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MICROSOFT testbanks WEEK 3
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C,D
Which of the following operating systems can have its security settings managed by using security templates? Select all that apply.
a. Windows XP
b. Windows Vista
c. Windows 7
d. Windows 8
A,B
. Which two of the following methods can you use to deploy security templates?
a. using Active Directory GPOs
b. using the Security Configuration and Analysis snap-in
c. copying a text file to each managed computer's admin$ share
d. using a logon script
...
. What is an ADMX file?
a. an ADM file translator
b. the ADM format for newer operating systems
c. a template buffer
d. the protocol that deploys ADM files across networks
C
What is the Central Store?
a. an App Store from which you can deploy GPOs
b. a public share that allows users to place GPO requests into a queue
c. a repository for Administrative Templates
d. an online App Store for Administrative Templates
A,B
Which of the following are legitimate Administrative Template Property Filters? Select all that apply.
a. Keyword Filters
b. Requirements Filters
c. Security Filters
d. Operating System Filters
C
What is the name of the software component used for installation, maintenance, and removal of software on Windows?
a. Control Panel
b. Add/Remove Programs applet
c. Windows Installer
d. Application Installer
D
. What is the filename extension for the files in which installation information is stored?
a. .txt
b. .xml
c. .ini
d. .msi
A
What are MST files used for?
a. They deploy customized software installation files
b. They are template files for software packages
c. They are custom patch files
d. They specialize in software installation test files
B
Windows Installer cannot install .exe files. To distribute a software package that installs with an .exe file, what must you do to it?
a. Convert it to a ZIP file
b. Convert it to an MSI file
c. Convert it to an MSP file
d. Convert it to an MST file
A,C,D
The Security template allows you to configure which of the following settings? Select all that apply.
a. System Services
b. Registry Entries
c. Registry Permissions
d. File System Permissions
D
. Where is the default location for ADMX files?
a. C:\Windows\SYSVOL\ADMX
b. C:\Windows\System32\XML\ADMX
c. C:\Windows\Inf
d. C:\Windows\PolicyDefinitions
A,B,C
. Identify all possible states of an Administrative Template.
a. Not Configured
b. Enabled
c. Disabled
d. Deployed
B
What language are ADMX files based on?
a. HTML
b. XML
c. SGML
d. Java
D
Unlike ADM files, ADMX files are not stored where?
a. in the Central Store
b. on the domain controller
c. in the SYSVOL folder
d. in individual GPOs
A
Where is the Central Store located?
a. in the SYSVOL directory
b. Microsoft Online
c. TechNet
d. on a domain controller public share
C
Which domain users are automatically granted permissions to perform Group Policy Management tasks?
a. local administrators
b. power users
c. domain administrators
d. domain users
...
Why would you ever want or need to reset the domain policy and the domain controller policy to the default settings? Select all that apply.
a. if they've become corrupted
b. to refresh policy settings
c. as a regular part of domain maintenance and housekeeping
d. if someone deleted one of the policies
...
A user must have which two existing permissions for new permissions to be applied to their accounts for GPO delegation?
a. Allow Read
b. Allow Write
c. Allow Apply
d. Allow Modify
D
If you don't want a GPO to apply, which group policy permission do you apply to a user or group?
a. Disallow Read
b. Disallow Write
c. Disallow Modify
d. Disallow Apply
B
When you're about to reset domain policy and domain controllers policy back to default with the dcgpofix.exe command, what final warning are you given before you accept the change?
a. that you're about to reset policies to their defaults
b. that all User Rights Assignments will be replaced
c. that all security for the domain will be overwritten
d. that you're about to restore all security to the default
A
Which utility do you use to create GPO preferences?
a. Group Policy Management Editor
b. Group Policy Preference Editor
c. Group Policy Editor
d. Group Policy Wizard
...
For GPP editing states, which key do you use to toggle Enable Current?
a. F4
b. F5
c. F6
d. F7
a
. How do you stop processing a preference if an error occurs?
a. Select the Stop processing items option on the Common tab.
b. Select the Remove this item option on the Common tab.
c. Select the Stop on any error option in the GPP Wizard.
d. Select the Stop on all errors option in the GPP Wizard.
D
Which Windows extension allows you to copy registry settings and apply them to other computers' create, replace, or delete registry settings?
a. Applications
b. Environment
c. Files
d. Registry
A
Which Windows extension allows you to add, replace, or delete sections or properties in configuration settings or setup information files?
a. .ini files
b. files
c. folders
d. environment
A,D
To copy, replace, update, or delete files, you can use wildcard characters. Which wildcard characters can you use? Select all that apply.
a. ?
b. X
c. $
d. *
A,D
. If you need to provide users access to a common network location, which GPP would you use? Select all that apply.
a. Shortcut
b. File
c. Drive Maps
d. Folders
D
To support GPPs on older Windows versions (Server and Workstation), you have to install what component from Microsoft?
a. GPP Registry Tweaks
b. GPP Service Pack 1
c. A special GPP hotfix
d. GPP Client-Side Extensions
D
Which component allows you to create multiple Registry preference items based on registry settings that you select?
a. the Registry Scope
b. the Registry Extension
c. the Registry Configurator
d. the Registry Wizard
A,B
Which of the following are possible targets for individual preferences? Select all that apply.
a. computer name
b. CPU speed
c. printer preference
d. port assignment
C
Which term describes changing the scope of individual preference items so that the preference items apply only to selected users or computers?
a. individual targeting
b. user-specific targeting
c. item-level targeting
d. focused targeting
ABC
. Which items can you configure shortcuts to in performing GPP deployments? Select all that apply.
a. Windows Firewall applet
b. Documents folder
c. Microsoft Excel
d. Printer
B,D
.. When working with Network Drive Mapping Preferences, which preference behaviors delete drive mappings? Select all that apply.
a. Create
b. Replace
c. Update
d. Delete
B,C,D
. GPP can be configured on domain controllers running which version of Windows Server? Select all that apply.
a. 2003
b. 2008
c. 2008 R2
d. 2012
B
Which of the following technologies transparently distributes traffic across multiple servers by using virtual IP addresses and a shared name?
a. Redundant network cards
b. Network Load Balancing
c. Failover cluster
d. RAID array
D
. Which of the following statements about Network Load Balancing is incorrect?
a. Windows Server 2012 R2 NLB clusters can have between 2 and 32 nodes.
b. All hosts in the NLB cluster receive the incoming traffic.
c. NLB detects the failure of a cluster node using a heartbeat.
d. Network adapters in the NLB cluster can use both multicast and unicast simultaneously.
B
From where would you add Network Load Balancing to a Windows Server 2012 R2 computer?
a. Programs and Features
b. Server Manager
c. Add/Remove Programs
d. Computer ManagemenT
C
To configure an NLB cluster after installing NLB on the Windows Server 2012 R2 computer, you must configure three types of parameters. Which of the following is not one of the three you must configure?
a. Host parameters
b. Port rules
c. Firewall rules
d. Cluster parameters
B
Which PowerShell cmdlet here will correctly install NLB and the NLB management console?
a. Install-WindowsFeature NLB,NLB-Console
b. Add-WindowsFeature NLB,RSAT-NLB
c. Add-WindowsFeature NLB, NLB-RSAT
d. Add-WindowsComponents NLB,NLB-Manager
A
. Which PowerShell cmdlet is used to add a new dedicated IP to an NLB cluster node?
a. Add-NlbClusterNodeDip
b. Add-NlbClusterDip
c. Add-NlbClusterNodeIp
d. Add-NlbClusterIp
C
Which PowerShell cmdlet is used to delete an NLB cluster?
a. Drop-NlbCluster
b. Delete-NlbCluster
c. Remove-NlbCluster
d. Disband-NlbCluster
A
While logged into a Windows Server 2012 R2 computer that is part of an NLB cluster, which of the following PowerShell one-liners is the correct way to change or set the primary IP address of the cluster?
a. Get-NlbCluster | Set-NlbCluster -ClusterPrimaryIP IPaddress
b. Set-NlbCluster -ClusterPrimaryIP IPaddress
c. Find-NlbCluster | Set-NlbCluster -ClusterVIP IPaddress
d. Attach-NlbCluster | Set-NlbCluster -ClusterPrimaryIP IPaddress
A
When you configure port rules for NLB clusters, you will need to configure all of the options listed here, except for one. Which option in this list will you not configure for a port rule?
a. The node IP address the rule should apply to
b. The TCP or UDP port(s) the rule should apply to
c. The filtering mode
d. The protocols that this rule should apply to
A
. In which NLB cluster operation mode is the MAC address of every node's network adapter replaced with a single shared MAC address?
a. Unicast
b. Multicast
c. Class C
d. Single
A
Which of the following is a constraint of using NLB clusters in unicast mode that you will need to design for?
a. You will need separate cluster and management network adapters if you manage the nodes from a different TCP/IP subnet than the cluster network.
b. You will need to configure routers to duplicate packets for delivery to all cluster nodes.
c. You will need to manually add ARP entries to the routers.
d. You will need to ensure you have at least one node in the NLB cluster configured to handle traffic for each class C subnet in your network.
B
Which cluster operation mode is designed to prevent the network switch from flooding with traffic?
a. Unicast
b. IGMP Multicast
c. BGP Simulcast
d. Multicast
D
Which NLB control command would be the correct one to use to gracefully prepare a node for a planned maintenance activity?
a. Stop
b. Suspend
c. Resume
d. Drainstop
A
Which NLB control command would most likely be the best option to use to immediately prepare a node for emergency maintenance?
a. Stop
b. Suspend
c. Resume
d. Drainstop
B
Many components can be configured redundantly within a server system. Of the components listed, which one is typically not available in a redundant arrangement in a single server system?
a. Power supplies
b. Mainboards (motherboards)
c. Network cards
d. Disks
A
A production-ready failover cluster requires what minimum number of nodes?
a. Two
b. Three
c. Four
d. Five
D
There are many requirements that must be met in order to build a failover cluster using Windows Server 2012 R2. Which of the items listed here is not an actual requirement you must meet?
a. All servers must use identical hardware components
b. All servers must use the same version of Windows Server 2012 R2
c. All servers should have the exact same updates and service packs installed
d. All servers must be joined to an Active Directory domain
A
What type of quorum configuration can sustain the loss of one-half of the cluster nodes (rounded up), minus one?
a. Node Majority
b. Node and Disk Majority
c. Node and File Share Majority
d. No Majority (Disk Only)
D
In Windows Server 2012 R2, how many virtual machines can be utilized in a cluster?
a. 16
b. 64
c. 1,000
d. 4,000
C
. In a failover cluster configured on Windows Server 2012 R2, how are heartbeats transmitted?
a. Using TCP port 3343 unicast
b. Using TCP port 3343 broadcast
c. Using UDP port 3343 unicast
d. Using UDP port 3343 broadcast
B
When failover clusters connect to, and use, a shared storage device using Fibre Channel, what name is given to the Fibre Channel network?
a. The stretched network
b. The fabric
c. The fiber
d. The APIPA network
D
Which storage technology is a low-cost option that typically requires the cluster nodes to be physically close to the drives?
a. iSCSI
b. Fibre Channel
c. Fibre Channel over Ethernet
d. SAS
D
. How are storage devices typically assigned to only a single cluster on the network?
a. By using the SCSI Primary Commands-3 standard
b. By using the NTFS file system
c. By using dynamic disks
d. By using LUN masking or zoning
A
. Cluster Shared Volume, in Windows Server 2012 R2, offers faster throughput when integrated with what?
a. Server Message Block (SMB) Multichannel
b. Remote Direct Memory Access (RDMA)
c. BitLocker volume encryption
d. Storage Spaces
B
. In a cluster with an even number of nodes, what must be used to break ties during node failure?
a. A quorum
b. A witness
c. A multiport adapter
d. A LUN mask
A
Which PowerShell cmdlet would be used to add a new resource group to a failover cluster configuration?
a. Add-ClusterGroup
b. New-ClusterGroup
c. New-ClusterResourceGroup
d. Add-ResourceGroup
C
Which PowerShell cmdlet would you need to use to configure the possible nodes that can own a resource in a failover cluster?
a. Set-ResourceOwnerNode
b. Configure-OwnerNode
c. Set-ClusterOwnerNode
d. Update-ResourceOwner
C
What mode of Cluster Aware Updating has an administrator triggering the updates manually from the orchestrator?
a. Self-updating mode
b. Triggered-updating mode
c. Remote-updating mode
d. Orchestrator-triggered mode
A,C
Clusters running on which of the following operating systems are supported for migration to Windows Server 2012 R2? (Choose all that apply)
a. Windows Server 2008
b. Windows Server 2003
c. Windows Server 2008 R2
d. Windows Server 2003 R2
A
When configuring shared storage for a cluster, there are several requirements that you must keep in mind. Of the items listed here, which one is not a requirement when configuring the shared storage?
a. The disks must be only GPT, not MBR
b. The miniport driver used for the storage must work with the Storport storage driver.
c. The storage device must support persistent reservations
d. The file system must be formatted as NTFS
D
. Which of the following enables you to allow multiple nodes to share a single LUN concurrently?
a. SMB Lun
b. NFS Lun
c. Resilient File System
d. Cluster Shared Volume
b,c,d
. Which of the following improvements did CSV bring to Windows Server 2012 and Windows Server 2012 R2? (Choose all that apply.)
a. Self-encryption
b. Support for BitLocker volume encryption
c. Support for SMB 3.0
d. Allows Windows to scan and repair CSV volumes with no offline time
B,D
. Which of the following features does CSV bring to Windows Server 2012 R2? (Choose all that apply)
a. CSV cache compression
b. CSV cache allocation
c. Auto Ownership
d. Increased CSV resiliency
A
. If you have an odd number of node memberships in a fail-over cluster, how many votes does the witness resource have?
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
D
Which of the following is the result of combining CSV with storage spaces?
a. A fast disk solution
b. An expandable disk system
c. A self-recovering disk system
d. A resilient, high available, cost efficient solution
C
Which of the following statements best describes an Active Directory-detached cluster?
a. An Active Directory-detached cluster is a cluster that uses users CAU authentication.
b. An Active Directory-detached cluster is a cluster that uses SSL encryption.
c. An Active Directory-detached cluster is a cluster without a network name.
d. An Active Directory-detached cluster is a cluster that is powered to Windows PowerShell.
C
Because the Active Directory-detached cluster uses Kerberos for authentication for intercluster communications, which of the following must be true?
a. The cluster nodes must have SMB enabled.
b. The cluster nodes must have a witness that is part of the Active Directory domain.
c. The cluster nodes must be joined to an Active Directory domain.
d. The cluster node must have an enterprise digital certificate.
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