oxygen
C. Store food
D. Parasitize other plants
E. Store water
...
- (group) Group Question #16. A birdhouse is nailed into a tree 6 feet up from the ground. If the tree grows about 2 feet taller each year, where will the birdhouse be 25 years later?
A. 6 feet
B. 12 feet
C. 50 feet
D. 56 feet
A. 6 feet
- (group) Group Question: The waterproof cuticle covering the epidermis of land plants helps prevent dehydration, much like the skin of some land animals. As a consequence, what other evolutionary adaptation was important for most land plants?
A. the endodermis in the root
B. root hairs on the root epidermis
C. collenchyma fibers just beneath the surface of the epidermis
D. stomates in the leaves
D. stomates in the leaves
Primary growth in plants originates in
A. apical meristems.
B. lateral meristems.
C. vascular cambium.
D. cork cambium.
E. tracheids.
A. apical meristems.
In plants with only primary growth, the epidermis is not
A. one cell thick.
B. the outer protective coating of the plant.
C. produced by the protoderm.
D. covered by a waxy layer that constitutes the cuticle.
E. covered with bark.
E. covered with bark.
Which of the following cell types is not designed for transport?
A. sclerenchyma
B. xylem vessel members
C. sieve tube members
D. Tracheids
E. sieve cells
A. sclerenchyma
Which of the following cell types is not designed for transport?
A. sclerenchyma
B. xylem vessel members
C. sieve tube members
D. Tracheids
E. sieve cells
A. sclerenchyma
Plant cells that give rise to two cells, one of which is free to differentiate into various kinds of cells that contribute to the plant body, are called
A. endodermal cells.
B. primary cells.
C. lateral cells.
D. parenchyma cells.
E. meristematic cells.
E. meristematic cells.
What is the function of the Casparian strip in the root?
A. It protects the surface of the root but allows water to be absorbed.
B. It allows for horizontal transport of water and nutrients.
C. It is the portion of the root that contains numerous root hairs.
D. It is an internal water-proofed layer that prevents water and minerals from moving through intercellular spaces on their way to the vascular tissue.
E. It seals the surface of roots that have been damaged.
D. It is an internal water-proofed layer that prevents water and minerals from moving through intercellular spaces on their way to the vascular tissue.
On a short-term basis, water loss in plants may be controlled by the
A. bending of the petioles on the leaves.
B. closing of the stele in the roots.
C. closing of the stomates in the leaves to limit transpiration.
D. opening of the stomates in the leaves to allow more carbon dioxide to enter.
E. opening the casparian strips in the roots.
C. closing of the stomates in the leaves to limit transpiration.
Stomatal opening requires each of the following conditions except
A. expenditure of energy.
B. a reduction of turgor in the guard cells.
C. water entering the guard cells by osmosis.
D. a lower water potential in the guard cells.
E. pumping of potassium ions into the guard cells.
B. a reduction of turgor in the guard cells.
The plasma membranes of root hair cells contain a variety of protein transport channels through which specific ions are transported, even against large concentration gradients, by
A. electron pumps.
B. carbohydrate pumps.
C. water pumps.
D. proton pumps.
E. root pumps.
D. proton pumps.
Mechanisms that evolved in plants to regulate the rate of water loss do not include
A. becoming dormant during dry times of the year.
B. losing leaves.
C. producing leaves that are thick and hard.
D. containing stomata in crypts or pits.
E. increasing the number of water vacuoles in the cells.
E. increasing the number of water vacuoles in the cells.
Which of the following does not require expenditure of energy?
A. accumulation of ions inside a cell
B. transport against a concentration gradient
C. flow of sucrose and other carbohydrates through sieve tubes
D. the loading and unloading of carbohydrates from the sieve tubes
E. opening or closing stomata
C. flow of sucrose and other carbohydrates through sieve tubes
The Casparian strip is:
A. a layer of endodermal cells
B. a layer of epidermal cells
C. the apoplast
D. the symplast
E. the waxy layer between endodermal cells
E. the waxy layer between endodermal cells
Most of the water that evaporates from leaves passes out through the
A. cuticle.
B. ends of xylem vessels.
C. epidermis.
D. spaces between epidermal cells.
E. stomata.
E. stomata.
To initiate stomatal opening, K+ ions
A. passively diffuse into guard cells (see page 770)
B. passively diffuse out of guard cells
C. are driven into guard cells
D. are actively transported out of guard cells
A. passively diffuse into guard cells (see page 770)
According to the pressure flow model, during fruit development photosynthesizing leaves are the _______ and the fruit are the _______.
A. sink; sink
B. sink; source
C. source; source
D. source; sink
D. source; sink
Which of the following is not transported within the plant by the xylem and/or the phloem?
A. dissolved minerals
B. sucrose
C. growth-regulating hormones
D. water
E. starch
E. starch
- Water tends to move into a cell that has a(n):
A. high turgor pressure due to cell wall rigidity
B. high, positive water potential
C. more negative water potential than its surroundings
D. low turgor pressure
C. more negative water potential than its surroundings
- Which of the following affects stomatal opening and closing?
A. Abscisic acid levels
B. Light levels
C. Water levels
D. CO2 levels
E. Temperature
A. Abscisic acid levels
B. Light levels
C. Water levels
D. CO2 levels
E. Temperature
- In which of the following conditions do plants close their stomata?
A. Bright sunlight
B. Water stress
C. Low CO2
D. Lack of wind
B. Water stress
When sugars are actively transported into a cell, what happens to the turgor pressure inside that cell?
A. It increases, because sugar concentration directly affects turgor pressure
B. It increases, because water enters and affects turgor pressure
C. It decreases, because water exits and affects turgor pressure
D. It decreases, because sugar concentration directly affects turgor pressure
B. It increases, because water enters and affects turgor pressure
- The root of a carrot serves as
A. Only a translocation sink
B. Only a translocation source
C. Both a translocation source and sink
D. Only a transpiration source
C. Both a translocation source and sink
Which of the following is part of the apoplast?
A. Cell wall
B. Plasma membrane
C. Plasmodesma
D. Cytoplasm
A. Cell wall
The movement of water up the stems of tall plants is least dependent on which of the following factors?
A. Root pressure
B. Transpiration
C. Cohesion of water molecules
D. Water tension within the xylem
A. Root pressure
Which process makes the water potential in a leaf more negative?
A. The pressure placed on the leaf by the cuticle
B. The evaporation of water from mesophyll cells
C. The movement of water into the leaf by root pressure
D. The increased K+ pumped out of guard cells
B. The evaporation of water from mesophyll cells
Which of the following is true regarding transport in phloem?
A. Transport in phloem is always in the direction of leaves to roots
B. Transport in phloem is from source tissue to sink tissue
C. Transport in phloem requires no energy inputs from the plant
D. Root pressure is the primary force driving phloem transport
B. Transport in phloem is from source tissue to sink tissue
Which of the following is true of both xylem transport and phloem transport?
A. Both are passive processes that do not require energy from the plant
B. Both involve only living cells
C. Both rely on a gradient of water potential
D. The direction of flow is usually reversible in both
C. Both rely on a gradient of water potential
Self-pollinated angiosperms adapted to a particular uniform habitat are likely to produce large numbers of
A. outcrossed individuals.
B. ill-adapted offspring.
C. mutations.
D. infertile offspring.
E. uniform offspring.
E. uniform offspring.
What is the best description of double fertilization in angiosperms?
A. One sperm fertilizes the egg, which develops into the embryo; the other sperm fertilizes the ovary, which becomes the fruit.
B. One sperm fertilizes the egg, which develops into the embryo; the other sperm fertilizes the polar nuclei, which forms the endosperm.
C. One sperm fertilizes the egg, which develops into the embryo; the other sperm fertilizes the polar nuclei, which forms the seed coat.
D. One sperm fertilizes the egg, which develops into the embryo; the other sperm produces the pollen tube.
E. One pollen grain fertilizes the embryo sac; the other sperm fertilizes the pollen grain.
B. One sperm fertilizes the egg, which develops into the embryo; the other sperm fertilizes the polar nuclei, which forms the endosperm.
Pollen grains are formed in the anther of the flower by which sequence of events?
A. Diploid microspore mother cells divide by meiosis to form four haploid microspores. Each microspore develops into a pollen grain by mitosis.
B. Haploid microspore mother cells divide by meiosis to form four diploid microspores. Each microspore develops into a pollen grain by mitosis.
C. Diploid microspore mother cells divide by mitosis to form four haploid microspores. Each microspore develops into a pollen grain by meiosis.
D. Haploid microspore mother cells divide by mitosis to form four diploid microspores. Each microspore develops into a pollen grain by meiosis.
E. Diploid megaspore mother cells divide by mitosis to form four diploid megaspores. Each megaspore develops into a pollen grain by meiosis.
A. Diploid microspore mother cells divide by meiosis to form four haploid microspores. Each microspore develops into a pollen grain by mitosis.
If a plant self-pollinates and has complete flowers, then it must be
A. dichogamous.
B. monoecious.
C. dioecious.
D. staminate.
E. pistillate.
A. dichogamous.
Which of these is not an example of coevolution between flowers and pollinating bees?
A. Bees have tongues to lap up nectar.
B. Some bees are hairy to collect and carry pollen.
C. Flowers have ultraviolet markings visible to bees but invisible to most other insects.
D. Some flowers are bright red with long tubes to hold nectar.
E. Bees have strong preferences for particular types of flowers and remember where the plants are located.
D. Some flowers are bright red with long tubes to hold nectar.
If a stem is cut, what will occur if the xylem sap is under tension?
A. Xylem sap will spurt out
B. Xylem sap will stay at the cut surface
C. Air will be pulled into the xylem
D. The cut surface will form bubbles if placed under water
C. Air will be pulled into the xylem
- Which of the following is not a requirement for Darwin's theory of evolution by natural selection?
A. Time
B. Genetic variation
C. Differential survival and reproduction
D. Heredity (i.e. progeny are genetically related, and similar, to parents)
E. Sexual reproduction
E. Sexual reproduction
- Which of the following statements about plant reproduction is incorrect?
A. Monoecious plants can have male and female flowers on the same plant.
B. Dioecious plants have male and female flowers on different plants.
C. Self-pollinating angiosperms are usually adapted to specific uniform habitats.
D. Outcrossing promotes genetic diversity.
E. Self-pollinated plants need to be visited by pollinators sometime during the time of pollen release.
E. Self-pollinated plants need to be visited by pollinators sometime during the time of pollen release.
- Which of these methods does not help promote outcrossing in plants?
A. Staminate flowers and pistillate flowers reach maturity at different times.
B. Genetic self-incompatibility, even when staminate flowers and pistillate flowers reach maturity at the same time.
C. Flowers in which stamens and stigmas do not come in contact with each other.
D. Staminate and pistillate flowers mature at the same time, and are able to undergo self-pollination.
E. Physical separation of the staminate and pistillate flowers.
D. Staminate and pistillate flowers mature at the same time, and are able to undergo self-pollination.
- Pollinators may be attracted to a flower based on any of the following factors except
A. the amount of nectar.
odor.
B. color of the flower in visible light.
C. color of the flower in UV light.
D. taste of the ovules.
D. taste of the ovules.
- Over the evolutionary history of plants, there has been a general trend towards less dependence on water. This statement is:
A. true.
B. false; ferns are more dependent on water than mosses.
C. false; gymnosperms are more dependent on water than ferns.
D. false; there has been no definitive trend regarding water dependence.
A. true.
- Nonvascular land plants have never evolved to the size of vascular plants, most likely because they lack
A. a photosynthetic mechanism.
B. an efficient mode of respiration.
C. an efficient system for conducting water and minerals.
D. nutrient and water absorption mechanisms.
C. an efficient system for conducting water and minerals.
Which of the following is a male part of the angiosperm flower?
A. Sepal
B. Stigma
C. Anther
D. Corolla
C. Anther
During fertilization, the pollen tube moves through the _____ to reach the egg.
A. Filament
B. Sepal
C. Anther
D. Style
D. Style
Outcrossing is favored by all of the following except
A. Self-incompatibility
B. Dioecious plants
C. Different maturity times of stamens and stigma
D. Stable environments
D. Stable environments
A general trend of angiosperm flower evolution is towards more
A. wind pollination
B. animal pollination
C. flower parts
D. red flowers
B. animal pollination
(group) In your group: Why might a flower be at a disadvantage if it produces more than a certain quantity of nectar required by its pollinators?
A. The high amount of sugar in the nectar could deplete the plant's entire reserves after making only a few flowers.
B. The nectaries could dry out, creating sticky traps that would bind up the pollinators, preventing them from visiting other flowers.
C. Birds tend to get bored by visiting the same flower over and over, and so limiting the amount of nectar keeps each flower interesting enough to ensure it's visited by the same birds time and time again.
D. Smaller pollinators might gorge themselves on a single flower and quit feeding after a visit to only a single flower, defeating the purpose of pollination, which is to disperse gametes to different flowers.
E. Nectar contains a lot of water, so producing large amounts would dehydrate the plant and also cause it to bend down because it's too heavy.
D. Smaller pollinators might gorge themselves on a single flower and quit feeding after a visit to only a single flower, defeating the purpose of pollination, which is to disperse gametes to different flowers.
Which of these characteristics does not promote outcrossing in flowering plants?
A. self-incompatibility
B. dioecism
C. monoecism
D. physical separation of flower parts
E. apomixis
E. apomixis
Which of the following would not be related to reproduction through apomixes?
A. Embryos are produced by mitosis
B. Seeds contain embryos identical to the maternal plant
C. Embryos are produced asexually
D. Production of flowers
E. Meiosis of the megaspore
E. Meiosis of the megaspore
A gardener decides to grow potatoes. He plants several in the ground and several weeks later sees plants emerging. This is an example of vegetative reproduction from a
A. root sprout.
B. sucker shoot.
C. tuber.
D. horticultural cutting.
C. tuber.
Which of these common "vegetables" should technically be called a "fruit"?
A. potato
B. carrot
C. lettuce
D. string beans
E. celery
D. string beans
In a wind-pollinated flower, which of these flower parts would probably be inconspicuous or missing?
A. receptacle
B. stamens
C. pistils
D. petals
E. stigmas
D. petals
All of the following are modes of vegetative reproduction except
A. runners.
B. rhizoids.
C. apomixis.
D. suckers.
E. rhizomes.
B. rhizoids.
Plants that reproduce asexually might produce identical progeny from all of the following except
A. portions of roots
B. portions of stem
C. portions of leaves
D. pollen grains
D. pollen grains
The production of seeds without fertilization is called
A. apomixis
B. parthenogenesis
C. conception
D. circadian rhythm
E. vernalization
A. apomixis
You have moved into a new house. During the first summer you notice many of the plants do not bloom. During the second summer your yard is a sea of blooms. It is now spring of the third year and there are no plants. This can best be explained by which of the following?
A. The plants are annuals
B. The plants are biennials
C. The plans are perennials
D. The plants are being affected by drought
E. The nights are too long for the plants
B. The plants are biennials
- Which of the following would not be related to reproduction through apomixes?
A. Embryos are produced by mitosis
B. Seeds contain embryos identical to the maternal plant
C. Embryos are produced asexually
D. Production of flowers
E. Meiosis of the megaspore
E. Meiosis of the megaspore
Which of these characteristics does not promote outcrossing in flowering plants?
A. Self-incompatibility
B. Dioecism
C. Monoecism
D. Physical separation of flower parts
E. Apomixis
E. Apomixis
Self-pollination would be favored under all of the following conditions except
A. areas that are subjected to many different plant pathogens
B. locations with few or no animal pollinators
C. habitats favoring a very specific, well-adapted phenotype
D. a field with very stable environmental conditions
A. areas that are subjected to many different plant pathogens
The progression that leads to the death of a plant is known as
A. outcrossing.
B. dichogamy.
C. abscission.
D. perennial.
E. senescence.
E. senescence.
Plant success on the terrestrial landscape is linked to the evolution of all of the following except
A. specialized roots.
B. stems.
C. Specialized conducting systems
D. reproductive features.
E. gas-filled air spaces.
...
Tracheophyte plants are characterized by all of the following except
A. specialized conducting systems.
B. waxy cuticle.
C. stomata.
D. seeds.
D. seeds.