Terms in this set (2000)
What is associated with: Starry sky pattern?
Which organ most commonly recieves mets?
Adrenal gland (rich blood supply)
What is the most common testicular tumor in children? in Men?
Yolk sac tumor, Seminoma
What is associated with: Auer's rods?
Acute myelocytic leukemia (AML)-M3
What is associated with: Aschoff's bodies?
What is associated with: Birbeck granules?
What is associated with: Neurofibrillary tangles?
What is associated with: Bence-Jones proteinuria?
What is associated with: Cal-Exner bodies?
Granulosa/thecal cell tumor of the ovary
What is associated with: Cowdry type A bodies?
What is associated with: Codman's triangle on an x-ray?
What is associated with: Councilman bodies?
Toxic or viral hepatitis
What is associated with: Calf pseudohypertrophy?
Duchenne's muscular dystrophy
What is associated with: Reed-Sternberg cells?
What is associated with: Heinz bodies?
What is associated with: Homer-Wright rosettes?
What is associated with: Curschmann's spirals?
Bronchial asthma (whorled mucous plugs)
What is associated with: Kayser-Fleischer rings?
What is associated with: Lewy bodies?
What is associated with: Orphan Annie cells?
Papillary carcinoma of the ovary
What is associated with: Russell bodies?
What is associated with: Reinke's crystals?
Leydig cell tumor
What is associated with: Blue sclera?
What is associated with: Soap-bubble appearance on an x-ray?
Giant cell tumor of the bone
What is associated with: Pseudorosettes?
What is associated with: Lucid interval?
What is associated with: Bloody tap on lumbar puncture?
What is associated with: Pseudopalisades?
What is associated with: Charcot-Leyden crystals?
Bronchial asthma (eosinophil membranes)
What is associated with: Cafe au fait spot on the skin?
What is associated with: Streaky ovaries?
What is associated with: Keratin pearls?
Squamous cell carcinoma
What is associated with: Signet ring cells?
What is associated with: Mallory's bodies?
What is associated with: Blue-domed cysts?
Fibrocystic change of the breast
What is associated with: Schiller-Duval bodies?
Yolk sac tumor
What is associated with: Senile plaques?
What is associated with: WBCs in the urine?
What is associated with: RBCs in the urine?
What is associated with: RBC casts in the urine?
What is associated with: WBC casts in the urine?
What is associated with: Renal epithelial casts in the urine?
Acute toxic or viral nephrosis
What is associated with: Waxy casts?
Chronic end-stage renal disease
What is the most common: Cause of chronic metal poisoning?
What is the most common: Cause of congenital cyanotic heart disease?
Tetralogy of Fallot
What is the most common: Congenital cardiac anomaly?
Ventricular septal defect (VSD)
What is the most common: Cardiac tumor?
Left atrial myxoma
What is the most common: Vasculitis?
What is the most common: Primary tumor of the liver?
What is the most common: Primary malignant tumor of the lungs?
Adenocarcinoma (30% to 35%)
What is the most common: Cause of nephrotic syndrome?
What is the most common: cause of nephrotic syndrome in children?
What is the most common: Organism that causes pyelonephritis?
What is the most common: Renal cell cancer type?
What is the most common: Tumor of the liver?
Metastatic cancer (GI, breast, lungs)
What is the most common: Malignant tumor of the esophagus?
Squamous cell carcinoma
What is the most common: Tumor arising within the bone?
What is the most common: Primary malignant tumor of the female genital tract in the world?
What is the most common: Primary malignant tumor of the female genital tract in the US?
Adenocarcinoma of the cervix
What is the most common: Tumor of the female genitourinary tract?
What is the most common: Benign tumor of the ovary?
What is the most common: Benign tumor of the breast?
What is the most common: Benign lesion that affects the breast?
Fibrocystic change of the breast
What is the most common: Malignant tumor of the breast?
Invasive ductal carcinoma
What is the most common: Tumor in men between the ages of 15 and 35?
What is the most common: Germ cell tumor in men?
What is the most common: Testicular tumor in infants and children?
Yolk sac tumor
What is the most common: Malignant germ cell tumor in women?
What is the most common: Solid tumor in the body?
What is the most common: Acquired GI emergency of infancy?
Necrotizing enterocolitis of infancy
What is the most common: Primary malignant tumor of the ovary?
What is the most common: Cardiac tumor of infancy?
What is the most common: Acute metal poisoning?
What is the most common: Proliferative abnormality of an internal organ?
Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)
What is the most common: Malignant tumor in the bone of teenagers?
What is the most common: Site of a cerebral infarct?
Middle cerebral artery
What is the most common: Cause of dementia between the ages of 60 and 90 years?
What is the most common: Primary CNS tumor in adults?
What is the most common: Primary CNS tumor in children?
What is the most common: Tumor on sun-exposed sites?
Basal cell carcinoma
What is the most common: Chromosomal disorder?
Down syndrome (trisomy 21)
What is the most common: Heart defect in Down syndrome?
Endocardial cushion defect
What is the most common: Chromosomal disorder involving sex chromosomes?
What is the most common: Cardiac pathology in patients with SLE?
What is the most common: Cause of urinary tract obstruction?
What is the most common: Eye tumor in children?
What is the most common: Intraspinal tumor?
What is the most common: Lymph node affected in non-Hodgkin's lymphoma?
Periaortic lymph nodes
What is the most common: Renal pathology in patients with SLE?
Diffuse proliferative GN
What is the most common: Cause of cirrhosis in the USA?
What is the most common: Malignant tumor in women?
What is the most common: Cancer of the vulva?
Squamous cell carcinoma
What is the most common: Testicular tumor in children?
Yolk sac tumor
What is the most common: Benign GI tumor?
What is the most common: Thyroid cancer?
What is the most common: Malignancy in children?
What is the most common: Cause of diarrhea in children?
What is the most common: Cause of hospitalization in children younger than 1 year of age?
Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
What is the most common: Helminthic parasite worldwide?
What is the most common: Cause of anovulation?
What is the most common: Cause of death in neonates?
Neonatal respiratory distress syndrome (NRDS)
What is the most common: Cardiac anomaly in children?
Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)
What is the most common: Congenital heart defect in adults?
Atrial septal defect (ASD)
What is the most common: Complication of PDA?
Subacute bacterial endocarditis
What is the most common: Cardiac anomaly in Turner's syndrome?
Coarctation of the aorta
What is the most common: Cause of restrictive cardiomyopathy?
What is the most common: Cause of pulmonary hypertension in children?
What is the most common: Cause of reversible hypertension in the USA?
What is the most common: Inflammatory arthritis?
What is the most common: Cause of spontaneous pneumothorax?
What is the most common: Cause of nonorganic pneumoconiosis?
What is the most common: Cause of painless hematuria?
Renal cell carcinoma
What is the most common: Cause of hematuria?
What is the most common: Hematologic cause of papillary necrosis?
Sickle cell disease
What is the most common: Organ involved in amyloidosis?
What is the most common: Cause of abnormal bleeding?
What is the most common: Cause of a nontraumatic splenic rupture?
What is the most common: Cause of death in SLE?
What is the most common: Cause of infection for a patient on a ventilator?
What is the most common: Esophageal carcinoma?
Squamous cell carcinoma
What is the most common: Cause of chronic pancreatitis?
What is the most common: Cause of infectious pancreatitis?
What is the most common: Complication of nasogastric tube feeding?
What is the most common learning disability?
What is the most common: Cause of insomnia?
What is the most common: Form of necrosis?
What is the most common: Cause of blindness worldwide?
What is the most common: Cause of blindness in the USA?
What is the most common: Cause of the croup?
What is the most common: Cause of a cold in the winter and summer?
What is the most common: Cause of a cold in the spring and fall?
What is the most common: Cause of viral pneumonia leading to death?
What is the most common: Pituitary tumor?
What is the most common: Cause of panhypopituitarism?
What is the most common: Cause of Cushing's syndrome?
What is the most common: Kidney stone type?
What is the most common: Site of ischemia in the GI tract?
What is the most common: Cause of intestinal obstructions in adults?
Adhesions and hernias
What is the most common: Cause of neonatal bowel obstruction?
What is the most common: Cause of rectal bleeding?
What chromosomal translocation is associated with: Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML?
Chromosome 9,22 (Philadelphia chromosome)
What chromosome: Ewing's sarcoma?
What chromosome: Adult familial polyposis?
What chromosome: Burkitt's lymphoma?
What chromosome: Acute promyelocytic leukemia (M3)?
What chromosome: Follicular lymphoma?
What chromosome is associated with: Cru di chat?
What chromosome: Patau's syndrome?
What chromosome: Neurofibromatosis I?
What chromosome: Huntington's disease?
What chromosome: Familial hypercholesterolemia?
What chromosome: Gaucher's disease?
What chromosome: Neimann-Pick disease?
What chromosome: Tay-Sachs disease?
What chromosome: Cystic fibrosis?
What chromosome: Albinism?
What chromosome: Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)?
What chromosome: Marfan's disease?
What chromosome: Neurofibromatosis II?
What chromosome: Down syndrome?
What chromosome: Edward's syndrome?
What mineral is associated with impaired glucose tolerance?
What mineral is associated with hypothyroidism?
What mineral is an important component of the enzyme xanthine oxidase?
What vitamin deficiency has the following signs: angular stomatitis, glossitis, and cheilosis?
Riboflavin (B2) deficiency
What vitamin is a component of the coenzyme thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP)?
Avidin decreases the absorption of what vitamin?
Biotin. Avidin is found in raw egg whites.
What are the four Ds of niacin deficiency?
1. Diarrhea 2. Dermatitis 3. Dementia 4. Death
What mineral is an important component of glutathione peroxidase?
What mineral deficiency in children is associated with poor growth and impaired sexual development?
Zinc (Zn) deficiency
What mineral, via excessive depositions in the liver, causes hemochromatosis?
What vitamin is needed in the production of heme?
What vitamin is a component of the enzymes fatty acid synthase and acyl CoA?
What vitamin deficiency has the following signs: homocysteinuria and methylmalonic aciduria?
Cyanocobalamin (B12) deficiency [Folic acid deficiency has only homocysteinuria as a sign.]
What vitamin deficiency is evidenced by the following signs: poor wound healing, loose teeth, bleeding gums, petechiae, and ecchymosis?
Ascorbic acid (vitamin C) deficiency (These are the signs of scurvy.)
What vitamin is given as prophylactic treatment for patients who suffer from alcoholism?
Thiamine (B1)-to prevent Wernicke's encephalopathy and Korsakoff's encephalopathy
What are the three carboxylase enzymes that require biotin?
1. Pyruvate 2. Acetyl CoA 3.Propionyl CoA carboxylase
What vitamin requires intrinsic factor (IF) for absorption?
What mineral is a component of cytochrome a/a3?
Leukopenia, neutropenia, and mental deterioration are signs of what mineral deficiency?
Copper (Cu) deficiency
What vitamin deficiency causes a glove-and-stocking neuropathy seen in alcoholics?
Pyridoxine (B6) deficiency
What mineral deficiency involves blood vessel fragility?
Copper (Cu) deficiency
Megaloblastic anemia and thrombocytopenia are signs of what vitamin deficiency?
Folic acid deficiency
What is the antidote for an overdose with: Carbon monoxide?
What is the antidote for an overdose with: Mercury?
What is the antidote for an overdose with: Isoniazid?
What is the antidote for an overdose with: Atropine?
What is the antidote for an overdose with: Arsenic?
What is the antidote for an overdose with: Digoxin?
Antidigoxin Fab fragments
What is the antidote for an overdose with: Gold?
What is the antidote for an overdose with: Ethylene glycol?
What is the antidote for an overdose with: Opiates/narcotics?
What is the antidote for an overdose with: Organophosphates?
What is the antidote for an overdose with: Warfarin?
What is the antidote for an overdose with: Copper?
What is the antidote for an overdose with: Heparin?
What is the antidote for an overdose with: Iron?
What is the antidote for an overdose with: Cyanide?
Amyl nitrate, sodium nitrate, or sodium thiosulfate
What is the antidote for an overdose with: Methyl alcohol?
What is the antidote for an overdose with: Acetaminophen?
What is the antidote for an overdose with: Nitrates?
What is the antidote for an overdose with: Lead?
EDTA (calcium disodium edetate), dimercaprol, succimer
What structure is derived from the prochordal plate?
What is the only organ supplied by the foregut artery that is of mesodermal origin?
In which direction and how far does the gut rotate?
Counterclockwise 270 degrees
What structure connects the primitive gut to the yolk sac?
The yolk stalk (vitelline duct)
What is the artery of the embryonic foregut?
The celiac artery
When does the primitive gut herniate out of the embryo?
When does it return back into the embryo?
What two pathologic conditions occur when the gut does not return to the embryo?
Omphalocele and gastroschisis
Around what structure does the midgut rotate?
Superior mesenteric artery
What three things cause the indifferent gonad to become a testis?
1.Testis-determining factor (TDF) from the short arm of the Y chromosome 2.Miillerian inhibiting factor (MIF) from Sertoli cells 3.Testosterone from Leydig cells
Where does the embryologic foregutend?
At the first part of the duodenum
What is the artery of the embryonic hindgut?
The inferior mesenteric artery
What three embryonic cell layers form the chorion?
1. Cytotrophoblast 2. Symcytiotrophoblast 3. Extraembrvonic mesoderm
Which neuropore closes last?
Caudal-and it is the first to open, too.
What is the artery of the embryonic midgut?
The superior mesenteric artery
From where are nephrons derived embryonically?
What are the five derivatives of the ventral mesentery?
1. Falciform ligament 2. Hepatoduodenal ligament 3. Hepatogastric ligament 4 and 5. Coronary and triangular ligaments of the liver. All else is derived from the dorsal mesentery.
When do the septum primum and the septum secundum of the heart fuse?
The cerebral cortex is a derivative of what?
What is the adult structure found in the embryo as the: Umbilical vein?
What is the adult structure found in the embryo as the: Ductus venosus?
What is the adult structure found in the embryo as the: Foramen ovule?
What is the adult structure found in the embryo as the: Ductus arteriosus?
What is the adult structure found in the embryo as the: Umbilical artery?
Medial umbilical ligament
Where does the hindgut end?
At the superior portion of the anal canal
Where does the midgut end?
At the right two thirds of the transverse colon
From where is the tongue musculature derived?
What two branchial arches contribute to the formation of the anterior two thirds of the tongue?
First and some of the second
What are the two fourth pharyngeal pouch derivatives?
Superior parathyroid glands and the ultimobranchial body
What two structures are derived from the fourth aortic arch?
Arch of the aorta and the right subclavian artery
What adult structures are derived from preotic somites?
Muscles of the internal eye
What structure is derived from the first pharyngeal pouch?
The middle ear
What two branchial arches contribute to the posterior two thirds of the tongue?
Third and part of the fourth
What are the two third pharyngeal pouch derivatives?
Inferior parathyroid glands and the thymus
What structure is derived from the first aortic arch?
From what are the urinary bladder and the urethra derived?
From what are the pulmonary trunk and the ascending aorta derived?
What disorder will result when there is a failure of the urachus to close, causing a leakage of urine out of the umbilicus?
The common carotid and the internal carotid arteries are derivatives of what embryonic structure?
Third aortic arch
The palatine tonsils are derived from what embryonic structure?
Second pharyngeal pouch
What are the sixth aortic arch derivatives?
Right and left pulmonary arteries and the ductus arteriosus
The stapedial artery is derived from what?
Second aortic arch
The mesonephric ducts contribute to what renal structures?
The collecting ducts, calyx, renal pelvis, and ureters
Of what embryonic structureis the coronary sinus a derivative?
The left horn of the sinus venosus
What cranial nerve (CN) is associated with the: First pharyngeal arch?
What cranial nerve (CN) is associated with the: Second pharyngeal arch?
What cranial nerve (CN) is associated with the: Third pharyngeal arch?
What cranial nerve (CN) is associated with the: Fourth pharyngeal arch?
What cranial nerve (CN) is associated with the: Fifth pharyngeal arch?
What cranial nerve (CN) is associated with the: Sixth pharyngeal arch?
From where is the external auditory meatus derived?
First pharyngeal groove
From where is the smooth portion of the right atrium derived?
Right horn of the sinus venosus
Meckel's diverticulum is a remnant of what embryonic structure?
Vitelline duct (yolk stalk)
The pons and cerebellum are derived from what portion of the embryonic neural tissue?
The medulla is a derivative of what portion of the embryonic neural tissue?
What structure "tells" the overlying cells to begin neurulation?
What structure splits the cloacal membrane, resulting in the formation of the perineum?
In the adult, the thoracic veins are derived from what structure?
The cardinal veins
The gastrointestinal tract and abdominal veins are derived from what structure?
From what is the thyroid gland derived?
The floor of the endoderm (the posterior aspect of the tongue)
The thalamus and its related structures are derivatives of what?
Transcriptionally active DNA is known as what?
Transcriptionally inactive DNA is called?
What is the only histone not found inside the nucleosomes?
H1 histone-Its function is to bind nucleosomes together.
What coating protects proteins from intracellular degradation?
A nucleosome is made up of what two components?
Histories and DNA
What are the four functions of smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER)?
1. Steroid synthesis 2. Drug detoxification 3. Ca2+ handling 4. TAG resynthesis
What are the long microvilli found in the inner ear and the male reproductive tract called?
What cell junction type allows for communication between two adjacent cells?
Gap junctions (nexus)
Where are the enzymes for ATP production and the ETC located?
Inner fold of the mitochondria membrane
What cell membrane structure increases the surface area of a cell and has actin randomly assorted within its structure?
What is the function of desmosomes?
To hold adjacent cells together (i.e., adhesion)
What is the microtubule configuration of a basal body?
9 + 0 microtubule arrangement
What are the four components of the basement membrane?
1. Laminin 2. Heparan sulfate (heparitin sulfate) 3. Fibronectin 4. Type IV collagen
The proteins that are to stay within the cell are produced by what organelle?
Free polysome (polyribosome)
What is the lysosomal post- translational modification of proteins?
Phosphorylation of mannose residues
What cell surface modification of ependymal cells and respiratory epithelium has a 9 + 2 microtubular configur- ation and movement as its function?
What protein binds hemidesmosomes to the basal lamina?
What intermediate filament is found in the zona adherens?
The proteins to be exported or incorporated into the lysosome are produced by what organelle?
Bound polysome (polyribosome), attached to rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER)
What is the function of the zonula occludens and the zonula adherens?
To provide attachment between contiguous cells and to maintain a semipermeable barrier
The following intermediate filaments are associated with what cell types: Desmin?
The following intermediate filaments are associated with what cell types: Cytokeratins?
The following intermediate filaments are associated with what cell types: Vimentin?
The following intermediate filaments are associated with what cell types: Neurofilaments?
The following intermediate filaments are associated with what cell types: Glial filaments?
The basal lamina + the reticular lamina = what?
The basement membrane
What is the name of the organelle where collagen is made?
Rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER)
What vitamin is needed for the hydroxylation of proline and lysine in collagen synthesis?
Vitamin C - Survy
What are the two amino acids that cross-link elastin molecules?
Desmosine and isodesmosine
What is the major inorganic component of bone?
What cell in bone is a part of the mononuclear phagocytic system?
What are the two types of cells located in the perichondrium of cartilage?
Fibroblasts and chondroblasts
What cell in the CNS is part of the mononuclear phagocytic system?
What substance, found in eosinophils, is toxic to parasitic worms?
Major basic protein
Where is tropocollagen aggregated to form a collagen fibril?
What cell surface extension allows osteocytes in the lacunaeto "talk" to each other?
What cell type produces myelin in the CNS?
In which ventricles is/are choroid plexus found?
All four ventricles
What muscle type has calmodulin?
What element is needed for the proper alignment of the tropocollagen molecules?
What is added to the procollagen molecules to prevent intracellular precipitation?
In what tissue can you find intercalated disks?
What are intercalated disks?
Dense bands containing intercellular junctions that link adjacent cells mechanically and electrically
Of what are intercalated disks composed?
Fascia adherens (mainly) Desmosomes Gap junctions
What are the proteoglycans of cartilage and bone?
Chondroitin sulfate and keratan sulfate
What is the only glycosamino- glycan (GAG) that binds to the linker portion of the proteoglycan?
Hyaluronic acid (all sulfates bind to the core portion)
What is the portion of an axon that lacks myelin and is rich in Na+/K+ pumps?
Node of Ranvier
What type of CNS cells have cilia, line the ventricles, and contribute to the blood-brain barrier?
What are the largest glial cells in the CNS (Hint: They contribute to the blood- brain barrier.)?
Myelin is produced by what type of PNS cells?
What is the dominant cell type in the lacunae of cartilage?
What structure runs perpendicular to the Haversian canals in the bone?
What are the three reasons for the effectiveness of the blood-brain barrier?
1. Tight junctions 2. Capillaries that lack fenestration 3. Very selective pinocytosis by the capillaries
What types of muscle have troponin?
Skeletal and cardiac
What type of muscle is uninuclear and nonstriated?
Smooth muscle - it lacks T tubules and has gap junctions
On what area of the spleen are the APCs located?
What is the dominant cell type in the red pulp of the spleen?
Red blood cells
On what area of the lymph node can you locate plasma cells?
What is the name of the area in the thymus where T cells are produced?
What type of muscle is striated and multinuclear?
Skeletal muscle- it of T tubules and SR at the A-I junction
In what region of the spleen are the germinal centers located?
White pulp-where B cell differentiation takes place
What layer of the skin is missing in thin skin?
What are the phagocytic cells of the GI tract called?
Paneth cells (Paneth's granular cells)
Which immunoglobulin is secreted by the plasma cells in the GI tract?
In what area of the spleen are the T cells located?
Periarterial lymphatic sheath (PALS)
In what area of the lymph node are the T cells and the APCs located?
Paracortical (thymic-dependent) area
What type of muscle is striated, branched, and uninuclear?
Cardiac muscle-dyadic T tubules with SR at the Z line
What does the tunica intima of arteries have that veins do not?
An internal elastic lamina
What two layers of skin makeup the malphighian layer?
Stratum basalis and spinosus (mitotic area)
What type of skin cells have the mature melanin granules?
Keratinocytes. Melanocytes inject melanosomes into the keratinocytes and mature there.
What type of skin cells are part of the mononuclear phagocytic system?
What cells of the epidermis, derived from the neural crest, act as mechano- receptors?
Merkel's cells (Merkel's tactile cells)
What layer of the epidermis acts as a sealant to protect against desiccation?
What layer of the skin is composed of non-nucleated cells full of keratin?
What are the antigen- presenting cells in the Peyer's patches of the GI known as?
What are the three "tunica" layers of a blood vessel wall?
1. Tunica intima 2. Tunica media 3. Tunica adventitia
Within what layer of the heart are the nerves and conducting fibers located?
Which organs have fenestrated capillaries with diaphragms?
Kidney, Intestines, Endocrine organs
What secondary lymphoid tissue is encapsulated and has germinal centers?
What organs have sinusoid capillaries (leakiest type)?
Liver, Bone marrow, Spleen
What type of vessel has a thick tunica media?
Arteries. Veins have a thick tunica adventitia.
Is the spleen a capsulated organ with trabeculae?
Yes-although it does not have cortical or medullary regions
What secondary lymphoid organ is found just below the stratified squamous epithel- ium and is partially capsulated?
What type of capillary lacks fenestrations and has pinocytotic vesicles?
What region of the body has fenestrated capillaries without diaphragms?
Does the thymus have germinal centers?
No. Germinal centers are associated with B cells.
What cell of the liver is part of the mononuclear phagocytic system?
What papillae are respons- ible for sweet taste?
What are the three epi- dermal derivatives?
1. Nails 2. Hair 3. Sweat glands (both apocrine and sebaceous)
What papillae send their senses via chorda tympani of CN VII?
What is the area of mitotic activity in the GI tract?
The crypts of Lieberkuhn
What cells of the GI tract secrete HCl and intrinsic factor?
Parietal cells of the stomach
What type of sweat gland is under cholinergic stimulation?
What gland produces a serous secretion that is approximately 20% of the total saliva produced?
What papillae are touch receptors on the tongue and send their sensations via CN V3 (mandibular division)?
Secretin and CCK are produced in what portion of the GI tract?
What cells of the stomach secrete pepsinogen?
What cell type produces dentin of the teeth?
Odontoblasts (neural crest)
What cell type produces enamel of the teeth?
What gland produces 70% of the total salivary secretions and is a mixture of serous (predominantly) and mucous alveoli and secretory units?
What type of cells of the respiratory system secrete surfactant?
Type II pneumocytes
What zone of the liver is the first to be affected in times of hypoxia?
Central region (around the central vein)
In what region of the respiratory system do you first see Clara cells?
What substance does the juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney secrete in response to low blood pressure?
In what region of the liver is fat stored?
Space of Disse -Ito cells and Vit A also
In what region of the GI tract does exfoliation take place?
At the tip of the villi
What are the mucus secreting cells in the respiratory tract above the level of the terminal bronchioles?
What cells of the distal convoluted tubule are sensitive to the low ion content of the urine?
What cells comprise 95% of the alveolar surface and are responsible for gas exchange?
Type I pneumocytes
What are the two hormones secreted by the posterior pituitary gland via the para- ventricular supranuclei?
ADH and oxytocin
What area of the nephron is impermeable to water?
Ascending limb of the loop of Henle
What region of the kidney is affected by ADH?
Collecting duct for water reabsorption- but the DCT is also affected by ADH
What portion of the kidney actively pumps Cl- out of the tubule?
Thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle
What region of the kidney has a countercurrent multi- plier producing a gradient of hypertonicity in the tubule lumen?
Loop of Henle
What region of the liver is first affected in toxic doses of drugs?
Peripheral zone (because extraction of substances occurs there first)
What are the two acidophilic hormones secreted by the adenohypophysis?
GH and prolactin "(,Pp;~
In what region of the kidney does the greatest extraction of nutrients occur?
Proximal convoluted tubule (-66% of nutrient extraction occurs here)
What cells of the thyroid gland secrete calcitonin?
Parafollicular C cells (new4 ash,
What cells of the adrenal gland are neural crest derivatives?
Chromaffin cells (adrenal medulla)
What cells secrete glucagon?
Alpha cells of the islet of Langerhans
What hormone inhibits glucagon release and pancreatic exocrine secretions?
What hormone causes milk letdown?
Low levels of what hormone stimulates the uterus to go into its proliferative stage?
What cells of the genito- urinary system secrete testosterone?
Leydig cells (stimulated by LH)
What is the mucus-secreting gland in the male reproductive system?
Bulbourethral glands (Cowper's glands)
Elevated levels of what hormone cause the endometrium to enter the secretory phase of the female cycle?
What are the cells of the parathyroid gland that produce parathyroid hormone (PTH)?
What hormone produced during the night causes a decrease in gonadal function?
Where is melatonin produced?
What are the four basophilic hormones released from the adenohypophysis?
1. Adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH) 2. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 3. Luteinizing hormone (LH) 4. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
What cells form the blood-testis barrier?
What is the chromosome number of-G1?
What is the chromosome number of-S phase?
What is the chromosome number of-G2?
What is the chromosome number of-Mitosis?
46 (4n) to 46 (2n)
What is the chromosome number of a primary spermatocyte?
In females, meiosis is arrested twice - when and at what stages of meiosis?
1. First, in utero at prophase I, 2. Second, at ovulation in metaphase II
What cell is under control of FSH and testosterone; secretes inhibin, MIF, and androgen-binding protein; and phagocytizes the excess cytoplasm of the spermatid?
What must occur for an egg to complete ovulation?
It needs to be fertilized by a sperm. If it is not, the egg is released in metaphase II and meiosis is incomplete.
What is the chromosome number at the end of meiosis I?
23 (2n)-it is the reductive phase of meiosis.
What is the major androgen released from the zona reticularis?
What hormone causes an increase in the accumulation of adipose and collagenous tissue of the breast and an increase in the branching of the ducts of the breast?
What promotes further prolactin and oxytocin release?
What part of the placenta is derived from the mother?
What is the most common site of fertilization?
Ampulla of the fallopian tube
What is the only cranial nerve that comes off the dorsal surface of the brain stem?
What type of fiber is carried in the dorsal root?
Sensory or motor. Sensory only
How would a lower motor neuron (LMN) lesion present?
Hyporeflexia, fasiculations and flaccid paralysis (always ipsilateral)
What is the name of the brain stem tract in which the dorsal columns run?
What is the ability to tell what something is without looking at it and using only your hands?
In what tract do pain and temperature fibers run?
What gyrus in the cerebral cortex receives information from fibers of the dorsal column tract?
What area of the brain is responsible for contralateral gaze?
Frontal eye field (Brodmann area 8)
What is the thalamic relay nucleus for the visual system?
Lateral geniculate body (LGB)
What is the function of the ossicles?
They increase the intensity of sound
What muscle in the eye is responsible for accommodation?
What area of the eye has the greatest visual acuity?
Fovea (it is made up soley of cones)
What cell type in the eye is for color vision?
Cones (Cones and color)
If there is macula sparing in a visual deficit, where is the lesion?
In the occipital lobe of the cerebral cortex (optic radiations)
Which way do the eyes drift in a frontal eye field lesion?
To the side of the lesion
What is the thalamic relay nucleus that CN V needs to "speak" to in order to pass its information on to the cerebral cortex?
Cell bodies of what fibers are found in the mesencephalic nucleus of CN V?
Proprioception of the face (CN V) and motor (jaw jerk reflex)
If a patient presented with an LMN lesion in CN V, CN VII, or CN XII, what would you see?
What is the motor relay nucleus of the thalamus?
Ventrolateral (VL) nucleus of thalamus
What is the only cell type to leave the cerebellum?
Purkinje (inhibitory) - GABA
If a patient presented with a right-sided cerebellar lesion, which way would the patient fall if he closed his eyes?
To the right
What is the function of the superior olivary nucleus?
To localize and detemine the nature of sounds (Sound and superior start with S.)
If a patient presents with a left nystagmus, where is the lesion?
On the right, because the nvstagmus is named for the fast component, and the fast component is to the unaffected side.
What region of the cerebellum is responsible for the planning of movements?
What is the thalamic relay nucleus for the limbic system?
What fluid is found in the anterior chamber of the eye?
What is the dividing line between the anterior and posterior chambers of the eye?
If there is a total anopsia of the left eye, where is the lesion?
Optic nerve of the left eye
What is the center for ipsilateral gaze?
The paramedian pontine reticular formation (PPRF)
What fluid of the inner ear has an electrolyte content like that of the extracellular fluid compartment (ECF)?
What is the thalamic relay nucleus for the auditory system?
What region of the cerebellum is responsible for balance and eye movement?
What is the only cell in the cerebellum to have an excitatory neurotransmitter?
What does the nystagmus look like if cold water is placed in the right ear?
Slow drift to the right, fast drift to the left
COWS = Cold Opposite - Warm Same (named in reference to the fast component)
Information from the cerebellum leaves via what?
Superior cerebellar peduncle
In what portion of the internal capsule are you if you can see the caudate nucleus?
What type of memory is lost in a hippocampal lesion?
In what region of the brain stem does the corticospinal tract cross over?
From what gyrus of the brain does the corticospinal tract originate?
What type of fibers are carried in the ventral rami?
Both sensory and motor (from the spinal nerve on both sensory and motor fibers)
What are the hallmark signs of an upper motor neuron (UMN) lesion?
1. Hyperreflexia 2. Spastic paralysis 3. Positive Babinski sign
What tract carriers fibers for voluntary refined movements of the distal extremities?
What is the name of the tract in which the dorsal columns from the lower extremities run?
Fasciculus gracilis (It is medial of the two tracts on a cross-section of the spinal cord; the lateral tract is the fasciculus cuneatus.) Remember: Lower extremities dancing-graceful-gracilis.
What is the function of the superior colliculi?
Cell bodies that are to be relayed to the thalamus for sight are found there. (Sight and superior start with S.)
In order for sensory information from the dorsal columns and the spinothalamic tract to get to the cerebral cortex, they must use what thalamic relay nucleus?
In which region of the spinal cord does the spinothalamic tract cross over?
Ventral white commissure (VWC)
Sensory information from the spinothalamic tract sends its information to what region of the cerebral cortex?
In which region of the brain stem do the dorsal columns cross over?
Lower medulla (synapse on nucleus gracilis or cuneatus)
What tract carries conscious proprioception,fine touch, two-point discrimination, and vibratory sense?
Dorsal column tract (all senses except pain and temperature)
What tract of the spinal cord carries dorsal column information from the upper extremities?
If the right side of the corticobulbar tract to the muscles of facial expression were damaged, where would the deficit be seen?
In the contralateral lower face (left)
If the corticobulbar tract for CN V and CN XII were cut on the right side, where would the lesion be?
There would be no deficit, because the corticobulbar tract receives bilateral input.
What type of fibers are carried in the ventral root?
What peduncle(s) carry information into the cerebellum?
Inferior and middle cerebellar peduncles
Cell bodies of what fibers are found in the trigeminal ganglion?
Touch, pain, and temperature
When the head moves, what causes the eyes to move in the opposite direction?
Unconscious proprioception, body sense, and motor execution are functions of what part of the cerebellum?
Vermis and intermediate lobe
What three structures contain perilymph?
1. Scala tympani 2. Scala vestibuli 3. Semicircular canals
The gravity receptors for changes in the position of the head are located in what part of the inner ear?
Saccule and utricle
What cells are for black and white vision (night vision)?
What is the fluid of the posterior compartment of the eye?
What type of fluid in the inner ear has the consistency of intracellular fluid (ICF)?
Endolymph (high levels of K+)
Name three lesions that can cause left homonymous hemianopsia?
1. Lesion of the right optic tract 2. Lesion of the lateral geniculate body (LGB) 3. Lesion of the optic radiation
What lesion produces a tremor upon movement?
A cerebellar lesion
What part of the inner ear is sensitive to angular acceleration and deceleration?
What is the normal volume of CSF?
Approximately 140 ml
What muscle of the eye is under parasympathetic control?
Sphincter pupillae (part of iris)
What cranial nerve receives sensory information from the cornea?
CN VI (ophthalmic division)
What artery supplies blood to the trunk and the lower extremities on a homunculus map of the cerebral cortex?
Anterior cerebral artery
What structures of the inner ear contain endolymph?
1. Scala media 2. Semicircular ducts 3. Saccule Utricle
With what type of lesions do you see tremors at rest?
Lesions of the basal ganglia
What muscle of the eye is under sympathetic control?
Dilator pupillae (part of the iris)
Where is the lesion if the patient presents with a right nasal hemianopsia?
Right internal carotid artery compression on the optic chiasm
What part of the inner ear functions in head movement?
What part of the internal capsule are you in if you see the thalamus?
Posterior limb of the internal capsule
What region of the basal ganglia is affected in Parkinson's disease?
Substantia nigra (degeneration)
Hemorrhagic destruction of the contralateral subthalamic nuclei results in what disorder?
Herniballismus (wild flailing movements)
Slow writhing movements (athetosis) are caused by what?
Hypermyelinization of the corpus striatum and the thalamus (seen in cerebral palsy)
Atrophy of the striatum of the basal ganglia results in what?
Chorea (involuntary quick movements)
What tracts are found in the genu of the internal capsule?
What tracts are found in the posterior limb of the IC?
Corticospinal Spinothalamic Dorsal column Thalamocortical
What tracts are found in the anterior limb of the IC?
If warm water is placed in the right ear, what does the nystagmus look like?
Slow drift to the left and fast drift to the right (COWS = Cold Opposite & Warm Same)
What lesion causes a bitemporal hemianopsia?
Optic chiasm lesion
What area of the brain is known as the motor speech area?
What does Meyer's loop lesion cause?
Contralateral homonymous superior quadrantopia
Blood supply to the head/neck area and the upper limb on a homunculus map in the cerebral cortex comes from what artery?
Middle cerebral artery
What area of the brain is known for language comprehension?
Where is the lesion if the patient presents with a right homonymous inferior quadrantanopia?
Left upper loop lesion
What region of the cerebellum is affected if a patient has dystaxia of the legs and trunk during walking?
Anterior vermis (It is most commonly caused by chronic alcohol abuse.)
Where is the lesion in a patient who presents with a broad-based gait, hypotonia, intention tremors, nystagmus, and ataxia?
What are the functions of the external auditory meatus?
Sound collection and protection of the tympanic membrane
What is the function of the inferior colliculi?
To receive bilateral auditory input and arrange the input tonotopically
If a patient presents with nystagmus, dystaxia, and hypotonia of the ipsilateral limbs, what area of the cerebellum is affected?
What lesion of the cerebellum is usually caused by an ependymoma or medulloblastoma, resulting in dystaxia of the trunk with an inability to maintain an upright posture?
Posterior vermis lesion
What spinal cord injury results in flaccid paralysis and muscle atrophy?
Polio (bilateral ventral horn lesion)
What spinal cord lesion results in a lower motor neuron (LMN) lesion at the level of the lesion and an upper motor neuron (UMN) lesion below the level of the lesion?
Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)-Lou Gehrig's disease
What arterial occlusion would result in a loss of all tracts in the spinal cord except the dorsal columns?
Anterior spinal artery occlusion (posterior spinal artery supplies the dorsal columns)
What spinal cord lesion results in a bilateral loss of pain and temperature at the level of the lesion?
Syringomyelia (VWC lesion)
What spinal cord lesion causes a bilateral dorsal column loss below the level of the lesion?
Tabes dorsalis (neurosyphilis)
What disease is associated with demyelination of the dorsal column, spinocerebellar tract, and corticospinal tract?
Subacute combined degeneration
What arterial occlusion results in contralateral spastic hemiparesis, contralateral spastic lower face, and ipsilateral oculomotor palsy (dilated, ptosis, eye down and out)?
Posterior cerebral artery occlusion (ventral midbrain syndrome)
What syndrome is associated with an ipsilateral UMN lesion below the level of the lesion, ipsilateral dorsal column loss at and below the level of the lesion, an LMN lesion at the level of the lesion, bilateral loss of pain and temperature at the level an
Brown-Sequard syndrome (heimisection of the spinal cord)
What arterial occlusion results in the following syndromes (Name artery and specific region.): Contralateral spastic hemiparesis of the body?
What arterial occlusion results in the following syndromes (Name artery and specific region.): Contralateral loss of position and vibration?
Vertebral artery-medial lemniscus
What arterial occlusion results in the following syndromes (Name artery and specific region.): Ipsilateral paralysis of the tongue?
Vertebral artery-CN XII
What arterial occlusion results in the following syndromes (Name artery and specific region.): Ipsilateral limb ataxia?
Anterior inferior cerebellar artery-inferior cerebellar peduncle
What arterial occlusion results in the following syndromes (Name artery and specific region.): Ipsilateral pain and temperature loss of the face?
Anterior inferior cerebellar artery-spinal nucleus of CN V
What arterial occlusion results in the following syndromes (Name artery and specific region.): Contralateral pain and temperature of the body?
Anterior inferior cerebellar artery- spinotbalamic tract
What arterial occlusion results in the following syndromes (Name artery and specific region.): Nystagmus away from the lesion?
Anterior inferior cerebellar artery- vestibular nuclei
What arterial occlusion results in the following syndromes (Name artery and specific region.): Ipsilateral Horner's syndrome?
Anterior inferior cerebellar artery- descending autonomics
What arterial occlusion results in the following syndromes (Name artery and specific region.): Ipsilateral facial paralysis?
Anterior inferior cerebellar artery-CN Vll
What arterial occlusion results in the following syndromes (Name artery and specific region.): Deafness?
Anterior inferior cerebellar artery-CN VIll
What is the name for the most prominent spinous process in the spine?
Vertebra prominens (C7 in 70% of cases, C6 in 20%, T1 in 10%)
What portion of the intervertebral disk is a remnant of the notochord?
What three muscles comprise the erector spinae?
1. Iliocostalis 2. Longissimus 3. Spinalis
What are the names given to the first and second cervical vertebrae?
To what vertebral level does the spinal cord extend?
LI to L2
What is the name of the extension of the dura mater that attaches at the level of S2?
External filum terminale
How many pairs of spinal nerves exit from the spinal cord?
What is the name of the region where the manubrium and the body of the sternum articulate?
Sternal angle of Louis
What muscle originates from the third to the fifth ribs and inserts into the coracoid process?
Damage to what nerve will give you "winged scapula'."?
Long thoracic nerve To avoid confusing long thoracic nerve and lateral thoracic artery: Long has an "n" for nerve; lateral 3 & has an "a" for artery.
The ventral rami of what regions of the spinal cord make up the brachial plexus?
What bone houses the ulnar groove?
Humerus (between the medial epicondyle and the trochlea)
What muscle initiates Abduction of the arm?
What muscle acts in all ranges of motion of the arm?
What nerve is damaged if a patient presents with "wrist drop"?
What forms the anatomic snuff box?
Extensor pollicis longus, abductor pollicis longus, extensor pollicis brevis
What vein, in the antecubital fossa, forms the communica- tion between the basilic vein and the cephalic vein?
Median cubital vein (most common site for venipuncture)
What two muscles are inner- vated by the axillary nerve?
Deltoid and teres minor
What nerve is compromised in carpal tunnel syndrome?
In what compartment of the thigh is the profundus femoris artery found?
Anterior compartment (it's the blood supply to the posterior compartment)
Foot drop is caused by a compromise in what nerve?
Common peroneal nerve
What nerve is damaged if the patient cannot ADduct the thigh?
Obturator nerve (nerve to the medial compartment of the thigh)
What is the longest muscle of the body?
What two nerves innervate the pectineus muscle?
Femoral and obturator nerves
What superficial vein empties into the popliteal fossa?
Short saphenous vein
What is the artery of the anterior compartment of the leg?
Anterior tibia] artery
What nerve supplies the lateral compartment of the leg?
Superficial peroneal nerve
What sensory nerve are you testing when you touch the first web space of the toes?
Deep peroneal nerve
The peroneal artery is a branch of what artery?
Inflammation of the pre- patellar bursa is often referred to as what?
What is the prominent "bump" on the lateral aspect of the knee?
Head of the fibula
How many ribs articulate with the sternum?
Seven (Ribs 8, 9, and 10 articulate with the costal cartilage of rib 7.)
What is the part of the lung that extends above the level of the first rib?
What type of pleura is adherent to the surface of the organ?
How many lobes does the right lung have?
How are they separated?
By the oblique and the transverse fissures
Into what chamber of the heart do the pulmonary veins empty?
Left atrium (Remember-the pulmonary veins carry oxygenated blood.)
What is the only valve in the heart that has two cusps?
Mitral (bicuspid) valve
What vein travels with the right coronary artery?
Small cardiac vein
At what vertebral level does the trachea bifurcate?
T4-T5 (It is known as the carina.)
What attaches the cusps of the valves to the papillary muscles in the heart?
Around what thoracic structure does the right recurrent laryngeal nerve loop before ascending into the larynx?
Right subclavian artery
At what vertebral level does the esophagus originate?
At what level does the abdominal aorta bifurcate into the common iliac arteries?
The obturator artery is a branch of what major artery?
Internal iliac artery
What is the first branch off the abdominal artery?
Inferior phrenic artery
Into what vessel does the right gonadal vein drain?
The inferior vena cava
Into what vessel does the left gonadal vein drain?
The left renal vein
At what vertebral level does the common carotid artery bifurcate?
At what vertebral level is the hyoid bone found?
The ophthalmic artery is a branch of what vessel?
Internal carotid artery
What forms the portal vein?
The union of the superior mesenteric and the splenic veins
Where does the inferior mesenteric vein drain?
The splenic vein
What vein is formed by the union of the right and left brachiocephalic veins?
Superior vena cava
What is the only muscle in the larynx that is not inner- vated by the recurrent laryn- geal nerve?
Cricothyroid (It's innervated by the external laryngeal nerve.)
The folds of the mucosa of the stomach are known as what?
What is the artery of the embryonic foregut?
What comprises the portal triad?
1. Common bile duct 2. Hepatic artery 3. Portal vein
What structures differentiate the anatomic right and left lobes of the liver?
Ligamentum teres and ligamentum venosum
What structure "runs" along the transverse processes of the lumbar vertebrae?
To enter into the lesser peri-toneal sac, you must traverse through what foramen?
Foramen of Winslow
What is another name for the rectouterine pouch?
Pouch of Douglas
What bones comprise the acetabulum?
Pubis, ilium, and ischium
What two ligaments of the uterus are remnants of the gubernaculum?
Bound and ovarian ligaments
What muscles comprise the deep perineal space (the urogenital diaphragm)?
Deep transverse perineal and sphincter urethrae
What three ligaments com- prise the broad ligament of the uterus?
1. Mesosalpinx 2. Mesovarium 3. Mesometrium
What structure traverses the diaphragm at the level of T8?
What are the components of the pudendal canal?
Pudendal nerve and internal pudendal artery and vein
What range of movements can be performed at the metacarpal/phalangealjoint?
Flexion/extension, ABduction, and ADduction
A fracture of the surgical neck of the humerus will most likely damage what nerve?
What compartment of the lower extremity allows flexion of the hip and extension of the knee?
Anterior compartment of the thigh
What nerve roots comprise the lumbosacral plexus?
L4 to S4
What is the function of gray rami communicans?
They are postganglionic sympathetic axons.
What compartment of the lower extremities allows ADduction of the thigh and flexion of the hip?
Medial compartment of the thigh
What are the only splanchnics in the body that carry preganglionic parasympathetic fibers?
Pelvic splanchnics (P begins preganglionic, parasympathetic, and pelvic.)
What postganglionic parasympathetic ganglion is associated with CN III?
What is the name of the ganglion that houses the cell bodies for the postganglionic sympathetic fibers to the head and neck?
Superior cervical ganglion
What two muscles do you test to see if CN XI is intact?
Trapezius and sternocleidoinastoid
What component of the corneal reflex is lost in a CN VII deficit?
Toward what side would the uvula point if the right CN X were damaged?
The left (points to the unaffected side)
What is the name of the urinary bladder where the ureters enter and the urethra exits?
What is the only organ in the body supplied by preganglionic sympathetic fibers?
The pudendal canal is formed by splitting the fascia of what muscle?
What is the name of the duct formed by the union of the vas deferens and the duct of the seminal vesicle?
What are the fingerlike projections at the end of the fallopian (uterine) tubes?
Where is the seminal vesicle located?
On the posterior aspect of the urinary bladder
What vessel can be found atop the scalene anterior?
What muscle divides the anterior from the posterior triangles of the neck?
Where does the parotid (Stenson's) duct enter the oral cavity?
Opposite the second upper molar tooth
What is the function of the arachnoid granulations?
Resorb CSF into the blood
What muscle is the most superiorly situated muscle in the orbit?
Levator palpebrae superioris
What is the triad of Horner's syndrome?
Miosis, ptosis, and anhydrosis
What bone of the middle ear articulates with the tympanic membrane?
What chamber of the eye is located between the iris and the lens?
What bone houses the ear?
What is the only muscle of the tongue not innervated by the hypoglossal nerve?
Where does the nasolacrimal duct terminate?
Inferior meatus of the nasal cavity
What gland is found in the muscular triangle of the neck?
What two regions of the vertebral column are con- sidered primary curvatures?
Thoracic and sacral
What are the only muscles in the body innervated by dorsal rami?
Intrinsic (deep) muscles of the back (All other muscles are innervated by ventral rami.)
What is the portion of the second cervical vertebra that projects superiorly to act as the body for C1?
Odontoid (dens) process
What is the actual space that contains CSF?
What is the protective covering that is adherent to the spinal cord and CNS tissue?
What is the name of the spinal cord that passes within the subarachnoid space that forms the spinal nerves that exit the lumbar and sacral foramina?
What are the names ligaments that would pierced, in order, by a lumbar puncture?
1. Supraspinous ligament 2. Interspinous ligament 3. Ligamentum flavum
What is the inferiormost segment of the sternum?
True or false-the pectoralis major medially rotates the arm?
True; it also ADducts and flexes the arm.
What are the borders of the axillary artery?
Lateral border of the first rib to the inferior border of the teres major
What vessels arise from the three segments of the axillary artery?
1. Superior thoracic artery 2. Lateral thoracic artery and thoracoacromial trunk 3. Subscapular artery, and the anterior and posterior humeral circumflex One artery from the first segment, two arteries from the second segment, and three arteries from the
What muscle is the main lateral rotator of the arm?
What innervates the flexor compartment of the arm?
What nerve is most commonly affected when there is a fracture of the midshaft of the humerus?
Radial nerve C deer "(Int4.1 a .
What vein courses along the medial aspect of the forearm?
What is the blood vessel in the upper extremity most commonly palpated while taking a pulse?
What is the nerve supply to the forearm?
Median nerve (except for the flexor carpi ulnaris and flexor digiti profundus muscles of the pinkie and ring finger, which are supplied by the ulnar)
What are the "LOAF" muscles of the hand?
LOAF stands for the muscles of the hand innervated by the median nerve: Lumbricales, Opponens pollicis, Abductor pollicis brevis, and Flexor pollicis brevis; All other intrinsic muscles in the hand are innervated by the ulnar nerve
What muscles in the hand ADduct the fingers?
The palmer interosseus adducts, whereas the dorsal interosseus abducts (PAD and DAB)
In order to pronate the hand, what bones need to cross?
Radius crosses over the ulna
At what point does the femoral artery become the popliteal artery?
When it traverses the adductor hiatus
Loss of ABduction of the lower limbs results in Trendelenburg gait; what nerve is compromised to cause this?
Superior gluteal nerve
What two arteries join together to form the super- ficial and deep palmar arches of the hand?
Uhiar and radial arteries (ulnar is the main supplier)
What muscle "fills" the greater sciatic foramen?
What nerve is affected when a patient has difficulty rising from a sitting position?
Inferior gluteal nerve (nerve to the gluteus maximus)
Why are IM injections in the gluteal mass given in the upper outer quadrant?
To avoid damage to the sciatic nerve
What two nerves innervate the adductor magnus?
Obturator and tibial nerves
What two nerves innervate the biceps femoris?
Common peroneal and tibial nerves
Going from lateral to medial, what structures pass deep to the inguinal ligament?
NAVEL-Nerve, Arterv, Vein, Empty space, and Lacunar ligament or Lymphatics
What artery turns into the dorsalis pedis when it crosses the extensor retinaculum?
Anterior tibial artery
What is the nerve for the anterior compartment of the leg?
Deep peroneal nerve
What is the artery for the posterior compartment of the leg?
Posterior tibial arterv
Where is the "magical plane" that divides the superior from the inferior media- stinum?
A horizontal line from T4-T5 to the sternal angle of Louis
What vein drains the lower third of the thoracic wall?
If you were to do a pleural tap, what region of the intercostal space would your needle enter?
The superior border of the rib
Because the neurovascular bundle is located on the inner surface of the inferior border of the rib
What muscles of the foot are supplied by the medial plantar nerve (Hint: Think about the median nerve distribution in the hand.)?
LAFF-Lumbricalis (1st), Abductor hallucis, Flexor 3X hallucis brevis, Flexor digitorum brevis. All other intrinsic muscles in the foot are supplied by the lateral plantar nerve.
What remnant of the middle lobe of the lung is found on the left side?
The ventral rami of what cervical vertebrae innervate diaphragm?
C3, C4, and C5 keep the diaphragm alive!
At the level of rib 6, the internal thoracic artery divides into what two arteries?
Musculophrenic and superior epigastric arteries
What portion of the peri- cardium is adherent to the tunica adventitia of the great vessels?
The left anterior descending artery of the heart travels with what vein?
Great cardiac vein
What is the largest muscle in the body?
The middle cardiac vein of the heart travels with what artery?
Posterior intraventricular artery
What is the ratio of the myocardial thickness of the atria: right ventricle: left ventricle?
What chamber of the heart comprises the: Sternal surface?
Right ventricle and left ventricle
Left ventricle and left atrium
What structure does the left recurrent laryngeal nerve loop around before it ascends into the larynx?
The arch of the aorta
At what point does the axillary artery become the brachial artery?
When it crosses the teres major
What is the anatomic posi- tioning of the right and left gastric nerve plexus of the esophagus as they pass through the diaphragm?
LARP-Left goes Anterior and Right goes Posterior (because of the rotation of the gut -Remember your embryology!)
What muscles comprise the rotator cuff?
SITS-Subscapularis, Infraspinatus, Teres minor, & Supraspinatus
What are the five branches off the median cord of the brachial plexus?
Four Ms and a U- 1. Median 2. Medial antebrachial 3. Medial pectoral 4. Medial brachial cutaneus 3X 5. Ulnar
What are the five branches off the posterior cord of the brachial plexus?
STARS- 1. Upper Subscapularis 2. Thoracodorsal 3. Axillary ; & 4. Radial 5. Lower Subscapularis
What are the three branches off the lateral cord of the brachial plexus?
1. Lateral pectoral 2. Lateral head of the median 3. Musculocutaneus
What are the four branches off the brachial plexus that arise prior to the first rib?
1. Dorsal scapular 2. Suprascapular 3. Long thoracic 4. Nerve to subclavius
What nerve innervates the extensor compartment of the arm?
Radial nerve (It also innervates the extensor compartment of the forearm.)
What muscles insert in/on the intertubercular groove of the humerus?
Lady between two Majors- latissimus dorsi, pectoralis major, and teres major
What artery is found in the lateral compartment of the leg?
None. The peroneal artery is in the posterior compartment of the leg.
What muscle laterally rotates the femur to "unlock" the knee?
What bursa is inflamed in "clergyman's knee"?
Where does the great saphenous vein terminate?
In the femoral vein
What comprises the "unhappy triad" of the knee?
1. Medial collateral ligament 2. Medial meniscus 3. Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) The severity of injury to these ligaments is ranked from bad to worst in relation to how many of them are damaged, and they are usually damaged in the order listed.
What are the two branches off the external iliac artery before it becomes the femoral artery?
Circumflex iliac and inferior epigastric arteries
From which three sources does the adrenal gland get its blood supply?
1. Superior suprarenal artery (off inferior phrenic artery) 2. Directly off the abdominal aorta as the middle suprarenal artery 3. Inferior suprarenal artery off the renal artery
What are the three branches off the celiac artery?
1. Common hepatic artery 2. Splenic artery 3. Left gastric artery
What are the three main branches off the inferior mesenteric artery?
1. Left colic artery 2. Superior rectal artery 3. Sigmoid artery
The inferior thyroid artery is a branch of what vessel?
What is the area of the carotid artery that is an 02 receptor?
Carotid body (The carotid sinus is a pressure receptor.)
What arteries join together forming the basilar artery?
Left and right vertebral arteries
What is the major difference between the veins in the face and the veins in the rest of the body?
No valves and no smooth muscle in the walls of the veins in the face
At what point does the sig- moid sinus become the internal jugular vein?
When it crosses the jugular foramina
What connects the lateral ventricles to the third ventricle?
Foramen of Monro
What connects the third and the fourth ventricles together?
How does cerebrospinal fluid leave the fourth ventricle?
Through the foramina of Magendie (medial) and Luschka (lateral) M in Magendie = medial; L in Luschka = lateral.
What is the lymphatic drainage of the gonads?
Lumbar trunk nodes (Lymphatic drainage follows blood supply.)
What is the lymphatic drainage of the pelvic organs?
Internal iliac nodes
What are the five clinical signs of portal hypertension?
1. Caput medusae 2. Hemorrhoids 3. Retroperitoneal varices 4. Splenomegaly 5. Esophageal varices
What is the region of the body where all tonsillar tissue can be found?
What are the three functions of the nasal cavity?
It warms, moistens, and filters inspired air.
What region of the pharynx does the eustachian tube enter?
In which segment of the duodenum is the ampulla of Vater located?
The duodenal/jejunal flexure is suspended from the posterior abdominal wall by what?
Ligament of Treitz
What are the three anatomic characteristics that differen- tiate the large bowel from the small bowel and the rectum?
1. Tinea coli 2. Haustra 3. Epiploic appendages
What is the artery of the embryonic midgut?
Superior mesenteric artery
What two ligaments together comprise the lesser omentum?
Gastrohepatic and hepatoduodenal
The quadrate and the caudate lobes are part of what side of the anatomic liver?
What is the artery of the embryonic hindgut?
Inferior mesenteric artery
The hepatic duct and the cystic duct come together to form what?
Common bile duct
What muscle forms the "bed" for the kidney?
What ligament of the uterus houses the ovarian vessels?
Suspensory ligament of the ovary
What three muscles comprise the pes anserinus?
1. Sartorius 2. Gracilis 3. Semitendinous
What are the 10 retro- peritoneal organs?
1. Duodenum 2. Ascending Colon 3. Ureters 4. Pancreas 5. Suprarenals 6. Descending colon 7. Aorta 8. Kidneys 9. Rectum 10. Inferior vena cava
What is the only cranial nerve with the ability to regenerate?
What duct transmits secretions from the sub- mandibular gland to the oral cavity?
What are the boundaries of the posterior triangle of the neck?
The stern ocleidomastoid, the trapezius, and the clavicle
What are the contents of the adductor canal?
Femoral artery and vein and saphenous nerve
What are the contents of the submandibular triangle of the neck?
Submandibular gland, facial artery and vein, nerve to the mylohyoid
What carpal bones articulate with the radius?
Scaphoid and lunate
What are the borders of the anterior triangle of the neck?
Sternocleidomastoid, mandible, and midline of the neck
What are the six cranial nerves that innervate structures in the orbit?
1. CN II-vision 2. CN Vl-sensory (ophthalmic division) 3. CN VII-lacrimal gland LR6 (S04)3 (to remember nerves below): 4. CN VI-lateral rectus 5. CN IV-superior oblique 6. CN III-all other muscles of the eye
What muscle keeps the stapes taut against the oval window?
What area of the posterior aspect of the eye has no photo receptors?
The optic disk is the blind spot.
What muscles are found in the superficial perineal pouch?
Superficial transverse perineal, ischiocavernous, and bulbocavernous muscles
What gland is found in the deep perineal pouch in men?
Bulbourethral gland; no gland is found in this pouch in women.
What pouch of the peri- neum houses the superficial fascia and the inferior fascia?
The deep perineal pouch (same as the urogenital diaphragm)
What gland is found in the superficial perineal pouch in men and women?
None in men, the greater vestibular gland in women
What are the five structures that traverse the spermatic cord?
1. Pampiniform plexus of veins 2. Vas deferens 3. Testicular artery 4. Nerves 5. Lymphatics
What are the borders of Hesselbach's triangle?
Rectus abdominis medially, Inferior epigastric vessels laterally, Inguinal ligament as the base
Which type of hernia goes through both the deep inguinal and superficial inguinal ring?
Indirect; a direct hernia goes directly through Hesselbach's triangle
What structure(s) traverse the diaphragm at the level of T10?
Esophagus and gastric plexus of nerves
What structure(s) traverse the diaphragm at the level of T12?
Aorta, azygous vein, and thoracic duct Remember: One at Ts, two at Tlo,three at T,Z.
What compartment of the lower extremity allows flexion of the toe, inversion of the foot, and plantar flexion of the foot?
Posterior compartment of the leg
How are the arm and the forearm positioned in "waiter's tip hand"?
The arm is medially rotated, and the forearm is extended and pronated.
What is the function of white rami communicans?
They are preganglionic sympathetic axons. They are white because they are myelinated.
What compartment of the lower extremity allows extension of the hip and flexion of the knee?
Posterior compartment of the thigh
What compartment of the lower extremity allows dorsiflexion, extension of the toes, and inversion of the foot?
Anterior compartment of the leg
What cervical nerves comprise the cervical plexus?
C1 to C4
What compartment of the lower extremity allows eversion and plantar flexion of the foot?
Lateral compartment of the leg
If the left hypoglossal nerve was damaged, which way would the tongue point?
To the left (The uvula points to affected side.)
In women, what is the name of the pouch between the bladder and the uterus called?
What component of the pelvic diaphragm forms the rectal sling (muscle of continence)?
What is the name of the comma-shaped structure that is attached to the posterior aspect of the testes?
What is the structure of the uterus that projects above the opening of the uterine tubes?
What is the region of the fallopian tube where fertilization most commonly occurs?
How can you access the lowermost point in the peritoneal cavity in women?
Via the posterior fomix of the vagina
Which type of hemorrhoids are painful?
External hemorrhoids; internal hemorrhoids lack pain fibers.
What are the five terminal branches of the facial nerve?
1. Temporal 2. Zygomatic 3. Buccal 4. Mandibular 5. Cervical (Two Zebras Bit My Clavicle.)
What two vessels come together to form the external jugular vein?
1. Posterior auricular vein 2. Posterior division of the retromandibular vein
What is the position of the eyeball if CN VI is lost?
The thyroid gland receives blood from what two different sources?
1. Inferior thyroid off the thyrocervical trunk 2. Superior thyroid artery off the external carotid artery, and sometimes off the arch of the aorta as the thyroid ima artery
What postganglionic para-sympathetic ganglia is associated with: CN VII?
COPS Submandibular ganglion
What postganglionic para-sympathetic ganglia is associated with: CN IX?
Pterygopalatine and otic ganglion
What postganglionic para-sympathetic ganglia is associated with: CN X?
What type of fibers are carried in the thoracic and lumbar splanchnics?
Preganglionic sympathetic fibers
How are preganglionic parasympathetic fibers carried to the embryonic hindgut?
Via pelvic splanchnics
What is the only portion of CN V that carries motor fibers?
Mandibular division (V3)
What portion of CN V is affected if the corneal reflex is lost?
Ophthalmic division (VI)
What cranial nerve is affected if you have a laterally deviated eye that is dilated with a ptosed eyelid?
Which cranial nerves are found in the midline of the brain stem?
CN I, 11, 111, VI, and XII ARN Add 1 + 1 = 2, 1 + 2 = VXF 3,1+2+3=6,1+2+ 3+6=12
What are the four muscles of mastication?
1. Masseter 2. Temporalis 3. Medial pterygoid 4. Lateral pterygoid
What happens to prevalence as: Incidence increases?
What happens to prevalence as: Duration increases?
What year of marriage is the peak year for divorce?
What is the formula for IQ?
MA/CA x 100 (MA = mental age, CA = chronologic age)
What are the three stages that children (aged 7 months to 5 years) go through when they are separated from a primary caregiver for a prolonged period of time?
1. Protest 2. Despair 3. Detachment
In statistics, what is the measured rate for: A whole population?
A subgroup of a population?
What percentage of suicides are committed by white men?
What is the primary method of nonverbal communication of emotional states?
Facial expression (the second is vocal intonation)
In what age group is illness perceived as a punishment?
0 to 5 years
In screening tests, what happens to sensitivity as incidence increases?
Nothing; screening tests have nothing to do with incidence.
What are the four exceptions to informed consent?
1. Emergency 2. Waiver by parents 3. Competency (only courts determine) 4. Short-term intervention
In what age group are children more afraid of mutilation or separation from a parent than of death?
4 to 6 years of age
Which variable can an experimenter manipulate?
What percentage of dementia cases are caused by Alzheimer's disease?
When is the only time that it is okay to break doctor- patient confidentiality?
If there is a threat of harm to others (Tarasoff's Duty to Warn)
Do newborns perceive a three dimensional world?
It is believed that newborns DO perceive a three-dimensional world, because in experiments they react defensively when an object is thrust in front of their faces.
What stage of sleep is associated with high pulse, blood pressure, and respiration rates, and is characterized by increased brain oxygen use, penile erection in males, and total paralysis of the skeletal muscles?
REM sleep (Remember as: Awake brain & paralyzed body.)
What three circumstances allow a child to be committed to institutional care?
1. The child poses an imminent danger to self or others. 2. The child is unable to care for himself daily (at the appropriate developmental level). 3. The parents/guardians have absolutely no control over the child, or will not promise to ensure the child
What is the leading cause of death in African American men between the ages of 15 and 24 years of age?
What is the pattern of motor development?
Grasp before release Palms up before palms down Proximal to distal progression Ulnar to radial progression
What stage of sleep is associated with slow pulse and respiratory rates, a decrease in blood pressure, and involuntary skeletal muscle contractions?
Non-rapid eye movement (NREM) sleep (Remember as: Idle brain in an awake body.)
What type of study is prospective-that is, it "looks to see who gets sick" by defining a population at risk of being exposed to a disease?
Cohort study (also called prospective, follow-up, longitudinal, or incidence study)
What percentage of babies with an HIV-positive mother will test HIV-positive at birth?
100%. At birth the mother's HIV-infected cells can be detected in the baby's serum. Six months later, however, only 30% of these babies test positive.
What disorder begins before 30 years of age; occurs predominantly in women; and presents with multiple medical complaints, with at least four pain symptoms, two gastrointestinal symptoms, one sexual symptom, and one neurological symptom?
Somatization disorder (Symptoms are NOT intentionally produced.)
What is the progression of copying shapes?
Circle, cross, rectangle, square, triangle (alphabetic order)
What stage of sleep occupies the most time?
What statistical analysis is used when you want to bring together many different variables to determine one conclusion?
What is the leading cause of school dropouts among girls?
What is the name of the somatoform disorder in which the person has symptoms or deficits suggestive of a medical condition, which are initiated or made worse by stressors?
Conversion disorder (The male-to-female ratio is about 1:5.)
In what stage of psychosexual development (according to Freud) do children resolve the Oedipus complex?
Latency stage (6 to 12 years)
On what part of the body does sleep deprivation have the greatest effect?
What is the square of the standard deviation?
What is the application of an unavoidable stimulus followed by an animal's failure to cope (when coping would otherwise be possible) known as?
Learned helplessness (e.g., Skinner box)
In what somatoform disorder does the person present with a fear of illness despite appropriate medical evaluation and reassurance, and often uses the opening line "I think I have . . . "?
In biostatistics, what are the three criteria required to increase power?
1. Large sample size 2. Large effect size 3. Type I error is greater
True or false-IQ is a predictor of academic achievement?
True-it is a predictor but not an indicator.
At what age does IQ become stable?
On the psychosocial stressor scale, what factor receives the highest rating?
Death of a spouse
What is the term for the biologic predisposition to be sensitive to particular stimuli and to associate them with an unconditioned stimulus?
In what somatoform disorder with two subtypes does the patient experiences pain in a body part without any discernible organic cause (One subtype is associated with psychological factors, and the other with both physical and psychological factors.)?
In what type of somatoform disorder does a person have an unrealistically negative evaluation of some aspect of his or her personal appearance?
Body dysmorphic disorder
At what stage of psychosexual development (according to Freud) do children fear castration?
Phallic stage (4 to 6 years)
True or false-only men have sexual refractory periods?
True-some women can have multiple successive orgasms without a break.
What is the term for involuntary vulgar or obscene utterances?
Coprolalia (seen 30% of the time as a feature of Tourette's syndrome)
At what stage of cognitive development (according to Piaget) do children: See death as irreversible?
Concrete operations (6 to 12 years)
At what stage of cognitive development (according to Piaget) do children: Have abstract thinking?
Formal operations ( > 12 years)
At what stage of cognitive development (according to Piaget) do children: Lack law of conservation and are egocentric?
Preoperational (2 to 6 years)
What hormone is inhibited by sleep?
With what stage of sleep are nightmares associated?
REM=`remember them" ;
With what stage of sleep are night terrors associated?
Stage 4-they are not remembered
What percentage of patients with HIV have AIDS dementia complex before death?
70% to 95%
What is the triad of normal pressure hydrocephalus?
Dementia, gait apraxia, and urinary incontinence
What category of symptoms of schizophrenia associated with muscarinic receptors include affective flattening, social withdrawal, apathy, anhedonia, poverty of thought and of content of speech, and lack of interest?
Negative symptoms (type II)
In biostatistics, what type of error is due to chance?
Dementia is associated with a decrease in what neurotransmitter in the amygdala, hippocampus, and temporal neocortex?
Name the incurable disease affecting adults which is a spongiform encephalopathy caused by a prion ; is fatal usually within 1 year of onset; results in cortical and cerebellar atrophy; and is characterized by a rapidly progressive dementia with myoclonus
What disease, occurring in patients approximately 40 years of age, is characterized by autosomal dominant inheritance associated with chromosome 4, atrophied caudate nucleus, choreoathetoid movements, and progressive dementia (Hint: Patients commonly comm
What DSM-IV axis II diagnosis would the following patient fulfill: perfectionist, male, first born, preoccupied with rules, harsh discipline upbringing, lacks sense of humor, inflexible, miserly?
What symptoms of schizophrenia associated with dopamine receptors include delusions, hallucinations, and agitation?
Positive symptoms (type I)
In biostatistics, what type of error has unanticipated factors that obscure the relationship and cause a bias?
What is the most frequently occurring value in a set?
What is the difference between the highest and the lowest scores in a set?
What type of study has diffusional effects if you separate the groups and test the entire population?
What type of study is under the greatest possible degree of control of the investigator?
In what type of skew is the tail to the right and the mean greater than the median?
In what type of error is the null hypothesis rejected when it is true?
Type I error (alpha error)
If the P-value is less than or equal to .05, what do you do to the null hypothesis?
What is the single best predictor of suicide?
Previous suicide attempt
What is the leading cause of death in men between the ages of 25 and 44 years of age?
What is the foremost cause of cancer death in both men and women?
What are the top three causes of infant mortality?
1. Birth defects 2. Low birth weight 3. SIDS
What is the most common form of sexually transmitted disease (STD)?
Human papilloma virus (HPV) infection
What is the primary cause of injury to American women?
What is the leading cause of preventable mental retardation?
Fetal alcohol syndrome
What is the most abused drug for people of all ages?
What is the most common bacterial STD?
Chlamydia trachomatis infection
How many teenagers become pregnant each year?
What drug is used to prevent alcohol consumption by blocking aldehyde dehydrogenase?
Which drug is used to treat opiate withdrawal, attention deficit hyperactive disorder (ADHD), and sometimes Tourette's syndrome?
Which drug is used to treat the respiratory depression associated with an overdose of opioids?
Naloxone or naltrexone
Which opioid agonist, more addictive than heroin, is used in the treatment of heroin dependence?
What type of reinforcement strengthens each response and involves fast learning and fast extinction?
According to operant conditioning theory, what type of reinforcement is occurring in avoidance behaviors such as phobias and compulsive rituals?
What form of learning occurs when, for example, a child watches her mother react in fear to a snake, and learns to be afraid of snakes?
Modeling or observational learning
What is the term for silently removing a reinforcement without the patient's awareness?
What is the name of the technique used to treat avoidance or obsessive-compulsive behaviors, in which patients are gradually confronted with the objects or situations they fear?
In what type of conditioning is the stimulus that produces a deviant behavior paired with an unpleasant stimulus?
What is the term for removal of a stimulus in order to stop a behavior?
True or false according to social learning theory, people who believe that luck, chance, or the actions of others control their fate have an internal locus of control?
False-these beliefs are characteristic of people with an external locus of control.
Which IQ test is used for children between 4 and 6 years of age?
Wechsler Preschool and Primary Scale of Intelligence (WPPSI)
What is the most widely used projective test?
Rorschach ink blot test
What is the range of the low-average IQ?
80 to 89
What term describes the ability of a test to measure something consistently?
What is the name of the most widely used personality test consisting of 550 true/ false questions, in which the overall score is more important than an evaluation on an individual scale?
Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI)
What was the first formal IQ test, which is used for persons 2 to 18 years of age, proves best for children who are 6 years of age, and is used for the very bright or the impaired?
What is the range of the borderline IQ?
70 to 79
What court case decided by the New York Court of Appeals is know as the "best interest standard" case (In the situation of an incompetent patient, this case supports decision making based on what a reasonable person would want, given the patient's conditi
Brother Fox (Eichner v. Dillon)
What court case states that a woman has a right to privacy and to abort a fetus?
Roe v. Wade
If short-term memory and long-term memory are spared, but new learning is impaired, what is the location of the lesion?
Medial temporal lobe lesion
What is the term for return to an earlier stage of development?
What is the defense mechanism in which the person perceives his or her unacceptable feelings, thoughts, or impulses as belonging to another person?
What four characteristics define the sick role?
1. Exempt from normal responsibilities 2. Not to blame for the illness 3. Obligated to get well 4. Obligated to seek help
What is the defense mechanism in which a patient projects his or her thoughts, feelings, or wishes onto the physician or therapist?
What is the term for the state of being arrested in a stage of development?
According to Freud, what facet of the psyche represents the internalized ideals and values of one's parents?
What term refers to acting out the reverse of an unacceptable behavior?
What is the defense mechanism which involves "unconscious forgetting"?
In psychoanalytic theory, which mature defense mechanism uses comedy to express feelings and thoughts without causing personal discomfort?
Per Freud, with what part of the unconscious are sex and aggression (instincts) associated?
What is the term for: Wasting away due to malnutrition?
What is the term for: Sexual energy?
What is the term for: A purging of emotions?
Which defense mechanism involves preparation for future events?
What term describes conscious forgetting?
What is the term for the mature defense mechanism whereby one helps others with no apparent expectation of help in return?
What five qualities in an object attract a newborn's attention?
1. Largeness 2. Brightness 3. Contrasts 4. Curves 5. Complex design
What type of depression can occur in an infant if there is prolonged separation from the primary caregiver?
School phobia can result from failure to resolve what?
At what stage of sleep do you see sleep spindles and K complexes on EEG?
What hormone level increases in the first 3 hours of sleep?
Which stages of sleep decrease in length when a person grows older?
REM, non-REM, and total sleep time
What hormone increases at nighttime and is associated with seasonal affective disorder?
What are the five Kiibler-Ross stages of adjustment to dying?
1. Denial 2. Anger 3. Bargaining 4. Depression 5. Acceptance
What five things are checked in the APGAR test?
1. Sldn color 2. Heart rate 3. Reflexes 4. Muscle tone 5. Respiratory rate APGAR Appearance, Pulse, Grimace, Activity, Respiration
A baby's smile at birth is known as what?
What is the term for a baby's fear of unfamiliar people that begins at about 6 months of age, peaks at about 8 months, and is usually gone at 12 months?
What stage of sleep is assodated with theta waves and the disappearance of alpha waves?
At what stage of sleep is human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) output elevated?
What is the most prevalent sexual disorder in men?
What is the term used when someone has sexual orientation distress?
Ego-dystonic sexual orientation
What is the name of the painful involuntary muscle contraction of the outer one third of the vagina?
What is the term for inability to have an orgasm?
Anorgasmia (occurs in 35% of women)
What is the term for recurrent and persistent pain during intercourse?
What neurotransmitter produces arousal and wakefulness?
What hormone initiates sleep?
What hormone increases during REM sleep?
What is the term for the lack of respiration during sleep?
What hormone decreases during REM sleep?
What are the four pathognomonic signs of narcolepsy?
1. Cataplexy 2. Sleep attacks 3. Sleep paralysis 4. Hypnagogic and hypnopompic hallucinations (disorders of REM)
At what stage of sleep does bruxism (grinding of the teeth) occur?
What is an irrational fear called?
What three laboratory tests are used to test for probable depression?
1. Test for decreased levels of 3-methoxy-4-hydroxyphenlyglycol (MHPG), which is an NE metabolite 2. TRH stimulation test 3. Dexamethasone suppression test
What is the most common psychiatric illness in women, which presents as a vague feeling of apprehension or worrying accompanied by one or more body sensations?
Generalized anxiety disorder
An adult with a 2-year history of depressed mood, low energy, feelings of hopelessness, and low selfesteem, but with no major depressive episodes or manic episodes has what disorder?
What is the disorder in which the patient has concurrent symptoms of schizophrenia and depression or mania?
In statistics, what form of bias is at work when the experimenter's expectation induces results?
Someone who is excessively shy, has a fear of rejection, and is socially isolated has what type of personality disorder?
Avoidant personality disorder
Name the personality disorders described below: A person who has a longstanding feeling of mistrust or suspicion, no hallucinations, no delusions, and no antisocial behavior?
Paranoid personality disorder
Name the personality disorders described below: A person who is uncomfortable not being the center of attention, is an attention seeker, and has seductive behavior that is colorful, dramatic, and extroverted?
Histrionic personality disorder
Name the personality disorders described below: A person who gets others to assume responsibility, has difficulty expressing disagreement, and often has an abusive spouse?
Dependent personality disorder
What type of seizure is associated with young children and involves a brief loss of consciousness with minor motor activity?
Petit mal (absence) seizure
What is the drug of choice for treatment of Petit Mal seizures?
What neurotransmitter is responsible for allergic conditions, and regulates emotions and acid secretions in the stomach?
What is the primary excitatory neurotransmitter of the brain?
What is the major neurotransmitter of sensory neurons for pain?
Increased levels of what neurotransmitter, released from the raphe nuclei of the brain stem, is used to treat depression and also to regulate homeostasis?
What naturally occurring substances mimic the effects of opiates?
What neurodegenerative disorder is associated with frontal and temporal lobe atrophy and is manifested primarily as dementia?
What disease causes ceruloplasmin deficiency, hepatolenticular degeneration, and Kayser-Fleischer rings?
What is the main inhibitory neurotransmitter to the spinal cord and the brain stem?
The effect on a person's behavior caused by the act of being studied is called what?
What type of bias is involved when you ask leading questions?
What level of retardation is involved if a person has an IQ of 20 to 34 and cannot be trained but can learn basic habits?
What is the half-way point on the x-axis of a gaussian curve?
As prevalence increases, what happens to: Sensitivity?
As prevalence increases, what happens to: Specificity?
As prevalence increases, what happens to: Positive predictive value?
As prevalence increases, what happens to: Negative predictive value?
In medical screening, what is the term for: The proportion of individ uals with a positive test result for the disease that the test is intended to reveal?
In medical screening, what is the term for: The total percentage of correctly identified subjects for what you are testing?
What rate is represented by the total number of cases divided by the population at risk?
What is the name for the type of study in which neither the investigator nor the subjects know which participants are receiving the placebo (i.e., the control group) and which are receiving the test drug?
What is the term for the form of bias in which preconception leads to a biased interpretation?
What is the most scientifically rigorous study in which subjects in a population are randomly allocated into groups?
Randomized controlled study
In what form of trial is it unethical to withhold treatment from any specific group?
Crossover trial (e.g., azidothymidine [AZT] trials)
In what type of skew is the tail to the left, and the median greater than the mean?
In what form of drug trial do researchers administer regimens to humans to evaluate the efficacy and safety of a drug?
What term describes the average on a normal curve?
In reference to the tail on a curve, what is the greatest value-the mean, median, or mode?
The mean (mean > median > mode)
What type of scale has a true zero point and orders items with equal intervals?
What statement is the opposite of what the experimenter hopes to prove?
What is the degree to whichtwo measures are related?
Correlation coefficient (does not employ causality)
What term denotes the probability that the null hypothesis will be rejected if it is indeed false?
What is used to predict one variable from another with interval data only?
What type of error is made when you fail to reject the null hypothesis when it is indeed false?
Type II error (beta error)
What do you do with the null hypothesis if the P-value is greater than .05?
Do not reject the null hypothesis.
If the confidence interval contains 1.0, what would this indicate?
There is no significant effect.
What test is used to compare two interval scales?
What type of scale ranks with an equal distance between groups?
What type of scale ranks without distance or set spaces between the groups?
What percentage of a normal curve falls between ± 1 standard deviation?
A 95% confidence score means the z score is equal to what?
What is the term for the hypothesis that the experimenter hopes to prove true?
What test compares two ordinal levels?
What does a one-tailed null hypothesis state?
That one group is better or worse than the other (depending on what is asked); it is directional
What does a two-tailed null hypothesis state?
That two groups are not the same; they are nondirectional
What test is used when one interval scale and two nominal data sets are available?
Two-way analysis of variance (ANOVA)
On a normal curve, what percentage of the curve falls between ± 2 standard deviations?
What is the most common cancer in men?
What is the most common cancer in women?
What is the most commonly reported STD?
What is the most commonly made diagnosis in men?
What is the most commonly made diagnosis in women?
What is the most common cause of: Hospital admissions?
What is the most common cause of: Hospital days?
What is the most common cause of: Days lost from work?
Upper respiratory tract infection
What is the most common cause of: Ambulatory clinic visits?
What is the most common cause of: Work-related injury?
What are the CAGE questions of alcoholism?
1. Cut down 2. Annoyed about criticism 3. Guilty 4. Eye opener
What type of learning is described as an old response to a new behavior?
What type of learning is described as a new response to an old behavior?
What is the tendency to respond to related stimuli with the same response or a similar response?
What term describes any stimulus that will increase the probability of a response?
In classical conditioning, what is the cause of the original response?
What response occurs when a conditioned stimulus is added to an unconditioned stimulus?
What is used to stop stimulus generalization and discontinue a reinforcement that is maintaining an operant?
What sort of ratio is on a fixed time and has a continuous schedule?
Fixed interval ratio
In this form of reinforcement, not every response is reinforced, and the response is hard to extinguish and slow to be learned?
What technique uses successive reinforcements to establish a behavior?
What treatment used to treat anxiety and phobias is slow, stepwise, and based on counterconditioning?
What is the term for a stimulus which is introduced: To encourage a particular behavior?
What is the term for a stimulus which is introduced: To stop a behavior?
What is it called when a stimulus unconsciously controls a behavior?
What type of learning provides the organism with information about internal functioning via monitoring of autonomic function?
What method of learning involves a faced number of responses to obtain reinforcement?
According to Rotter's social learning theory, people who feel that they are in control of their own lives, and who believe that effort, care, and persistence pays off have what locus of control?
Internal locus of control
What IQ test is used for persons aged 6 to 17?
Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children-Revised (WISC-R)
What method of learning involves a varying number of responses to give reinforcement?
Variable ratio schedule
What is the range of the average IQ?
Which IQ test is used for persons 17 years of age and older?
Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale-Revised (WAIS-R)
Below what IQ level is a person perceived as being mentally retarded?
What method of learning delivers the reinforcement after an unpredictable period of time?
Variable interval ratio
What are the three advanced directives?
1. Oral directive 2. Living will 3. Healthy power of attorney
What defense mechanism involves temporary inhibition of thoughts or impulses, in which the person is aware that he is "forgetting"?
What defense mechanism involves defining things as either "bad" or "good"?
The qualities of an object are internalized, obliterating the distinction between subject and object, in what defense mechanism?
What defense mechanism is operating when a person avoids becoming aware of some painful aspect of reality?
What term describes the accuracy of a test?
Validity (You need reliability for validity.)
What court case upheld the parents' decision to forgo potentially lifesaving surgery for their infant with Down syndrome and tracheoesophageal fistula (known as the "letting nature take its course" case)?
The Infant Doe case
What are the three surrogate criteria?
1. What did the patient want, 2. What would the patient say, 3. What is in the patient's best interests
What court case established that the right of decision belongs to the incompetent patient by virtue of the right of autonomy and privacy, and that a surrogate can draw a conclusion about the wants and needs of the incompetent person, based on knowing the
Karen Ann Quinlan case
What are the four most common defense mechanisms used by obsessive-compulsive persons?
Isolation of affect, Undoing, Reaction formation, Intellectualization
What defense mechanism shifts an emotion or drive from one idea or object to another?
What defense mechanism involves the separation of oneself from one's experiences?
What mature defense mechanism substitutes socially acceptable intentions for those that are unacceptable, allowing instincts to be refocused rather than blocked?
The indirect expression of hostility is known as what?
What defense mechanism consists of an emotional or behavioral outburst to cover up an underlying feeling or idea?
What is the defense methanism in which the person uses a self-serving explanation for a belief or behavior in order to avoid the stress of admitting his or her true motivation?
What defense mechanism involves the separation of ideas from the feelings origiinally associated with them?
What type of smile appears at 8 weeks of age in reaction to faces?
What defense mechanism involves excessive thinking to avoid affective expression?
In what stages of sleep, known as "deep sleep," are delta waves seen on EEG?
Stages 3 and 4
In what stage of sleep, comprising 25% of total sleep time, are saw-tooth waves seen on EEG?
What type of smile occurs when a 14-month-old baby smiles at her mother?
What are the three characteristics of attention deficit hyperactive disorder (ADHD)?
1. Short attention span 2. Impulsivity 3. Hyperactivity
What is the drug of choice for treating ADHD?
Describe the normal bereavement period?
The person identifies with the deceased. The person has low suicidal tendencies. The period lasts for less than 6 months.
What percentage of stage 4, REM, and total sleep time is "made up" after sleep deprivation?
Stage 4-80% REM-50% Total sleep-33%
Name the reaction that appears in babies when they are temporarily deprived of their usual caretaker. (This reaction usually begins around 6 months of age, peaks around 8 months, and decreases at 12 months.)?
What are the characteristics of pathologic grief (depression)?
Greater than I year in duration, Abnormal identification with the deceased, Suicidal tendencies
What is the term used to describe ejaculation before or just after beginning a sexual encounter?
What disorder is defined by the following criteria: occurs during stages 3 and 4 of sleep; can't be diagnosed until 5 years of age; occurs more often in boys; occurs at least 2x a week for at least 3 consecutive months; and causes distress or impairment i
In what lobe of the cerebral cortex is the visual center located?
What disorder seen in late adolescence is characterized by normal weight, cavities, calluses on the back of hands, enlarged parotid glands, esophageal scars, and electrolyte imbalances?
Name the level of retardation in which the person has an IQ of 35 to 49 and is considered "trainable"?
What is the level of retardation of a person with an IQ of less than 20 who requires total care?
What are the pharmacologic effects seen sexually with: alpha-Blockers?
What are the pharmacologic effects seen sexually with: Serotonin?
What are the pharmacologic effects seen sexually with: beta-Blockers?
What are the pharmacologic effects seen sexually with: Trazodone?
What are the pharmacologic effects seen sexually with: Dopamine agonists?
Increased erection and libido
What are the pharmacologic effects seen sexually with: Neuroleptics?
What is the level of retardation of a person with an IQ of 50 to 70 who is self-supportive with help (This category includes approximately 85% of all mentally retarded persons.)?
What is the diagnosis of a child who is oblivious to the external world; has delayed language development and pronoun reversal; participates in head-banging; inflicts self-injury; and has no separation anxiety?
What is the probable diagnosis of a person who has a depressed mood and hypomania for more than 2 years (not caused by substance abuse)?
Cyclothymic (non-psychotic bipolar) disorder
What four factors are indicators of a good prognosis for a person with schizophrenia?
1. Late onset 2. Acute onset 3. Presence of positive symptoms 4. Paranoid type
What form of schizophrenia has no prominent psychotic symptoms at evaluation?
Residual or treated
What disorder that carries a high mortality rate is most often associated with girls in their mid-teens who weigh less than 85% of ideal body weight, have primary or secondary amenorrhea and presence of lanugo?
What disorder is described by the following characteristics: 41-year-old woman of low socioeconomic status; decreased levels of dopamine, thyroid-stimulating hormone, and norepinephrine; depressed mood most of the time; diminished interest and pleasure; f
Major depression (unipolar)
What is the disorder associated with an abnormally and persistently elevated, expansive, or irritable mood (manic episode) that alternates with depression?
What lobe of the cerebral cortex is responsible for emotion, memory, and language?
What neurotransmitter plays a significant role in Alzheimer's disease and memory function, and is also responsible for erections in men?
What lobe of the cerebral cortex is responsible for speech, personality, memory, abstract thoughts, and high-order functions?
What is the term for bilateral occlusion of the posterior cerebral arteries resulting in cortical blindness, where the patient denies he or she is blind?
Anton's syndrome (Visual hallucinations are common in relation to occipital epileptic foci.)
What lobe of the cerebral cortex is associated with motivation, memory, emotion, violent behaviors, and social-sexual behaviors?
What hemisphere is used for language and (for most people) is the dominant hemisphere?
Left hemisphere (Left = Language.)
What lobe is responsible for intellectual processing of sensory information for visual-spatial tasks?
The nondominant parietal lobe (usually the right)
What is the name of a report made from the outcome of a single clinical subject?
What is the main inhibitory neurotransmitter of the brain that is associated with anxiety?
Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
Movement disorders are associated with what dopamine pathway (what part of the brain)?
Nigrostriatal pathways (basal ganglia)
What neurotransmitter is low in depression and high in mania, is found in the locus ceruleus, and is the neurotransmitter of the sympathetic nervous system?
In which syndrome does a person present with intentionally produced physical ailments with the intent to assume the "sick role"?
Munchausen's syndrome (factitious disorder)
What dopamine pathway is associated with the "positive" symptoms of psychosis?
The tuberoinfundibular system is associated with what two hormones?
1. Dopamine (prolactin inhibitory protein [PIP])-inhibits release of prolactin 2. Prolactin
In medical screening, what is the term for the proportion of truly disease-free individuals who are correctly identified as not having the disease?
Of the number of people who are tested as being negative, the percentage that is truly negative is known as what?
Negative predictive value
What type of study looks forward in time (the subjects are followed into the future) and takes a long time to complete?
What type of study examines the relationship between diseases and other variables at one particular time, but not causality?
What study reports on the outcome of a group of clinical subjects?
Case series reports
What type of study looks back in time to provide some indication of past circumstances?
Of the people who tested positive, what is the term for the percentage that is actually positive for the disease?
Positive predictive value
What test is used when you have one interval data, one set of nominal data, and only two groups?
In a classic gaussian curve, what percentage of the curve is between: ± 3 standard deviations (SDs)?
In a classic gaussian curve, what percentage of the curve is between: The mean and ± 1 SD?
In a classic gaussian curve, what percentage of the curve is between: ± 1 SD and ± 2 SDs?
In a classic gaussian curve, what percentage of the curve is between: ± 2 SDs and ± 3 SDs?
In a classic gaussian curve, what percentage of the curve is between: ± 3 SDs?
What is the range for a high-average IQ?
110 to 119
What test is used when you have one set of interval data and one set of nominal data with more than two groups?
One-way analysis of variance (ANOVA)
What test measures spatial construction and drawing tasks?
Benton visual retention test
What type of personality is impatient, competitive, preoccupied with deadlines, highly involved with work, and has a high prevalence and incidence of coronary attacks?
Type A personality
What test uses nominal data only and has more than 25 subjects associated with the study?
What test uses nominal data only, uses a 2 X 2 table, and has fewer than 25 subjects?
Fischer exact test
In what two areas of learning do boys often excel?
Mathematics and visual-spatial tasks
What is the range of superior IQ?
120 to 129
What form of test shows one or more persons in ambiguous situations and then requires the patient to tell a story about what is going on in the picture?
Thematic apperception test (TAT)
Name the disorder described by the following symptoms: delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, disorganized or catatonic behavior, affective flattening, social dysfunction; persistence for at least 6 months?
Name the type of schizophrenia in which the person is preoccupied with delusions of persecution, frequently has auditory hallucinations, and shows little or no impairment in cognitive testing?
In what form of schizophrenia is the person child-like, primitively active but aimless, and most regressed?
Name the form of schizophrenia in which the person presents in complete stupor, has a rigid posture with violent/destructive outbursts, is mute, and has psychomotor disturbances?
What personality disorder does an estimated 75% of the total prison population have?
Antisocial personality disorder
What is the probable diagnosis of a person who suddenly and unexpectedly leaves home, cannot recall his past, and is confused about his identity?
What form of amnesia is usually retrograde, with the patient unable to remember facts about himself?
Psychogenic amnesia (Amnesia associated with head trauma is usually antegrade.)
What is the probable personality disorder of: A person who is shy and who has always been eccentric and content to be alone?
Schizoid personality disorder
What is the probable personality disorder of: A person who seems a little odd and who has magical thinking, ideas of reference, and illusions?
Schizotypal personality disorder
How does 1-tryptophan affect sleep?
It increases REM and total sleep time.
What disorder is described by the following: associated with great apprehension and fear; the person has three or more attacks in a 3-week period; the attacks can happen "out of the blue" and can be induced; the drug of choice is alprazolam (Xanax)?
In what personality disorder may a person be frequently suicidal, impulsive, have intense, unstable relationships, engage in risky behaviors, have fear of abandonment, and even self-mutilate?
Borderline personality disorder
The typical person with this disorder is an obsessive-compulsive 7-year-old boy with an elevated dopamine level, ADHD, and multiple motor/vocal tics for longer than 1 year?
What medications are used to treat this disorder?
Haloperidol (Haldol), pimozide, and clonidine
What type of seizure involves no loss of consciousness, altered sensory perception, and an EEG focal spike or a spike with a slow wave pattern?
Simple partial seizure
What is the probable diagnosis of a person with fragile self-esteem who is prone to depression, has a grandiose sense of self-importance, and needs constant attention?
Narcissistic personality disorder
What type of seizure is characterized by major motor activity, loss of consciousness, and no true aura?
Grand mal seizure
Name the type of seizure in which the person smells "burning rubber," has hallucinations and illusions, demonstrates automatism after aura, experiences focal sensory perceptions, and loses consciousness?
Complex partial seizure
What acute and reversible disease involving a thiamine deficiency is characterized by ataxia, nystagmus, and ophthalmoplegia?
What disorder involving a lesion of the frontal lobe (Brodmann's area 44) is characterized by the following: there is no problem with comprehension; the person has trouble repeating statements; speech is broken, telegraphic, and ungrammatical; the person
Where is the lesion if the person refuses to accept that there is a problem, neglects the left side, and has constructional apraxia?
Right parietal lobe
What disease involves a lesion of the superior temporal gyros (Brodmann's area 22), impaired comprehension, fluent but incoherent and rapid speech, and hyperactivity, but no muscle weakness?
What is the most common dementia in persons older than 65 years of age that is more common in women, and that involves diffuse atrophy, flattened cortical sulci, senile plaques, enlarged cerebral ventricles, neuro6brillary tangles, granulovascular changes
A lesion in what lobe of the cerebral cortex would present with euphoria, auditory hallucinations, delusions, and thought disorders?
Dominant temporal lobe lesion
What form of dementia is found in hypertensive patients, usually affects men between the ages of 60 and 70 years, is characterized by decremental or patchy deterioration in cognitive function owing to the cardiovascular disease, is of sudden onset, and ha
Multi-infarct dementia (vascular)
With what lesion do you see irritability and a decreased visual and music ability?
Lesion in right temporal lobe
Where is the lesion if the patient has apathy, aggression, and memory problems?
Where is the lesion if the patient presents with apathy, decreased drive, poor grooming, decreased attention span, and a poor ability to abstract?
Dorsal prefrontal cortex lesion
In what disease does the patient present with a history of insidious onset, worsening cognition, a normal level of consciousness, and often "sundowning"?
What reversible disease is characterized by a rapid onset in days to weeks, fluctuating levels of consciousness, impaired memory, and visual hallucinations?
Where is the lesion if the patient presents with fearfulness, explosive moods, decreased inhibition, withdrawal, and violent outbursts?
Orbitomedial frontal cortex lesion
What syndrome is characterized by the following: bilateral medial temporal lobe lesion, placidity, hyperorality, hypersexuality, hyperreactivity to visual stimuli, and visual agnosia?
If there is a lesion in the lateral hypothalamus, how does the patient present?
With anorexia and starvation
In what chronic and irreversible disease does the patient present with thiamine deficiency, confusion, confabulations, and amnesia?
Korsakoff's syndrome (alcohol induced amnestic syndrome)
Where is the lesion if short-term memory is spared, while long-term memory and new learning are impaired?
Where is the lesion if the patient presents with hyperphagia and obesity?
How is sleep affected in a person with alcohol intoxication?
Decreased REM sleep and REM rebound during withdrawal
What happens to REM, REM latency, and stage 4 sleep during major depression?
Increased REM sleep, decreased REM latency, and decreased stage 4 sleep, leading to early morning awakening
What aspects of sleep are affected during benzodiazepine use?
They decrease REM and stage 4 sleep
How do barbiturates affect sleep?
Rebound insomnia, Decrease in REM sleep
What is the rate-limiting step of: Glycolysis?
What is the rate-limiting step of: Gluconeogenesis?
What is the rate-limiting step of: TCA (Krebs) cycle?
What is the rate-limiting step of: Glycogenesis (glycogen synthesis)?
What is the rate-limiting step of: Glycogenolysis?
What is the rate-limiting step of: Hexose monophosphate (HMP) shunt?
Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G-6-PD)
What is the rate-limiting step of: Fatty acid synthesis?
Acetyl CoA carboxylase
What is the rate-limiting step of: ß-Oxidation?
Carnithine acyltransferase I
What is the rate-limiting step of: Ketogenolysis?
HMG CoA synthase
What is the rate-limiting step of: Cholesterol synthesis?
HMG CoA reductase
What is the rate-limiting step of: Urea cycle?
Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I
What is the rate-limiting step of: Heme synthesis?
Delta-Aminolevulinic acid (ALA) synthase
What is the rate-limiting step of: Pyrimidine synthesis?
What is the rate-limiting step of: Purine synthesis?
Phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate (PRPP) glutamyl amido transferase
What is the only fatty acid that is gluconeogenic?
Aldose reductase converts galactose to what?
How many ATPs are generated from glycolysis?
In the mitochondria, what complex is needed in order for pyruvate carboxylase to catalyze the reaction from pyruvate to OAA?
Biotin, ATP, and COZ
What is the enzyme for the oxidative reaction in glycolysis?
What three substrates control the enzyme phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase (PEPCK) for the conversion of OAA to pyruvate in the cytoplasm?
1. Cortisol (stimulates PEPCK) 2. Glucagon 3. Guanine triphosphate (GTP)
What is released from the reaction of phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase (PEPCK) for the conversion of OAA to pyruvate?
What enzyme deficiency causes cataracts, galactosemia, and galactosuria?
The addition of D-2,3-bisphosphoglycerate (D-2,3-BPG) to HbA does what to the 02 saturation curve?
Shifts it to the right
In what benign condition do you see excretion of large amounts of fructose after ingestion?
Essential fructosuria (fructokinase deficiency)
What is the glycolysis enzyme found only in the liver?
How many ATPs are generated per acetyl CoA?
12 (Not 15-that would be the answer if you included the pyruvate to acetyl CoA step.)
What enzyme is associated with the substrate-level phosphorylation in the TCA cycle?
The availability of OAA and acetyl CoA regulates what pathway?
What complex of the electron transport chain (ETC) is inhibited by malonate?
What drug blocks the FO portion of the adenosine triphosphatase (ATPase) system of the electron transport chain (ETC)?
In what two places is glycogen made and stored?
1. Liver 2. Muscle: Liver stores are for blood glucose; muscle stores are for energy reserves.
What drug blocks the ETC by attaching itself to K+ for passage through the membrane, negating the charge gradient?
At what step of the TCA cycle is FADH2 generated?
Succinate dehydrogenase (inhibited by malonate)
What inhibits complex III of the ETC?
What inhibits the ATP/ADP translocase of the ETC?
Thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP) is associated with what three enzymes?
1. a-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase 2. Pynivate dehydrogenase 3. Transketolase
What hormone stimulates glycogen synthesis?
Deficiency in what enzyme leads to insoluble glycogen formation?
The reduced nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADPH) generated from the G-6-PD reaction is used exclusively for what?
Fatty acid synthesis
What enzyme requires selenium (Se) to function?
What are the two essential fatty acids?
1. Linoleic acid 2. Linolenic acid
What intermediate of the HMP pathway is used to generate nucleotides?
A deficiency in what enzyme causes a decrease in oxidoreductase activity in neutrophils?
What are the nonoxidative enzymes of the HMP shunt?
Transketolase and transaldolase
Are the reactions they catalyze reversible or irreversible?
A patient who presents with cardiomegaly and hepatomegaly has what glycogen storage disease?
Pompe's disease (lysosomal glucosidase deficiency)
Very low density lipoprotein (VLDL) remnants are known as what?
Intermediate-density lipoproteins (IDLs)
What carries triacylglycerols (TAGS) and cholesterol from the diet?
What protein is required for the uptake of low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) in the peripheral tissue?
What 3 apoproteins are on the surface of chylomicrons?
Apoprotein B-48, C-II, and E
What protein carries free fatty acids to the liver?
What hormone is activated in adipose tissue when blood glucose levels decrease?
In the P-oxidation pathway, what enzyme generates the FADH2?
Acyl CoA dehydrogenase
How many ATPs are generated per acetyl CoA in [3-oxidation?
How many ATPs are generated per acetyl CoA from [3-oxidation if it is run through the TCA cycle?
What is the only organ in the body that can produce ketone bodies?
The liver (in the mitochondria)
What two tissues prefer ketone bodies over glucose?
1. Heart muscle 2. Renal cortex
What enzyme is absent in the liver so that ketogenolysis cannot occur?
What pathway utilizes HMG-CoA synthetase in the cytoplasm?
What two vitamins are inactivated when they come in contact with acetaldehyde?
1. Thiamine 2. Folate
What is the precursor of all sphingolipids?
What two sugars can be used to produce cerebrosides?
1. Glucose 2. Galactose
Where does the energy for the urea cycle come from?
What are the two major carriers of nitrogen from tissues?
1. Glutamine (most tissues) 2. Alanine (muscle)
What are the ketogenic amino acids?
Leucine and lysine
What is the storage form of folate?
What disease is produced by a deficiency in the enzyme tyrosinase?
Albinism (Tyrosine is converted to melanin by the enzyme tyrosinase.)
What two enzymes are blocked by lead?
1. ALA dehydratase 2. Ferrochelatase
Where in the body is heme converted to bilirubin?
Reticular endothelial system (RES)
What type of bilirubin is found in neonatal jaundice?
Indirect or unconjugated
What is the primary end product of pyrimidine synthesis?
Uridine monophosphate (UMP)
All amino acids have titration plateaus at what pH values?
PH of 2 and 9
What amino acid is a good buffer at a pH of 7?
What is the only way to increase maximum velocity (VmaY)?
Increase enzyme concentrations
What happens to affinity if you increase K„?
Affinity decreases (they are inversely proportional)
What two amino acids disrupt an a-helix?
1. Glycine 2. Proline
What amino acid is a phenol?
What enzyme requires molybdenum (Mo) as a cofactor?
What determines the rate of a reaction?
The energy of activation (Ea)
What substrate concentration is required to produce 1/2 Vmax?
What enzyme is blocked by allopurinol?
Xanthine oxidase ("suicide inhibitor")
What enzyme is stimulated by PTH to produce 1,25 vitamin D3?
What three organs are used to produce vitamin D?
1. Skin 2. Liver 3. Kidney
What vitamin is an important component of rhodopsin?
What G protein is stimulated by activated rhodopsin?
Gt (transducin), which decreases cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP) and closes the Na+ channels, causing nerve transmission
What are the vitamin K-dependent clotting factors?
2, 7, 9, and 10
What vitamin is connected to selenium (Se) metabolism?
What is the activated form of vitamin E?
What elements make up a nucleoside?
A base and a sugar
What is the most common methylated base?
DNA is replicated at what phase of the cell cycle?
At which end of DNA are new bases added?
What keeps single-strand DNA (ssDNA) from re-annealing during DNA replication?
Single-strand (ss) binding protein
What enzyme is responsible for producing a single-strand (ss) cut in the DNA to relieve the coil tension?
Topoisomerase I (relaxase)
What two amino acids are found in high concentrations in the nucleosome?
1. Arginine 2. Lysine
What three bases are pyrimidines?
1. Cytosine 2. Uracil (only in RNA) 3. Thymidine
What enzyme creates a short sequence of RNA to start DNA replication?
What type of enzyme is reverse transcriptase?
RNA-dependent DNA polymerise
What is the direction of transcription?
5' to 3' direction
Where is the TATA box in located eukaryotes?
25 bases downstream (-25)(promoter)
What causes transcription to stop in eukaryotes?
The poly(A) site on the DNA
What protein binds to the promoter region in eukaryotes to initiate transcription?
TF II D (transcription factor)
What part of the 30S ribosome binds to the Shine-Dalgarno sequence?
What is the start codon for translation?
What is the enzyme that activates the amino acids for the tRNA?
What is needed to direct enzymes to a lysosome?
Phosphorylation of mannose residues
What cofactor is needed for lysyl oxidase?
What part of the 50S and 60S ribosomal subunit is needed for elongation?
In the lac operon: At which site is the repressor gene encoded?
To which site does the repressor protein bind in order to inhibit transcription?
What amplification technique is used to generate a larger amount of DNA?
Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
What test is used to determine whether a gene is expressed?
At what organ in the body is urea produced?
What regulatory proteins work during fetal development to ensure that cells become a specific cell type (If there is a defect here, there can be profound structural mutations.)?
What is the mode of inheritance in which a trait is seen in every generation and is passed on only by females?
What is the name for the process of going from mRNA to proteins?
What are the components of a nucleotide?
A base, a sugar, and a phosphate
What enzymes hydrolyze 3'-5' phosphodiesterase bonds from the outside of the strand in?
What type of organisms have monocistronic mRNA?
In collagen, every third amino acid is this amino acid.
What form of continuous DNA, used in cloning, has no introns or regulatory elements?
c-DNA, when it is made from mRNA
What proteins stimulate a cell to enter the S phase?
At what pH is there no net charge on the structure?
pI (isoelectric point)
What complex of the ETC contains Cue+?
What two shuttles are needed to keep NAD+ in the reduced state?
Malate/aspartate and glycerol-3-phosphate shuttles
What vitamin is required for y-carboxylation of many Cat+-binding proteins?
From where is the energy for gluconeogenesis derived?
ß-Oxidation of fatty acids
What amino acid is broken down into N20, causing an increase in eGMP of smooth muscle resulting in vasodilatation?
What hormone phosphorylates enzymes to decrease their activity?
Lack of what enzyme can lead to Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome through lack of activity in the HMP shunt?
Thiamine pyrophospate (TPP)
What enzyme found in the liver catalyzes glycerol to glycerol-3-phosphate?
Which shuttle is used to bring fatty acyl CoA from the cytoplasm for ketogenesis?
Carnitine acyl CoA transferase II
Which enzyme is deficient in phenylketonuria (PKU)?
After approximately how many days of a prolonged fast does death occur in humans?
What is the cause of death?
The breakdown of the essential proteins of the heart and brain
All the carbons in a fatty acid are derived from what source?
Cytoplasmic acetyl CoA that left the mitochondria as citrate
What enzyme is deficient in alcaptonuria?
In a diabetic patient, glucose is converted by aldose reductase to what?
Sorbitol (resulting in cataracts)
What glycolytic intermediate can be used to synthesize triglycerides and phospholipids?
What glycolytic enzyme has a high Vmax high Km and low affinity for glucose?
What is the main inhibitor of pyrnvate dehydrogenase?
Acetyl CoA (pyruvate to acetyl CoA)
What are the two substrate-level phosphorylations in glycolysis?
1. Pyruvate kinase 2. Phosphoglycerate kinase
What are the eight liver-specific enzymes?
1. Fructokinase 2. Glucokinase 3. Glycerol kinase 4. PEPCK 5. Pyruvate carboxylase 6. Galactokinase 7. Fructose-1,6-biphosphate 8. Glucose-6-phosphate
In what cycle does glucose go to the muscle, where it is converted to pyruvate and then into alanine before being taken back to the liver?
In what cycle does glucose go to the muscle, where it is converted to lactate, and then returned to the liver?
What four substances increase the rate of gluconeogenesis?
1. Glucagon 2. NADH 3. Acetyl CoA 4. ATP
What enzyme is deficient in a patient who presents with: Liver damage and severe hypoglycemia?
Aldolase B (hereditary fructose intolerance)
Jaundice, vomiting, lethargy, cat, galactosemia, and galactosuria?
Galactose 1-phosphate uridyltransferase
What three substances stimulate glycogenolysis?
1. Cat+:calmodulin ratio 2. Epinephrine 3. Glucagon
What are the two inhibitors of complex I of the ETC?
1. Rotenone 2. Amytai (barbiturates)
What are the five factors that constitute the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex?
1. TPP 2. Lipoic acid 3. CoASH 4. FAD 5. NAD
What attaches to protons and allows them to enter into the mitochondria without going through the ATP-generating system?
What are the two decarboxylation steps of the TCA cycle?
1. Isocitrate dehydrogenase 2. a-Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
What are the three inhibitors of complex IV of the ETC?
1. Cyanide 2. CO 3. Azide
What three steps of the TCA cycle generate NADH?
1. Malate dehydrogenase 2. Isocitrate dehydrogenase 3. a-Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
What disease presents with weakness and cramps on exercise without an increase in blood lactate levels?
McArdle's disease (muscle glycogen phosphorylase deficiency)
NADPH generated from the HMP shunt is used for what?
Fatty acid synthesis, nucleotide synthesis, and glutathione reductase
Is linolenic acid an omega-3 or -6 fatty acid?
Omega-3; linoleic is omega-6
Is the oxidative reaction of the HMP shunt reversible or irreversible?
Irreversible (G-6-PD and 6-phosphogluconate dehydrogenase)
What disease presents with an enlarged liver and kidneys, dwarfism, hypoglycemia, acidosis, and hyperlipidemia?
Von Gierke's disease (glucose 6-phosphatase deficiency)
At what three sites can the HMP shunt enter into glycolysis?
1. Fructose-6-phosphate 2. Glucose-6-phosphate 3. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate 1
Deficiency in the liver glycogen phosphorylase enzyme is known as what?
What causes the lysis of red blood cells by oxidizing agents in a glucose-6- phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency?
The lack of glutathione peroxidase activity results in a decrease in NADPH production, leaving glutathione in the reduced state.
What disease presents with hepatomegaly and a normal EKG?
Glycogen storage disease, type III (Forbes disease, Cori disease)
What apoprotein is on the surface of LDL?
What carries cholesterol from the tissues back to the liver?
What apoprotein mediates the uptake of remnants by the liver?
What is the complex needed for acetyl CoA carboxylase?
Biotin, ATP, and G02 (acetyl CoA to malonyl CoA)
What are the three tissues where TAGS are produced?
1. Liver 2. Muscle 3. Adipose tissue
What delivers cholesterol to the tissues?
What apoprotein is produced by the intestinal epithelium?
What carries TAGS to the peripheral tissues?
How many NADPHs are used per addition of each of acetyl CoA into a fatty acid chain?
2 NADPHs/acetyl CoA
What apoprotein activates lipoprotein lipase in the capillary epithelium to hydrolyze TAGS?
What apoproteins are on the surface of IDL?
Apoproteins B-100 and E
From which two substances are phospholipids made?
1. DAGs 2. Phosphatidic acid
What apoproteins are on the surface of HDL?
Apoprotein A-I, C-II, and E
What is needed to produce a double bond in a fatty acid chain in the endoplasmic reticulum?
NADPH, O2, and cytochrome b5
What apoprotein activates lecithin cholesterol acyl transferase to esterify cholesterol from tissue?
What apoproteins are on the surface of VLDL?
Apoproteins B-100, C-II, and E
At the end of each round of ß-oxidation, what is released?
Acetyl CoA, FADH, and NADH
What two enzymes are vitamin B12 dependent?
1. Homocysteine methyl transferase 2. Methylmalonyl CoA transferase
What enzyme is blocked by disulfiram?
What hormone hydrolyzes TAGS to free fatty acids and glycerol?
What enzyme is deficient in a patient 2 years of age or younger who presents with vomiting, lethargy, coma, hypoketosis, and hypoglycemia following a fast of more than 12 hours?
Medium-chain acyl dehydrogenase
What form of alcohol did the patient drink if he became blind as a result?
Methanol (wood alcohol)
What regulates the rate of ketone body formation?
The rate of ß-oxidation
What intermediate enables propionyl CoA to enter into the TCA cycle?
What sphingolipid is formed by the union of serine and palmitoyl CoA?
What intermediate of cholesterol synthesis anchors proteins in the membranes and forms CoQ?
Farnesyl pyrophosphate (FPP)
What is the complex needed for propionyl CoA carboxylase?
Biotin, ATP, and C02
What are the three ketone bodies?
1. Acetoacetate 2. Acetone 3. ß-hydroxybutyrate
What type of damage to the kidneys is caused by drinking ethylene glycol (antifreeze)?
Nephrotoxic oxylate stones
What is the only sphingolipid that contains choline and p04?
Sphingomyelin (lecithin also, but it is not a sphingolipid)
What is the order of fuel utilization in a prolonged fast?
1. Glucose from liver glycogen 2. Glucose from gluconeogenesis 3. Body protein 4. Body fat
Sialic acid and amino sugars are needed to produce what sphingolipid?
What vitamin is needed as a cofactor for decarboxylation and transaminase reactions?
What are the two ways that nitrogen can enter into the urea cycle?
1. Aspartate 2. Carbomoyl PO4
What is the only enzyme in the body that uses N5 methyl folate?
Homocysteine methyl transferase
What enzyme deficiency will result in an increase in blood ammonia and an increase in uracil and orotate concentrations in both the blood and urine?
Ornithine transcarbamoylase (OTC) deficiency-also called ornithine carbamoyltransverase (OCT) deficiency
What amino acid is a precursor of the following substances: Serotonin?
What amino acid is a precursor of the following substances: GABA?
What amino acid is a precursor of the following substances: Histamine?
What amino acid is a precursor of the following substances: Creatine?
What amino acid is a precursor of the following substances: NAD?
What amino acid is a precursor of the following substances: N20?
What enzyme deficiency will result in an increase in blood ammonia, but no increase in uracil concentrations?
What are the glucogenic and ketogenic amino acids?
Phenylalanine, Tyrosine, Tryptophan, Isoleucine, Threonine
What are the three diseases of sphingolipids?
1. Niemann-Pick disease 2. Gaucher's disease 3. Tay-Sachs disease
What type of jaundice is seen in Rotor's syndrome?
Conjugated (direct) hyperbilirubinemia
What is the pyrimidine intermediate that joins PRPP?
What three amino acids are used to synthesize the purine ring?
1. Glycine 2. Aspartate 3. Glutamine
What enzyme is blocked by hydroxyurea?
What is the primary end product of purine synthesis?
What enzyme is deficient in hereditary protoporphyria?
What are the two precursors of heme?
1. Glycine 2. Succinyl-CoA
What enzyme is blocked by 5-FU?
What disease has a genetically low level of UDPglucuronate transferase, resulting in elevated free unconjugated bilirubin?
What form of bilirubin can cross the blood-brain barrier?
Unconjugated free bilirubin
What substrates are needed to produce carbamoyl P04 (de novo pyrimidine synthesis)?
Glutamine, CO2, and ATP via carbamoyl PO4 synthetase II
What enzyme is blocked by methotrexate/trimethoprim?
What type of jaundice is seen in Dubin-Johnson syndrome?
Conjugated (direct) hyperbilirubinemia (It is a transport defect.)
What form of bilirubin is carried on albumin?
In what disease is there a genetic absence of UDPglucuronate transferase, resulting in an increase in free unconjugated bilirubin?
What enzyme is deficient in acute intermittent porphyria?
Uroporphyrinogen I synthetase
What enzyme is deficient in congenital erythropoietic porphyria?
Uroporphyrinogen III cosynthase
What amino acid has a pKa of 13?
What two amino acids have a pKa of 10?
1. Lysine 2. Tyrosine
What two amino acids have a pKa of 4?
1. Aspartic acid 2. Glutamic acid
What disease has a genetic deficiency in adenosine deaminase?
Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)
What type of charge does the molecule have if the pH is greater than the pI (isoelectric point)?
A net negative charge
In what disease is there a deficiency in hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyl transferase (HGPRT)?
What is the end product of purine catabolism?
What enzyme is deficient in selective T cell immunodeficiency?
Purine nucleoside phosphorylase
What substrate builds up in Tay-Sachs disease?
On a Lineweaver-Burke plot, what type of binding has both plots crossing the y-axis in the same spot?
Competitive, reversible inhibition (Vmax is the same, increase Km)
What toxin ADP-ribosylates via GS protein to increase CAMP?
What vitamin derivatives are used for growth and differentiation of epithelium for reproductive and embryonic development?
Light causes isomerization of what in the eyes?
11-cis-retinal to traps-retinal (activated rhodopsin)
What are the two actions of calcitonin?
1. Increases Ca2+ excretion from the kidney 2. Increases bone mineralization
What causes an increase in bone mineralization and Cat+, as well as P04 absorption from the GI tract and kidney tubules?
On the Lineweaver-Burke plot, what type of binding has both plots crossing the x-axis in the same spot?
Noncompetitive, reversible binding (decrease in Vmax; Km is same)
What is the maximum rate possible with a given amount of enzyme?
To what are intracellular glucose levels inversely related?
Does a saturated fatty acid have double bonds?
No; unsaturated fatty acids have double bonds
What two factors cause PTH to be secreted?
1. A decrease in blood Ca2+ 2. A decrease in PO4 concentrations
What in the human genome differs in each individual that can serve as an identification marker?
RFLP-restriction fragment length polymorphism
What test is used to identify HIV-positive patients?
ELISA-enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
What toxin ADP-ribosylates via G to increase cAMP?
What vitamin is essential for normal Ca2+ and P04 metabolism?
What vitamin is deficient in a person who has impaired taste, night blindness, and increased risk for having an abortion?
What bond does an endonuclease cleave?
3', 5' internal phosphodiesterase bond
What protein separates base pairs and unwinds the DNA at the replication fork?
Helicase (It is an ATP-dependent enzyme.)
What vitamin deficiency would cause liver necrosis and red blood cell fragility?
Vitamin E deficiency
What protein catalyzes the formation of the last phosphodiester bond (PDE) between the Okazaki fragments to produce a continuous strand?
What is the hypochromic effect?
Increased absorption as DNA goes from double stranded to single stranded
What technique uses DNA for analysis?
In what direction is a new DNA strand made?
5' to 3'
What enzyme has a 5' to 3' synthesis activity and a 3' exonuclease activity?
DNA polymerase III
What enzyme makes a double-stranded cut through DNA, needs ATP, and introduces negative supercoiling?
What eukaryotic DNA polymerase is used for: DNA replication?
a- and delta-polymerase
What eukaryotic DNA polymerase is used for: Replication in mitochondria?
What eukaryotic DNA polymerase is used for: DNA repair?
What is the orientation of the gene sequence strand?
5' to 3' (same as RNA)
What is the location of the TATA box in procaryotes?
10 bases downstream
What binds to the promoter region in procaryotes?
What enzyme has a 5' to 3' synthesis of the Okazaki fragments, 3' exonuclease activity, and 5' exonuclease activity?
DNA polymerase I
What type of mutation has the same amino acid coded for, but with a different codonsequence?
At what position of the anticodon does the "wobble" hypothesis occur?
Position 1 of the anticodon (the 5' end)- which is the same as position 3 of the codon (the 3' end)
What are the three "stop" codons?
1. UAA 2. UAG 3. UGA
What stops transcription in procaryotes?
Rho factor or a hairpin loop
What are the three post-transcriptional modifications?
1. 7-methyl guanine cap on the 5' end 2. Addition of the poly(A) tail to the 3' end 3. Removal of introns
In what type of mutation is a different codon added, resulting in formation of a different amino acid?
What amino acid is attached to the 3' end of the tRNA in eukaryotes?
What enzyme makes tRNA and the SsRNA?
RNA polymerase III
What structure of a protein describes the interaction among subunits?
What two amino acids require vitamin C for hydroxylation?
1. Proline 2. Lysine
What is determined by the secondary structure of an amino acid?
The folding of an amino acid chain
Which mutation has a stop codon put in place of the previous codon?
What amino acid is attached to the 3' end of the tRNA in prokaryotes?
What enzyme makes rRNA (barring the 5s subunit)?
RNA polymerase I
What is the site of action of cycloheximide?
Peptidyl transferase (60S)
What translation factor is blocked by erythromycin?
Elongation factore G (EF-G)
What is the charge of the molecule if the pH is less than the pI (isoelectric point)?
A net positive charge
What technique uses the separation of proteins on a gel electrophoresis?
Lack of what vitamin causes multiple carboxylase deficiency?
What enzyme makes hnRNA/mRNA?
RNA polymerase II
What enzyme is deficient in cystathioninuria?
What enzyme is deficient in maple syrup urine disease?
Branched-chain keto acid dehydrogenase
What type of mutation has the addition or deletion of a base?
What is the site of action of puromycin?
Aminoacyl tRNA (A site)
What translational factor is blocked by both diphtheria and Pseudomonas toxins?
Elongation factor 2 (EF-2)
What substrate gets built up in Gaucher's disease?
What enzyme is deficient in homocystinuria?
Homocysteine methyl transferase or cystathionine synthetase
What substrate is built up in Niemann-Pick disease?
What is the second messenger system used by growth factors?
What is the name of the sequence on mRNA that precedes the start codon in prokaryotes?
What amino acid undergoes N-glycosylation?
What translational factor is blocked by tetracycline?
Elongation factor Tu (EF-Tu)
What translational factor is blocked by streptomycin?
Which organisms have polycistronic mRNA?
Prokaryotes: Polycistonic and prokaryotes both start with P.
In what disease are lysosomal enzymes released into the extracellular space where an accumulation of inclusion bodies compromises the cell's function?
What is the site of action of chloramphenicol?
Peptidyl transferase (50s)
What is needed to initiate translation?
IF and GTP (OF for eukaryotes)
What is the name of the process of going from DNA to mRNA?
Is the hydroxyl (-OH) end of DNA and RNA at the 3' or the 5' end?
3' end. Phosphate (P04) is at the 5' end.
What is the only factor of enzyme kinetics that the enzyme affects?
Ea (activation energy)
What tumor suppressor gene prevents a cell from entering S phase when no growth factors are present?
What tumor suppressor gene prevents a cell with damaged DNA from entering the S phase?
What factors are needed for elongation in prokaryotes?
EF-Tu or EF-is and GTP
What factors are needed for translocation in eukaryotes?
EF-2 and GTP
What type of inheritance involves carriers, affects only males, and skips generations?
What type of separation technique uses RNA on an electrophoresis?
What factors are needed for elongation in eukaryotes?
EF-1 and GTP
What factors are needed for translation in prokaryotes?
EF-G and GTP
What type of inheritance has no male-to-male transmission, and every daughter is affected from the father in every generation?
What virus is associated with intranuclear inclusions known as "owl's eye" inclusions?
What virus is associated with Negri bodies?
What virus is associated with Guarnieri bodies?
Variola virus -7-ox vtrcs
What virus causes small, pink, benign wart-like tumors and is associated with HIV-positive patients?
What viruses are associated with cervical carcinoma?
Human papilloma viruses (HPVs) 16 and 18
What virus is associated with erythema infectiosum or fifth disease?
What virus binds to: CD4?
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
What virus binds to: ß2-Microglobulin?
What virus binds to: Complement factor C3?
Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) - Qp7_1
What virus binds to: ACh receptors?
What is the only dsRNA virus?
What are the three non-enveloped RNA viruses?
1. Picornavirns 2. Calicivirns 3. Reovirns (PCR)
What viruses are associated with Cowdry type A intranuclear inclusions?
Herpes virus I and II
What virus is associated with the Norwalk agent?
What virus affects the motor neurons in the anterior horn?
What is the most common cause of diarrhea in children?
What virus lies dormant in the: Trigeminal ganglia?
What virus lies dormant in the: Dorsal root ganglia?
What virus lies dormant in the: Sensory ganglia of S2 and S3?
With what virus are Downey type II cells associated?
What are the four segmented RNA viruses?
1. Bunyavirns 2. Orthomyxovirus 3. Reovirns 4. Arenavirus (BORA)
Koilocytic cells on a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear are indicative of what virus?
What bacteria constitute the most common cause of nosocomial infections in burn patients and in patients with cystic fibrosis?
What organism is associated with pneumonia acquired from air conditioners?
What species of bacteria is associated with whooping cough?
What two bacteria are associated with drinking unpasteurized milk?
1. Brucella 2. Listeria (has tumbling motility)
What organism is associated with gastritis and ulcers?
What species of bacteria is associated with traveler's diarrhea?
Escherichia coli (enterotoxic)
With what organism is "currant jelly" sputum associated?
What is the most common cause of enterocolitis?
What organism is so infective that it takes only 1 to 10 organisms to cause an infection?
What organism stains bipolar and causes buboes?
Rice water stools are indicative of what organism?
With what organism are intracellular gram-negative inclusions in neutrophils associated?
What organism is most likely to cause an infection if you are bitten by a dog or a cat?
What organism needs factor X and NAD in order to grow on growth medium?
Haemophilu.s influenzae type B
What organism is associated with a rigid belly and rose spots on the belly?
What organism will cause an infection if undercooked or raw seafood is eaten?
What organism is likely to infect you if you get cut by a shell at the beach?
What infective bacteria are found in undercooked hamburgers?
Escherichia coli strain 0157:H7ss
What organism is said to have a "spaghetti and meatball" arrangement under a microscope?
What fungus is associated with rose gardener's disease?
What fungus is seen as colored cauliflower lesions?
What fungus is found in soil with bird or bat feces?
Which organism causes San Joaquin fever?
What fungus causes endocarditis in IV drug users?
What fungus is found in pigeon droppings?
What fungus is seen as a yeast with broad-based buds and a double refractile cell wall?
What fungus is stained positive with India ink?
What virus is the most common causative agent of the common cold in the summer and the fall?
To what family of viruses do dengue, St. Louis, and yellow fever belong?
What is the name of the bullet-shaped virus?
What virus is responsible for causing the croup and also the common cold in the young and the old?
What is the causative agent of orchitis, parotids, and pancreatitis?
What virus causes hoof-and-mouth disease?
Vesicular stomatitis virus
What is the most common cause of pneumonia in children 1 year old or younger?
Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
What virus is the most common cause of the common cold in the winter and early spring?
What yeast is urease positive?
What fungus is a facultative intracellular parasite of the reticular endothelial system?
What virus is helical and has HN and F glycoprotein spikes?
What is the most common cause of pneumonia in persons with underlying health problems?
What is the most common cause of pneumonia in young children?
What virus causes epidemic keratoconjunetivitis?
What is the most common cold virus?
What two viruses have neuraminidase activity?
1. Influenza 2. Mumps
What is the most common cause of diarrhea in infants?
What is the reservoir for the togavirus?
What two viruses cause pancreatitis?
1. Mumps 2. Coxsackie B40
With what two viruses are Reye's syndrome associated?
1. Varicella virus 2. Influenza virus
What is the most common cause of meningitis in: Children younger than 3 months of age?
Streptococcus agalactiae or Escherichia Coli
What is the most common cause of meningitis in: Non-immunized children 12 months to 6 years old?
Haemophilus influenzae type b
What is the most common cause of meningitis in: Immunized children 12 months to 6 years old?
What is the most common cause of meningitis in: Military recruits?
What is the most common cause of meningitis in: HIV+/immunocompromised persons?
What is the most common cause of meningitis in: Adults?
What is the most common cause of bronchiolitis in children?
What is the most common cause of urinary tract infections?
Which three organisms cause heterophilic negative mononucleosis?
1. CMV 2. Toxoplasma gondii 3. Listeria
What two genera are spore formers?
1. Clostridia 2. Bacillus
What bacteria are responsi- ble for woolsorters' disease?
What is the most common cause of bacterial pneumonia?
What bacteria cause subacute endocarditis and dental caries?
Which two organisms can cause sulfur granules in the pus?
1. Actinomyces 2. Nocardia
What species of bacteria is responsible for causing endocarditis in IV drug users?
What bacteria are responsible for food poisoning from rice, fried rice, and reheated foods?
Which bacteria present as a common cause of meningitis in renal transplant patients?
What bacteria get inoculated into the body by a puncture wound in the skin and also inhibit glycine and GABA?
What bacteria are found in poorly preserved canned food and cause flaccid paralysis?
What bacteria cause myonecrosis?
What bacteria cause pseudomembranous colitis?
What bacteria are associated with food poisoning from ham, potato salad, and custards?
What three bacteria are quellung reactive test positive?
1. Neisseria meningitidis 2. Haemophilus influenzae 3. Streptococcus pneumoniae
Which organism causes a painful chancre?
What is the most common cause of viral pneumonia?
What is the predominant anaerobe in the colon?
Which organism causes trench mouth?
Which organism causes Lyme disease?
Which organism causes Weil's disease?
What organism causes Q fever?
Which agent causes pneumonia in college students and military recruits?
What is the tetrad of Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction?
Rigors, leukopenia, decrease in blood pressure, and increase in temperature
Which spirochete causes Rocky Mountain spotted fever?
Rickettsia rickettsii (wrist to trunk rash)
Which organism causes trench fever?
Which organism causes epidemic typhus?