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Terms in this set (377)
what are the conditions for valid patient consent?
• The patient must be of legal age.
• The patient must be of sound mind.
• The patient must give consent freely.
• The patient must be adequately informed of the procedure about to take place.
what is an advance health care directive/living will?
• Preserves a person's right to make decisions regarding their own health care
• Names the individual authorized to make all healthcare decisions for them
• Can include specifics regarding DNR, DNI, and other end-of-life decisions
what is tort?
• A private/civil injustice
• Reparation can be sought
• Is either intentional or unintentional
Statutory law refers to
laws enacted by congressional, state, or local legislative bodies
what are the two kinds of laws?
public, private (civil) law
what are public laws
are any that regulate the relationship between individuals and government.
private or civil laws are?
laws that regulate the relationships among people. Litigation involving a radiographer's professional practice is most likely to involve the latter.
For Negligent Tort Liability, Four Elements Must Be Present, what are they?
• Duty (what should have been done)
• Breach (deviation from duty)
• Injury sustained
• Cause (as a result of breach)
spoken defamation is what?
written defamation is what?
Res ipsa loquitur
"the thing speaks for itself"
"let the master answer"
Examples of Nonverbal Communication
• Personal appearance
• Appearance of work area
• Facial expression
• Eye contact
• Other body language
febrile is defined as?
hot, dry skin
diaphoretic is defined as?
pale, cool skin
cyanotic is defined as?
bluish lips, mucous membranes, or nail beds
what is an objective sign?
the patient's appearance and condition, and any subsequent changes in them
what is a subjective sign?
are those perceived by the patient—how they feel, what is the level of their pain, etc
Normal Body Temperatures
oral 98.6°F (37°C)
rectal 99.1°F- 99.6°F
infant to age 4 years 97.9°F-100.4°F (rectal)
child aged 5-13 years 97.8°F-98.6°F
Common Pulse Points
radial- wrist; at base of thumb
carotid- neck; just lateral to midline
temporal- in front of upper ear
femoral- inguinal region; groin
popliteal- posterior knee
difficult breathing is termed
abnormally rapid breathing
difficulty breathing while recumbent
abnormally shallow, slow breathing
normal adult respiratory rate
12 to 18 breaths/min
respiratory rate of young children
Normal (resting) Pulse Rates (beats/min)
Normal adult systolic pressure ranges between
100 and 140 mm Hg
normal diastolic range is between
60 and 90 mm Hg
Prehypertension is present when blood pressure measurements are between
120 and 140 mm Hg systolic and/or between 80 and 90 mm Hg diastolic
Blood pressure consistently above 140/90 mm Hg is considered
Left undiagnosed and untreated, hypertension can lead to
renal, cardiac, or brain damage
. Hypotension is characterized by a systolic pressure of less than
90 mm Hg
Hypotension is seen in individuals with a decreased blood volume as a result of
hemorrhage, infection, fever, and anemia
Orthostatic hypotension results when?
they rise quickly from a recumbent position
Blood Pressure Is Affected by
• Cardiac output
• Blood volume
• Vascular resistance
The IV standard/bag should be how many inches above the level of the vein
18 to 24
Living organisms too small to be seen with the naked eye are referred to as
what are capable of causing infection or disease by destroying cells or tissues or secreting toxins
is a practice that retards the growth of pathogenic microorganisms
define medical asepsis
refers to the destruction of pathogenic microorganisms (bacteria) through the process of disinfection
define surgical asepsis (sterilization)
refers to the removal of all microorganisms and their spores (reproductive cells) and is practiced in the surgical suite
Alcohol-based hand sanitizers have been recommended as an alternative to handwashing with soap and water, except when:
there is visible soiling or after caring for a patient with Clostridium difficile (C. difficile) infection
Sterile technique is employed during which procedures?
invasive procedures, such as biopsies, and for the administration of contrast media via the intravenous (e.g., CT studies) and intrathecal (e.g., myelography) routes.
are causative agents—microorganisms capable of producing disease
Bloodborne pathogens reside in blood and can be transmitted to an individual exposed to the blood or body fluids of the exposed individual. Common bloodborne pathogens include:
hepatitis C virus (HCV), hepatitis B virus (HBV), and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
Factors in Infection Transmission/Cycle of Infection
1. An infectious organism/pathogen
2. A reservoir of infection and environment for pathogen to live and multiply
3. A portal of exit from the reservoir
4. A means of transmission
5. A susceptible host
6. A portal of entry into the susceptible new host
The reservoir (source) of infection is any environment where:
these pathogens can survive and reproduce, and ultimately pose a risk of transmission to a susceptible host.
A portal of exit from the reservoir can be any pathway by which:
pathogens are able to leave the reservoir
The pathway by which infectious organisms gain entry to the body is termed the
portal of entry
Modes of Transmission
• Indirect (e.g., fomite)
Other sources of infection:
There are three main modes of transmission:
droplet, airborne, and contact.
what are expelled from the respiratory tract through the mouth or nose and can be carried as evaporated droplets through the air or on airborne dust particles and settle on clothing, utensils, or food
A contaminated inanimate object such as a food utensil, doorknob, or IV pole is referred to as a what?
that is, transmission via what kind of contact?
fomite, indirect contact
what is an insect or animal carrier of infectious organisms, such as a rabid animal, a mosquito that carries malaria, or a tick that carries Lyme disease termed
Vehicle transmission includes anything that transmits what?
infectious microorganisms; examples of vehicles include contaminated blood, water, food, and drugs
Direct contact involves what?
Diseases transmitted by direct contact include what?
skin infections such as boils, multi-drug resistant organisms (MDROs) and sexually transmitted diseases such as syphilis and acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)
what is the most common HAI?
urinary tract infection
what are some examples of airborne based transmission?
what protective precautions do we use for airborne transmission?
patient: wears surgical string mask, private, negative-pressure room
radiographer: wears N95 particulate respirator mask if patient is not able to wear a mask, gloves; gown for blatant contamination
what are some examples of droplet based transmission?
what protective precautions do we use for droplet transmission?
patient: wears surgical string mask, private room
radiographer: wears gown and gloves as indicated; surgical string mask if patient is not able top wear a mask, except for H1N1 influenza when a N95 particulate respirator mask would be worn
what are some examples of contact-based transmission?
(antibiotic resistant organisms such as MRSA and VRE)
what protective precautions do we use for contact transmission?
patient: private room, wears mask if required by facility
radiographer: gloves and gown; mask for MRSA, if required by facility
what is the purpose of protective, or reverse, isolation?
to keep the susceptible patient/patients whose immune system is compromised (immunosuppression) from becoming infected.
Obtaining vital signs involves:
the measurement of body temperature, pulse rate, respiratory rate, and arterial blood pressure.
An abnormally slow pulse rate is termed
Symptoms of inadequate oxygen supply include
dyspnea, cyanosis, diaphoresis, and distention of the veins of the neck
Conditions often requiring oxygen therapy are
COPD, pneumonia, severe asthma, cystic fibrosis, sleep apnea, and others
what kind of oxygen therapy do COPD patients require
low flow therapy; high flow delivery can result in apnea
what is the is the most frequently used device that is used to supplement the oxygen in room air; its short prongs extend approximately 1 cm into the nares.
The nasal cannula
what kind of oxygen mask mixes oxygen with room air and can deliver specific (usually, high flow) concentrations of oxygen
The Venturi mask
what kind of oxygen mask (low flow) is best suited for short-term oxygen therapy
The simple face mask
what kind of oxygen mask (low flow) and non-rebreathing mask (low flow) deliver more precise concentrations of oxygen to the patient.
The partial rebreathing mask
what kind of oxygen masks (high flow) are most frequently encountered in a hospital critical care unit. Patients on ventilators have an artificial airway in place, whereas the ventilator controls the respiratory rate and volume
what to know about needles:
• Gauge: identifies diameter of needle bore/lumen
• Larger gauge: smaller bore diameter
• Smaller gauge: larger bore diameter
• Hub: part of needle attached to syringe or IV tube
what consists of a venous catheter established for a certain length of time to make a vein available for medications that have to be administered at frequent intervals
why are heparin locks are helpful?
This helps prevent the formation of scarred, sclerotic veins as a result of frequent injections at the same site. When repeated administrations of medication are needed, an IV catheter is often used
The term extravasation refers to what?
medication or contrast medium that has leaked from a vein rupture or has been inadvertently introduced into tissue outside the vein
The term infiltration refers to what?
the diffusion of the injected material further into adjacent tissues
which vein is the most commonly used venipuncture site for contrast medium administration
The antecubital vein
which vein, located on the dorsal surface of the hand, is used when the antecubital vein is inaccessible
The basilic vein, the cephalic vein may also be used
what is the needle angle for subcutaneous needle sticks?
what is the needle angle for intravenous needle sticks?
what is the needle angle for intramuscular needle sticks?
Allergic contact dermatitis (delayed hypersensitivity) results from exposure to what?
from exposure to the chemicals added to latex during its manufacture
what type of tubes assist in the removal of gastric secretions or air and/or are used for the administration of water-soluble contrast material
NG and NI/NE
Methods of Administration for contrast media include:
• PO (by mouth), through digestive system
what refers to any route other than via the digestive tract
topical refers to what route of administration?
applied to the surface
subcutaneous refers to what route of administration?
beneath the skin
intradermal refers to what route of administration?
within the dermis/skin
intramuscular refers to what route of administration?
within a muscle
intravenous refers to what route of administration?
within a vein
intrathecal refers to what route of administration?
within the spinal canal
what is the purpose of contrast medium?
The purpose of a contrast medium is to artificially increase subject contrast in body tissues and areas where there is little natural subject contrast
• Barium sulfate
• Other gases
what is the function of positive contrast agents?
The function of the positive agent is usually to coat the various parts under study, while the air fills the space and permits visualization through the gaseous medium
which exams frequently use double contrast technique?
Examinations that frequently use double-contrast technique are barium enema (BE), upper GI (UGI) series, and arthrography.
if a particular patient must be scheduled for a UGI series, BE, and intravenous urogram (IVU), what sequence will permit optimal visualization of the required structures?
the IVU should be scheduled first, followed by the GB. If the UGI series were scheduled next, residual barium would be in the large bowel the next day, thus preventing adequate visualization of the large intestine. Therefore, the BE should be scheduled third; any residual barium is unlikely to interfere with the UGI examination, although a preliminary scout image should first be taken in each case
what are the instructions following an UGI?
NPO after midnight
what are the instructions following a BE?
Cathartics, cleansing enemas
what are the instructions following a IVU?
NPO after midnight, cleansing enemas, empty bladder before scout film
what are the instructions following a GB?
Iodinated contrast evening before examination; water only in AM
More viscid (thick, sticky) agents are more difficult to inject and produce more heat and vessel irritation; the higher the concentration, the greater the viscosity; viscosity also increases as room temperature decreases
Potential toxicity is greater with higher concentration agents and ionic agents
Contrast agents should be readily miscible (able to mix) with blood
Low-osmolality agents have fewer particles in a given amount of solution and are less likely to provoke an allergic reaction
A patient with an NG tube can have the contrast medium administered through it for the purpose of locating and studying any site of obstruction is this procedure is termed?
Diabetic patients taking insulin who are scheduled for a UGI series are generally instructed to do what?
withhold their morning insulin but to bring their insulin with them to take after the examination
Symptoms of a mild systemic reaction include:
a flushed appearance, nausea, a metallic taste in the mouth, nasal congestion, a few hives (urticaria), and, occasionally, vomiting
Parenteral administration includes:
topical, oral, subcutaneous, intradermal, IM, IV, and intrathecal.
Positive contrast media include:
barium sulfate and iodinated (oil- or water-based) agents
negative and positive contrast agents are often used together in what kind of studies?
Qualities of iodinated contrast media that contribute to their risk include:
viscosity, toxicity, and miscibility
Water-soluble (absorbable) contrast agents are used in place of barium sulfate when what is suspected?
visceral perforation is suspected
what position is the patient placed in for a nose bleed?
The patient should be seated or in a Fowler position. The radiographer should place cold cloths over the patient's nose and back of the neck. Compressing the sides of the nose against the nasal septum for 6 to 8 minutes is also helpful
what is a decrease in blood pressure that occurs on rising to the erect position
Orthostatic, or postural, hypotension
what is the sensation of having objects (or "the room") spinning about the person termed?
what is the sensation of the person spinning about?
Involuntary muscular contractions and relaxations, often associated with epilepsy or other neurologic disorder, characterize
what type of seizure is so subtle as to go unnoticed by the patient and observer is termed
what type of seizure is characterized by loss of consciousness and falling, followed by generalized muscle spasms
what is a general term characterized by diminished peripheral blood flow and insufficient oxygen supply to body tissues
respiratory arrest is termed
absence of chest movement and breathing sounds
cardiopulmonary arrest is termed
absence of pulse and respiration with loss of consciousness
what is an interference with blood supplied to the brain as a result of occlusion or rupture of a cerebral vessel termed
A stroke or cerebrovascular accident (CVA)
What time describes the effects that become evident in the descendants of irradiated individuals
What is the purpose of placing a filter in the primary beam of a diagnostic radiograghic unit?
Decrease the number of low energy photons that reach the patient
Which of the following may have an effect on patient dose?
1. Milliamperage seconds
3. Beam restriction
What are some late ( long term or delayed) effects of radiation?
Cancers ( bone, lung, thyroid, breast) and local effects such as skin erythema, infertility, and cataracts
How are wavelength and energy related?
What is the effect on relative biologic effectiveness (RBE) as linear energy transfer (LET) increases?
As LET increases RBE increases
In 1906, bergonie and tribondeau established a law which states that cells are more radiosensitive if they:
1.Are young, immature
2.Undifferentiated ( stem cells)
3.Are highly mitotic cells
The principle function of filtration is to
Reduce low energy photons
What are the types of gonadal shields:
Shaped ( contour) contact
What is the primary function of a PBL mechanism built into the radiographic machine?
Automatically limits the primary beam field size
What are the stages of acute radiation syndrome?
Secondary radiations comes from?
Scatter and leakage
What are features of the fluoroscopy equipment , designed to eliminate unnecessary radiation the the patient and personnel?
1. Protective curtain
Primary radiation barriers must be at least how high?
Protective gloves work during fluoroscopic procedures should be lined with minimum lead equivalent of:
Radiation that passes through the tube housing in directions other than that of the useful beam is termed:
The NCRP recommends an annual effective occupational dose equivalent limit of
What is the established fetal dose-limit guideline for pregnant radiographers during the entire gestation period?
used to measure radiation "in air"
gestational exposure (overall)
monthly fetus dose
non- stochastic deterministic
includes all early effects
includes some late effects
The purpose of filters in a film badge is
to measure radiation quality
1/32 in Pb (lead)
any wall the primary beam should not be pointed at
radiation absorbed dose
SI unit equivelent- Gray (Gyt)
radiation equivalent man
SI equivelent dose- seivert (Sv)
7 ft high
1/16 inches Pb lead or 1.5 mm Pb
examples: floor, walls
effects that become evident in the descendants of irradiated individuals
oxygen enhancement ratio
defines the degree to which o2 improves the ability of radiation to kill living tissue
EqD ( equivelent dose)
D x Wr
Wr= radiation weight
general population annual dose?
1/10 of occupational
high energy (kvp high)
ejects outer shell electron
responsible for scatter
EfD ( effective dose)
D x Wr x Wt
absorbed dose= D
Tissue weighting factor= Wt
Radiation weighting factor= Wr
o2 rich state
o2 defeicient (without) state
relative biologic effectiveness
how much damage can be done
as LET increases RBE increases
directly related to LET
measurement of air
SI equivalent= gray (Gya)
properties of xray photons
travel at speed of light
travel in straight lines
penetrating effect on matter
ionizing effect on air
spectrum of energies
occupationally exposed individuals less >18 years annual dose?
very low energy xray photons interact with atoms, photon disappears as absorbed by atom, leaving the atom in an excited state, as the atom returns to a normal state, an identical photon emit but in different direction
includes most late effects
linear energy transfer
measures how much radiation is deposited into the tissue
as LET increases RBE increases
directly related to RBE
appear short time after exposure
usually as a result of high dose in a short period of time
should not see in diagnostic radiology
SED (skin erythema dose)
500 rad (5 Gya)
50% exposed population
> 5,000 rad/ 50 Gya
diarrhea plus ataxia
*death within 5 days
1,000 - 5,000 rad
plus electrolyte imbalance
*death within 2 weeks
low energy(low kvp)
eject inner shell electron and the electron from the shell above drops to fill vacancy spot
number 1 reason for patient dose
*short scale of contrast
REM is the same as:
roentgen is the same as:
air kerma (Gya)
the incident electron is deflected, with resulting energy loss
fluoroscopic procedures, image intensifier is primary protection barrier of:
2.0 mm Pb
Pb for screen drape
0.25 mm Pb
Pb for lead aprons _____ cardiac cath requires ______
0.25 mm Pb; 0.5 mm Pb
Pb for lead gloves:
0.25 mm Pb
fluoroscopic tabletop intensity:
less than 10 R/min
RAD is the same as:
control booth leaded glass ______ Pb equivalent and is considered a _______ barrier
1.5 mm Pb equivalent; secondary
mobile units min source to skin distance
fluoroscopy source to skin distance
fluoroscopic milliampers not to exceed
fluoroscopic total filtration required
205 mm Al
Functions of Skeletal System
• Reservoir for minerals
• Muscle attachment/movement
fluoroscopic timer (audibly, visibly or both) max of:
lethal dose is 50% of irradiated subject to die in 60 days
1st number is percentage
2nd number is days/time
Which of the following personnel radiation monitors will provide an immediate reading?
The radiographer's occupational dose should be recorded in what units?
Pb for bucky slot cover
0.25 mm Pb
can appear years after exposue
centering for PA/oblique hand
perpendicular to 3rd MCP
anatomy included in PA hand view
PA carpals, metacarpals, phalanges, their articulations
oblique projection of thumb
also described as synovial, are freely movable
centering for lateral hand in flexion/extension
perpendicular to MCPs
anatomy demonstrated in lateral extension view
superimposed carpals, metacarpals, phalanges, their articulations
*decrease 10 KvP for foreign body
are immovable; since fibrous tissue connects the bony contiguous surfaces, they are also described as fibrous articulations
centering for AP/PA/lateral thumb
perpendicular to MCP
described as cartilaginous, are partially movable
centering for PA/ lateral hand
perpendicular to MCP
anatomy demonstrated in PA hand view
PA proximal, middle and distal phalanges (usually entire hand examined in this position)
anatomy demonstrated in a thumb AP/PA/lateral view
three articulations should be seen: CMC, MCP, IPJ
centering for a PA/lateral/ PA semipronation oblique/PA semisupination oblique/ pa radial flexion/deviation of wrist
perpendicular to midcarpal region
anatomy demonstrated in PA wrist view
PA carpals, prox metacarpals, dist radius, and ulna
flexion of MCPs reduces OID
describes a condition characterized by loss of bone mass, predisposing bones to fracture
anatomy demonstrated in PA semi pronation oblique wrist view
scaphoid, and other lat carpals (trapezium, trapezoid) and other interspaces
magnification imaging can be useful to scaphoid hairline fx
anatomy demonstrated in PA semi supination oblique wrist view
pisiform, triquetrum, hamate,
medial carpals and their interspaces
anatomy demonstrated in lateral flexion view
superimposed carpals, metacarpals, phalanges, their articulations
shows anterior/posterior fx displacement
anatomy demonstrated in PA ulnar flexion/ deviation
scaphoid and other lat carpal interspaces
reduces foreshortening of scaphoid
anatomy demonstrated in PA radial flexion/ deviation
centering for scaphoid (stretcher)
20° toward elbow
perpendicular to scaphoid
anatomy demonstrated in oblique hand view
carpals, metacarpals, phalanges, their articulations
*use of finger sponge places joints parallelto IR and opens joint spaces
centering for carpal- canal (gaynor- hart)
25-30° into long axis of hand
anatomy demonstrated in carpal- canal (gaynor- hart)
carpal canal (tunnel)
trapezium, scaphoid, capitate, triquetrum, and pisiform
centering for forearm
perpendicular to mid forearm
anatomy demonstrated in AP forearm
AP radius and ulna, including wrist and elbow joints
joints must be supinated to avoid overlap of radius and ulna
anatomy demonstrated in lateral wrist view
lat superimposed carpals, metacarpals
superimposed dist radius and ulna
centering for AP, internal (medial) oblique/ external (lateral) oblique elbow
perpendicular to elbow joint midway between epicondyles
anatomy demonstrated in an AP elbow
AP prox radius/ulna, dist humerus
radial head/ tuberosity partially superimposed on ulna
centering for PA ulnar flexion/ deviation
perpendicular to scaphoid
anatomy demonstrated in lateral hand view
lat of proximal, middle and distal phalanges
second and third digits are done radial side down
fourth and fifth digits are done ulnar side down
*three articulations should be seen: MCP, PIP, DIP
The majority of human articulations are
anatomy demonstrated in a lateral elbow
lat elbow joints, prox radius, ulna, dist humerus
radial head partially superimposed on ulna
olecranon process in profile
anatomy demonstrated in scaphoid (stretcher)
scaphoid w/ foreshortening and self- superimposition
anatomy demonstrated in lateral forearm
radius and ulna superimposed distally
lateral projection of radius, ulna, elbow, wrist joints
examples of amphiarthrotic joints
The intervertebral joints (between vertebral bodies) and the symphysis pubis
A deadman switch
will quit when released
anatomy demonstrated in the internal (medial) oblique view of the elbow
oblique elbow joint
coronoid process in profile
anatomy demonstrated in the external (lateral) oblique view of the elbow
oblique elbow joint
radial head, neck, and tuberosity free from superimposition of ulna
anatomy demonstrated in the trauma axial lateral (coyle) method of the elbow
these replace lat and medial obliques when patient is unable to extend arm
for radial head
for coronoid process
centering for AP and lat humerus
perpendicular to midhumerus
anatomy demonstrated in AP humerus
includes both joints
greater tubercle in profile
anatomy demonstrated in lateral humerus
includes both joints
lesser tubercle in profile
abnormal growth of the hands, feet, and face, caused by overproduction of growth hormone by the pituitary gland
battered child syndrome
the set of symptoms, injuries, and signs of mistreatment seen on a severely or repeatedly abused child.
is a class of cancer metastases that results from primary tumor invasion to bone
inflammation of a bursa, typically one in the knee, elbow or shoulder.
carpal tunnel syndrome
a painful condition of the hand and fingers caused by compression of a major nerve where it passes over the carpal bones through a passage at the front of the wrist, alongside the flexor tendons of the hand
a painful inflammation of tendons surrounding an epicondyle
cracking or breaking of a hard object or material
a disease in which defective metabolism of uric acid causes arthritis, especially in the smaller bones of the feet, deposition of chalkstones, and episodes of acute pain
also known as apophysitis of the tibial tubercle, is an inflammation of the patellar ligament at the tibial tuberosity. It is characterized by a painful bump just below the knee and is most often seen in young adolescents.
degeneration of joint cartilage and the underlying bone, most common from middle age onward. It causes pain and stiffness, especially in the hip, knee, and thumb joints
exostoses are the most common benign tumors of the bones. The tumors take the form of cartilage-capped bony projections or outgrowth on the surface of bones (exostoses). It is characterized as a type of overgrowth that can occur in any bone where cartilage forms bone.
softening of the bones, typically through a deficiency of vitamin D or calcium
inflammation of bone or bone marrow, usually due to infection.
A chronic bone disorder that typically results in enlarged, deformed bones due to excessive breakdown and formation of bone tissue that can cause bones to weaken and may result in bone pain, arthritis, deformities or fractures
a disease of children caused by vitamin D deficiency, characterized by imperfect calcification, softening, and distortion of the bones typically resulting in bow legs
Slipped capital femoral epiphysis
is a medical term referring to a fracture through the growth plate (physis), which results in slippage of the overlying end of the femur (epiphysis).
a partial dislocation.
•a slight misalignment of the vertebrae, regarded in chiropractic theory as the cause of many health problems.
a deformed foot that is twisted so that the sole cannot be placed flat on the ground. It is typically congenital or a result of polio
inflammation of a tendon, most commonly from overuse but also from infection or rheumatic disease.
a respiratory condition marked by spasms in the bronchi of the lungs, causing difficulty in breathing. It usually results from an allergic reaction or other forms of hypersensitivity.
partial or complete collapse of the lung.
abnormal widening of the bronchi or their branches, causing a risk of infection
inflammation of the mucous membrane in the bronchial tubes. It typically causes bronchospasm and coughing.
central venous pressure line
A catheter (tube) that is passed through a vein to end up in the thoracic (chest) portion of the vena cava (the large vein returning blood to the heart) or in the right atrium of the heart
(chest drain, thoracic catheter, tube thoracostomy, or intercostal drain) is a flexible plastic tube that is inserted through the chest wall and into the pleural space or mediastinum.
chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
is a lung disease characterized by chronic obstruction of lung airflow that interferes with normal breathing and is not fully reversible
a hereditary disorder affecting the exocrine glands. It causes the production of abnormally thick mucus, leading to the blockage of the pancreatic ducts, intestines, and bronchi and often resulting in respiratory infection
is a rare congenital defect in which the apex of the heart is located on the right side of the body
a condition in which the air sacs of the lungs are damaged and enlarged, causing breathlessness
the collection of pus in a cavity in the body, especially in the pleural cavity.
a small usually plastic tube inserted into the trachea through the mouth or nose to maintain an unobstructed passageway especially to deliver oxygen or anesthesia to the lungs—called also breathing tube
is a type of pleural effusion in which blood accumulates in the pleural cavity. This excess fluid can interfere with normal breathing by limiting the expansion of the lungs.
is a central venous catheter most often used for the administration of chemotherapy or other medications, as well as for the withdrawal of blood for analysis. Some types are used mainly for the purpose of apheresis or dialysis.
a disease of the lungs due to inhalation of dust, characterized by inflammation, coughing, and fibrosis
the presence of air or gas in the cavity between the lungs and the chest wall, causing collapse of the lung
is a procedure to remove fluid from the space between the lungs and the chest wall called the pleural space. It is done with a needle (and sometimes a plastic catheter) inserted through the chest wall.
an infectious bacterial disease characterized by the growth of nodules (tubercles) in the tissues, especially the lungs
inflammation of the gallbladder
the formation of gallstones
a chronic disease of the liver marked by degeneration of cells, inflammation, and fibrous thickening of tissue. It is typically a result of alcoholism or hepatitis.
a disease characterized by inflammation of the liver
a medical condition with yellowing of the skin or whites of the eyes, arising from excess of the pigment bilirubin and typically caused by obstruction of the bile duct, by liver disease, or by excessive breakdown of red blood cells
inflammation of the pancreas.
a condition in which the muscles of the lower part of the esophagus fail to relax, preventing food from passing into the stomach
the appendix becomes inflamed and painful
the accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity, causing abdominal swelling
a surgical operation in which a piece of the colon is diverted to an artificial opening in the abdominal wall so as to bypass a damaged part of the colon
a chronic inflammatory disease of the intestines, especially the colon and ileum, associated with ulcers and fistulae
inflammation of a diverticulum, especially in the colon, causing pain and disturbance of bowel function
a condition in which diverticula are present in the intestine without signs of inflammation.
difficulty or discomfort in swallowing
inflammation of the intestine, especially the small intestine, usually accompanied by diarrhea
Gastroesophageal reflux disease, or GERD
is a digestive disorder that affects the lower esophageal sphincter (LES), the ring of muscle between the esophagus and stomach
are extremely dilated sub-mucosal veins in the lower third of the esophagus. They are most often a consequence of portal hypertension, commonly due to cirrhosis; patients with esophageal varices have a strong tendency to develop bleeding.
inflammation of the stomach and intestines, typically resulting from bacterial toxins or viral infection and causing vomiting and diarrhea.
the protrusion of an organ, typically the stomach, through the esophageal opening in the diaphragm
the inversion of one portion of the intestine within another.
"intussusception is the most common cause of bowel obstruction in those 3 months to 6 years of age"
irritable bowel syndrome
a widespread condition involving recurrent abdominal pain and diarrhea or constipation, often associated with stress, depression, anxiety, or previous intestinal infection
a lesion in the lining (mucosa) of the digestive tract, typically in the stomach or duodenum, caused by the digestive action of pepsin and stomach acid.
inflammation of the peritoneum, typically caused by bacterial infection either via the blood or after rupture of an abdominal organ.
a small growth, typically benign and with a stalk, protruding from a mucous membrane
narrowing (stenosis) of the opening from the stomach to the first part of the small intestine known as the duodenum, due to enlargement (hypertrophy) of the muscle surrounding this opening (the pylorus, meaning "gate"), which spasms when the stomach empties.
is an inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) that causes long-lasting inflammation and ulcers (sores) in your digestive tract. Ulcerative colitis affects the innermost lining of your large intestine (colon) and rectum. Symptoms usually develop over time, rather than suddenly.
an obstruction caused by twisting of the stomach or intestine.
inflammation of the urinary bladder
Duplicated collecting systems (also known as duplex collecting systems)
can be defined as renal units containing 2 pyelocaliceal systems that are associated with a single ureter or with double ureters. The 2 ureters empty separately into the bladder or fuse to form a single ureteral orifice.
is a congenital condition in which the ureteric bud, the embryological origin of the ureter, splits (or arises twice), resulting in two ureters draining a single kidney. It is the most common renal abnormality, occurring in approximately 1% of the population.
an abnormal or surgically made passage between a hollow or tubular organ and the body surface, or between two hollow or tubular organs
is a flexible tube that is passed through the urethra and into the bladder to drain urine. It is the most common type of indwelling urinary catheter.
the patient's kidneys fuse together to form a horseshoe-shape during development in the womb.
refers to distension and dilation of the renal pelvis and calyces, usually caused by urinary retention due to obstruction of the free flow of urine from the kidney
a dilation of the ureter
lack of voluntary control over urination or defecation
is an abnormal condition in which the kidney drops down into the pelvis when the patient stands up. It is more common in women than in men.
a kidney that is seen fixed in the bony pelvis or across the spine
Polycystic kidney disease
is a genetic disorder in which abnormal cysts develop and grow in the kidneys. Cystic disorders can express themselves at any point, infancy, childhood, or adulthood.
inflammation of the substance of the kidney as a result of bacterial infection
(kidney stone) a hard mass formed in the kidneys, typically consisting of insoluble calcium compounds; a renal calculus
are the result of recurrent infection and are thus more commonly encountered in women 6, those with renal tract anomalies, reflux, spinal cord injuries, neurogenic bladder or ileal ureteral diversion.
is a very rare additional kidney with renal function, own blood supply, organ capsule and pyelocaliceal system. Next to the supernumerary kidney, there are two normal kidneys. The supernumerary kidney shares in 50% the ureter and ostium with a normal ipsilateral kidney
a raised level in the blood of urea and other nitrogenous waste compounds that are normally eliminated by the kidneys.
a thin tube inserted into the ureter to prevent or treat obstruction of the urine flow from the kidney. The length of the stents used in adult patients varies between 24 and 30 cm
is a congenital abnormality found in the ureter. In this condition the distal ureter balloons at its opening into the bladder, forming a sac-like pouch
is heart-shaped with two conjoined cavities. A typical uterus only has a single cavity
a condition resulting from the appearance of endometrial tissue outside the uterus and causing pelvic pain
also known as fibroids, is a benign smooth muscle tumor that very rarely becomes cancer (0.1%). They can occur in any organ, but the most common forms occur in the uterus, small bowel, and the esophagus
pelvic inflammatory disease
inflammation of the female genital tract, accompanied by fever and lower abdominal pain
a condition in which the placenta partially or wholly blocks the neck of the uterus, thus interfering with normal delivery of a baby
inflammation of the fallopian tubes
degenerative disc disease
is a general term for the condition in which a damaged vertebral disc causes chronic pain - either low back pain (and/or leg pain, sciatica) in the lumbar spine or neck pain (and/or arm pain) in the cervical spine
Herniated nucleus pulposus
is a condition in which part or all of the soft, gelatinous central portion of an intervertebral disk is forced through a weakened part of the disk, resulting in back pain and nerve root irritation
a condition in which fluid accumulates in the brain, typically in young children, enlarging the head and sometimes causing brain damage.
a tumor, usually benign, arising from meningeal tissue of the brain
a progressive disease of the nervous system marked by tremor, muscular rigidity, and slow, imprecise movement, chiefly affecting middle-aged and elderly people. It is associated with degeneration of the basal ganglia of the brain and a deficiency of the neurotransmitter dopamine
inflammation of the meninges caused by viral or bacterial infection and marked by intense headache and fever, sensitivity to light, and muscular rigidity, leading (in severe cases) to convulsions, delirium, and death
is a type of spina bifida. Spina bifida is a birth defect in which the spinal canal and the backbone don't close before the baby is born. This type of birth defect is also called a neural tube defect
a painful condition of the spine resulting from the degeneration of the intervertebral disks
an excessive localized enlargement of an artery caused by a weakening of the artery wall
a condition marked by severe pain in the chest, often also spreading to the shoulders, arms, and neck, caused by an inadequate blood supply to the heart.
a disease of the arteries characterized by the deposition of plaques of fatty material on their inner walls
Atrial septal defect
is a congenital heart defect in which blood flows between the atria (upper chambers) of the heart
Cerebrovascular accident (CVA)
A stroke is when blood flow to a part of your brain is stopped either by a blockage or the rupture of a blood vessel
coarctation of the aorta
also called aortic narrowing, is a congenital condition whereby the aorta is narrow, usually in the area where the ductus arteriosus (ligamentum arteriosum after regression) inserts.
congestive heart failure
a weakness of the heart that leads to a buildup of fluid in the lungs and surrounding body tissues
coronary artery disease
is a disease in which a waxy substance called plaque builds up inside the coronary arteries
(heart attack) a sudden and sometimes fatal occurrence of coronary thrombosis, typically resulting in the death of part of a heart muscle
inflammation of the walls of a vein
is a condition caused by excess fluid in the lungs. This fluid collects in the numerous air sacs in the lungs, making it difficult to breathe
is a blockage of an artery in the lungs by a substance that has traveled from elsewhere in the body through the bloodstream
rheumatic heart disease
active or inactive disease of the heart that results from rheumatic fever and that is characterized by reduced functional capacity of the heart caused by inflammatory changes in the myocardium or scarring of the valves.
inflammation of the wall of a vein with associated thrombosis, often occurring in the legs during pregnancy
ventricular septal defect
is a defect in the ventricular septum, the wall dividing the left and right ventricles of the heart. The extent of the opening may vary from pin size to complete absence of the ventricular septum, creating one common ventricle.
a form of viral hepatitis transmitted in food, causing fever and jaundice.
a severe form of viral hepatitis transmitted in infected blood, causing fever, debility, and jaundice.
a form of viral hepatitis transmitted in infected blood, causing chronic liver disease.
Which types of electromagnetic radiations are part of the electromagnetic spectrum?
Visible light, microwaves, radio waves, X-rays and gamma rays
Radiations that are energetic enough to rearrange atoms in materials through which they pass, and they can therefore be hazardous to living tissue, they have the energetic potential to break apart electrically neutral atoms, resulting in the production of negative and/or positive ions
Which functional relationships have an effect on contrast?
Angle (tube, part, receptor)
Which functional relationship has an effect on density/ IR exposure?
Anode heel effect
Which functional relationship has an effect on detail/ spatial resolution?
Angle (tube, part, receptor)
Which functional relationships have an effect on distortion?
Angle (tube, part, receptor?
Production of X-rays at the tungsten target
Diagnostic X-rays are produced within the X-ray tube as high speed electrons are rapidly decelerated by the tungsten target. The source of electrons is the heated cathode filament; the electrons are driven across to the anodes focal spot when thousands of volts are applied. When the high speed electrons are suddenly stopped at the focal spot, they interact with tungsten atoms, and their kinetic energy is converted to X-ray photon energy, this happens in two ways, either bremsstrahlung (brems) or "breaking" radiation and characteristic radiation
A relatively low energy (low kv) X-ray photon interacts with tissue and uses all its energy (true/total absorption) to eject an inner shell electron, this leaves an inner shell orbital vacancy, an electron from the shell above drops to fill the vacancy and, in doing so, gives up energy in the form of a characteristic ray. The photoelectric effect is more likely to occur in absorbers having a high atomic number and with low energy photons
How are wavelength and frequency related?
They are inversely related
What are the two types of radiation produced at the anode through energy conversion process?
Brems radiation and characteristic radiation; brems radiation predominates
Linear (straight line) relationships refers to
Those in which the response is directly related to the dose received
Non linear relationships refers to
The effects are non proportional to the dose
Threshold relationships refers to
The dose below which no harmful effects are likely to occur, or, the point/ dose at which a response first begins
Linear threshold curve
Used to illustrate responses that are proportional to the radiation dose received only after some particular dose is received, below this "threshold" dose, no response effect is likely to occur
Linear non threshold curve
Used to illustrate responses such as radiation induces leukemia, cancer, and genetic effects
Non linear curves
Used to illustrate the effects of radiation are not proportional to the dose received
Non linear threshold curve
Used to illustrate certain radiation induced somatic conditions such as skin erythema. These responses are predictable and sometimes referred to as nonstochastic effects
What is located in the RUQ of the abdomen?
What is located in the LUQ of the abdomen?
What is located in the LLQ of the abdomen?
Major vein and artery to left leg
What is located in the RLQ of the abdomen?
Major vein and artery to right leg
What is located in the midline of the abdomen?
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