Study sets, textbooks, questions
Upgrade to remove ads
Patho Final Test Bank
Terms in this set (198)
What kind of control mechanism is indicated when increased blood glucose levels stimulate
increased secretion of insulin?
Negative feedback control
What is the most common cause of endocrine disorders?
Choose the statement that applies to type 1 diabetes mellitus.
Onset often occurs during childhood
Why does polyuria develop with diabetes mellitus?
Osmotic pressure due to glucose
What is the cause of diabetic ketoacidosis?
Increased catabolism of fats and proteins
What is a precipitating factor for diabetic ketoacidosis?
Which of the following may cause insulin shock to develop?
Which of the following indicates hypoglycemia in a diabetic?
Staggering gait, disorientation, and confusion
Which of the following are signs of diabetic ketoacidosis in an unconscious person?
Deep rapid respirations and fruity breath odor
Immediate treatment for insulin shock may include:
consumption of fruit juice or candy.
What causes loss of consciousness in a person with diabetic ketoacidosis?
Which of the following does NOT usually develop as a complication of diabetes?
How do many oral hypoglycemic drugs act?
To stimulate the pancreas to produce more insulin
Diabetes may cause visual impairment through damage to the lens; this is referred to as:
Which of the following applies to diabetic macro-angiography?
It is related to elevated serum lipids, it leads to increased risk of myocardial infarction and peripheral vascular disease
Why is amputation frequently a necessity in diabetics?
Necrosis and gangrene in the feet and legs
A type of diabetes that may develop during pregnancy and disappear after delivery is called:
Which one of the following develops hypoglycemia more frequently?
Type 1 diabetic patients
Which of the following hormonal imbalances causes Addison's disease?
Which of the following hormonal imbalances causes myxedema?
Deficit of T3 and T4
Which of the following hormonal imbalances causes diabetes insipidus?
Deficit of ADH
What is caused by hyperparathyroidism?
What is caused by hypocalcemia due to hypoparathyroidism?
Skeletal muscle twitching or spasm, weak cardiac contraction
Which of the following applies to acromegaly?
It results from excessive secretion of growth hormone (GH).
Which of the following may cause goiter?
Hyperthyroidism, Hypothyroidism, and Lack of iodine in the diet
Which signs are typical of Graves' disease?
Exophthalmos and tachycardia
Characteristics of Cushing's syndrome include all of the following EXCEPT:
Staring eyes with infrequent blinking
Which of the following is an effect of long-term glucocorticoid therapy?
Decreased secretion from the adrenal cortex gland
Which of the following is an effect of Addison's disease?
Poor stress response
What is the most common cause of type 1 diabetes mellitus?
Destruction of pancreatic cells by an autoimmune reaction
Why does glucosuria occur in diabetics?
The amount of glucose in the filtrate exceeds the renal tubule transport limit.
Which of the following are common early signs of a pituitary adenoma?
Persistent headaches, and Hemianopia
Which of the following does NOT apply to inappropriate ADH syndrome?
Excessive sodium is retained.
What is/are the effect(s) of thyrotoxic crisis?
Hyperthermia and heart failure
Which of the following conditions may precipitate or exacerbate hyperglycemia?
Which of the following conditions may cause immunosuppression?
Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic coma (HHNC) more frequently develops in patients
type 2 diabetes
Which of the following is recommended for immediate treatment of hypoglycemic shock?
If conscious, immediately give sweet fruit juice, honey, candy, or sugar, and if unconscious, give nothing by mouth (require intravenous glucose 50%)
All these tissues use glucose without the aid of insulin EXCEPT
Differences between type 1 and type 2 diabetes include which of the following?
Type 1 diabetes occurs more frequently in children and adolescents, and type 2 diabetes occurs more often
Complications of diabetes mellitus include:
Peripheral neuropathy, frequent infections, and cataracts.
Which of the following often causes hyperparathyroidism?
Radiation involving the thyroid gland and neck area
Dwarfism is caused by:
a deficit of somatotropin (GH).
Which of the following results from a deficit of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)?
Goiters occur more frequently in persons living in the:
Great Lakes or mountainous regions
Which of the following is caused by Graves' disease?
Goiters may be caused by:
either hypothyroid or hyperthyroid conditions.
Severe impairment of all aspects of growth and development, including difficulty feeding, mental
retardation, and stunted skeletal growth, are associated with:
A benign tumor of the adrenal medulla that secretes epinephrine and norepinephrine is called:
The anterior pituitary gland secretes all of the following hormones EXCEPT:
Which of the following applies to oxytocin?
It stimulates contraction of the uterus after delivery, and it stimulates ejection of breast milk during lactation
Which of the following is a major function of the hormone norepinephrine?
Visceral and cutaneous vasoconstriction
Early signs of hyperglycemia include polyphagia, which means:
Which of the following hormones is involved in both the stress response and the antiinflammatory
Polydipsia occurs with diabetes mellitus when:
polyuria causes dehydration
Metabolic syndrome is marked by:
abnormal lipid and glucose metabolism.
Compensation mechanisms occurring in the early stage of diabetic ketoacidosis include:
Which of the following may occur with a pituitary adenoma?
Headache and seizures
Which of the following may cause hypertension?
Catabolic effects of Cushing's syndrome include:
Blood glucose levels are increased by:
glucocorticoids, glucagon, and epinephrine.
Which of the following are likely present in a patient immobilized for a long period of time?
Hypercalcemia and low serum PTH levels
Which of the following may cause high serum levels of parathyroid hormone?
Chronic renal failure
Diabetic retinopathy results from:
obstruction or rupture of retinal blood vessels
Why does hypocalcemia cause tetany?
Nerves to skeletal muscle are more excitable
Which of the following cells produce new bone?
What is the chemical transmitter released at the neuromuscular junction?
What are the two types of bone tissue?
Compact and cancellous
Which of the following would identify an open or compound fracture?
The skin and soft tissue are exposed at the fracture site
Which of the following describes a Colles' fracture?
The distal radius is broken
During the fracture healing process, the hematoma:
is the structure into which granulation tissue grows
When a fracture is healing, the procallus or fibrocartilaginous callus:
serves as a splint across the fracture site
The inflammation surrounding a fracture site during the first few days may complicate healing by
severe ischemia and tissue necrosis
What is a sign of a dislocation?
Deformity at a joint
All of the following predispose to osteoporosis EXCEPT
Which of the following statements does NOT apply to osteoporosis?
Osteoporosis is always a primary disorder
Which of the following best describes the typical bone pain caused by osteogenic sarcoma?
Steady, severe, and persisting with rest
How is Duchenne's muscular dystrophy inherited?
X-linked recessive gene
Which of the following is true about Duchenne's muscular dystrophy?
There is difficulty climbing stairs or standing up at 2 to 3 years of age.
. The most common type of joint, which are freely movable, are called:
Which of the following is characteristic of osteoarthritis?
Degeneration of articulating cartilage occurs in the large joints.
What is a typical characteristic of the pain caused by osteoarthritis?
Increased with weight-bearing and activity
What limits joint movement in osteoarthritis?
The osteophytes and irregular cartilage surface
Joints affected by osteoarthritis can sometimes affect healthy joints by:
the affected individual's exerting stress on the normal joint to protect the damaged one.
What is the typical joint involvement with rheumatoid arthritis?
Bilateral small joints, symmetrical progression to other joints
What is the basic pathology of rheumatoid arthritis?
Systemic inflammatory disorder due to an autoimmune reaction
How is the articular cartilage damaged in rheumatoid arthritis?
Enzymatic destruction by the pannus
How does the joint appear during an exacerbation of rheumatoid arthritis?
Red, warm, swollen, and tender to touch
Ankylosis and deformity develop in rheumatoid arthritis because
skeletal muscle hypertrophies
Systemic effects of rheumatoid arthritis are manifested as:
nodules in various tissues, severe fatigue, and anorexia
What is a common effect of long-term use of glucocorticoids to treat rheumatoid arthritis?
Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA) differs from the adult form in that:
rheumatoid factor is not present in JRA, but systemic effects are more severe
Which of the following distinguishes septic arthritis?
Purulent synovial fluid present in a single, swollen joint
Which of the following may precipitate an attack of gout?
A sudden increase in serum uric acid levels
Where does inflammation usually begin in an individual with ankylosing spondylitis?
Sacroiliac joints with progression up the spine
What is a common outcome of fibrosis, calcification, and fusion of the spine in ankylosing
Rigidity, postural changes, and osteoporosis
Which statement applies to menisci?
They prevent excessive movement of joints
Which factors delay healing of bone fractures?
Prolonged inflammation and ischemia, and presence of osteomyelitis
What is the likely immediate result of fat emboli from a broken femur?
Pulmonary inflammation and obstruction
A sprain is a tear in a:
Therapeutic measures for osteoporosis include:
dietary supplements of calcium and vitamin D
What is the distinguishing feature of primary fibromyalgia syndrome?
Specific trigger points for pain and tenderness
Ewing's sarcoma metastasizes at an early stage to the:
Immovable joints are called:
Rickets results from:
a deficit of vitamin D and phosphates
Paget's disease often leads to which of the following?
Bones classified as "irregular" would include:
A dislocation is:
the separation of bones in the joint with a loss of contact
A diagnostic test that measures the electrical charge of muscle contraction and can help
differentiate muscle disorders from neurological disease is a/an
The type of compound fracture in which there are multiple fracture lines and bone fragments is
referred to as a/an:
Fluid-filled sacs composed of synovial membrane located between structures such as tendons and
ligaments and act as additional cushions are called:
Which of the following areas lacks blood vessels and nerves?
What is a raised, thin-walled lesion containing clear fluid called?
Which of the following is a common effect of a type I hypersensitivity response to ingested
What change occurs in the skin with psoriasis?
Increased mitosis and shedding of epithelium
Which of the following best describes the typical lesion of psoriasis?
Begins as a red papule and develops into silvery plaques
Why do secondary infections frequently develop in pruritic lesions?
Entry of resident flora while scratching the lesion
Which disease is considered an autoimmune disorder?
Which of the following skin lesions are usually caused by Staphylococcus aureus?
Which of the following statements applies to impetigo?
The infection is highly contagious.
What is the common signal that a recurrence of herpes simplex infection is developing?
Mild tingling along the nerve or on the lips
Herpes virus is usually spread by all of the following EXCEPT:
How are antiviral drugs effective in treating a viral infection?
They limit the acute stage and viral shedding.
Tinea capitis is an infection involving the:
Plantar warts are caused by:
Which of the following statements regarding acute necrotizing fasciitis is TRUE?
Infection rapidly causes extensive tissue necrosis and toxic shock.
Which type of microbe causes Tinea infections?
What causes the pruritus associated with scabies?
Mites burrowing into the epidermis and reaction to their feces
How can pediculosis be diagnosed?
The presence of nits at the base of hair shafts
What is the major predisposing factor to squamous cell carcinoma?
Exposure to ultraviolet light
All of the following statements apply to malignant melanoma EXCEPT:
They present as non-pruritic purplish macules.
Which of the following factors has contributed to the increased incidence of Kaposi's sarcoma?
Increase in immunosuppressed individuals
Which of the following applies to actinic keratoses?
They arise on skin exposed to ultraviolet radiation.
Which lesion distinguishes Tinea corporis?
Erythematous ring of vesicles with a clear center
Systemic effects of acute necrotizing fasciitis include:
toxic shock and disorientation.
The cause of contact dermatitis can often be identified by:
noting the location and size of the lesion.
The pathological change associated with scleroderma is:
collagen deposits in the small blood vessels of the skin and sometimes the viscera.
Choose the best description of the typical lesion of impetigo
Small vesicles that rupture to produce a crusty brown pruritic mass
Choose the correct match of the skin condition and its usual location.
Scabies—fingers, wrists, waist
Leprosy (Hansen's disease) is caused by:
One factor that is responsible for increasing the mortality rate among patients suffering with
necrotizing fasciitis is:
a delay in initial diagnosis.
What do the extrinsic muscles of the eye control?
Movement of the eyeball
What must happen for the pupil of the eye to dilate?
Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system is required
Which of the following is caused by an irregular curvature of the cornea or lens?
Trachoma is an eye infection caused by:
Which statement does NOT apply to chronic glaucoma?
Abnormally narrow angle between the cornea and iris
Which disorder is manifested by loss of peripheral vision?
Chronic (wide-angle) glaucoma
Which of the following involves a gradual clouding of the lens of the eye?
Which of the following is a likely consequence of an untreated detached retina?
Lack of nutrients causing death of retinal cells
. Which of the following is a sign of a detached retina?
No pain, development of a dark area in the visual field
What is the basic pathological change with macular degeneration?
Degeneration of the retinal cells in the fovea centralis
What does the inner ear contain?
Organ of Corti and semicircular canals
Which of the following is an example of conduction deafness?
Adhesions reducing the movement of the ossicles
In a case of acute otitis media, what would a purulent discharge in the external canal of the ear
and some pain relief likely indicate?
Rupture of the tympanic membrane
How does otosclerosis cause hearing loss?
Fixation of the stapes to the oval window
Why does vertigo occur with Ménière's syndrome?
Excessive endolymph impairs the function of hair cells in the labyrinth.
Which is the early effect of age-related macular degeneration?
Loss of central visual acuity
Which of the following is often the first sign of ototoxicity from drugs or chemicals?
Cochlear implants may restore hearing in cases of sensorineural loss
Loss of the left visual field results from damage to the:
right occipital lobe.
The involuntary abnormal movement of one or both eyes is referred to as:
An infection that damages the auditory nerve can cause what type of hearing loss?
Which fluid is found surrounding the optic disc?
The area providing the greatest visual acuity is the:
Narrow-angle glaucoma develops when the angle is decreased between the:
iris and cornea.
The lens and cornea are nourished by:
Which term refers to near-sightedness?
Severe pain develops with narrow-angle glaucoma when the:
pupils are dilated.
The semicircular canals of the inner ear are responsible for:
balance and equilibrium.
Trachoma is indicated by the presence of:
corneal abrasions by the infected eyelids
.Which of the statements apply to infection of the eye by Staphylococcus aureus?
It involves the conjunctiva, It is highly contagious, and It is commonly known as "pinkeye."
.Herpes simplex virus is a common cause of:
corneal ulceration and scarring
Sensory receptors that provide information about body movement, orientation, or muscle stretch
are referred to as
What is a tear in a ligament
What electrolyte imbalance is found in patients with SIADH
Most common disorder associated with upper GI bleeding
A patient with hematuria with red blood cell casts and proteinuria exceeding 3 to 5 g/day, with albumin being the major protein. The most probable diagnosis is
Life threatening endocrine conditions
myxedema coma, thyrotoxicosis, addisonian crisis, diabetic ketoacidosis, and hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome
Type 2 diabetes is commonly associated with
2 signs of graves disease
tachycardia, heat intolerance, exopthalmus, agitation, and weight loss
3 signs of diabetes
3 P's polyuria, polyphagia, and polydipsia
This alteration would be found in a patient with untreated Cushing's
4 H's hypertension, hyperglycemia, hypernatremia, and hypokalemia
Diabetes insipidus, diabetes mellitus, and SIADH share this clinical manifestation
Osteoporosis involves increase in this
This is characterised by abnormal and excessive bone remodelling
Primary manifestations of osteoarthritis
In rheumatoid arthritis inflammation starts here
Ankylosing spondylitis primarily affects these joints
Vertebral and sacroiliac
Many years after being infected with chickenpox, a person can develop this
Herpes zoster or shingles
Tinea corporis (ringworm) is ___________ infection of the skin
The most serious malignant skin lesion is
Silver, scaly, erythematous plaque lesions surrounded by normal skin
Corneal trauma or infection is indicated by
Pain or photophobia
Loss of peripheral vision is a manifestation of
Vertigo occurs with Meniere's syndrome because of this
Increased production of endolymph
Acute glaucoma is associated with this
Abnormally angle between the cornea and iris
Diabetic and hypertensive retinopathy are BOTH characterized by the appearance of
Microaneurysms, microinfarcts, and intraretinal hemorrhages
Sets found in the same folder
Gould's Pathophysiology for the Health Professiona…
M/C - GOULDS - TEST BANK - CH 12 - Cardio
M/C - GOULDS - TEST BANK - CH 13 Resp
Chapter 23 JONES
Sets with similar terms
practice final path health
Other sets by this creator
Patho S4 E1
Other Quizlet sets
Auditing Ch. 18
World Hunger Ch. 1-7 Review
quick question ortho 4
Unit 5 Exam Spotlight E: Nutrition for Pregnancy,…
How is acute bacterial meningitis transmitted?
What does hyperthyroidism do to the body?
What parts of the brain does ALS affect
What is the role of phosphate in the body?