333 terms

A300 MQF 2018

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1. With the EXIT switch selected to AUTO, the EXIT sign illuminate when:
The landing gear is extended
2. The amber AUTO TEST pushbutton FAULT light indicates that the AUTO TEST system has ...
Located a faulty bulb
3. What does a RED warning light indicate?
EMERGENCY condition - immediate action required
4. What does an AMBER caution light indicate?
Abnormal condition - immediate action not required
5. What does a CYAN (blue) info annunciator light indicate?
NORMAL but temporary system use
6. What does a white info annunciator light indicate?
Switch not in normal position (OFF, ALTN)
7. What does a GREEN info light indicate?
NORMAL Operation
8. Which exterior lights will only illuminate when fully extended?
Landing
9. Which exterior lights have a low and high intensity?
Nose
10. The EMER EXIT LT switch controls:
6VDC ceiling lights and EXIT signs
11. How does the automatic test function of the AUTO TEST indicate a burned out bulb?
The lights surrounding the burned out bulb flash
12. What Functionality causes the Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) and Digital Flight Data Recorder (DFDR) to automatically activate?
First engine start (rise in oil pressure)
13. The residual pressure red warning light is installed on the main cabin entry door will flash when cabin pressure is present and...
The Emergency evacuation slide is disarmed
14. In the Air Conditioning system, what is the primary purpose of the Pack Valves?
They function as both a shutoff valve and a flow control valve
15. In the pressurization system, what occurs when the second engine is started?
The active pressure control system automatically switches
16. During normal operation, what does the active pressurization system control to maintain cabin pressurization?
Outflow valves
17. In the air conditioning system, what is the function of the Pack Temp MAN CTL selector?
Manual control of the Pack discharge temperature when MAN is illuminated white in the Pack MODE SEL pushbutton
18. Where is the cold air from the Air Conditioning Packs sent?
Cold Air Manifold
19. In the Air Conditioning system, what supplies the air for the Hot Air Manifold?
Hot compressed bleed air tapped off prior to the packs
20. In the Air Conditioning system, what component mixes air from the Hot and Cold Air manifolds?
Trim Air valves
21. In the Air Conditioning System, what is the purpose of the RAM air?
Used to ventilate cockpit and cabin in case of dual pack failure
22. What would cause the blue RATE light on the overhead pressurization panel illuminate?
The cabin pressure rate knob is out of the NORM position
23. What air conditioning malfunction could cause an amber pack FAULT light?
A pack overheat or valve position disagreement with selected switch position
24. What are the different levels of Air Conditioning Pack flow?
Normal or ECON
25. In the Air Conditioning System, what is the purpose of the ECON pushbutton switch?
Reduces airflow inflight to 68% normal flow (both engines operating) to increase fuel efficiency.
26. In the Air Conditioning System, what is the purpose of the MAX COOL pushbutton switch?
Lowers the lower limit of the pack discharge temp
27. On the overhead air conditioning panel, if the compartment temp function is selected to CRT, what happens?
All compartment temperatures can be read on ECAM
28. How many automatic cabin pressurization systems are installed?
2 systems, one active and one in standby
29. When does the pressurization system automatically switch controllers?
At 2nd engine start or when active system fails
30. In the Pressurization System, how many motors are installed on each outflow valve?
Three, (Reg 1, Reg 2, manual)
31. If one auto pressurization controller is deferred and the remaining one fails, how would the crew control aircraft pressurization?
Selecting the faulted controller OFF will force the pressurization system into manual control
32. When you select the MAN PRESS switch, how does it affect the aircraft pressurization system?
The system is selected to manual, the V/S Switch becomes active and the ECAM pressurization display and the Cabin High Altitude warning are both lost
33. In the aircraft pressurization system, what is the purpose of the Safety valves?
Protect against over or under pressurization of the aircraft
34. In the aircraft pressurization system, what does the Amber LO ∆P light indicate?
The pressurization system cannot keep up with descent rate of aircraft
35. How many temperature zones are there in the Air Conditioning System?
Four - Cockpit, FWD cabin, MID cabin, Aft cabin
36. With both Air Conditioning packs operating, what is the pack outlet temperature control priority?
If the Flt Deck demands coldest temp, it controls pack 1
37. With only one Air Conditioning pack operating, what controls that pack's outlet temperature?
The operating pack outlet temp is controlled by whichever zone (cockpit or main deck) that requires the coolest air
38. In the aircraft pressurization system, what automatically occurs when both outflow valves are selected OFF?
Ditching mode is activated
39. In the Air Conditioning system, how are the lower FWD and AFT cargo compartments heated?
Indirectly heated by upper deck air, BULK cargo compartment is directly heated
40. When would the Vent Overboard Valve normally be fully open?
On the ground, no engines running
41. What occurs if the EXTRACT pushbutton on the VENT overhead panel is pressed in-flight?
OVBD light illuminates white and Overboard Valve partially opens, increasing the rate of ventilation
42. The air conditioning system supplies the Bulk Cargo Compartment with:
Trim air plus air extracted from the main deck
43. What is the purpose of the RAM air system?
Used to ventilate cockpit and cabin in case of dual pack failure
44. What occurs if the VENT EXTRACT pushbutton is pressed in-flight in response to a VENT EXTRACT LO FLOW ECAM message?
OVBD illuminates white and the Overboard Valve partially opens
45. With LAND mode engaged and in LOC track (LOC Green on the FMA) an excessive LOC warning (greater than 1/3 dot) is displayed:
Only when CAT 2 or 3 is displayed on the FMA
46. The APU will shutdown automatically if a fire is detected:
On the ground only
47. On the ground, with engines not running, the APU can be started using:
The 3 aircraft batteries
48. Fuel to the APU is normally supplied
From the left fuel manifold
49. During takeoff and go-around the APU can supply pneumatic air to:
Increase aircraft performance during critical phases of flight
50. When is the APU capable of supplying pneumatic air to operate both air conditioning packs?
To an altitude of 20,000 feet
51. APU bleed air can be used for which of the following?
Wing Anti-ice
52. APU bleed air is available up to?
20,000'
53. What does the blue AVAIL light on the APU panel indicate?
The AVAIL light only indicates "APU rpm > 95%"
54. What does the ECB do to shut down the APU when the APU Master Switch is selected OFF?
It generates two false signals (EGT Overheat and N over-speed)
55. During STBY GEN operation, if an APU start is unsuccessful, why is it important to place the APU Master switch back to the OFF position?
To re-connect the DC Standby generator and disconnect the 3 batteries from the DC Ess Bus
56. When using the APU to supply bleed air, it is capable of supplying air for...
Engine start to 20,000'
57. What happens if the APU master switch is turned OFF prior to turning the APU bleed switch off?
APU will run for up to 60 seconds before shutting down
58. What does the amber FAULT light on the APU panel indicate?
APU auto shutdown occurred that was not initiated by the APU Master Switch
59. What happens if the APU ECB detects an APU fire while the aircraft is on the ground?
APU will auto shutdown and after 10 seconds will discharge the fire extinguisher
60. The APU can be used during takeoff to:
Increase aircraft performance
61. APU shutdown will automatically occur if a fire is detected:
On the ground only
62. How can the VHF 3 radio be operated in Voice Mode?
Pressing the VOICE ONLY pushbutton switch deselects data, the active frequency appears and then the radio operates similarly to VHF 1 or 2
63. What auto starts the Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) and the Digital Flight Data Recorder (DFDR)?
The first engine start
64. How can the crew confirm that the standby generator is operating and supplying power to the electrical system?
The Blue AC EMER ON INV light and the Amber DC ESS ON BAT lights are extinguished and Fuel Crossfeed valve is in-line
65. The aircraft is in-flight, the #1 engine has failed, and the APU is not operating, how will the electrical system be configured?
GEN 2 automatically powers AC BUS 1
66. If BAT 1 overheats, the Battery Charge Controller (BCC) will:
Automatically disconnect BAT 1
67. If the aircraft batteries are the only source of electrical power, what busses will they supply?
DC ESS BUS and AC EMER BUS
68. The DC NORMAL Bus is powered by:
TR UNITS
69. In normal operation, AC BUS 2 is supplied by:
GEN 2
70. A Fault is detected on AC BUS 1 and it is disconnected, which switch will connect GEN 2 to the AC ESS BUS directly?
OVRD SUPPLY 2
71. The APU is operating and EXT PWR is connected and selected ON. In this configuration, what is supplying the electrical system?
EXT PWR, it has priority over the APU GEN
72. The normal supply for the DC ESS BUS is:
DC NORM BUS via DC BUS TIE and the ESS TR
73. Selecting the MECH CALL HORN CTL switch (on the overhead panel) to ON does what?
It deactivates the nose gear mechanic call horn for battery discharge on an unpowered aircraft
74. When powering up an unpowered aircraft, what is indicated if the blue AC EMER ON INV light does not illuminate when the batteries are switched on?
A fault with the Inverter
75. When does the Battery Charge Controller (BCC) not connect the batteries to the DC ESS BUS?
DC ESS BUS supplied by Standby Gen
76. In the electrical system, what items are not on the HOT battery BUS?
Eng and Cargo Fire detection systems
77. In the electrical system the green flow bars on the battery tiles indicate that the batteries are..
Connected to the DC ESS bus
78. If all electrical power sources are available, what is the auto switching priority of the AC electrical system?
Onside Gen, Ext power, APU, Other Gen
79. Which electrical busses does the Standby Gen supply?
DC ESS bus, AC ESS #2 bus, AC EMER bus
80. Both generators fail in-flight. The standby generator fails to automatically start. Which switch can manually start the standby generator?
STBY GEN
81. With the Standby Generator running, what happens if the BAT OVRD is selected ON?
Standby Gen quits supplying the emergency electrical system
82. Illumination of the AC BUS 1 OFF, AC ESS BUS, and AC EMER ON INV lights while inflight indicates that this component has failed.
AC BUS #1
83. If AC ESS BUS is lost due to a fault on the AC BUS #1, how is power restored to the AC ES BUS?
Select OVRD SUPPLY 1 switch to ON
84. If OVRD SUPPLY #1 is supplying AC ESS BUS, and the #1 IDG fails, how is power restored to the AC ESS BUS?
Deselect OVRD SUPPLY #1 then Select OVRD SUPPLY #2 ON
85. What happens when both AC OVRD Supply switches are selected ON?
AC EMER, AC ESS, and DC ESS are the only busses supplied
86. The IDG is disconnected while airborne, when can the IDG be reconnected?
Only by a mechanic when on the ground
87. How is an IDG disconnect confirmed?
The IDG FAULT light extinguishes and Gen FAULT light illuminates
88. In the A300 electrical system, what are the 4 AC buses?
AC EMER, AC ESS, and AC #1 & #2
89. What is the normal electrical supply for AC ESS BUS?
AC bus #1
90. What is the normal electrical supply for AC EMER BUS?
AC ESS BUS
91. If the AC ESS BUS is lost, how may the AC EMER BUS be supplied?
DC ESS BUS via automatic activation of the Emergency Static Inverter
92. In the A300 electrical system, what are the three DC Buses?
HOT Battery Bus, DC ESS, and DC NORM
93. Which switch will manually connect the batteries to the DC ESS bus?
BAT OVRD
94. What is lost with the BAT OVRD switch selected ON?
STBY GEN operation, BAT overheat protection, BAT charging
95. During an electrical emergency, selecting the LAND RECOVERY switch ON provides what function?
It restores electrical power to some equipment for approach and landing
96. How does selecting the LAND RECOVERY switch ON affect the STBY GEN operation?
It disconnects the DC ESS BUS from the STBY GEN and uses the batteries to power the DC ESS BUS
97. Which system is not recovered with the LAND RECOVERY switch selected ON?
Alternate Brakes
98. Which system is not recovered with the LAND RECOVERY switch selected ON?
Kruger Flaps
99. How are Primary failures represented on the ECAM?
Primary failure names are boxed
100. How are Secondary failures represented on the ECAM?
Secondary failure titles are asterisked
101. How are Independent failures represented on the ECAM?
Independent failures are displayed without any additional emphasis
102. If one ECAM display unit fails
All information may be presented on the one remaining unit
103. Which warnings cannot be cancelled by using the NORM CANCEL switch?
Stall warnings
104. What type of failure is indicated by the following system title displayed on the left ECAM screen in amber: *FLT CTL
Secondary failure
105. Which ECAM page cannot be manually selected?
CRUISE
106. The CRUISE page appears automatically:
When the aircraft is in clean configuration and no other page is required
107. Which ECAM system component can fail without having any effect on information provided by the ECAM?
SGU
108. What is the significance of an ECAM primary failure?
Other systems are affected
109. What audio warning is associated with a red MASTER WARNING light?
Continuous repetitive chime- CRC
110. What audio warning is associated with an amber MASTER CAUTION light?
Single chime- SC
111. What audio warning is associated with an amber ALERT?
None
112. When the ECAM system is operating normally, system diagrams are displayed on:
The right screen
113. What is one of the 3 Failure levels that generate a warning page?
RED Warning - EMER condition, immediate crew action
114. What does each FWC monitor?
100% of the Red Warnings and 50% of the Amber Cautions
115. What happens if one FWC is inoperative?
50% of the Amber Cautions are unmonitored
116. What happens if both FWC's fail?
Only the Local Warnings will alert the crew to malfunctions
117. What does a white flashing ADV on the right CRT screen mean?
Advisory, indicating a system parameter is out of normal range, but still below a threshold that generates a failure message
118. What does "Clear" flashing at bottom of left CRT screen indicate?
A Primary or Independent Failure occurs while a Secondary Warning Page is displayed
119. When is "T/O INHIB" or "LDG INHIB" indicated on the top left of the MEMO page?
T/O power through 1,000' AGL and during approach from 1,000' AGL to below 70 kts on landing
120. What ECAM messages are never inhibited for T/O or Landing?
Engine failure, fire or APU fire
121. When you lose the System Data Analog-digital Converter (SDAC), how is the ECAM affected?
Action feedback is lost, must revert to QRH or AOM checklist
122. The Portable Survival Emergency Locator Transmitter (PSELT) is a 406Mhz system that is:
Manually activated through the use of a 3 position switch
123. The A300 Life Vest is designed to:
Provide vertical floatation in water if worn and used properly
124. The cargo firefighting equipment consists of a fire extinguisher and:
A portable oxygen bottle designed for fire fighting use
125. In the Oxygen system the four high pressure oxygen bottles supply oxygen to:
The supply manifold where the pressure is reduced
126. When the Oxygen regulator is selected to 100%, the oxygen regulator supplies:
Undiluted oxygen to the mask
127. The A300 uses the following strategy for fire protection:
Two fire bottles per engine and two fire bottles for all lower cargo compartments
128. What is the minimum power source needed to discharge an engine fire extinguishing bottle?
Hot Battery Bus
129. What does the fire detection loop arrangement of the engine consist of?
Dual loops of three elements each
130. The engine fire detection system is designed so that
If both loops are working, both loops must sense an excessive temperature rise to generate a fire signal.
131. When the Engine Fire Detection System is operating in single loop mode, when will an engine fire be detected?
If any of the three elements of the remaining loop senses an excessive temperature rise, a fire signal is generated
132. After an engine fire is detected, when will the lights in the Engine Fire Handle extinguish?
Once the fire is no longer detected
133. The APU fire detection loop arrangement consist of:
Two loops of one element each.
134. The APU fire detection system is designed so that:
If one loop is selected OFF, the remaining operable sensor in the active loop must sense an excessive temperature rise to generate a fire signal.
135. An APU fire is detected when the aircraft is on the ground, a warning horn sounds and...
The APU is automatically shut down and after a 10 second delay, the fire bottle is automatically discharged
136. The APU fire protection system has:
One fire bottle powered by the DC ESS bus
137. The A300 uses what type of smoke detectors in the cargo smoke detection system?
Optical smoke detector
138. What is required to generate a Main Deck smoke warning if one of the Loop switches in a zone is selected off?
Only the remaining loop (A or B) in that zone is required to detect smoke
139. What fire protection system is provided for the Main Cargo Deck?
Fire can only be suppressed by cutting off airflow, there are no fire extinguishers available
140. What is difference in the fire protection systems of the main deck and lower cargo compartments?
Lower cargo has fire extinguishing bottles, main deck does not
141. The Lower Cargo compartments are protected from fire by:
Automatic smoke detection and manual fire extinguishing
142. What is the minimum power source needed to discharge a cargo fire extinguishing bottle?
Hot Battery Bus
143. In the Fire Protection system, what is the difference between the two lower cargo fire bottles?
Bottle #2 is metered (up to 30 min), bottle #1 empties immediately
144. The primary purpose of the Sniffer Fan is to provide confirmation of smoke in the:
Avionics compartment and Minimum Equipment Bay.
145. Smoke in the Minimum Equipment Bay is indicated by:
Red SMOKE light on the MIN EQPT circuit breaker panel
146. When smoke is detected by the main deck smoke detection systems:
The Air Conditioning system closes valves to isolate the cargo compartment
147. The primary flight controls can be best described as which type of system?
Mechanically controlled, Hydraulically operated
148. What is the purpose of the 3 guarded Servo Control Switches?
They allow depressurization of the hydraulic flight control servos within that system
149. What does an Amber JAM light on the Servo Control panel indicate?
One or more flight control actuators (rudder, elevator, aileron, or THS) is not responding correctly to control inputs
150. What happens if all 3 Servo Control switches are selected OFF?
All three servo control valves will revert to the open (on) position
151. What is not one of the four ways the THS may be actuated?
Manual Pitch Trim switches on the Control Wheels
152. In flight, which spoiler/speedbrake panels deploy when activated using the spoiler/speedbrake handle?
The inner five (5) panels
153. How do the Pitch Trim systems normally operate?
Pitch Trim 1 is operating and Pitch Trim 2 is in standby
154. On the ground, which spoiler/speedbrake panels deploy when activated automatically by arming the speedbrake handle?
All (7) spoiler/speedbrake panels
155. Which of the following statements applies to the A300-600?
Under certain conditions, the maximum available rudder deflection can be obtained with comparatively light pedal forces and small pedal deflections
156. The pitch feel system is controlled by:
Two Feel and Limitation Computers (FLCs)
157. When does the pitch feel system transition into the high-speed mode?
Above 125 knots, and the flaps are retracted to less than 20°
158. What happens if both pitch feel systems fail?
Elevator pitch feel should default to the low-speed mode
159. Ground spoilers extend automatically when the aircraft is on the ground if both throttles are at idle and:
The speedbrake lever is armed
160. The blue SPD BRK light on the SFPI illuminates to indicate:
The speedbrakes are not retracted
161. On the ECAM MEMO page, what does the pulsing text "SPEEDBRAKES EXTENDED" indicate?
Throttles are advanced above idle with speedbrakes extended
162. Hydraulic power for the flight controls is normally supplied by:
All 3 hydraulic systems
163. Both amber SLATS FAULT lights and both amber FLAPS FAULT lights on the overhead panel are illuminated. This is a likely indication that:
The SLATS/FLAPS lever is not in a detent position
164. Which hydraulic system powers the ailerons?
Blue, Green and Yellow
165. Both amber FLAPS FAULT lights on the overhead panel illuminate. There are no lights on the SFPI. This most likely indicates...
A jam has been detected, and the flaps may be recovered
166. Aileron trim displacement is displayed on:
The ECAM display and control column scales
167. The blue ALPHA LOCK ( LOCK) light on the SFPI is flashing. This indicates:
SLATS and Kruger Flaps retraction is being temporarily inhibited
168. If one aileron control run jams, the other aileron control run provides:
Degraded roll control
169. The flap handle is selected to 0/0. The amber KRUGER light on the SFPI is illuminated. This indicates:
One or both Kruger flaps did not retract
170. Both YAW DAMPER levers are selected ON. Select the most correct statement concerning the YAW DAMPER systems.
One system is active and one system is in standby
171. During normal operation in-flight, the elevators move:
Together
172. When are the two elevators allowed to uncouple?
During T/O, between 30 and 195 kts
173. What does the elevator position indicator on the ECAM Flight Control systems page indicate?
Only the right elevator position is indicated
174. The Flight Augmentation Computers (FACs) will activate auto trim in all but which situation?
Zulu (Prevent excessive nose down trim)
175. What happens to ailerons when slats are extended?
Ailerons droop 10° to improve wing aerodynamic characteristics
176. The secondary flight controls are:
Electrically controlled, Hydraulically operated
177. What are the roll spoiler panels, and when are they commanded to move?
Panels 3 - 7 to assist in roll control as control wheel deflected past 10°
178. What are the speedbrake panels?
Speedbrakes are panels 1 - 5 (Inner 5) on each wing
179. What is not an indication the speedbrake lever is extended?
Blue light in speedbrake handle illuminates when extended
180. What are the ground spoiler panels?
All 7 panels on each wing
181. What happens to ground spoilers if aircraft bounces on landing?
Ground spoilers will remain extended if both throttles are kept at idle
182. How are ground spoilers deployed on a rejected T/O below 85 kts?
Ground spoilers cannot be deployed below 85 kts
183. When is rudder trim inhibited?
Slats extended, Autopilot on
184. How many Rudder Travel Limiter Systems are there?
2 systems; #1 is normally active and #2 is normally in standby
185. If both Rudder Travel Limiter Systems fail:
The rudder travel should default to low speed mode, if no mechanical problems prevent it
186. What is not one of the three Yaw Damper functions?
Turn coordination with the Autopilot in CMD
187. When only the green system is available for moving the slats (blue system not available), what will be the impact on the slats?
They will be slow
188. What is correct regarding the SLAT SYS 1 and 2 FAULT lights on overhead panel?
Both SLATS and SFPI SLATS light - Asymmetry; sys locked and cannot be recovered
189. When does the Autopilot control rudder position via the yaw actuator?
Slats extended, Autopilot on in CMD
190. The speed trend is displayed as a yellow arrow. The arrow starts at the current speed and indicates the speed the aircraft will be at in 10 seconds if the present rate of acceleration/deceleration is maintained. Which statement is true?
The speed trend is supplied from the FAC and is not available during a FAC failure
191. When does the auto fuel feed system prohibit center tank feeding?
Three minutes after slat extension
192. The LOW FUEL warning lights will illuminate when...
The Outer Tanks reach 1,985 lbs
193. If the auto fuel feed system is operating normally, what is required of the crew to ensure wing tank to engine feed for the approach and landing?
Nothing, the auto fuel feed system will automatically switch from the center tank to wing tanks
194. What is the primary purpose to dispatch in PAYLOAD mode?
It allows a higher max landing weight
195. What is the minimum number of fuel pumps needed to supply both engines at maximum thrust (x-feed valve open)?
Only one
196. On the A300, what fuel tanks can gravity feed the engines?
Inner wing tanks down to 4,400 lbs, and outer wing tanks until empty
197. Which fuel tank pumps does the auto fuel feed system have direct control of?
Auto Fuel Feed system utilizes center and inner fuel tank pumps
198. What is the minimum number of fuel pumps required to initiate the automatic fuel feed system
One in each Inner Tank and a Center Tank, 3
199. Once the Auto Fuel Feed system is activated, what is the minimum number of fuel pumps required to maintain operation?
One in either Inner Tank and a Center Tank pump, 2
200. What is the approximate total fuel capacity for the A-300?
120,000 LBS
201. Where is the exact quantity of fuel in the Center Tank displayed?
ECAM Fuel page
202. Where is the TOTAL fuel onboard permanently displayed?
On the ECAM MEMO and ECAM FUEL pages
203. The purpose of the fuel x-feed valve is to allow:
Fuel supply to both engines from any tank
204. If a flight is flown below 20,000 feet (FL200) the Center of Gravity Control Computer system (CGCC) will.
Only allow forward transfer of fuel
205. After takeoff, when does the Trim Tank Isolation Valve open?
Landing Gear and SLATS retracted
206. When operating the A300 CGCC system in RANGE mode, when will FWD fuel transfer be allowed?
After takeoff, Landing Gear and SLATS retracted
207. When operating the A300 CGCC system in RANGE mode, when will AFT fuel transfer be allowed?
Above FL 205
208. What does the CGCC do to the fuel system at FL 200 during descent?
Fast FWD transfer of fuel from the Trim Tank automatically occurs provided CTR TK is not too full
209. What is normal fuel usage priority?
Center, Inner, Outer tanks
210. While operating with the CGCC in Payload Mode, what parts of the Fuel System are deactivated??
FWD and AFT Transfer valves
211. What does a dash (-) in the place of the last digit on the fuel quantity indicator mean?
Slight degradation of system accuracy (+ 100 lbs)
212. When does the Fuel Crossfeed Valve automatically open?
Standby generator operation and Avionics Smoke Drill
213. Is there a difference in the AC powered fuel boost pumps?
No, Outer tank pumps have sequence valves to reduce output pressures
214. While operating with only standby generator power, what fuel pumps remain operable?
Left inner 2, Right inner 1, and Left center tank
215. When the Avionics Smoke Drill is active, what is the normal operating sequence of the fuel pumps?
Left inner 2, Right inner 1, and Left center tank, one at a time
216. How is fuel supplied to the engines if on battery power only?
Gravity feed from outer tanks till empty then inner tanks to 4400 lbs
217. Once the slats are extended for landing, is any Center Tank fuel usable?
Yes, if the Auto feed fuel system is deactivated
218. With the SLATS extended and the Center tank pumps deactivated, how can the fuel system be configured to allow fuel in the center tank to be used?
Select all 4 inner pump switches OFF
219. On the ground, what does the illumination of the TRIM TK ISOL VALVE flow bar indicate?
The refueling panel door is open
220. How is the Center of Gravity Control Computer (CGCC) activated?
At least 1 trim tank pump and CGCC Mode switch in AUTO
221. What are the 3 modes of operation for the CGCC?
Normal, Alternate, Fault mode
222. When does the CGCC normally allow forward and aft transfer?
During climb out passing 20,500'
223. When does the CGCC normally fast forward to empty the trim tank before landing?
Descending through 20,000'
224. Can the aircraft automatically balance the fuel in-flight?
Yes, the CGCC system will attempt to keep the inner tanks within 440 lbs of each other during aft transfer of fuel
225. During flight on battery power only what fuel pumps are available to feed the engines?
None
226. If the Yellow Engine Driven Pump fails, what is a back-up means of supplying Yellow hydraulic pressure?
The Green to Yellow PTU
227. While using the RAT to pressurize the Yellow hydraulic system, why won't Yellow system pressure be available for braking during landing?
Yellow system pressure cannot be guaranteed below 140 KIAS
228. Why does the yellow system Hydraulic Fire Valve close when a low quantity condition is sensed?
This saves fluid for RAT operation
229. What are the designations of the three hydraulic systems?
Blue, Green, Yellow
230. What is the purpose of the hydraulic priority valves?
To give priority to primary flight controls and brakes when hydraulic system pressure is low
231. On the ground, when may the indications for hydraulic quantity be outside the upper green arc?
OAT above 20° C - indicator may indicate quantity as high as the upper right mark
232. On the ground, when may the indications for hydraulic quantity be outside the upper green arc (Top Hat) on the hydraulic quantity indicators with white marks?
OAT below minus 10° C - indicator must be on or above lower left white mark
233. How many engine driven hydraulic pumps are there?
4 - one Blue, two Green, one Yellow
234. What does the Parking Brake ACCU PRESS switch do?
It momentarily activates Yellow hydraulic system electric pump
235. What is the hydraulic hand pump in the right main gear area used for?
It opens cargo doors when electric power not available
236. How does a Power Transfer Unit (PTU) work?
It uses the Green hydraulic system to pressurize either the Blue or Yellow hydraulic system
237. If the engine driven hydraulic pump for the Yellow system fails, what is available to recover the Yellow system?
Green to yellow PTU and the yellow RAT
238. Which component is not used in-flight to recover a failed hydraulic system?
Hand pump
239. What is transferred using a PTU?
Hydraulic power only
240. If the Yellow and both Green hydraulic pumps fail, extending the RAT will:
Recover only the Yellow system
241. How many systems can a Power Transfer Unit (PTU) pressurize at the same time?
Only one, either the Blue or Yellow system
242. How do you know the Power Transfer Unit (PTU) is working?
You can confirm PTU operation on the hydraulic systems page
243. What system does the Ram Air Turbine (RAT) power?
Yellow system
244. Which system would a total loss of hydraulic fluid possibly affect the parking brake?
Yellow
245. What are the indications associated with a window heat fault?
A single chime, an ECAM failure message, and a FAULT light on the window heat panel
246. Which areas of the aircraft use electric heat for ice protection?
Windshield and probes
247. On the ground, with the Probe Heat selected, the TAT probes are...
Not heated and the amber TAT lights are extinguished on the overhead panel
248. The amber FAULT light on the ENG ANTI-ICE pushbutton illuminates to indicate:
Valve and switch position disagreement
249. The WING ANTI-ICE system heats:
Half the center and all outer slats
250. If a failure in the electrical system occurs, the engine ANTI-ICE valves:
Open
251. The WING ANTI-ICE system can be supplied with air from
Both engines or APU bleed air
252. In the probe heat system, what are the different settings for the Pitot Probe Heat?
Low on the ground, high for inflight
253. The engine anti-ice system is:
Electrically controlled and pneumatically operated
254. The Wing anti-ice system contains how many valves?
2 valves per wing (4 per total)
255. How is the Wing Anti-ice System affected if an engine fire handle is pulled?
All wing anti-ice valves will close if the crossfeed valve is in the Xline position
256. While using the APU bleed air to supply WING ANTI-ICE:
Both NORMAL and ALTERNATE valves will open
257. An interlock system prevents unsafe gear retraction until the aircraft is in what configuration?
Weight off wheels, nose wheel centered, and both main bogie beams aligned
258. When are autobrakes not available?
When using the Alternate brake system
259. In what position must the gear handle be to arm the autobrakes?
The DOWN or OFF position
260. How may the autobrakes be monitored for proper operation?
The green flow bars on the switch will illuminate when aircraft's rate of deceleration matches the mode selected
261. What activates Auto Brakes?
The ground spoiler extension command
262. What is a difference between LO and MED Auto Brake settings?
LO - 8 sec delay, MED - immediate application
263. What is a way to disarm the autobrakes after landing?
Apply sufficient force to the brake pedals
264. During normal operation of the braking system, what happens at the first movement of a brake pedals?
The Green hydraulic system brake selector valve electrically opens
265. The red arrow on the Landing Gear Control panel illuminates red, when in approach or landing configuration, to indicate:
Landing gear are not down and locked
266. With a Green hydraulic system failure aircraft directional control may be maintained after landing by:
Using rudder pedals and differential braking
267. The brake anti-skid system operates on:
All (8) MLG wheels
268. How does the Normal anti-skid system prevent MLG wheel lock / skidding?
It compares each MLG wheel to the nose wheel rotation
269. With a Green hydraulic system failure, the landing gear will be extended:
Manually, using a gravity extension procedure
270. During normal operations, when is hydraulic pressure removed from the nose wheel steering system?
Nose gear shock absorber extended, towing lever selected to ground tow, or both engine fuel levers selected to OFF
271. When the aircraft is being towed, which Nose Wheel Steering controls are available?
No steering controls are available from the flight deck
272. When braking without anti-skid (BRK A/SKID switch selected to ALTN/OFF) the BRAKES indicator should be monitored to limit brake pressure to:
1,000 psi
273. Green hydraulic system pressure is not available and ALTN/ON is selected on the BRK A/SKID panel. Prior to landing, which AUTO BRK system should be selected?
NONE
274. Which AUTO BRK system is normally armed for takeoff?
MAX
275. What speed must be achieved during takeoff to automatically apply the selected AUTO BRK mode during a rejected takeoff?
85 KTS
276. Which hydraulic system is used for normal braking?
GREEN
277. The amber BRK HOT light on the LDG GEAR panel illuminates when the temperature of any brake is:
>300C
278. Braking can be achieved by:
Brake pedals or AUTO BRK system
279. Which hydraulic system is used when normal brakes are not available?
YELLOW
280. Brakes and A/SKID are fitted to the:
Main gear only
281. The anti-skid system is deactivated when...
ALTN/OFF is selected on the BRK A/SKID panel
282. When is alternate braking available?
Any time normal brakes are not active
283. What is not supplied by the aircraft pneumatic system?
Pneumatic cargo door operation
284. Hot air for the air-conditioning system can be supplied from:
The engine(s), APU or a ground air cart
285. What is the primary function of the Precooler?
Controls temperature of the engine bleed air entering the bleed air manifold
286. How do the engines supply bleed air to the pneumatic system?
Either the 8th or 15th stage compressor depending on engine RPM
287. What pneumatic components are sourced directly from their respective engines?
Engine Anti-ice and thrust reversers
288. Which engine normally supplies hydraulic reservoir pressurization?
Number 1 engine
289. What is the function of the engine bleed valve?
Functions as a pressure regulator and shutoff valve
290. What happens if a BLEED VALVE pushbutton is selected off?
Engine and HP bleed valves are closed
291. When will a left or right BLEED LEAK light illuminate?
Overheat detected, remains illuminated as long as the condition exists
292. How many motors does the air crossfeed valve have?
Two motors; one for auto and one for manual mode
293. What happens to the air crossfeed valve if electrical power is lost?
The air crossfeed valve will remain in the last position selected
294. How can you manually open and close the air crossfeed valve?
Select Crossfeed Mode pushbutton switch to MAN, then depress the X FEED pushbutton
295. What does the air crossfeed valve FAULT light mean?
Valve disagreement - not in position selected by switch
296. Both engine bleed air valves automatically close when:
The APU is supplying bleed air
297. Why are the Pack Valves closed before starting engines?
To obtain max air pressure available for start
298. The APU bleed air is switched ON how does the pneumatic system reconfigure?
The Crossfeed Valve automatically moves to the in-line position
299. APU bleed air is available up to?
20,000 ft
300. APU bleed air can be used for which of the following?
Wing Anti-ice
301. The engine bleed valve closes automatically for the following condition:
A bleed leak is detected
302. What is the primary means of setting engine thrust?
EPR
303. Other than loss of AC EMER bus, what engine instruments are available at all times?
N1 and EGT
304. How does the FADEC computer determine minimum idle?
Prevent Flame-out, IDG, or Pneumatic requirements
305. What is the primary purpose of the Oil to Fuel Heat Exchanger?
Warm the fuel to prevent ice formation
306. During engine start the oil quantity indicators may...?
Show a 6-8 quart decrease
307. What engine component enables the FADEC to operate even during complete loss of aircraft electrical power?
The FADEC has its own permanent magnetic alternator (PMA)
308. What FADEC mode has both N1 and N2 overspeed protection?
Both EPR and N1 modes
309. Which engine system protection is NOT provided for by the FADEC?
EGT
310. When does the FADEC adjust the engine idle system to flight approach idle?
Inflight with the slats extended
311. What function does the FADEC provide during thrust reverser operation?
Provides N1 overspeed protection during reverser operation
312. What system prevents reverse thrust operation inflight
Aircraft flight/ground sensing
313. During normal operation, when does the associated amber REV UNLK light illuminate?
When the associated reverser is unlatched, but not fully deployed
314. When operating the engine thrust reversers the green REV light will illuminate.
When the reverser is properly deployed
315. When is Alpha floor protection (thrust lock) available?
ATS arming lever ON and aircraft altitude > 100 feet RA
316. The EMER CANCEL Pushbutton located on the Warning Systems Panel on the center console is used to:
Cancel any sporadic or anomalous audio alerts.
317. The Predictive Windshear System on the A300 is capable of alerting the crew to:
Rapidly changing wind velocities and directions indicative of windshear events.
318. Which of the following is a correct list of some of the warning and alerting systems available on the A300
Stall Warning, Ground proximity warning, Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System (TCAS)
319. The TAKEOFF CONFIG TEST switch does not check which of the following
Parking brake OFF
320. During an UNRELIABLE AIRSPEED event, the Autopilot and Flight Directors are:
Left engaged if in level flight
321. During a single ADC Fault, to recover the faulted Flight Director:
Select the available system using the FD instrument source select switch
322. If after engine start, the GPS PRIMARY LOST message is displayed, the crew should:
Refer to the NAV/ADC Tab in the QRH or AOM Chapter 02 and check it was not DESELECTED
323. What should be referenced when a LAND 3 INOP message is received prior to takeoff?
LAND 3 INOP - ON GROUND checklist in AOM 02.13.01.27 or QRH NAV/ADC tab
324. Takeoff and Landing Reports (TLR) must be checked for validity, the following items should be checked:
Flight number, city pair, date, TLR/OFP number, tail number; If actual OAT less than MT and, no more than 10 degrees C below POAT; If actual QNH is greater than .1 below PQNH; If actual TOW is greater than PTOW + 10,000 lb; ensure applicable MEL is shown
325. If the electronic weight and balance is inaccurate, or is not received by the time the load manifest is available, confirm the FDP requested runway(s) and
enter:
FOB, ZFW, ZFW CG, and T/O CG on the T/O CONDITIONS page 2 and resend
326. LAND AND HOLD SHORT OPERATIONS (LAHSO) for the A300 are:
Approved provided all of the FOM Vol 02 revised LAHSO operating requirements are met.
327. If ACARS is initialized multiple times, the likelihood that an electronic weight and balance is received?
Decreases significantly - it is likely the ground system will not deliver the electronic weight and balance
In an emergency situation that requires immediate decision and action, the PIC may do which of the following?
Take any action considered necessary
If you observe a ground spill, what are your actions?
Notify ground support and evacuate the area if necessary
What action should be taken by the captain during preflight if the jumpseater's suitability comes into question?
Ask the jumpseater to leave, and if non-compliant, inform the Ground Security Coordinator
What is your most significant threat in a decompression scenario?
Hypoxia
Smoke and fume elimination procedures are designed primarily to evacuate the cabin of which of the following?
Foreign pollutants
Which of the following is an accurate description of the Landing Urgency Definition for "Land Immediately"?
An immediate landing is required when the risks associated with remaining airborne - for example smoke, fire, etc. - exceed the risks associated with the approach, landing and post landing.
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