Upgrade to remove ads
Get Quizlet's official NASM - 1 term, 1 practice question, 1 full practice test
Terms in this set (400)
1. When is the best time for clients to measure their resting heart rate?
Upon waking in the morning
2. Name two common tests for assessing cardiorespiratory efficiency.
YMCA 3-Minute Step Test and Rockport Walk Test
3. What are three methods of assessing body fat percentage?
Underwater weighing, bioelectrical impedance, and skin-fold measurements
4. What do you call measurable data regarding a client's physical state, such as body composition, movement assessments, and cardiorespiratory ability?
5. What is the BMI range for a person who has a very high risk of disease?
6. What are the two main calf muscles that are responsible for concentrically accelerating plantar flexion
Gastrocnemius and soleus
7. Name the muscle that is responsible for concentrically accelerating hip extension and external rotation.
8. What do you call information gathered from a client that includes their occupation, lifestyle, and medical background
9. During an Overhead Squat assessment, what are the probable overactive muscles when the feet turn out?"
Soleus, lateral gastrocnemius, and biceps femoris (short head)
10. During an Overhead Squat assessment, what are the probable overactive muscles when the knees move inward?
Adductor complex, biceps femoris (short head), tensor fascia latae, vastus lateralis
11. During an Overhead Squat assessment, what are the probable overactive muscles when there is an excessive forward lean?
Soleus, gastrocnemius, hip flexor complex, abdominal complex
12. Name the class of medication that decreases heart rate and blood pressure
13. What is an indicator that a female client's ankle complex will be in a plantar flexed position for extended periods of time based on occupation?"
Wearing dress shoes (high heels)
14. Name three postural distortion patterns that might be seen during a static postural assessment."
Pronation distortion syndrome, lower crossed syndrome, upper crossed syndrome
15. During an Overhead Squat assessment, what are the probable overactive muscles when the low back arches?"
Hip flexor complex, erector spinae, latissimus dorsi
16. During an Overhead Squat assessment, what are the probable overactive muscles when the client's arms fall forward?"
Latissimus dorsi, teres major, pectoralis major/minor
17. During a Pushing assessment, what are the probable overactive muscles when a client's shoulders elevate and/or the head moves forward?"
Upper trapezius, sternocleidomastoid, and levator scapulae
18. During an Overhead Squat assessment, what are the probable underactive muscles if a client's feet turn out?"
Medial gastrocnemius, medial hamstring complex, gracilis, sartorius, popliteus
19. What are the probable underactive muscles when a client's arms fall forward during an Overhead Squat Assessment?"
Middle/lower trapezius, rhomboids, rotator cuff
20. What are the probable underactive muscles when a client's knees move inward during an Overhead Squat Assessment?"
Gluteus medius/maximus, vastus medialis oblique
21. During an Overhead Squat assessment, what are the probable underactive muscles when a client shows an excessive forward lean?"
Anterior tibialis, gluteus maximus, erector spinae
22. During an Overhead Squat assessment, what are the probable underactive muscles when a client's low back arches?
Gluteus maximus, hamstring complex, intrinsic core stabilizers
23. During a Pushing assessment, what are the probable underactive muscles when a client's shoulders elevate?"
Middle/ lower trapezius
24. During a Pushing assessment, what are the probable underactive muscles when a client's head protrudes forward?
Deep cervical flexors
25. After assessing a client's Overhead Squat, which muscles should you have them foam roll and stretch?
26. After assessing a client's Overhead Squat, which muscles should you have them strengthen?
27. Name the assessment that measures lower extremity agility and neuromuscular control.
Shark Skill Test
28. Name 2 conditions in which Beta- blockers might be prescribed.
High blood pressure and arrhythmias
29. What muscle action develops tension while lengthening and prevents resistance from accelerating in an uncontrolled manner?
30. Name the imaginary bisector that divides the body into right and left halves.
31. This movement primarily occurs from side to side, as if there were a wall in front of and behind the body."
Frontal plane movements
32. Name the energy storage and transfer unit within the cells of the body.
Adenosine Triphosphate or ATP
33. What is the starting zone of cardiorespiratory training when a client scores poor during the YMCA 3- Minute Step Test?
34. What is the starting zone of cardiorespiratory training when a client scores average on the YMCA 3- Minute Step Test?
35. What information can be provided to the health and fitness professional by knowing the client's occupation?
Common movement patterns
36. What relevant information can you learn about a client based on their occupation and movement capacity?
Extended periods of sitting, repetitive movements, dress shoes, mental stress
37. Which muscles have decreased neural control once a client has had an ankle sprain?
Gluteus maximus and gluteus medius
38. What muscle action develops when a muscle exerts more force than is placed on it, resulting in the shortening of the muscle?
39. This chamber of the heart gathers oxygenated blood coming to the heart from the lungs.
40. Give the straight percentage method equation for calculating a client's target heart rate.
(220-client's age) x desired intensity
41. Name the muscles involved in respiratory inspiration.
Diaphragm, external intercostals, scalenes, sternocleidomastoid, pectoralis minor
42. What are three guidelines for the health and fitness professional when taking the radial pulse of a client?
Touch should be gentle, take the pulse when the client is calm, take the pulse over the course of 3 days (at the same time each day) and average the results to ensure accuracy
43. Name the functional unit of the muscle that lies in the space between two Z lines. It produces muscular contraction and is formed by repeating sections of actin and myosin.
44. The science concerned with the internal and external forces acting on the human body and the effects produced by these forces.
45. The heart rate training zone between 65 to 75% that builds an aerobic base and aids in recovery.
46. The heart rate training zone between 76 to 85% that increases both aerobic and anaerobic endurance.
47. The heart rate training zone between 86 to 95% that builds high-end work capacity.
48. Represents the pressure within the arterial system after the heart contracts.
Systolic blood pressure
49. Represents the pressure within the arterial system when the heart is resting and filling with blood.
Diastolic blood pressure
50. The method of measuring body fat percentages that conducts an electrical current through the body to measure fat.
51. What are the four skin-fold sites tested when using the Durnin-Womersley formula for body fat assessment?
Biceps, triceps, subscapular, iliac crest
52. What is the waist-to-hip ratio for males and females that puts them at a greater risk for disease?
A ratio greater than 0.95 for males and greater than 0.80 for females
53. Muscles that assist the prime movers.
54. Risk for disease increases when an overweight person's BMI level is____.
25 or greater
55. Sensory receptors responsible for sensing distortion in body tissues.
56. What is the amount of time recovery pulse is taken after completing the YMCA 3- Minute Step Test?
Within 5 seconds of completing the exercise, take the client's pulse for 60 seconds
57. What is the level that a client is instructed to squat to when performing the Overhead Squat assessment?
Height of a chair
58. Receptors sensitive to change in tension of the muscle and the rate of that change.
Golgi tendon organs
59. Receptors sensitive to change in length of the muscle and the rate of that change
60. On which clients should health and fitness professionals avoid the use of skin-fold calipers to measure body fat?
Very overweight clients
61. The resting length of a muscle and the tension the muscle can produce at this resting length.
62. What is the functional unit of the nervous system?
63. The neuromuscular phenomenon that occurs when inappropriate muscles take over the function of a weak or inhibited prime mover.
64. The process in which neural impulses that sense tension are greater than the impulses that cause muscles to contract, providing an inhibitory effect to the muscle spindles.
65. Compensations observed during the Overhead Squat assessment from the lateral view.
Low back arches, excessive forward lean, arms fall forward
66. Compensations observed during the Overhead Squat assessment from the anterior view.
Feet turn out and knees move inward
67. Name some of the benefits of circumference measurements.
Can be used on obese clients, good for comparisons and progressions, good for assessing fat patterns and distribution, inexpensive, easy to record
68. Name the systems of the human movement system (kinetic chain).
Nervous system, muscular system, skeletal system
69. Name the agonist, synergist, stabilizer, and antagonist muscles activated during a squat exercise.
Agonists: Gluteus maximus, quadriceps; Synergists: Hamstring complex; Stabilizer: Transversus abdominis; Antagonist: Psoas
70. The involved structures and mechanisms that the nervous system uses to gather sensory information and integrate it with previous experiences to produce a motor response.
71. What are some primary causes of muscle imbalance?
Postural stress, emotional duress, repetitive movement, cumulative trauma, poor training technique
72. Feedback used after the completion of a movement to help inform clients about the outcome of their performance.
Knowledge of results
73. The energy pathway used in moderate to high intensity activities that can only be sustained for 30 to 50 seconds.
74. Repeated practice of motor control processes, which leads to a change in the ability to produce skilled movements.
75. What are possible injuries associated with lower crossed syndrome?
Hamstring complex strain, anterior knee pain, low back pain
76. Name movement compensations observed during a Pushing assessment.
Low back arches, shoulder elevates, head migrates forward
77. When assessing a client during a Single-leg Squat, from which vantage point should you view the client?
78. Which muscle synergies (muscle groups) are primarily used in a Shoulder Press?
Deltoid, rotator cuff, trapezius
79. The name of the receptors surrounding a joint that respond to pressure, acceleration, and deceleration in the joint.
80. Altered reciprocal inhibition, synergistic dominance, and arthrokinetic dysfunction all lead to this.
81. The ability of the neuromuscular system to properly recruit muscles to produce force concentrically, reduce force eccentrically, and isometrically stabilize the entire kinetic chain in all three planes of motion.
82. A layer of connective tissue that is underneath the fascia, and surrounds the muscle.
83. What are the three support mechanisms of blood?
Transportation, regulation and protection
84. The Davies test is contraindicated for which group of people?
Individuals lacking shoulder stability
85. What muscle is responsible for concentrically accelerating shoulder extension, adduction, and internal rotation?
86. Name possible injuries associated with pronation distortion syndrome.
Plantar fasciitis, shin splints, patellar tendonitis, low back pain
87. Name the altered joint mechanics associated with lower crossed syndrome.
Increased lumbar extension and decreased hip extension
88. Which muscles would be lengthened in a client with upper crossed syndrome?
Deep cervical flexors, serratus anterior, rhomboids, mid-trapezius, lower trapezius, teres minor, and infraspinatus
89. What are the altered joint mechanics associated with pronation distortion syndrome?
Increased: Knee adduction and internal rotation, foot pronation and external rotation; Decreased: Ankle dorsiflexion and inversion
90. Name the lengthened muscles associated with lower crossed syndrome.
Anterior tibialis, posterior tibialis, gluteus maximus, gluteus medius, transversus abdominis, and internal oblique
91. Average stroke volume of an adult.
92. Name two abdominal muscles used for trunk rotation.
Internal and external obliques
93. Name five performance assessment tests.
Davies Test, Shark Skill Test, Push-up Test, Upper Extremity Strength Assessment, Lower Extremity Strength Assessment
94. What positional guidelines do you give a client who is setting up for an Overhead Squat assessment?
Feet shoulder-width apart and pointed straight ahead; foot and ankle complex in a neutral position; arms raised overhead, with elbows fully extended
95. What regressions could you make for clients who are unable to perform a Single-leg Squat assessment?
Use outside support for squatting assistance or perform a Single-leg Balance without squat
96. A force that produces rotation.
97. Movement of the bones around the joints.
98. Name possible injuries associated with upper crossed syndrome.
Headaches, bicep tendonitis, rotator cuff impingement, and thoracic outlet syndrome
99. Name the short muscles associated with lower crossed syndrome.
Gastrocnemius, soleus, hip flexor complex, adductors, latissimus dorsi, and erector spinae
100. Compensations observed during the Overhead Squat assessment from the lateral view.
Low back arches, excessive forward lean, arms fall forward
1. Name the structures that make up the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex (LPHC).
Lumbar spine, pelvic girdle, abdomen, and hip joint
2. Dysfunction within the connective tissue of the kinetic chain that is treated by the body as an injury, initiating this repair process.
Cumulative injury cycle
3. Name four core-strength exercises.
Ball Crunch, Back Extensions, Reverse Crunch, Cable Rotations
4. The type of flexibility training that applies gentle force to an adhesion, altering the elastic muscle fibers from a bundled position to a straighter alignment with the direction of the muscle and/or fasci
5. Exercises in the core-stabilization level are identified through these characteristics.
They involve little motion through the spine and pelvis
6. What are four common ways a stressor causes breakdown or injury?
Stress fractures, muscle strains, joint pain, emotional fatigue
7. Name four core-stabilization exercises.
Marching, Floor Bridge, Floor Prone Cobra, Prone Iso-abs
8. Law stating that soft tissue models along the lines of stress.
9. Referred to as a co-contraction of global muscles, such as the rectus abdominis, external obliques, and quadratus lumborum.
10. It is critical that the core training program is designed to achieve these three functional outcomes in the right order.
Intervertebral stability, 2. Lumbo- pelvic stability, 3. Movement efficiency
11. What are the proper backside mechanics during sprinting?
Ankle plantar flexion, knee extension, hip extension, and neutral pelvis
12. What are the proper frontside mechanics during sprinting? ,
Ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, hip flexion, and neutral pelvis
13. The ability to accelerate, decelerate, stabilize, and change direction quickly, while maintaining proper posture.
14. The ability to react and change body position with maximum rate for force production, in all planes of motion and from all body positions, during functional activities.
15. The ability to move the body in one intended direction as fast as possible.
16. Name four core-power exercises.
Rotation Chest Pass, Ball Medicine Pullover Throw, Front Medicine Ball Oblique Throw, Soccer Throw
17. The ability of the body to produce high levels of force for prolonged periods of time.
18. What is a component of core-power exercises that make them easy to identify?
Explosive movements with medicine balls
19. Name five balance-stabilization exercises.
Single-leg Balance, Single-leg Balance Reach, Single-leg Hip Internal and External Rotation, Single-leg Lift and Chop, Single-leg Throw and Catch
20. Name five balance-strength exercises.
Single-leg Squat, Single-leg Squat Touchdown, Single-leg Romanian Deadlift, Step-up to Balance, Multiplanar Lunge to Balance
21. Name three balance-power exercises.
Multiplanar Hop with Stabilization, Multiplanar Single-leg Box Hop-up with Stabilization, Multiplanar Single-leg Box Hop-down with Stabilization
22. What are four plyometric-stabilization exercises?
Squat Jump with Stabilization, Box Jump-up with Stabilization, Box Jump- down with Stabilization, Multiplanar Jump with Stabilization
23. Name four plyometric-strength exercises.
Squat Jump, Tuck Jump, Butt Kick, Power Step-up
24. Name three plyometric-power exercises.
Ice Skater, Single-leg Power Step-up, Proprioceptive Plyometrics
25. Exercises that use quick powerful movements involving an eccentric action immediately followed by an explosive concentric contraction.
26. Body position progressions in balance training.
Two-leg stable, single-leg stable, two-legs unstable, single-leg
27. Give examples of chest exercises used in the Stabilization Level of the OPT model.
Ball Dumbbell Chest Press, Push-up, Ball Push-up: hands on the ball, Standing Cable Chest Press
28. What are the two techniques used in corrective flexibility according to the integrated flexibility continuum?
SMR (self-myofascial release) and static stretching
29. Give examples of total-body power exercises
Two-arm Push Press, Barbell Clean, Dumbbell Snatch, Squat Thrust, Kettlebell Hang, Clean and Jerk
30. What is the minimum amount of time static stretches should be held?
31. Name two different leg-stabilization exercises.
Ball Squat and Multiplanar Step-up to Balance
32. What are three things that a client should have established prior to incorporating a dynamic stretching program?
Good levels of tissue extensibility, core stability, and balance capabilities
33. Name two strength level exercises for the legs.
Leg Press and Barbell Squat
34. Name two power level exercises for the legs.
Squat Jump and Tuck Jump
35. Give three examples of shoulder- power exercises.
Front Medicine Ball Oblique Throw, Overhead Medicine Ball Throw, Speed Tubing Shoulder Press
36. Give examples of total-body strength exercises.
Lunge to Two-arm Dumbbell Press; Squat, Curl, to Two-arm Press; Step-up to Overhead Press: sagittal plane; Romanian Deadlift, Shrug to Calf Raise
37. Based on the exercise selection continuum what exercises should be selected for the adaptation of stabilization?
Total-body, multi-joint or single joint, controlled unstable
38. Give four examples of core- stabilization exercises.
Marching, Floor Bridge, Floor Prone Cobra, Prone Iso-abs
39. Give four examples of core-strength exercises.
Ball Crunches, Back Extensions, Reverse Crunches, Cable Rotations
40. Body position progressions used for balance training.
Two-leg stable 2. Single-leg stable 3. Two-legs unstable 4. Single-leg unstable
41. Three types of core systems.
Local stabilization system, Global stabilization system, Movement system
42. What is the minimum duration pressure should be sustained on adhesions while performing self- myofascial release?
43. What are the seven methods for prescribing exercise intensity?
Peak VO2, VO2 reserve, Peak metabolic equivalent (MET), Peak maximal heart rate, Heart rate reserve, Rating of perceived exertion, Talk test
44. The cumulative sensory input to the central nervous system from all mechanoreceptors that sense position and limb movements.
45. What are the acute variables for static stretching?
1-2 sets, hold each stretch for 30 seconds
46. What is the mechanism of action that occurs in active-isolated stretching?
47. When is the appropriate time to utilize dynamic stretching?
After self-myofascial release when training in Phase 5
48. How long should the cardiorespiratory portion of the warm-up last?
49. What does F.I.T.T.E. stand for?
Frequency, Intensity, Time, Type, Enjoyment
50. Example of a Zone 1 cardiorespiratory activity and intensity level.
Walking or jogging at 65-75% of maximal heart rate
51. Example of a Zone 2 cardiorespiratory activity and intensity level.
Group exercise classes or spinning at 76-85% of maximal heart rate
52. Example of a Zone 3 cardiorespiratory activity and intensity level.
Sprinting at 86-95% of maximal heart rate
53. Type of training that has been found to be just as beneficial as traditional forms of cardiorespiratory training.
54. Name the structures that make up the core.
Lumbo-pelvic-hip complex, pelvic girdle, abdomen, and hip joint
55. Name the five muscles of the Local Stabilization System of the core.
Transverse abdominis, internal oblique, lumbar multifidus, pelvic floor muscles, diaphragm
56. Name the four muscles of the movement system of the core.
Latissimus dorsi, hip flexors, hamstring complex, quadriceps
57. The normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allows the full range of motion of a joint.
58. The tendency of the body to seek the path of least resistance during functional movement patterns.
59. What are the benefits of a warm-up?
Increased heart rate and respiratory rate, increased tissue temperature, and increased psychological preparation for bouts of exercise.
60. The concept of muscle inhibition, caused by a tight agonist, which inhibits its functional antagonist.
Altered reciprocal inhibition
61. The principle that states the body will adapt to the specific demands that are placed on it.
SAID Principle or Principle of Specificity
62. What does the acronym SAID in SAID Principle stand for?
Specific Adaptation to Imposed Demands
63. What kinetic chain deviations must a certified personal trainer watch for in the cardiorespiratory portion of the workout for clients who possess rounded shoulders?
On steppers and treadmills watch for the grasping of the handles; on stationary bikes, treadmills and elliptical trainers watch for rounding of the shoulders.
64. Feedback used after the completion of a movement to help inform clients about the outcome of their performance.
Knowledge of results
65. Feedback that provides information about the quality of the movement during exercise.
Knowledge of performance
66. The type of specificity that refers to the weight and movements placed on the body.
67. The state where there is an elevation of the body's metabolism after exercise.
Excess post-exercise oxygen consumption (EPOC)
68. The three stages in the General Adaptation Syndrome.
Alarm reaction, resistance development, exhaustion
69. Four performance adaptive benefits from resistance training.
Increased strength, increased power, increased endurance, increased neuromuscular control
70. SAQ training can be used with what three nonathletic populations?
Youth, weight-loss clients, seniors
71. What is the drawing-in Maneuver?
A maneuver that is used to recruit the local core stabilizers by drawing the naval towards the spine.
72. Benefits of a cool-down include the following:
Reduced heart rate and breathing rates, gradually cools body temperature, returns muscles to their optimal length-tension relationships, prevents venous pooling of blood in lower extremities, restores physiological systems close to baseline
73. Give examples of total-body stabilization exercises.
Single-leg Squat Touchdown, Curl, to Overhead Press; Single-leg Romanian Deadlift, Curl, to Overhead Press; Single-leg Squat to Row; Ball Squat, Curl, to Press; Multiplanar Step-up Balance, Curl, to Overhead Press
74. Give examples of chest exercises used in the Strength Level of the OPT model.
Incline Dumbbell Chest Press; Incline Barbell Bench Press; Flat Dumbbell Chest Press; Barbell Bench Press
75. Give examples of chest exercises used in the Power Level of the OPT model.
Two-arm Medicine Ball Chest Pass; Rotation Chest Pass; Speed Tubing Chest Press; Plyometric Push-up
76. Give examples of back exercises used in the Stabilization Level of the OPT model.
Single-leg Pull-down; Ball Cobra; Standing Cable Row; Ball Dumbbell Row
77. Give examples of back exercises used in the Strength Level of the OPT model.
Seated Cable Row; Seated Lat Pull- down; Straight-arm Pull-down; Pull-up; Supported Dumbbell Row
78. Give examples of shoulder exercises used in the Stabilization Level of training.
Single-leg Overhead Press; Single-leg Dumbbell Scaption; Seated Stability Ball Military Press
79. The main goal of balance training is to continually increase the client's awareness of their limit of stability by creating______________.
80. Surface types for proprioceptive progressions during balance include.
Floor, sport beam, half foam roll, foam pad, balance disk, wobble board, BOSU ball
81. Exercises that use quick, powerful movements involving an eccentric action immediately followed by an explosive concentric contraction.
82. Efficient movement requires eccentric force reduction, isometric stabilization, and concentric force production.
Integrated performance paradigm
83. The ability of the neuromuscular system to produce internal tension to overcome an external load.
84. What are six ways to progress plyometric exercises?
Easy to hard, simple to complex, known to unknown, stable to unstable, body weight to loaded, activity-specific
85. Describe the five kinetic chain checkpoints?
Feet: shoulder-width apart, pointing straight ahead; Knees: in line with the second and third toes; Hips: level with lumbar spine in a neutral position; Shoulders: depressed and slightly retracted; and Head: cervical spine in a neutral position
86. What is dynamic balance?
Dynamic balance is the ability to move and change directions under various conditions without falling
87. What are the three phases of a plyometric exercise?
Eccentric phase, amortization phase, concentric phase
88. What is the proper progression for balance training when utilizing the proprioceptive continuum?
Floor, balance beam, half foam roll, foam pad, balance disk
89. The ability of muscles to exert maximal force output in a minimal amount of time.
Rate of force production
90. The position of the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex during running movements.
A slight forward lean with neutral spine
91. What happens during the eccentric phase of a plyometric exercise
Increase in muscle spindle activity by pre stretching the muscle before activation
92. Research has demonstrated increased electromyogram activity and pelvic stabilization when this maneuver is performed.
93. What is delayed-onset muscle soreness?
Pain or discomfort often felt 24 to 72 hours after intense exercise or unaccustomed physical activity.
94. What is the proper way to progress an exercise in the stabilization level of training?
Increase proprioceptive demand
95. Give eight reasons for the incorporation of flexibility training.
Correct muscle imbalances, increase joint range of motion, decrease excess tension of muscles, relieve joint stress, improve extensibility of musculotendinous junction, maintain normal functional length of muscles, improve neuromuscular efficiency, improve function
96. Consistently repeating the same pattern of motion, which may place abnormal stresses on the body.
97. What are the three phases of the integrated flexibility continuum?
Corrective flexibility, active flexibility, functional flexibility
98. The type of flexibility designed to improve extensibility of soft tissue and increase neuromuscular efficiency by using reciprocal inhibition.
99. During which phase of the general adaptation syndrome do stress fractures, muscle strains, joint pain and emotional fatigue occur?
100. The stretching technique that focuses on the neural system and fascial system of the body by applying gentle force to an adhesion
1. The recommended rest intervals for resistance training in the Hypertrophy Phase of the OPT model
2. What are three things recent research has demonstrated regarding circuit training?
It is just as beneficial as traditional cardiorespiratory training, it produced greater levels of EPOC and strength, and it produced near identical caloric expenditure when compared with walking at a fast pace.
3. The recommended reps and sets for resistance training in Phase 1 Stabilization Endurance Training of the OPT model.
12-20 reps, 1-3 sets
4. The recommended intensity level for resistance training in the Stabilization Endurance phase of the OPT model.
5. The recommended rest intervals for resistance training in Phase 1 Stabilization Endurance Training of the OPT model.
6. What is the recommended resistance training exercise selection for Phase 2 of the OPT model?
Perform 1 strength exercise superset with 1 stabilization exercise
7. List the acute variables for resistance training in Phase 2 Strength Endurance Training of the OPT model.
Perform 8-12 reps, 2-4 sets; 2/0/2 tempo for strength exercises, 4/2/1 tempo for stabilization exercises; 70- 80% intensity; 0-60 seconds rest
8. The recommended number of sets for resistance training in Phase 3 Hypertrophy Training of the OPT model?
9. What repetition tempo is used for resistance training in Phase 3 Hypertrophy Training of the OPT model?
10. What is the recommended exercise selection and intensity for Phase 3 of the OPT model?
2-4 strength level exercises per body part, 75-85% intensity
11. What is the recommended number of reps and sets for resistance training in Phase 4 Maximal Strength Training of the OPT Model?
1-5 reps, 4-6 sets
12. What is the recommended exercise selection for resistance training for a client in the Maximal Strength phase of the OPT model?
1-3 strength exercises per body part
13. What is the recommended intensity and rest interval for resistance training in Phase 4 of the OPT model?
85-100% intensity, 3-5 minutes rest
14. What is the recommended number of reps and sets for resistance training in the Power phase of the OPT model?
1-5 reps for the strength exercise and 8-10 reps for the power exercise, 3-5 sets
15. What is the recommended repetition tempo for resistance training in Phase 5 of the OPT model?
X/X/X (as fast as can be controlled)
16. What is the recommended exercise selection for resistance training in the Power phase of the OPT model?
1 strength exercise superset with 1 power exercise
17. Which phase(s) of the OPT model are most important for a client who has a goal of body fat reduction?
Phase 1 Stabilization Endurance and Phase 2 Strength Endurance
18. Name the training system that involves performing one set of each exercise.
19. In what Phase of the OPT Model would you perform Plyometric exercises as fast as possible?
Phase 5 Power
20. A resistance training system popular since the 1940s that consists of performing a multiple number of sets for each exercise.
21. A system of strength training that involves a progressive or regressive step approach that either increases weight with each set or decreases weight with each set.
22. A system of strength training that uses a couple of exercises performed in rapid succession of one another.
23. A resistance training system that consists of a series of exercises the client performs one after the other with minimal rest between each exercise.
Circuit training system
24. The resistance training system that is another variation of circuit training that alternates upper body and lower body exercises throughout the circuit.
Peripheral heart action system
25. The resistance training system that involves breaking the body up into parts to be trained on separate days.
26. A resistance training system that alternates body parts trained from set to set, starting from the upper extremity and moving to the lower extremity.
27. The resistance training system where the client performs all sets of an exercise or body part before moving on to the next exercise or body part.
28. The resistance training tempo used in Phase 1 Stabilization Endurance Training of the OPT model.
29. Name the four primary areas of focus in Phase 1 Stabilization Endurance Training.
Increasing stability, increasing muscular endurance, increasing neuromuscular efficiency of the core musculature, improving intermuscular and intramuscular coordination
30. The enlargement of skeletal muscle fibers in response to overcoming force from high volumes of tension.
31. Name four upper body progressions in the Progression Continuum.
Two-arms, alternating-arms, single- arm, single-arm with trunk rotation
32. The ability of the neuromuscular system to produce the greatest force in the shortest amount of time.
33. What is the recommended rest period between pairs in Phase 5 Power Training of the OPT model (in reference to resistance training).
34. What is the recommended rest period between circuits for resistance training in the Power Phase of the OPT model?
35. Name benefits of suspension body-weight training.
Increased muscle activation, low compressive loads to the spine, increased performance, potential increase in caloric expenditure, improvements in cardiovascular fitness
36. Name six benefits of vibration training.
Improved circulation and cardiovascular function, alleviation of muscle soreness, weight reduction and increased metabolism, increased bone density, increased flexibility and range of motion, improved overall well-being
37. Approximately, what percent recovery of ATP and PC will occur after 60 seconds?
85 to 90%
38. What type of adaptations are seen with higher volume training?
39. Name three physiological considerations when training youth.
1. Submaximal oxygen demand (economy of movement): children are less efficient and tend to exercise at a higher percentage of their peak oxygen uptake as compared to adults.
2. Glycolytic enzyme production is insufficient to sustain bouts of high-intensity exercise.
3. Limited ability to sweat in response to hot, humid environments (decreased tolerance to temperature extremes).
40. What type of adaptations are seen with low volume training?
41. What is the means of progressing clients in Phase 5 of the OPT model?
Increasing the speed of the movement or the load used
42. What Phases of the OPT model should be used for improving general sports performance?
Phase 1 Stabilization Endurance, Phase 2 Strength Endurance, and Phase 5 Power
43. What are the two techniques used in corrective flexibility according to the integrated flexibility continuum?
SMR (self-myofascial release) and static stretching
44. Straight percentage equation for determining max heart rate.
220 - age
45. Number of recommended plyometric (reactive) exercises for clients training in Phase 1 Stabilization Endurance Training.
46. Name the nine acute variables of training.
Repetitions, sets, training intensity, repetition tempo, training volume, rest interval, training frequency, training duration, exercise selection
47. The type of specificity that refers to the energy demand placed on the body
48. The type of specificity that refers to the speed of contraction and exercise selection
49. What are some benefits of kettlebell training?
Enhanced athleticism, coordination, and balance; increased mental focus and physical stamina; increased oxygen uptake; increased total-body conditioning; recruitment of the posterior chain; increased core stability and muscular endurance; increased strength and power; improved grip strength; increased metabolic demands and caloric expenditure
50. What is the amount of time active- isolated stretches should be held?
51. What are the three adaptations/levels of the Optimum Performance Training model?
Stabilization, Strength, Power
52. Which cardiorespiratory training stage uses 65-85% intensity?
53. What is the recommended repetition range for resistance training in Phase 3 of the OPT model?
54. What is the recommended repetition range for resistance training in Phase 2 Strength Endurance of the OPT model?
55. What are the recommended repetition tempos for resistance training exercises in Phase 2 of the OPT model?
2/0/2 strength exercises and 4/2/1 stabilization exercises
56. Percentage of intensity for resistance training in the second Phase of the OPT model.
57. What is the repetition range for resistance training in Phase 4 of the OPT model?
58. What are three goals of Phase 5 Power Training of the OPT model?
Enhance neuromuscular efficiency, enhance prime mover strength, increase rate of force production
59. What are three goals of Phase 4 Maximal Strength Training of the OPT model?
Increase motor unit recruitment, increase frequency of motor unit recruitment, improve peak force
60. Name the seven performance benefits achieved when following the OPT model.
Strength, power, endurance, flexibility, speed, agility, and balance.
61. In a core training program, what is the number of core exercises recommended in Phase 2 of the OPT model?
62. What is the means of progressing clients in Phase 2 of the OPT model?
Increasing proprioceptive demand, volume, intensity or by decreasing rest periods
63. What is the primary goal in balance training?
To challenge the limits of stability
64. Name six special considerations for clients with hypertension.
Avoid heavy lifting and Valsalva maneuvers, don't let clients over grip equipment, modify tempo to avoid extended isometric and concentric muscle action, perform exercises in standing or seated position, allow client to stand up slowly, progress client slowly
65. Name sample core exercises to use with a client that has hypertension.
Standing Torso Cable Iso-rotation and Standing Cobra
66. What are three things that clients should have established prior to incorporating dynamic stretching into their exercise program?
Good levels of tissue extensibility, core stability, and balance capabilities
67. Heart rate zones used in Stage III of cardiorespiratory training.
Zone 1: 65-75%, Zone 2: 76-85%, Zone 3: 86-95%
68. What are two methods of progression in the Maximal Strength Training level of the OPT model?
Increase volume and load
69. What are two methods of progression in the Power level of the OPT model?
Increase speed and load
70. What exercise positions should be avoided after 12 weeks of pregnancy?
Supine and prone position exercises
71. What two flexibility techniques are recommended as a proper warm-up before athletic activity?
SMR (self-myofascial release) and dynamic stretching
72. What are three regressions for performing a Prone Iso-abs exercise?
Perform in standard push-up position, perform in push-up position with knees on floor, perform with hands on bench and feet on floor
73. What are two progressions for a Ball Dumbbell Row?
Alternating-arm and single-arm
74. Give one regression for a Ball Dumbbell Row.
Kneeling over ball
75. Name two progressions for Step-up to Balance. \
Step-in frontal plane and step-in transverse plane
76. Give three progressions for Ball Squat, Curl to Press exercise.
Alternating-arm, one-arm, single-leg
77. What is the correct tempo for plyometric-stabilization exercises
Hold landing for 3-5 seconds
78. What is the recommended tempo for core exercises in Phase 2 of the OPT model?
79. What is the recommended tempo for plyometric exercises in Phase 2 of the OPT model?
80. What is the recommended tempo for resistance training exercises in Phase 4 of the OPT model?
X/X/X (as fast as can be controlled)
81. Physiological and functional changes associated with aging include reductions in the following:
Maximum attainable heart rate, cardiac output, muscle mass, balance, coordination, connective tissue elasticity, and bone mineral density
82. Chronic metabolic disorder, caused by insulin deficiency, which impairs carbohydrate usage and enhances usage of fat and protein
83. What are four special considerations for training clients with diabetes?
Make sure client has appropriate footwear, have client keep a snack with them, use SMR with care and under supervision of a physician, avoid excessive plyometric training and higher intensity training
84. What blood pressure reading defines hypertension?
Greater than or equal to 140/90
85. Condition in which there is a decrease in bone mass and density as well as an increase in the space between bones, resulting in porosity and fragility.
86. What is the correct repetition tempo for core-power exercises?
X/X/X (as fast as can be controlled)
87. What are the recommended repetitions for resistance training in Phase 5 of the OPT model?
1-5 reps strength and 8-10 reps power
88. What is the intensity level for power exercises performed in Phase 5 of the OPT model?
30-45% of 1RM or up to 10% of body weight
89. What are some special considerations for a client with osteoporosis?
Progression should be slow and well monitored; exercises should be progressed to free sitting or standing; focus exercises on hips, thighs, back and arms; avoid spinal loading; make sure client is breathing normally
90. What are the most appropriate phases of the OPT model to use with an obese client?
Phases 1 and 2
91. Name special consideration for training a client with arthritis.
Avoid heavy lifting and high repetitions, stay in pain-free ranges of motion, only use SMR if tolerated by the client, there may be a need to start out with just 5 minutes of exercise and progressively increase.
92. Name special considerations when training a youth client.
Progression should be based on postural control and make exercising fun
93. Name three low-volume high-intensity training adaptations.
Increased rate of force production, increased motor-unit recruitment, increased motor-unit synchronization
94. What adaptations occur from high volume training?
Increased muscle cross-sectional area, improved blood lipid serum profile, and increased metabolic rate
95. What is the adaptation yielded from 3- 5 sets of 6-12 repetitions at 75-85% intensity?
96. Muscular endurance and stabilization is best developed with what percent of 1 RM?
97. What are the acute variables for active-isolated stretching?
1-2 sets, hold 1-2 seconds, 5-10 repetitions
98. What are the acute variables for dynamic stretching?
1 set, 10 repetitions, 3-10 exercises
99. Number of repetitions per exercise that should be performed for dynamic stretching.
100. Which phases should be included in an annual plan for a client with the goal of basic body fat reduction?
Phases 1 and 2
1. What are the four Ps of marketing?
Product, price, place, promotion
2. How many calories are in a gram of fat?
3. Making a good first impression includes the following:
Making eye contact, introducing yourself by name and getting the client's name, smiling, shaking hands with the client, remembering and using the client's name, using good body language
4. Name strategies that enhance exercise adherence.
Self-management, goal setting, self- monitoring, positive self-talk, psyching up, imagery
5. Amino acids manufactured by the body from dietary nitrogen, fragments of carbohydrate, and fat.
Nonessential amino acids
6. Name the five stages of change.
1. Precontemplation, 2. Contemplation, 3. Preparation, 4. Action, 5. Maintenance
7. What are four types of support mechanisms to help clients reach their health and fitness goals?
Instrumental support, emotional support, informational support, and companionship support
8. The type of support that deals with the tangible and practical factors necessary to help a person adhere to exercise or achieve exercise goals.
9. Type of support expressed through encouragement, caring, empathy, and concern.
10. Type of questions that can be answered with one word.
11. Guidelines the health and fitness professional should use when approaching potential clients.
Say ''Hello'' to each member; offer towels or water; roam the workout floor; don't hide behind desks, books, or a computer; introduce yourself by name; don't educate on the first interaction
12. This type of support includes directions, advice, or suggestions given to clients about how to exercise.
13. This type of support includes the availability of family, friends, and coworkers with whom clients can exercise.
14. What are the amount of CEUs required every two years to retain your credential as a NASM Certified Personal Trainer?
15. The principles of effective goal setting as reflected by the acronym SMART.
Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Realistic, Timely
16. What are four questions that may help clients determine their long-term goals?
1. What do I want to accomplish in 6 months? 2. What do I want to accomplish in the next year? 3. What do I want to accomplish in the next 5 years? 4. What is my dream accomplishment?
17. The average daily nutrient intake level that is estimated to meet the requirement of half the healthy individuals who are in a particular life stage and gender group.
Estimated Average Requirement
18. The average daily nutrient intake level that is sufficient to meet the nutrient requirement of nearly all healthy individuals who are in a particular life stage and gender group.
Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA)
19. A recommended average daily nutrient intake level, based on observed approximations or estimates of nutrient intake that are assumed to be adequate for a group or groups of healthy people. Used when an RDA cannot be determined.
20. The highest average daily nutrient intake level likely to pose no risk of adverse health effects to almost all individuals in a particular life stage and gender group. As intake increases above this level, the potential risk of adverse health effects increases.
Tolerable Upper Intake Level
21. What is one of the greatest contributions made by dietary complex carbohydrates that is also associated with a lower incidence of heart disease and certain types of cancer?
22. What is the chief source of energy for all body functions and muscular exertions?
23. Neutral compounds of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen, which make up a large portion of animal foods.
24. The daily recommended intake of fiber.
38g for men; 25g for women
25. What is the recommended protein intake for strength athletes?
1.2-1.7 g/kg (0.5-0.8 g/lb)
26. The number of amino acids the body uses.
27. Fatty acids considered to have favorable effects on blood lipid profiles and may play a role in the treatment and prevention of heart disease, hypertension, arthritis, and cancer.
Monounsaturated fatty acids and polyunsaturated fatty acids
28. Name the macronutrient responsible for acting as transport for vitamins A, D, E, and K.
29. What is the number of liters of water recommended for the average sedentary male?
30. What is the recommended percentage of dietary fat from daily total caloric intake?
31. Name the eight essential amino acids.
Isoleucine, leucine, lysine, methionine, phenylalanine, threonine, tryptophan, valine
32. Name the process in which amino acids are used in energy production. It occurs when the body is in a negative energy balance.
33. A substance that completes or makes an addition to daily dietary intake.
34. The process created to produce internalized experiences to support or enhance exercise participation
35. What are four psychological benefits of exercise?
Promotes positive mood, reduces stress, improves sleep, reduces depression and anxiety
36. How many calories are contained in 1 pound of body fat?
37. What three vitamins can cause serious adverse effects such as birth defects, calcification of blood vessels, and damage to sensory nerves.
A, D, B6
38. Name three diets that are considered very low carbohydrate diets; each contains less than 21% carbohydrates.
Atkins diet, Protein Power diet, Ketogenic diet
39. Name two high carbohydrate diets. Both of these have a carbohydrate content of greater than 60%.
Dean Ornish diet and the Pritikin diet.
40. Name six low carbohydrate diets that each have a carbohydrate content of 21-42%.
Zone diet, Carbohydrate Addicts diet, Abs diet, South Beach diet, Sugar Busters diet, Testosterone diet
41. Name three diets that are moderately high in carbohydrates at a 51-60% carbohydrate content.
RDA Food Pyramid diet, Flat Belly diet, Mediterranean diet
42. What are the risks of following an overly restrictive (very low calorie) diet?
Increased risk of malnutrition; poor energy; behavioral ''pendulum'' swings; minor side effects: fatigue, constipation, nausea, and diarrhea; major side effects: gallstone formation
43. What is the amount of energy expended while at rest? It typically accounts for 70% of total energy expenditure (TEE).
Resting metabolic rate (RMR)
44. What is the amount of energy expended above the RMR as a result of processing food for storage and use? It typically accounts for approximately 6- 10% of total energy expenditure (TEE).
Thermic effect of food (TEF)
45. Name six guidelines for providing uncompromising customer service.
Take every opportunity to meet and greet each member, present a positive image, never give an impression that you are inconvenienced by a client/potential client, express ideas clearly through all forms of communication, take every opportunity to strengthen relationships, take ownership of complaints
46. Name the condition in which delaminated protein is stored as fat.
Excess protein intake
47. A food that supplies all of the essential amino acids in appropriate ratios.
48. A food source low or lacking in one or more of the essential amino acids.
49. What is the factor when an essential amino acid is missing or present in the smallest amount?
50. What are the 10 nonessential amino acids?
Alanine, asparagine, aspartic acid, cysteine, glutamic acid, glutamine, glycine, proline, serine, tyrosine
51. What are the two semi-essential amino acids?
Arginine and histidine
52. What percentage of total caloric intake from protein defines a high protein diet?
More than 35%
53. Name three monosaccharides.
Glucose, fructose, and galactose
54. Name three disaccharides.
Sucrose, lactose, and maltose
55. What percentage of the human body by weight is comprised of water?
56. What are five things the body needs fats for?
Energy, cellular structure and membrane function, precursors to hormones, cellular signals, regulation and excretion of nutrients in cells
57. What is the percentage of fat intake that athletes are recommended to consume?
20 to 25% of total caloric intake
58. Name six functions that decrease as a result of dehydration.
Blood volume, performance, blood pressure, sweat rate, cardiac output, blood flow to skin
59. Name four functions that increase as a result of dehydration.
Core temperature, heart rate, perceived exertion, use of muscle glycogen
60. Name two functions that are retained as a result of dehydration.
Water and sodium
61. The fluid loss of even _____ percent will adversely affect circulatory functions and decrease performance levels.
62. In order to become more aware of the calories they're consuming, what is the length of time clients should track their food intake?
At least one week
63. What is the duration of the post- workout window of opportunity for carbohydrate and protein ingestion?
64. Name seven typical disordered eating patterns.
Consuming junk food, avoidance of specific foods, eating one meal per day, irregular eating patterns, food phobias, financial limitations affecting types of foods one can purchase, eating too much or too little protein or carbohydrates
65. Name the four nutrients that have the greatest potential for excess dosage in dietary supplements.
Vitamin A, Vitamin D, Iron, Zinc
66. Values that provide guidelines for what constitutes an adequate intake of a nutrient, these values are designed to estimate the nutrient needs of healthy people in various age groups and of both sexes.
Dietary reference intake
67. What is a potential result of consuming an excessive amount of Vitamin D?
Calcification of blood vessels and eventually kidney, heart, and lung damage
68. What is a potential result of consuming an excessive amount of calcium?
69. What are potential results of consuming an excessive amount of iron?
Interference with absorption of other minerals and gastrointestinal irritation
70. How often does a NASM CPT need to renew their credentials?
Every 2 years
71. What is the number of contact hours of continuing education necessary for NASM CPT credential renewal?
20 hours, which equals 2.0 CEUs
72. What is the traditional reason for use of a dietary supplement?
To provide the body with nutrients that might not be adequately supplied by a diet
73. Physical activity accounts for approximately what percent of TEE?
74. The professional who is legally qualified to practice in the field of nutrition.
Registered Dietician (RD)
75. Four scenarios where supplemental protein may be helpful.
Quick amino acid consumption before or after weight training; to replace whole-food protein for weight loss; when whole food is not available; for bodybuilders, wrestlers, or weight conscious athletes preparing for competition
76. How many calories are in one gram of a carbohydrate?
77. Recommended percentage of total caloric intake from carbohydrates.
78. What is the recommended amount of carbohydrate to be ingested within 30 minutes of exercise in order to maximize recovery?
79. What is the ultimate nutritional limiting factor for exercise performance?
80. Give four reasons why the body needs carbohydrates.
They are the preferred form of energy, they constantly need to be replaced, parts of the central nervous system relies exclusively on carbohydrates, they efficiently burn and use fat and protein
81. Name five things carbohydrates provide for the body.
Nutrition, satiety, cellular fluid balance, blood sugar levels, protein conservation
82. Name four body function processes that are improved with adequate water consumption.
Endocrine gland function, liver function, metabolic function, body temperature regulation
83. Name four nutritional guidelines for lean body mass gain.
Consume 4 to 6 meals per day, spread protein intake throughout day, take advantage of the post-workout window of opportunity to have protein and carbohydrates, don't neglect the importance of carbohydrate and fat intake
84. What are nine nutritional guidelines for weight loss?
Spread protein, carbohydrate, and fat consumption throughout the day; choose whole grains and vegetables over refined grains and simple sugars; eat 4 to 6 meals per day; avoid empty calories; drink plenty of water; weigh and measure foods for one week to get a better understanding of caloric intake; make small decreases in calories and increase activity; consume less that 10% of calories from saturated fat; limit alcohol consumption
85. Name four precautionary statements on dietary supplements.
Investigate the use of multivitamins for your specific needs, specific compounds can allow the body to function at full capacity, individual results may vary, general population should not use supplements for medicinal purposes
86. Name three nutrients that should not be around 100% of the DV.
Vitamin A, beta-carotene (contraindicated for smokers), calcium
87. A unit of expression of energy equal to 1000 calories.
Kilocalorie or Calorie with a capital C
88. Total energy expenditure (TEE) is the sum total of what three energy components?
Resting metabolic rate (RMR), Thermic effect of food (TEF), and Energy expended during physical activity
89. Give factors that affect protein requirements
An individual's daily exercise and physical activity levels, daily caloric consumption, body-composition goals, sports-performance goals
90. How much extra fluid should a person consume for every 15 to 20 minutes of exercise?
91. What is the recommended number of meals per day for someone with the goal of lean mass gain?
92. People in this stage of change do exercise occasionally but are planning to begin exercising regularly in the next month."
93. Questions that cannot be answered with a one word answer
Nondirective or open-ended
94. The primary purpose of a business.
To create and keep a loyal customer base or following
95. The premise on which all buying decisions are based.
96. Personal trainers have how much time to make a good first impression?
97. What are the four steps in the model of verbal communication?
1. What speaker means 2. What speaker says 3. What listener hears 4. What listener thinks speaker means
98. What are some common barriers to exercising?
Time, unrealistic goals, lack of social support, social physique, anxiety, convenience
99. Name the most frequent reason given for not exercising.
Lack of time
100. The sum of the processes by which an animal or plant takes in and uses food substances
THIS SET IS OFTEN IN FOLDERS WITH...
YOU MIGHT ALSO LIKE...
NASM Chapter 13 Program Design
NASM FCB Program Design
NASM Program Design
NASM Program Design
OTHER SETS BY THIS CREATOR
mngt exam 2
hrmn exam 2
real estate exam 1
hrmn test one
OTHER QUIZLET SETS
Fitness Trainer Flashcards
Basic and Applied Sciences/Assessment Flashcards
NASM basic applied science
NASM Module 2 Notecards