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349 terms

MGMT203 Midterm, Mod 1-5

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In an airline, safety is maintained by procedures which are contained in
*Not- checklists
In the Air Transportation Oversight System (ATOS), depicted below, which are considered management functions?
*Not- Plan and Check
In an airline, responsibility and authority is maintained by
*Not- feedback systems
Which of the following is TRUE about Advisory Circular 120-92, "Introduction to Safety Management Systems for Air Operators"?
It is not mandatory and does not constitute a regulation
Which of the following is NOT TRUE about Advisory Circular 120-92, "Introduction to Safety Management Systems for Air Operators"?
It covers the mandatory requirements for developing and implementing an SMS
Which of the following is the BEST evidence of a good Safety Culture in a company?
*Not- Clear lines of communications from management to employees
In a Systems Approach to safety management, safety outcomes are desired from:
All of the above
A company should be willing to invest in an SMS that could
provide a system to control risk in operations
A good safety management system should have
A safety reporting culture where members are willing to contribute to the organization's knowledge base
In a United States' airline, safety management is quality management shared by
*Not- The International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) and the airline management teams
Safety Management Systems are most effective when
*Not- they separate safety efforts from government oversight
Which of the following is NOT a voluntary safety program?
Hazardous Material Reporting (HAZMAT)
In a systems safety environment, how many safety management systems should exist?
One - The Operators Safety Management System
The primary function of FAA oversight is to
control safety risks
Which of the following is NOT an oversight responsibility of the FAA?
Audit of operational budgets
An unplanned event that results in death, injury, or loss of equipment is a(n)
*Not- incident
A scheduled, formal review conducted by the organization being reviewed is
an internal audit
A near miss episode with minor consequences that could have resulted in greater loss is a(n)
*Not- hazard
An action to eliminate or mitigate the cause or reduce the effects of an undesirable situation is
safety assurance
A risk unintentionally created as a consequence of safety risk controls is
*Not- acceptable risk
In a lab, a toxic and effective solvent is used to clean grease from an aircraft component. Which of the following is the MOST effective way to control this hazard?
*Not- Train personnel to fully ventilate the lab when the solvent is used
In regard to a safety culture, a "learning culture" means
*Not- the willingness of employees to contribute to the organization's knowledge base
In an aircraft manufacturing or maintenance operation, who is primarily responsible for safety management?
The top management
Standard risk analysis should have
likelihood of occurrence and severity of the mishap
In regard to a safety culture, a "just culture" means
employees have the confidence that the organization will treat them fairly
The SMS Standard is written as a functional requirements document that stresses
what functions the organization must accomplish
In regard to a safety culture, a "reporting culture" means
*Not- employees report misconduct to those who have the power to take corrective action
Which of the following is used to ensure that safety control is happening?
*Not- Safety policies are established and widely published
Which of the following is the LEAST effective way to control a hazard?
*Not- Modify the system to eliminate the hazard.
Which of the following is NOT an SMS safety assurance method?
*Not- Analysis of system data
The primary purpose of the safety assurance process is to
assess the continued effectiveness of risk controls
When risk is assessed as unacceptable,
an intervention should be designed to eliminate the hazard
Who is primarily responsible for safety management (Protection)?
*Not- employess
Concerning production in aviation systems,
the operator and the oversight organization must know both the operation and the safety hazards and risks
If an organization is to remain financially viable while controlling safety risk, operations systems (Production) and safety systems (Protection) must be operated
*Not- in harmony by separate management functions
The Airport Watch program serves as a centralized reporting system for
All of the above
Concerning security for flight schools and facilities that rent aircraft, federal law requires
security awareness training for appropriate staff on a current and recurring annual basis
Which of the following is TRUE regarding the security threat of General Aviation aircraft?
A Boeing 767...
Which non-government organization represents business aviation and the interests of companies that own or operate General Aviation aircraft to conduct business?
National Business Aviation Association (NBAA)
What is the name of the airspace is surrounding North America that serves as a continental defense boundary?
ADIZ
Temporary Flight Restrictions (TFRs) are often established for
President, Vice-President or VIP movement areas
What area(s) of the United States is protected by a special Special Flight Rules Area (SFRA) and an associated smaller Flight Restricted Zone (FRZ) that prohibits pilots from entering these areas without authorization?
The region surrounding Washington D.C.
The Twelve-Five Standard Security Program (TFSSP):
Requires operators of aircraft weighing more than 12,500 pounds to follow airline-style security.
Which of the following currently provides the MOST effective security aspect of general aviation airports?
Pilots of a General Aviation aircraft almost always know every individual passenger
Which of the following is NOT true concerning all border crossing flights, either into or out of the United States?
They will not be intercepted by military fighters if they follow all the border crossing rules.
Which of the following is the only federal entity with both law enforcement and defense authority?
U.S. Coast Guard (USCG)
Which of the following is NOT true concerning efforts to ensure that GA pilots are not a security threat?
U.S. citizens seeking flight training at U.S. flight schools must provide the TSA with a complete set of fingerprints.
The General Aviation security screening and credentialing programs include all of the following EXCEPT:
registration of all pilots with the Department of Homeland Security
In their strategic goal of RESPONSE, The Department of Homeland Security (DHS) is expected to lead, manage and coordinate the national response to:
all of the above
Which of the following is TRUE about Transportation Security Officers (TSOs)?
TSOs can and do join unions.
In 2004, the GAO changed its name from the General Accounting Office to the Government Accountability Office. One effect of this change was:
The scope of GAO was expanded to federal government activity worldwide.
The U.S. Government Accountability Office (GAO) reports directly to:
The Congress of the United States
Which of the following is NOT part of the Department of Homeland Security (DHS)?
The Federal Aviation Administration (FAA)
The administrator of the Transportation Security Administration (TSA) reports directly to:
The secretary of the Department of Homeland Security (DHS)
Which organization provides the unifying core for the vast national network of organizations and institutions involved in efforts to secure our nation?
The Department of Homeland Security (DHS)
The mission to provide Congress with timely information that is objective, fact-based, nonpartisan, non-ideological, fair, and balanced belongs to:
The Government Accountability Office (GAO)
The TSA statement, "We are a people who conduct ourselves in an honest, trustworthy and ethical manner at all times" reflects the TSA core value of:
Integrity
Which of the following is compatible with the GAO's Strategic Plan for FY 2007-2012?
Advise Congress on changing security threats and the challenges of global interdependence
Which of the following is NOT part of the mission of the Department of Homeland Security (DHS)?
Impose sanctions on hostile countries
Which of the following is NOT part of the work assigned to Government Accountability Office (GAO)?
to investigate illegal smuggling of guns and ammunition out of the country
Transportation Security Officers (TSOs) are the frontline of defense. To protect America from harm, they are encouraged to use:
Imagination
Which of the following is NOT an agenda of the Department of Homeland Security (DHS)?
Develop programs to control aircraft noise and environmental hazards
Which of the following is a GAO recommendation regarding security risk?
Choices must be made about protection priorities and resources
Which of the following is a GAO assumption about global terrorism?
Anti-terrorist tactics should hinge more on intelligence and diplomatic efforts.
Which of the following is TRUE about first responders to a terrorist attack?
State and local govts are responsible for training.
The GAO asserts that the vast majority of terrorist targets are those owned by the private sector - critical infrastructure such as water and power sources and information systems. What does the GAO suggest about protection of these assets?
Government incentives should support private sector protection of critical infrastructure it owns.
There are multiple security layers onboard aircraft. Which of the following is TRUE about these onboard security systems?
Pilots who undergo special training are authorized to carry firearms the cockpit.
TSA has intelligence layers that prevent anybody known to U.S. intelligence or law enforcement agencies that are a threat to aviation from getting close to an airplane. Which of the following is TRUE of these intelligence layers?
U.S. government agencies work with others around the globe to identify and disrupt terrorist activities at their source.
TSA has multiple layers of security used by Transpiration Security Officers (TSOs) at security checkpoints. Which of the following is TRUE about these security systems?
Bomb Appraisal Officers (BAO) receive advanced training on explosives and improvised bombs to resolve alarms beyond the TSO capability.
Some layers of security occur before a passenger even shows up at a TSA checkpoint. Which of the following is TRUE about these security systems?
TSA crews can stop individuals with hostile intent or those conducting surveillance even if they are not carrying a prohibited item.
Which of the following is NOT typical work of a certified A and P Aviation Maintenance Technician?
modifying airplane radios
The primary purpose of an Air Traffic Controller is
to separate aircraft to prevent collisions
According to the Pilot's Code of Ethics, which of the following is a pilot's first and greatest responsibility?
your passengers; their safety, comfort, and well-being
Which of the following is the primary job of a flight attendant?
to ensure that safety regulations are followed
Who of the following is in charge of all ground and flight operations for his/her airline?
Station Manager
Who of the following is responsible for all aspects of production, from development or selection of manufacturing methods to overseeing day-to-day operations on the factory floor?
Manufacturing engineers
Who of the following analyzes weather data and makes weather reports to the pilot and dispatcher and then works with the flight dispatcher to prepare flight plans?
Meteorologist
Who of the following manages services (aircraft refueling, airframe, engine, and/or instrument repair, flight training, ground school, rentals and charter flights) and sells general aviation products at an airport?
Fixed Base Operator
Who of the following is an FAA employee who, among other jobs, investigates violations of safety regulations?
Aviation Safety Inspector
Which of the following is TRUE about aircraft maintenance?
There is a worldwide shortage of aviation maintenance technicians.
Which of the following is TRUE about an Aircraft Powerplants Mechanic?
They may work on engine accessories such as starters and generators.
In order to be pilot-in-command of a typical commercial airliner; a pilot must have, as a MINIMUM:
an Air Transport Pilot Certificate and a Class I Medical certificate
Which of the following is TRUE concerning Air Traffic Control Towers in the United States?
Some towers are operated by private air traffic control companies
Of the following pilots, which has the LOWEST qualifications and the MOST restrictions?
Sport Pilot
In aviation, the majority of safety personnel (investigators, safety analyzers, etc.) are employed by the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA).
False
A private aircraft owner wants to hire a maintenance technician to perform scheduled maintenance and trouble-shooting on her personal aircraft. Which of the following is TRUE?
The technician must be certified by the FAA for both airframes and powerplants.
Which of the following is TRUE about Transportation Security Officers (TSO)?
They must be a U.S. citizen or a U.S. National
Which of the following is NOT TRUE about Flight Dispatchers?
They get flight planning information from the captain and enter it into their system.
Which of the following is TRUE about the career path of an air traffic controller
Certified professional controllers must pass a job performance examination twice each year
Which of the following is TRUE about Aviation Electronics Technicians (Avionics Technicians)?
An Aviation Maintenance Technician can also be an Aviation Electronics Technician.
Which of the following is TRUE about Transportation Security Officers (TSO)?
They must be a U.S. citizen or a U.S. National.
Which of the following is TRUE concerning the need for pilots in the next 4-5 years?
The need for new pilots will be extremely high - nearly doubling the number of pilots from today
Which of the following is NOT a typical training topic for flight attendants?
The airline reservations system
Who is the largest employer of air traffic controllers in the United States?
The Federal Aviation Administration (FAA)
Which of the following is TRUE concerning the need for air traffic controllers in the next decade?
The need for new controllers will be extremely high due to the large number of controllers eligible for retirement
The Collegiate Training Initiative (CTI) is a partnership between the major airlines and colleges and universities to provide qualified applicants for air traffic control specialists
False
Which of the following is NOT a valid reason for refusing to hire a flight attendant?
She is so tall that she must bend under overhead bins.
The use of a slot in the leading edge of the wing enables an airplane to land at a slower speed because it
*Not- decelerates the upper surface boundary layer air.
(Refer to figure 17 below) A positive load factor of 4 at 140 knots would cause the airplane to
be subjected to structural damage.
Which statement relates to Bernoulli's principle?
Air traveling faster over the curved upper surface of an airfoil causes lower pressure on the top surface.
Why does increasing speed also increase lift?
*Not- The increased speed of the air passing over an airfoil's upper surface increases the pressure, thus creating a greater pressure differential between the upper and lower surface.
The angle of attack at which an airplane wing stalls will
remain the same regardless of gross weight.
The four forces acting on an airplane in flight are
lift, weight, thrust, and drag
Lift on a wing is most properly defined as the
force acting perpendicular to the relative wind.
The reason for variations in geometric pitch (twisting) along a propeller blade is that it
permits a relatively constant angle of attack along its length when in cruising flight
Which action will result in a stall?
Exceeding the critical angle of attack.
Changes in the center of pressure of a wing affect the aircraft's
aerodynamic balance and controllability.
Lift produced by an airfoil is the net force developed perpendicular to the
relative wind.
When are the four forces that act on an airplane in equilibrium?
During unaccelerated flight
What force makes an airplane turn?
The horizontal component of lift.
As a result of gyroscopic precession, it can be said that any
yawing around the vertical axis results in a pitching moment.
An airplane said to be inherently stable will
require less effort to control.
During a steady climb, the angle of climb depends on
excess thrust.
An airplane said to be inherently stable will
require less effort to control.
What is the relationship of lift, drag, thrust, and weight when the airplane is in straight-and-level flight?
Lift equals weight and thrust equals drag.
The capability of an aircraft to respond to a pilot's inputs, especially with regard to flight path and attitude, is
controllability.
The angle of attack of a wing directly controls the
distribution of positive and negative pressure acting on the wing
If the aircraft's nose initially tends to return to its original position after the elevator control is pressed forward and released, the aircraft displays
positive static stability.
As altitude increases, the indicated airspeed at which a given airplane stalls in a particular configuration will
remain the same regardless of altitude.
Load factor is the lift generated by the wings of an aircraft at any given time
divided by the total weight of the aircraft.
During the transition from straight-and-level flight to a climb, the angle of attack is increased and lift
is momentarily increased.
An airplane would have a tendency to nose up and have an inherent tendency to enter a stalled condition when the center of pressure is
forward of the center of gravity.
A propeller rotating clockwise, as seen from the rear, creates a spiraling slipstream that tends to rotate the aircraft to the
left around the vertical axis, and to the right around the longitudinal axis.
The need to slow an aircraft below VA is brought about by the following weather phenomenon:
Turbulence which causes an increase in stall speed.
The tendency of an aircraft to develop forces which restore it to its original condition, when disturbed from a condition of steady flight, is known as
stability.
What is the relationship of lift, drag, thrust, and weight when the airplane is in straight-and-level flight?
Lift equals weight and thrust equals drag.
If the aircraft's nose remains in the new position after the elevator control is pressed forward and released, the aircraft displays
*Not- positive static stability.
The tendency of an aircraft to develop forces that further remove the aircraft from its original position, when disturbed from a condition of steady flight, is known as
static instability.
As airspeed increases in level flight, total drag of an aircraft becomes greater than the total drag produced at the maximum lift/drag speed because of the
increase in parasite drag.
The left turning tendency of an airplane caused by P-factor is the result of the
propeller blade descending on the right, producing more thrust than the ascending blade on the left.
During an approach to a stall, an increased load factor will cause the airplane to
stall at a higher airspeed.
What determines the longitudinal stability of an airplane?
The location of the CG with respect to the center of lift.
(Refer to figure 18 below) A 70 percent increase in stalling speed would imply a bank angle of
70°.
Which is the best technique for minimizing the wing-load factor when flying in severe turbulence?
Set power and trim to obtain an airspeed at or below maneuvering speed, maintain wings level, and accept variations of airspeed and altitude.
(Refer to figure 68 below) The horizontal dashed line from point C to point E represents the
positive limit load factor.
(Refer to figure 2 below) If an airplane weighs 2,300 pounds, what approximate weight would the airplane structure be required to support during a 60° banked turn while maintaining altitude?
4,600 pounds.
In what flight condition is torque effect the greatest in a single-engine airplane?
Low airspeed, high power, high angle of attack.
When does P-factor cause the airplane to yaw to the left?
When at high angles of attack.
(Refer to figure 18 below) What is the stall speed of an airplane under a load factor of 4 if the unaccelerated stall speed is 70 knots?
140 knots.
(Refer to figure 25 below) What would be the indicated stall speed in a 60° banked turn with the gear and flaps up?
117 KIAS.
Which basic flight maneuver increases the load factor on an airplane as compared to straight-and-level flight?
Turns.
While holding the angle of bank constant in a level turn, if the rate of turn is varied the load factor would
remain constant regardless of air density and the resultant lift vector.
(Refer to figure 20 below) At the airspeed represented by point A, in steady flight, the aircraft will
have its maximum lift/drag ratio.
(Refer to figure 19 below) At which angle of attack does the airplane travel the maximum horizontal distance per foot of altitude lost?
6°.
The angle of attack at which an airfoil stalls will
remain the same regardless of gross weight.
The three axes of an aircraft intersect at the
center of gravity.
(Refer to figure 1 below) The acute angle A is the angle of
attack.
The purpose of aircraft wing dihedral angle is to
increase lateral stability.
The angle between the chord line of an airfoil and the relative wind is known as the angle of
*Not- incidence
The term 'angle of attack' is defined as the angle
between the wing chord line and the relative wind.
The resistance, or skin friction, due to the viscosity of the air as it passes along the surface of a wing is called
parasite drag.
What effect, if any, does high humidity have on aircraft performance?
It decreases performance.
Maximum gliding distance of an aircraft is obtained when
induced drag and parasite drag are equal.
If severe turbulence is encountered, the aircraft's airspeed should be reduced to
maneuvering speed.
The direct cause of every stall is excessive
angle of attack.
(Refer to the chart and figure 35 above) What is the maximum amount of baggage that may be loaded aboard the airplane for the CG to remain within the moment envelope?
*Not- 110 pounds.
An airplane has been loaded in such a manner that the CG is located aft of the aft CG limit. One undesirable flight characteristic a pilot might experience with this airplane would be
*Not- stalling at higher-than-normal airspeed.
Which items are included in the empty weight of an aircraft?
*Not-Only the airframe, powerplant, and optional equipment.
(Refer to chart and figure 35 below) What is the maximum amount of baggage that may be loaded aboard the airplane for the CG to remain within the moment envelope?
105 pounds.
(Refer to the chart and figure 35 below) Calculate the moment of the airplane and determine which category is applicable.
80.8, utility category.
(Refer to the chart and figure 35 below) What is the maximum amount of fuel that may be aboard the airplane on takeoff, if loaded as follows?
40 gallons.
Loading an airplane to the most aft CG will cause the airplane to be
less stable at all speeds.
Which aircraft climbs better? (Refer to chart)
Cessna 152
The most critical conditions of takeoff performance are the result of some combination of high gross weight, altitude, temperature, and
unfavorable wind.
What effect does an uphill runway slope have on takeoff performance?
Increases takeoff distance.
(Refer to figure 41 below) Determine the total distance required for takeoff to clear a 50-foot obstacle
1,400 feet.
Climb performance depends upon the
reserve power or thrust
Determine the approximate manifold pressure setting with 2,450 RPM to achieve 65 percent maximum continuous power at 6,500 feet with a temperature of 36 °F higher than standard.
21.0 inches Hg
Which aircraft is better for operating out of a very short field with trees at both ends of the runway? (Refer to chart)
Cessna 152
In a no-wind situation, which aircraft gets a better range per gallon of gas? (Refer to chart)
Cessna 152
(Refer to figure 36 below) What is the expected fuel consumption for a 500-nautical mile flight under the following conditions?
31.42 *Not 40.1
When range and economy of operation are the principal goals, the pilot must ensure that the airplane will be operated at the recommended
long-range cruise performance.
(Refer to figure 39 below) Determine the total distance required to land over a 50-foot obstacle.
*Not- 1506. Answer should be less 1255
Density altitude, and its effect on landing performance, is defined by
pressure altitude and ambient temperature.
(Refer to figure 39 above) Determine the approximate landing ground roll distance.
*Not- 495 ft
Which aircraft can travel farther on a tank of gas? (Refer to chart)
Piper PA-22 Colt
Which aircraft is faster during normal enroute conditions? (Refer to chart)
Cessna 152
Which aircraft climbs higher? (Refer to chart)
Cessna 152
(Refer to figure 36 below) What fuel flow should a pilot expect at 11,000 feet on a standard day with 65 percent maximum continuous power?
11.2 gallons per hour
(Refer to figure 36 below) What is the expected fuel consumption for a 1,000-nautical mile flight under the following conditions?
70.1 gallons.
(Refer to figure 39 below) Determine the approximate landing ground roll distance.
401 feet.
(Refer to figure 39 above) Determine the total distance required to land over a 50-foot obstacle.
*Not- 836 feet
(Refer to figure 41 below) Determine the total distance required for takeoff to clear a 50-foot obstacle.
*Not- 1,500 feet.
Which aircraft has the highest payload? (Refer to chart)
Piper PA-22 Colt
Maximum endurance is obtained at the point of minimum power to maintain the aircraft
in steady, level flight.
(Refer to figure 37 below) What is the headwind component for a landing on Runway 18 if the tower reports the wind as 220° at 30 knots?
*Not- 19 knots.Answer should be about 23.
What are the standard temperature and pressure values for sea level?
15 °C and 29.92 inches Hg.
(Refer to figure 8 below) Determine the density altitude for these conditions:
*Not- 4,600 feet MSL.
Which factor would tend to increase the density altitude at a given airport?
*Not- An increase in barometric pressure.
What effect does high density altitude, as compared to low density altitude, have on propeller efficiency and why?
Efficiency is reduced because the propeller exerts less force at high density altitudes than at low density altitudes.
(Refer to figure 37 below) With a reported wind of north at 20 knots, which runway (6, 29, or 32) is acceptable for use for an airplane with a 13-knot maximum crosswind component?
*Not- Runway 29.
(Refer to figure 37 below) What is the crosswind component for a landing on Runway 18 if the tower reports the wind as 220° at 30 knots?
19 knots.
(Refer to figure 8 below) What is the effect of a temperature decrease and a pressure altitude increase on the density altitude from 90 °F and 1,250 feet pressure altitude to 55 °F and 1,750 feet pressure altitude?
1,700-foot decrease.
Refer to figure 8 below) Determine the pressure altitude at an airport that is 1,386 feet MSL with an altimeter setting of 29.97.
*Not- 1,562 feet MSL.
(Refer to figure 8 below) What is the effect of a temperature increase from 30 to 50 °F on the density altitude if the pressure altitude remains at 3,000 feet MSL?
*Not- 900-foot increase.
(Refer to figure 37 below) What is the maximum wind velocity for a 30° crosswind if the maximum crosswind component for the airplane is 12 knots?
*Not- 20 knots.
(Refer to figure 37 below) With a reported wind of south at 20 knots, which runway (10, 14, or 24) is appropriate for an airplane with a 13-knot maximum crosswind component?
Runway 14.
(Refer to figure 8 below) Determine the density altitude for these conditions:
*Not- 2,900 feet MSL.
Under what condition is pressure altitude and density altitude the same value?
At standard temperature.
Refer to figure 8 below) Determine the pressure altitude with an indicated altitude of 1,380 feet MSL with an altimeter setting of 28.22 at standard temperature.
*Not- 2,913 feet MSL
(Refer to figure 37 below) Determine the maximum wind velocity for a 45° crosswind if the maximum crosswind component for the airplane is 25 knots.
*Not- 25 knots.
If the certification category of an airplane is listed as "utility," it means the airplane is intended for which maneuvers
All non-acrobatic maneuvers plus limited acrobatics including spins
If an aircraft's operation in flight was substantially affected by an alteration or repair, the aircraft documents must show that it was test flown and approved for return to service by an appropriately rated pilot prior to being flown
by instructors and students.
Which is true relating to Airworthiness Directives (ADs)?
Noncompliance with ADs renders an aircraft un-airworthy.
Which is correct concerning preventive maintenance, when accomplished by a pilot?
A record of preventive maintenance must be entered in the maintenance records.
A new maintenance record being used for an aircraft engine rebuilt by the manufacturer must include previous
changes as required by Airworthiness Directives.
Assuring compliance with airworthiness directives is the responsibility of the
owner or operator of the aircraft.
A new maintenance record being used for an aircraft engine rebuilt by the manufacturer must include the previous
changes required by airworthiness directives.
Aircraft maintenance records must include the current status of the
life-limited parts of each airframe, engine, propeller, rotor, and appliance.
Who is primarily responsible for maintaining an aircraft in an airworthy condition?
Owner or operator of the aircraft
Completion of an annual inspection and the return of an aircraft to service should always be indicated by
the appropriate entries in the aircraft maintenance records.
If an ATC transponder installed in an aircraft has not been tested, inspected, and found to comply with regulations within a specified period, what is the limitation on its use?
Its use is not permitted
If an instrument on a multiengine airplane is inoperative, which document dictates whether the flight may continue en route?
Certificate holder's manual
Aircraft maintenance records must include the current status of
life-limited parts of each airframe, engine, propeller, rotor, and appliance
An ATC transponder is not to be used unless it has been tested, inspected, and found to comply with regulations within the preceding
24 calendar months.
Preventive maintenance has been performed on an aircraft. What paperwork is required?
The signature, certificate number, and kind of certificate held by the person approving the work and a description of the work must be entered in the aircraft maintenance records
If an ATC transponder installed in an aircraft has not been tested, inspected, and found to comply with regulations within a specified period, what is the limitation on its use?
Its use is not permitted
If an aircraft's operation in flight was substantially affected by an alteration or repair, the aircraft documents must show that it was test flown and approved for return to service by an appropriately-rated pilot prior to being operated
with passengers aboard.
During the preflight inspection who is responsible for determining the aircraft is safe for flight?
*Not-> The certificated mechanic who performed the annual inspection.
Under FAR Part 91, who is primarily responsible for maintaining an aircraft in airworthy condition?
Owner or operator
Assuring compliance with an Airworthiness Directive is the responsibility of the
owner or operator of that aircraft.
With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a category of aircraft?
*Not-> Landplane, seaplane.
With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a class of aircraft?
Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, balloon.
Regulations which refer to "commercial operators" relate to that person who
for compensation or hire, engages in the carriage by aircraft in air commerce of persons or property, other than as an air carrier.
May a pilot operate an aircraft that is not in compliance with an Airworthiness Directive (AD)?
Yes, if allowed by the AD
Regulations which refer to "operate" relate to that person who
causes the aircraft to be used or authorizes its use.
What should an owner or operator know about Airworthiness Directives (AD's)?
They are mandatory.
Regulations which refer to the "operational control" of a flight are in relation to
exercising authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight.
A standard airworthiness certificate remains in effect as long as the aircraft receives
required maintenance and inspections.
If an airplane category is listed as utility, it would mean that this airplane could be operated in which of the following maneuvers?
limited acrobatics, including spins (if approved)
Regulations concerning the operational control of a flight refer to
exercising authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight
A disadvantage of Skydrol hydraulic fluid is that
it can irritate the skin painfully
What type of gas is released by a lead-acid battery during charging?
Oxygen and explosive hydrogen
What is the voltage of two lead-acid 12 volt batteries connected in series?
24
The air-cycle cooling system produces cold air by
passing air through an expansion turbine and extracting heat energy.
What type of gas may be used to service hydraulic accumulators?
Nitrogen
An electrical system failure (battery and alternator) occurs during flight. In this situation, you would
experience avionics equipment failure.
Why must oxygen not be permitted to come in contact with oil, grease, or solvents?
*Not-> Oxygen is highly flammable and will cause petroleum products to burn or explode.
To which position should the oxygen regulator be set when symptoms of hypoxia or hyperventilation are experienced?
100 percent oxygen
What color identifies MIL-H-5606 or BRACO 882 Hydraulic Fluids?
Red
Why is engine anti-ice not normally activated below an ambient temperature of +5 °F?
The air is too dry to form ice
Which component of an air-cycle cooling system undergoes a pressure and temperature drop of air during operation?
Expansion turbine
What is used primarily as a propellant for installed fire extinguishing systems?
*Not-> CO2
What is one danger of any oxygen leak?
*Not this-> Any ignition source may ignite highly explosive oxygen which over a period of time saturates the surroundings in poorly vented areas
Which position should be selected on the diluter-demand oxygen regulator if there is smoke in the cockpit?
100 percent
Concerning the advantages of an aircraft generator or alternator, select the true statement.
An alternator provides more electrical power at lower engine RPM than a generator.
The purpose of a hydraulic accumulator is to
store hydraulic fluid under pressure.
A turbojet aircraft is equipped with heated inlet ducts and airfoil leading edges. When is this type of anti-icing system usually activated during flight?
Whenever icing conditions are first encountered or are expected to occur
An in-flight condition necessary for structural icing to form is
visible moisture
What is the nominal voltage rating of a fully charged lead-acid battery containing six cells?
12 volts
What component of a pressurization system prevents the cabin altitude from becoming higher than the airplane altitude?
Negative pressure relief valve
Which best describes cabin differential pressure?
The difference between ambient and internal air pressure
Which components make up the basic air-cycle cooling system?
A source of compressed air, heat exchangers, and a turbine
While cruising at 9,500 feet MSL, the fuel/air mixture is properly adjusted. What will occur if a descent to 4,500 feet MSL is made without readjusting the mixture?
The fuel/air mixture may become excessively lean.
The purpose of a fuel temperature indicator is to
determine if fuel temperatures are beyond limits for proper combustion.
What type fuel can be substituted for an aircraft if the recommended octane is not available?
The next highest grade available
Filling the fuel tanks after the last flight of the day is considered a good operating procedure because this will
prevent moisture condensation by eliminating airspace in the tanks.
Which indicator is used to determine if conditions are conducive to formation of ice in jet fuel?
Fuel temperature
An abnormally high engine oil temperature indication may be caused by
operating with an excessively rich mixture.
The uncontrolled firing of the fuel/air charge in advance of normal spark ignition is known as
pre-ignition.
For internal cooling, reciprocating aircraft engines are especially dependent on
the circulation of lubricating oil.
Detonation occurs in a reciprocating aircraft engine when
the unburned charge in the cylinders explodes instead of burning normally.
Applying carburetor heat will
enrich the fuel/air mixture.
If the grade of fuel used in an aircraft engine is lower than specified for the engine, it will most likely cause
...
Which would most likely cause the cylinder head temperature and engine oil temperature gauges to exceed their normal operating ranges?
Using fuel that has a lower-than-specified fuel rating
The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture at altitude is to
decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for decreased air density.
Unless adjusted, the fuel/air mixture becomes richer with an increase in altitude because the amount of fuel
...
Generally speaking, the use of carburetor heat tends to
decrease engine performance.
Which condition is most favorable to the development of carburetor icing?
Temperature between 20 and 70 °F and high humidity.
If it is necessary to set the altimeter from 29.15 to 29.85, what change occurs?
700-foot increase in indicated altitude
(Refer to figure 4 below) Which color identifies the never-exceed speed?
The red radial line
What is density altitude?
The pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature
Altimeter setting is the value to which the barometric pressure scale of the altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates
true altitude at field elevation
The proper adjustment to make on the attitude indicator during level flight is to align the
miniature airplane to the horizon bar.
(Refer to figure 3 below) Altimeter 2 indicates
14,500 feet.
What is an important airspeed limitation that is not color coded on airspeed indicators?
...
What is true altitude?
The vertical distance of the aircraft above sea level
What is an advantage of an electric turn coordinator if the airplane has a vacuum system for other gyroscopic instruments?
It is a backup in case of vacuum system failure
Which color identifies the normal flap operating range?
The white arc
Which instrument(s) will become inoperative if the static vents become clogged?
Airspeed, altimeter, and vertical speed
What is absolute altitude?
The vertical distance of the aircraft above the surface
Which color identifies the power-off stalling speed with wing flaps and landing gear in the landing configuration?
Lower limit of the white arc
Which altimeter(s) indicate(s) more than 10,000 feet?
1 and 2 only
Which engine instrument is most likely to show an elevated reading if the turbine wheel is damaged?
...
Detonation can be caused by
using a lower grade of fuel than recommended.
The speed (RPM or percent) of the high pressure compressor of a dual compressor engine is referred to as
N2
Which statement best describes the operating principle of a constant-speed propeller?
The propeller control regulates the engine RPM, and in turn, the propeller RPM.
Which difference does engine pressure ratio measure?
Uncorrected compressor inlet pressure and turbine discharge pressure.
The primary purpose of an oil-to-fuel heat exchanger is to
not- heat the fuel
It is important to monitor the EGT when starting the engines to prevent
hot section burnout or metal distortion.
What effect does high density altitude, as compared to low density altitude, have on propeller efficiency and why?
Efficiency is reduced because the propeller exerts less force at high density altitudes than at low density altitudes.
What is one procedure to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating?
Enrich the fuel mixture
The pilot controls the air/fuel ratio with the
mixture control
How is engine operation controlled on an engine equipped with a constant-speed propeller?
The throttle controls power output as registered on the manifold pressure gauge and the propeller control regulates engine RPM.
The mixture control can be adjusted, which
prevents the fuel/air combination from becoming too rich at higher altitudes.
(Refer to figure 7 below) The internal engine temperature will be the lowest at which location?
Location 3
(Refer to figure 7 below) The internal engine pressure will be the lowest at which location?
not- location 4
Excessively high engine temperatures will
cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage
The speed (RPM or percent) of the low pressure compressor of a dual compressor engine is referred to as
N1
Which location has the highest gas pressure in a turbine engine?
Compressor outlet
If the engine oil temperature and cylinder head temperature gauges have exceeded their normal operating range, the pilot may have been operating with
too much power and with the mixture set too lean.
Which location has the highest gas volume in a turbine engine?
not- Compressor outlet
(Refer to figure 7 below) The internal engine pressure will be the highest at which location?
not- Location 5
One purpose of the dual ignition system on an aircraft engine is to provide for
improved engine performance
Should it become necessary to hand prop an airplane engine, it is extremely important that a competent pilot
be at the controls in the cockpit.
A precaution for the operation of an engine equipped with a constant-speed propeller is to
avoid high manifold pressure settings with low RPM.
On aircraft equipped with fuel pumps, when is the auxiliary electric driven pump used?
In the event engine-driven fuel pump fails.
What is an advantage of a constant-speed propeller?
Permits the pilot to select the blade angle for the most efficient performance
Before shutdown, while at idle, the ignition key is momentarily turned OFF. The engine continues to run with no interruption; this
should not normally happen. Indicates a magneto not grounding in OFF position.
What is pressure altitude?
The altitude indicated when the barometric pressure scale is set to 29.92
(Refer to figure 3 below) Altimeter 1 indicates
10,500 feet.
Why should flight speeds above VNE be avoided?
Design limit load factors may be exceeded, if gusts are encountered
Calibrated airspeed is best described as indicated airspeed corrected for
installation and instrument error.
What does the red line on an airspeed indicator represent?
Never-exceed speed
(Refer to figure 5 below) A turn coordinator provides an indication of the
movement of the aircraft about the yaw and roll axis.
(Refer to figure 4 below) Which color identifies the power-off stalling speed in a specified configuration?
Lower limit of the green arc
If the pitot tube and outside static vents become clogged, which instruments would be affected?
The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator.
To determine pressure altitude prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be set to
29.92" Hg and the altimeter indication noted.
(Refer to figure 6 below) To receive accurate indications during flight from a heading indicator, the instrument must be
periodically realigned with the magnetic compass as the gyro precesses
True airspeed is best described as calibrated airspeed corrected for
altitude and non-standard temperature
The pitot system provides impact pressure for which instrument?
Airspeed indicator
(Refer to figure 4 below) What is the full flap operating range for the airplane?
60 to 100 MPH
What is an operational difference between the turn coordinator and the turn-and-slip indicator? The turn coordinator
indicates roll rate, rate of turn, and coordination; the turn-and-slip indicator indicates rate of turn and coordination
During flight, when are the indications of a magnetic compass accurate?
Only in straight-and-level unaccelerated flight
(Refer to figure 4 below) The maximum speed at which the airplane can be operated in smooth air is
208 MPH
(Refer to figure 4 below) What is the caution range of the airplane?
165 to 208 MPH
Deviation in a magnetic compass is caused by the
magnetic fields within the aircraft distorting the lines of magnetic force
(Refer to figure 4 below) What is the maximum flaps-extended speed?
100 MPH
Which instrument will become inoperative if the pitot tube becomes clogged?
Airspeed.
(Refer to figure 4 below) What is the maximum structural cruising speed?
165 MPH
What is an important airspeed limitation that is not color coded on airspeed indicators?
Maneuvering speed
(Refer to figure 3 below) Altimeter 3 indicates
9,500 feet.
(Refer to figure 7 below) How should a pilot determine the direction of bank from an attitude indicator such as the one illustrated?
By the relationship of the miniature airplane (C) to the deflected horizon bar (B)
What type of gas is released by a lead-acid battery during charging?
Oxygen and explosive hydrogen
Which direction from the primary control surface does an antiservo tab move?
Same direction
Which type of flap creates the greatest change in pitching moment?
Fowler
(Refer to figure 23.) Which is a slotted flap?
3
A purpose of flight spoilers is to
reduce lift without increasing airspeed.
The purpose of a servo tab is to
reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control
One of the main functions of flaps during approach and landing is to
increase the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed.
Which type of flap creates the least change in pitching moment?
Split.
Which direction from the primary control surface does a servo tab move?
Opposite direction.
A purpose of leading edge slats on high performance wings is to
increase lift at relative slow speeds
(Refer to figure 23 below) Which is a fowler flap?
4
(Refer to figure 23.) Which is a split flap?
2
A purpose of leading edge slats on high performance wings is to
direct air from the high-pressure area under the leading edge along the top of the wing.
What is one purpose of wing flaps?
To enable the pilot to make steeper approaches to a landing without increasing the airspeed
What type fuel can be substituted for an aircraft if the recommended octane is not available?
The next higher octane aviation gas
Unless adjusted, the fuel/air mixture becomes richer with an increase in altitude because the amount of fuel
remains constant while the density of air decreases.