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Terms in this set (117)
who devised the first simple classification system for malocclusions ?
Dr. Edward H. Angle
In what year did Dr. Angle start the first school of orthodontics ?
In what year did Dr. Angle invent the first edgewise bracket ?
Dr. Angle discovered that bone growth and tooth eruption in the mouth could be ___________ to prevent an improper bite and incorrect tooth alignment.
what are the 3 goals of modern orthodontics ?
Create the best occlusal relationship
Create a stable occlusal result
Create acceptable facial esthetics
when smiling how many mm of gum tissue should be visible ?
what is the difference between male and female tooth shape ?
females= smaller teeth with rounded edges/corners
men= larger teeth with sharper edges/corners
how is the the classification of primary dentition determined ?
by the relationship of the distal terminus (surface) of second primary molar in centric occlusion
if mandibular 2nd molar is situated mesial to the max 2nd molar what occlusion is it
if mandibular 2nd molar is situated distal to the max 2nd molar what occlusion is it
if mandibular 2nd molar is situated aligned to the max 2nd molar what occlusion is it
flush terminal plane
in a flush terminal plane or mesial step molars, where is the location of the 3s ?
max is mesial to mand. 3
what can premature contact cause ?
True or False. Crossbites will fix themselves over time
A stage of dental development during the incisor transition, characterized generally by linguoversion of mandibular lateral incisors, malalignment and flaring of maxillary lateral incisors, and a median diastema between the maxillary central incisors. These aberrations may be self-corrective, but could persist and require treatment.
ugly duckling phase
what are causes of malocclusion ?
in normal occlusion what is the facial profile ?
what is the molar relation in normal occlusion ?
MB cusp of max molar is in the MB groove of mand molar
what is the canine relationship in normal occlusion
max permanent canine occludes with distal half of mand canine and mesial half of mand 1st premolar
what is the facial profile in class II malocclusion
what is the molar relationship in class II malocclusion
mesiobuccal cusp of the max is mesial to the mb groove of mand 1st molar
what is the canine relationship in class II malocclusion ?
The distal surface of the Md canine is distal to the mesial surface of the Mx canine by at least the width of a premolar
what is the facial profile of class III malocclusion ?
what is the molar relationship in class III malocclusion ?
mesiobuccal cusp of max 1st molar is distal to the mesiobuccal groove of the mand. 1st molar
what is the canine relationship in class III malocclusion ?
The distal surface of the Md canine is mesial to the mesial surface of the Mx canine by at least the width of a premolar
what can happen if impactions occur ?
can damage roots of adjacent teeth
which teeth are the most commonly missing teeth, order them from most common to least
3rd molars, mand. 2nd premolars, max. laterals
True or False. Spacing is a functional problem, not an esthetic
Esthetic problem not functional
anterior open bite usually results from what ?
Deviated swallowing pattern
overjet is usually a cause of what ?
class II malocclusion
why is treatment of rotated teeth required ?
to prevent sports injury,
to allow improved arch function
True or False. Cross bites cause premature wear of teeth, gum disease including bone loss, asymmetrical development of jaws, dysfunctional chewing patterns and makes your smile less attractive
Movements a tooth makes to attain and maintain a relationship with the teeth in the same and opposing arch.
describe the developmental stages of eruption
beginning of hard tissue formation
enamel completion (crown) after which actual tooth movement begins
approximately what percentage of the root is formed when eruption begins ?
what are some things to relief child of teething discomfort ?
Allowing child to chew on a teething ring
Eating cold foods
Rubbing the child's gum with your clean finger
Always maintain a well-balanced diet
eruption dates chart slide 59 week 2
True or False. Supernumerary teeth or ectopic teeth abnormalities usually have no effect on eruption patterns
what is caused by the fusion of the cementum of the root to the bone and accompanying loss of periodontal ligament attachment ?
which teeth are the most commonly affected during eruption, in order
mandibular primary first molar, mandibular primary second molar, maxillary primary first molar and maxillary primary second molar
a bluish, translucent, elevated, compressible, asymptomatic, dome-shaped lesion of the alveolar ridge associated with an erupting primary or permanent tooth
bluish, opaque, asymptomatic lesion which overlays an erupting tooth
The abnormal eruption of a permanent tooth wherein the tooth is out of normal alignment and causes abnormal resorption of a primary tooth
which teeth are the most commonly affected by ectopic eruption ?
permanent maxillary first molars, maxillary canines, and permanent mandibular lateral incisors
what is the most common supernumerary tooth ?
Enamel is softer, thin and may chip from the underlying dentin.
Enamel has a mottled brown-yellow-white color, incisal edges snow-coloured
May be confused with Fluorosis
amellogenesis imperfecta type II hypomaturation
The resulting disorder may include a localized defect, localized pitting, or generalized diminishing of enamel formation.
Affected teeth appear small with open contacts and rough surfaces due to very thin or nonexistent enamel causing thermal sensitivity.
Teeth may appear yellow, brown or grey
Amelogenesis imperfecta Type I Hypoplasia
Defect occurs during the calcification stage.
7% of all cases of Amelogenesis Imperfecta.
Enamel is of normal thickness but very soft and easily lost by attrition.
Enamel appears dull, honey colored and stains easily.
Amelogenesis imperfecta Type III hypocalcified
AAO recommends that every child have a check-up with an orthodontic specialist no later than what age ?
True or False. Teeth that are not in the right position are also prone to injury
what are the 6 keys of normal occlusion ?
1. Class I molar relationship
2. Mesial crown angulation
3. Proper crown inclination
4. No rotations
5. Tight contacts
6. Flat occlusal plane
normal maxilla and mandible
Class I skeletal pattern
normal maxilla/retrognathic mandible-95%
prognathic maxilla-normal mandible 5%
Class II skeletal pattern
retrognathic maxilla/normal mandible-80%
normal maxilla/prognathic mandible-20%
Class III skeletal pattern
True or False. Boys have growth spurt earlier than girls
what Provide tangible information used in the
evaluation of :
Teeth and oral structures
Facial and jaw proportions
Sleep apnea is defined as ______ or more apneic episodes (the cessation of airflow at the mouth or nose for more than _____ ____________) occurring during seven hours of nocturnal sleep
how long can obstructive sleep apnea episodes last ?
between 10 to 120 seconds, terminating with at least partial wakening
Airflow can become diminished if a person has a __________________
A septum can be deviated to __________________ narrowing the air passages
one or both sides
what are the filters in the nose called that can obstruct airflow when they become swollen often sue to allergies and nasal congestion ?
The risk for congestive heart failure increases by ______ times and the risk of stroke by _____ times with OSA
For clients with mild OSA what can be used ?
for clients with moderate to sever OSA what can be used ?
CPAP - poor compliance, noisy
medications (for allergies or nasal congestion)
what are some general measures to minimize OSA ?
avoid alcohol, heavy meals and medications that make you drowsy
what are some red flags/risk factors related to OSA ?
High blood pressure
Class II malocclusions
Small , retrognathic mandible
Steep mandibular plane angle
Genetics(trends through families)
Large neck circumference
Men- 17 inches diameter or larger
Women- 16 inches diameter or larger
what are some common intraoral red flags/risk factors for OSA ?
Large, low, flat, posteriorly positioned tongue
High vaulted narrow palate
Elongated soft palate and uvula
Class II malocclusions, crossbite
Edentulous(especially if sleeping without dentures)
Dental erosion (GERD)
Attrition associated with bruxism
what toothbrushing method is recommended for clients with braces ?
poor OH can lead to what when braces are present ?
Can lead to significant decalcification, caries and gingivitis and in some cases treatment should cease
act like needle and thread to "sew" floss under archwire for easier access to interproximal areas
that have threader and floss together for faster flossing
Small soft spiral brushes that can be used under wires and interproximally for cleaning debris and plaque around Orthodontic Appliances
True or False. Clients with Periodontal conditions can benefit from an Oral Irrigator
what types of food should be avoided when you have braces ?
Hard FoodsSticky FoodsFoods High in Sugar ContentAcidic Foods
Week 6/7 - what device retains space of a prematurely lost primary tooth and may reduce or eliminate need for further ortho intervention
what are the two types of space maintainers ?
what device adapts to distalize permanent first molars which have shifted mesially due to premature primary tooth loss ?
uses of a paedo partial ?
Effectively restores function/esthetics
Prevents malocclusions by limiting drifting and tipping
Prevents speech difficulty
what do habit appliances include ?
lateral tongue thrust
anterior tongue thrust
True or False. early orthodontic intervention guide the growth of the jaw
True or False. function appliances do not regulate the width of the Maxilla and/or Mandible
True or False. functional appliances guide erupting teeth into desirable positions
True or False. Functional appliances lower risk of trauma to protrusive maxillary incisors
True or False. Functional appliances rarely correct harmful oral habits such as thumb- or finger-sucking
True or False. Functional appliances reduce or eliminate abnormal swallowing or speech problems
True or False. Functional appliances rarely improve personal appearance and self-esteem
True or False. Functional appliances potentially simplify and/or shorten treatment time for later corrective orthodontics
True or False. Functional appliances reduce likelihood of impacted or ectopic permanent teeth
True or False. Functional appliances preserve or gain space for permanent teeth that are erupting.
what is used for correction of deep overbite or anterior crossbite, it improves vertical growth, prevents restriction on growth of mandible and is used prior to maximum growth periods when possible
hawley bite plate
what is used when there is a skeletal maxillary constriction and is most often used during growth period before ossification is complete ?
Palatal expansion appliances
which palatal expansion appliance corrects crossbites/occlusion, is used for children 13 and younger and is activated twice per week (1/4 mm each time), it is NOT PAINFUL AT ALL, DOES NOT REQUIRE SEPERATORS
which palatal expansion device is rapid, activated 1 to 2 times per day and splits mid palatine suture, not as gentle as Schwartz appliance since doesn't allow bone to fill in the void, REQUIRES SEPERATOR
Banded Hyrax- RPE(Rapid palatal expander)
Same as banded hyrax but doesn't require separators AND OCCLUSAL PADS ON POSTERIOR SEGMENTS HELP CLEAR POSTERIOR CROSSBITES
what is a removable/fixed expansion appliance that gains space through anterior advancement (moves premaxilla) and usually has acrylic pads covering occlusal to open bite ?
Maxillary sagittal appliance
which palatal expander is anchored to the permanent molars with a metal wire linking the two sides functions as a "spring" -- DOES NOT SPLIT PALATE ?
"w" expander or Quad-Helix
which palatal expander maintains anchorage in molars, maintains expansion after expanding the palate, prevents molars from drifting medially or lingually, maintains total arch length and is utilized when extractions indicated in mixed dentition analysis or expansion ?
Transpalatal or Lingual Arch
which palatal expanding device can be used after expanding the premaxilla with a saggital appliance and keeps premaxilla in new anterior position and prevents collapse
Nance holding arch
what device is used for mandibular arch expansion, limited usage, removable or fixed and has one screw
mandibular schwartz appliance
which mandibular expansion device is used for anterior mandibular arch, can be spring-loaded fixed appliance or Removable with 2 screws
which mandibular expanding device holds mandibular in anterior position, guides eruption of teeth into a more desirable bite, can be used to open or close a bite,aids growth proportionally of mandible to maxilla, must be removed for meals and brushing only, patient compliance is essential for successful treatment
which mandibular expanding device consists of two separate appliances that are worn on the upper and lower arches at the same time, max may have expansion screw and bit block over the molars, mand has bite blocked over bicuspids, HAS BETTER ACCEPTANCE THAN BIONATOR
which mandibular expanding device is fixed, holds or retrudes maxilla while enhancing growth of mandible, buccal rods can irritate cheek or lip
which mandibular expanding device is fixed and holds/retrudes the maxilla while enhancing growth of mandible ?
which mandibular palatal expanding device reduces submental crease, eliminates overbite, eliminates deep curve of spee, used in minor jaw discrepancy cases and compliance is not an issue
Pink modelling wax in hot water
Fold into a horseshoe shape
Bite registration required for fabrication of appliance
bite registration for functional appliances
which maxillary distilling appliance is a space regainer, distalizes first molars, can be unilateral or bilateral
which maxillary distilling appliance eliminates the need to wear a headgear or a functional appliance, uses the angle of the hard palate as an anchor to distils molars, takes 3 to 6 months
which maxillary distilling appliance incorporates hyrax and pendulum, expansion screw for arch widening and destabilizes molars ?
In a cervical or high-pull headgear device what is the purpose of cervical/regular pull ?
cervical/regular pull: retrudes maxillary molars
high-pull: intrudes maxillary molars
what is used to treat maxillary insufficiencies and treated mandibular prognathism
Petit Class III Face Mask (reverse head gear)
which phase is the final correction of tooth position, functional and/or skeletal problems
Phase II: Active treatment for permanent dentition
what are bite turbos/pads used for ?
for deep overbites
to open bite other wise client will bite lower brackets off
help clear an anterior bite
where are bite turbos/pads adopted on the tooth ?
lingual surface of maxillary anterior teeth and/or posterior mandibular 1st molar buccal cusps
what stabilized the dentition, allows for growth and development of the jaw and musculature and maintains the teeth in corrected positions ?
Hawley Retainer ?
what device aligns rotated incisors, teeth are reset on a working model, has a simple design and is used for orthodontic relapse
which device aids in positioning minor malocclusions, often used in cases of relapse, may be used to finish cases and can be used as a night time retainer to help maintain mandibular jaw position in Cl II cases
what device is an invisible retainer, comfortable/conveniant, and more fragile (cannot withstand grinding) ?
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