43 terms

Nclex review: Pneumonia, COPD, Asthma

A nurse notes that a client has kyphosis and generalized muscle atrophy. Which of the following problems is a priority when the nurse develops a nursing plan of care?
1. Infection.
2. Confusion.
3. Ineffective coughing and deep breathing.
4. Difficulty chewing solid foods.
In kyphosis, the thoracic spine bends forward with convexity of the curve in a posterior direction, making effective coughing and deep breathing difficult. Although the client may develop other problems because respiratory status deteriorates when pulmonary secretions are not adequately cleared from airways, ineffective coughing and deep breathing should receive priority attention.
A client with deep vein thrombosis suddenly develops dyspnea, tachypnea, and chest discomfort. What should the nurse do first?
1. Elevate the head of the bed 30 to 45 degrees.
2. Encourage the client to cough and deep breathe.
3. Auscultate the lungs to detect abnormal breath sounds. 4. Contact the physician.
Elevating the head of the bed facilitates breathing because the lungs are able to expand as the diaphragm descends. Coughing and deep breathing do not alleviate the symptoms of a pulmonary embolus, nor does lung auscultation. The physician must be kept informed of changes in a client's status, but the priority in this case is alleviating the symptoms.
A 79-year-old female client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of bacterial pneumonia. While obtaining the client's health history, the nurse learns that the client has osteoarthritis, follows a vegetarian diet, and is very concerned with cleanliness. Which of the following would most likely be a predisposing factor for the diagnosis of pneumonia?
1. Age.
2. Osteoarthritis.
3. Vegetarian diet.
4. Daily bathing.
The client's age is a predisposing factor for pneumonia; pneumonia is more common in elderly or debilitated clients. Other predisposing factors include smoking, upper respiratory tract infections, malnutrition, immunosuppression, and the presence of a chronic illness. Osteoarthritis, a nutritionally sound vegetarian diet, and frequent bathing are not predisposing factors for pneumonia.
Which of the following is significant data to gather from a client who has been diagnosed with pneumonia? Select all that apply.
1. Quality of breath sounds.
2. Presence of bowel sounds.
3. Occurence of chest pain.
4. Amount of peripheral edema.
5. Color of nail beds.
1, 3, 5.
A respiratory assessment, which includes auscultating breath sounds and assessing the color of the nail beds, is a priority for clients with pneumonia. Assessing for the presence of chest pain is also an important respiratory assessment as chest pain can interfere with the client's ability to breathe deeply. Auscultating bowel sounds and assessing for peripheral edema may be appropriate assessments, but these are not priority assessments for the client with pneumonia.
A client with bacterial pneumonia is to be started on I.V. antibiotics. Which of the following diagnostic tests must be completed before antibiotic therapy begins?
1. Urinalysis.
2. Sputum culture.
3. Chest radiograph.
4. Red blood cell count.
A sputum specimen is obtained for culture to determine the causative organism. After the organism is identified, an appropriate antibiotic can be prescribed. Beginning antibiotic therapy before obtaining the sputum specimen may alter the results of the test. Neither a urinalysis, a chest radiograph, nor a red blood cell count needs to be obtained before initiation of antibiotic therapy for pneumonia.
When caring for the client who is receiving an aminoglycoside antibiotic, the nurse should monitor which of the following laboratory values?
1. Serum sodium.
2. Serum potassium.
3. Serum creatinine.
4. Serum calcium.
It is essential to monitor serum creatinine in the client receiving an aminoglycoside antibiotic because of the potential of this type of drug to cause acute tubular necrosis. Aminoglycoside antibiotics do not affect serum sodium, potassium, or calcium levels.
A client with pneumonia has a temperature of 102.6 ° F (39.2 ° C), is diaphoretic, and has a productive cough. The nurse should include which of the following measures in the plan of care?
1. Position changes every 4 hours.
2. Nasotracheal suctioning to clear secretions.
3. Frequent linen changes
4. Frequent offering of a bedpan.
Frequent linen changes are appropriate for this client because of the diaphoresis. Diaphoresis produces general discomfort. The client should be kept dry to promote comfort. Position changes need to be done every 2 hours. Nasotracheal suctioning is not indicated with the client's productive cough. Frequent offering of a bedpan is not indicated by the data provided in this scenario.
Bed rest is prescribed for a client with pneumonia during the acute phase of the illness. The nurse should determine the effectiveness of bed rest by assessing the client's:
1. Decreased cellular demand for oxygen.
2. Reduced episodes of coughing.
3. Diminished pain when breathing deeply.
4. Ability to expectorate secretions more easily.
Exudate in the alveoli interferes with ventilation and the diffusion of gases in clients with pneumonia. During the acute phase of the illness, it is essential to reduce the body's need for oxygen at the cellular level; bed rest is the most effective method for doing so. Bed rest does not decrease coughing or promote clearance of secretions, and it does not reduce pain when taking deep breaths.
The cyanosis that accompanies bacterial pneumonia is primarily caused by which of the following?
1. Decreased cardiac output.
2. Pleural effusion.
3. Inadequate peripheral circulation.
4. Decreased oxygenation of the blood.
A client with pneumonia has less lung surface available for the diffusion of gases because of the inflammatory pulmonary response that creates lung exudate and results in reduced oxygenation of the blood. The client becomes cyanotic because blood is not adequately oxygenated in the lungs before it enters the peripheral circulation. Decreased cardiac output may be a comorbid condition in some clients with pneumonia; however, it is not the cause of cyanosis. Pleural effusions are a potential complication of pneumonia but are not the primary cause of decreased oxygenation. Inadequate peripheral circulation is also not the cause of the cyanosis that develops with bacterial pneumonia.
A client with pneumonia is experiencing pleuritic chest pain. The nurse should assess the client for:
1. A mild but constant aching in the chest.
2. Severe midsternal pain.
3. Moderate pain that worsens on inspiration.
4. Muscle spasm pain that accompanies coughing.
Chest pain in pneumonia is generally caused by friction between the pleural layers. It is more severe on inspiration than on expiration, secondary to chest wall movement. Pleuritic chest pain is usually described as sharp, not mild or aching. Pleuritic chest pain is not localized to the sternum, and it is not the result of a muscle spasm.
Which of the following measures would most likely be successful in reducing pleuritic chest pain in a client with pneumonia?
1. Encourage the client to breathe shallowly.
2. Have the client practice abdominal breathing.
3. Offer the client incentive spirometry.
4. Teach the client to splint the rib cage when coughing.
The pleuritic pain is triggered by chest movement and is particularly severe during coughing. Splinting the chest wall will help reduce the discomfort of coughing. Deep breathing is essential to prevent further atelectasis. Abdominal breathing is not as effective in decreasing pleuritic chest pain as is splinting of the rib cage. Incentive spirometry facilitates effective deep breathing but does not decrease pleuritic chest pain.
The nurse administers two 325 mg aspirin every 4 hours to a client with pneumonia. The nurse should evaluate the outcome of administering the drug by assessing which of the following? Select all that apply.
1. Decreased pain when breathing.
2. Prolonged clotting time.
3. Decreased temperature.
4. Decreased respiratory rate. 5. Increased ability to expectorate secretions.
1, 3.
Aspirin is administered to clients with pneumonia because it is an analgesic that helps control chest discomfort and an antipyretic that helps reduce fever. Aspirin has an anticoagulant effect, but that is not the reason for prescribing it for a client with pneumonia, and the use of the drug will be short term. Aspirin does not affect the respiratory rate, and does not facilitate expectoration of secretions.
Which of the following mental status changes may occur when a client with pneumonia is first experiencing hypoxia? 1. Coma.
2. Apathy.
3. Irritability.
4. Depression.
Clients who are experiencing hypoxia characteristically exhibit irritability, restlessness, or anxiety as initial mental status changes. As the hypoxia becomes more pronounced, the client may become confused and combative. Coma is a late clinical manifestation of hypoxia. Apathy and depression are not symptoms of hypoxia.
The client with pneumonia develops mild constipation, and the nurse administers docusate sodium (Colace) as ordered. This drug works by:
1. Softening the stool.
2. Lubricating the stool.
3. Increasing stool bulk.
4. Stimulating peristalsis.
Docusate sodium (Colace) is a stool softener that allows fluid and fatty substances to enter the stool and soften it. Docusate sodium does not lubricate the stool, increase stool bulk, or stimulate peristalsis.
Which of the following is an expected outcome for an elderly client following treatment for bacterial pneumonia? 1. A respiratory rate of 25 to 30 breaths/ minute.
2. The ability to perform activities of daily living without dyspnea.
3. A maximum loss of 5 to 10 lb of body weight.
4. Chest pain that is minimized by splinting the rib cage.
An expected outcome for a client recovering from pneumonia would be the ability to perform activities of daily living without experiencing dyspnea. A respiratory rate of 25 to 30 breaths/ minute indicates the client is experiencing tachypnea, which would not be expected on recovery. A weight loss of 5 to 10 lb is undesirable; the expected outcome would be to maintain normal weight. A client who is recovering from pneumonia should experience decreased or no chest pain.
The nurse is instructing a client with COPD how to do pursed-lip breathing. In which order should the nurse explain the steps to the client?
1. "Breathe in normally through your nose for 2 counts (while counting to yourself, one, two)."
2. "Relax your neck and shoulder muscles."
3. "Pucker your lips as if you were going to whistle."
4. "Breathe out slowly through pursed lips for 4 counts (while counting to yourself, one, two, three, four)."
2, 1, 3, 4.
The nurse should instruct the client to first relax the neck and shoulders and then take several normal breaths. After taking a breath in, the client should pucker the lips, and finally breathe out through pursed lips.
The nurse reviews an arterial blood gas report for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). pH 7.35; PC02 62; PO2 70; HCO3 34 The nurse should:
1. Apply a 100% non-rebreather mask.
2. Assess the vital signs.
3. Reposition the client.
4. Prepare for intubation.
Clients with chronic COPD have CO2 retention and the respiratory drive is stimulated when the PO2 decreases. The heart rate, respiratory rate, and blood pressure should be evaluated to determine if the client is hemodynamically stable. Symptoms, such as dyspnea, should also be assessed. Oxygen supplementation, if indicated, should be titrated upward in small increments. There is no indication that the client is experiencing respiratory distress requiring intubation.
When developing a discharge plan to manage the care of a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), the nurse should advise the the client to expect to:
1. Develop respiratory infections easily.
2. Maintain current status.
3. Require less supplemental oxygen.
4. Show permanent improvement.
A client with COPD is at high risk for development of respiratory infections. COPD is slowly progressive; therefore, maintaining current status and establishing a goal that the client will require less supplemental oxygen are unrealistic expectations. Treatment may slow progression of the disease, but permanent improvement is highly unlikely.
Which of the following indicates that the client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who has been discharged to home understands his care plan?
1. The client promises to do pursed-lip breathing at home. 2. The client states actions to reduce pain.
3. The client says that he will use oxygen via a nasal cannula at 5 L/ minute.
4. The client agrees to call the physician if dyspnea on exertion increases.
Increasing dyspnea on exertion indicates that the client may be experiencing complications of COPD. Therefore, the nurse should notify the physician. Extracting promises from clients is not an outcome criterion. Pain is not a common symptom of COPD. Clients with COPD use low-flow oxygen supplementation (1 to 2 L/ minute) to avoid suppressing the respiratory drive, which, for these clients, is stimulated by hypoxia.
Which of the following physical assessment findings are normal for a client with advanced chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?
1. Increased anteroposterior chest diameter.
2. Underdeveloped neck muscles.
3. Collapsed neck veins.
4. Increased chest excursions with respiration.
Increased anteroposterior chest diameter is characteristic of advanced COPD. Air is trapped in the overextended alveoli, and the ribs are fixed in an inspiratory position. The result is the typical barrel-chested appearance. Overly developed, not underdeveloped, neck muscles are associated with COPD because of their increased use in the work of breathing. Distended, not collapsed, neck veins are associated with COPD as a symptom of the heart failure that the client may experience secondary to the increased workload on the heart to pump blood into the pulmonary vasculature. Diminished, not increased, chest excursion is associated with COPD.
When instructing clients on how to decrease the risk of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), the nurse should emphasize which of the following?
1. Participate regularly in aerobic exercises.
2. Maintain a high-protein diet.
3. Avoid exposure to people with known respiratory infections.
4. Abstain from cigarette smoking.
Cigarette smoking is the primary cause of COPD. Other risk factors include exposure to environmental pollutants and chronic asthma. Participating in an aerobic exercise program, although beneficial, will not decrease the risk of COPD. Insufficient protein intake and exposure to people with respiratory infections do not increase the risk of COPD.
Which of the following is an expected outcome of pursed-lip breathing for clients with emphysema?
1. To promote oxygen intake.
2. To strengthen the diaphragm.
3. To strengthen the intercostal muscles.
4. To promote carbon dioxide elimination.
Pursed-lip breathing prolongs exhalation and prevents air trapping in the alveoli, thereby promoting carbon dioxide elimination. By prolonging exhalation and helping the client relax, pursed-lip breathing helps the client learn to control the rate and depth of respiration. Pursed-lip breathing does not promote the intake of oxygen, strengthen the diaphragm, or strengthen intercostal muscles.
Which of the following is a priority goal for the client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?
1. Maintaining functional ability.
2. Minimizing chest pain.
3. Increasing carbon dioxide levels in the blood.
4. Treating infectious agents.
A priority goal for the client with COPD is to manage the signs and symptoms of the disease process so as to maintain the client's functional ability. Chest pain is not a typical symptom of COPD. The carbon dioxide concentration in the blood is increased to an abnormal level in clients with COPD; it would not be a goal to increase the level further. Preventing infection would be a goal of care for the client with COPD.
A client's arterial blood gas values are as follows: pH, 7.31; PaO2, 80 mm Hg; PaCO2, 65 mm Hg; HCO3 −, 36 mEq/ L. The nurse should assess the client for?
1. Cyanosis.
2. Flushed skin.
3. Irritability.
4. Anxiety.
The high PaCO2 level causes flushing due to vasodilation. The client also becomes drowsy and lethargic because carbon dioxide has a depressant effect on the central nervous system. Cyanosis is a sign of hypoxia. Irritability and anxiety are not common with a PaCO2 level of 65 mm Hg but are associated with hypoxia.
When performing postural drainage, which of the following factors promotes the movement of secretions from the lower to the upper respiratory tract?
1. Friction between the cilia.
2. Force of gravity.
3. Sweeping motion of cilia.
4. Involuntary muscle contractions.
The principle behind using postural drainage is that gravity will help move secretions from smaller to larger airways. Postural drainage is best used after percussion has loosened secretions. Coughing or suctioning is then used to remove secretions. Movement of cilia is not sufficient to move secretions. Muscle contractions do not move secretions within the lungs.
When teaching a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease to conserve energy, the nurse should teach the client to lift objects:
1. While inhaling through an open mouth.
2. While exhaling through pursed lips.
3. After exhaling but before inhaling.
4. While taking a deep breath and holding it.
Exhaling requires less energy than inhaling. Therefore, lifting while exhaling saves energy and reduces perceived dyspnea. Pursing the lips prolongs exhalation and provides the client with more control over breathing. Lifting after exhaling but before inhaling is similar to lifting with the breath held. This should not be recommended because it is similar to the Valsalva maneuver, which can stimulate cardiac arrhythmias.
The nurse teaches a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) to assess for signs and symptoms of right-sided heart failure. Which of the following signs and symptoms should be included in the teaching plan?
1. Clubbing of nail beds.
2. Hypertension.
3. Peripheral edema.
4. Increased appetite.
Right-sided heart failure is a complication of COPD that occurs because of pulmonary hypertension. Signs and symptoms of right-sided heart failure include peripheral edema, jugular venous distention, hepatomegaly, and weight gain due to increased fluid volume. Clubbing of nail beds is associated with conditions of chronic hypoxemia. Hypertension is associated with left-sided heart failure. Clients with heart failure have decreased appetites.
The nurse assesses the respiratory status of a client who is experiencing an exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) secondary to an upper respiratory tract infection. Which of the following findings would be expected?
1. Normal breath sounds.
2. Prolonged inspiration.
3. Normal chest movement.
4. Coarse crackles and rhonchi.
Exacerbations of COPD are commonly caused by respiratory infections. Coarse crackles and rhonchi would be auscultated as air moves through airways obstructed with secretions. In COPD, breath sounds are diminished because of an enlarged anteroposterior diameter of the chest. Expiration, not inspiration, becomes prolonged. Chest movement is decreased as lungs become overdistended.
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is experiencing dyspnea and has a low PaO2 level. The nurse plans to administer oxygen as ordered. Which of the following statements is true concerning oxygen administration to a client with COPD?
1. High oxygen concentrations will cause coughing and dyspnea.
2. High oxygen concentrations may inhibit the hypoxic stimulus to breathe.
3. Increased oxygen use will cause the client to become dependent on the oxygen.
4. Administration of oxygen is contraindicated in clients who are using bronchodilators.
Clients who have a long history of COPD may retain carbon dioxide (CO2). Gradually the body adjusts to the higher CO2 concentration, and the high levels of CO2 no longer stimulate the respiratory center. The major respiratory stimulant then becomes hypoxemia. Administration of high concentrations of oxygen eliminates this respiratory stimulus and leads to hypoventilation. Oxygen can be drying if it is not humidified, but it does not cause coughing and dyspnea. Increased oxygen use will not create an oxygen dependency; clients should receive oxygen as needed. Oxygen is not contraindicated with the use of bronchodilators.
Which of the following diets would be most appropriate for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?
1. Low-fat, low-cholesterol diet.
2. Bland, soft diet.
3. Low-sodium diet.
4. High-calorie, high-protein diet.
The client should eat high-calorie, high-protein meals to maintain nutritional status and prevent weight loss that results from the increased work of breathing. The client should be encouraged to eat small, frequent meals. A low-fat, low-cholesterol diet is indicated for clients with coronary artery disease. The client with COPD does not necessarily need to follow a sodium-restricted diet, unless otherwise medically indicated. There is no need for the client to eat bland, soft foods.
The nurse administers theophylline (Theo-Dur) to a client. To evaluate the effectiveness of this medication, which of the following drug actions should the nurse anticipate?
1. Suppression of the client's respiratory infection.
2. Decrease in bronchial secretions.
3. Relaxation of bronchial smooth muscle.
4. Thinning of tenacious, purulent sputum.
Theophylline (Theo-Dur) is a bronchodilator that is administered to relax airways and decrease dyspnea. Theophylline is not used to treat infections and does not decrease or thin secretions.
The nurse is planning to teach a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease how to cough effectively. Which of the following instructions should be included?
1. Take a deep abdominal breath, bend forward, and cough three or four times on exhalation.
2. Lie flat on the back, splint the thorax, take two deep breaths, and cough.
3. Take several rapid, shallow breaths and then cough forcefully.
4. Assume a side-lying position, extend the arm over the head, and alternate deep breathing with coughing.
The goal of effective coughing is to conserve energy, facilitate removal of secretions, and minimize airway collapse. The client should assume a sitting position with feet on the floor if possible. The client should bend forward slightly and, using pursed-lip breathing, exhale. After resuming an upright position, the client should use abdominal breathing to slowly and deeply inhale. After repeating this process three or four times, the client should take a deep abdominal breath, bend forward, and cough three or four times upon exhalation (" huff" cough). Lying flat does not enhance lung expansion; sitting upright promotes full expansion of the thorax. Shallow breathing does not facilitate removal of secretions, and forceful coughing promotes collapse of airways. A side-lying position does not allow for adequate chest expansion to promote deep breathing.
A client uses a metered-dose inhaler (MDI) to aid in management of his asthma. Which action by the client indicates to the nurse that he needs further instruction regarding its use? Select all that apply.
1. Activation of the MDI is not coordinated with inspiration. 2. The client inspires rapidly when using the MDI.
3. The client holds his breath for 3 seconds after inhaling with the MDI.
4. The client shakes the MDI after use. 5. The client performs puffs in rapid succession.
1, 2, 3, 4, 5.
Utilization of an MDI requires coordination between activation and inspiration; deep breaths to ensure that medication is distributed into the lungs, holding the breath for 10 seconds or as long as possible to disperse the medication into the lungs, shaking up the medication in the MDI before use, and a sufficient amount of time between puffs to provide an adequate amount of inhalation medication.
A 34-year-old female with a history of asthma is admitted to the emergency department. The nurse notes that the client is dyspneic, with a respiratory rate of 35 breaths/ minute, nasal flaring, and use of accessory muscles. Auscultation of the lung fields reveals greatly diminished breath sounds. Based on these findings, which action should the nurse take to initiate care of the client?
1. Initiate oxygen therapy and reassess the client in 10 minutes.
2. Draw blood for an arterial blood gas analysis and send the client for a chest X-ray.
3. Encourage the client to relax and breathe slowly through the mouth.
4. Administer bronchodilators.
In an acute asthma attack, diminished or absent breath sounds can be an ominous sign indicating lack of air movement in the lungs and impending respiratory failure. The client requires immediate intervention with inhaled bronchodilators, I.V. corticosteroids and, possibly, I.V. theophylline (Theo-Dur). Administering oxygen and reassessing the client 10 minutes later would delay needed medical intervention, as would drawing blood for an arterial blood gas analysis and obtaining a chest X-ray. It would be futile to encourage the client to relax and breathe slowly without providing the necessary pharmacologic intervention.
A client experiencing a severe asthma attack has the following arterial blood gas: pH 7.33; Pco2 48; Po2 58; HCO3 26. Which of the following orders should the nurse perform first?
1. Albuterol (Proventil) nebulizer.
2. Chest x-ray.
3. Ipratropium (Atrovent) inhaler.
4. Sputum culture.
The arterial blood gas reveals a respiratory acidosis with hypoxia. A quick-acting bronchodilator, albuterol, should be administered via nebulizer to improve gas exchange. Ipratropium is a maintenance treatment for bronchospasm that can be used with albuterol. A chest x-ray and sputum sample can be obtained once the client is stable.
A client with acute asthma is prescribed short-term corticosteroid therapy. Which is the expected outcome for the use of steroids in clients with asthma?
1. Promote bronchodilation.
2. Act as an expectorant.
3. Have an anti-inflammatory effect.
4. Prevent development of respiratory infections.
Corticosteroids have an anti-inflammatory effect and act to decrease edema in the bronchial airways and decrease mucus secretion. Corticosteroids do not have a bronchodilator effect, act as expectorants, or prevent respiratory infections.
The nurse is teaching the client how to use a metered-dose inhaler (MDI) to administer a corticosteroid. Which of the following client actions indicates that he is using the MDI correctly? Select all that apply.
1. The inhaler is held upright.
2. The head is tilted down while inhaling the medicine.
3. The client waits 5 minutes between puffs.
4. The mouth is rinsed with water following administration. 5. The client lies supine for 15 minutes following administration.
1, 4.
The client should shake the inhaler and hold it upright when administering the drug. The head should be tilted back slightly. The client should wait about 1 to 2 minutes between puffs. The mouth should be rinsed following the use of a corticosteroid MDI to decrease the likelihood of developing an oral infection. The client does not need to lie supine; instead, the client will likely to be able to breathe more freely if sitting upright.
A client is prescribed metaproterenol (Alupent) via a metered-dose inhaler, two puffs every 4 hours. The nurse instructs the client to report adverse effects. Which of the following are potential adverse effects of metaproterenol? 1. Irregular heartbeat.
2. Constipation.
3. Pedal edema.
4. Decreased pulse rate.
Irregular heartbeats should be reported promptly to the care provider. Metaproterenol (Alupent) may cause irregular heartbeat, tachycardia, or anginal pain because of its adrenergic effect on beta-adrenergic receptors in the heart. It is not recommended for use in clients with known cardiac disorders. Metaproterenol does not cause constipation, pedal edema, or bradycardia.
A client who has been taking flunisolide (AeroBid), two inhalations a day, for treatment of asthma.has painful, white patches in his mouth. Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate?
1. "This is an anticipated adverse effect of your medication. It should go away in a couple of weeks."
2. "You are using your inhaler too much and it has irritated your mouth."
3. "You have developed a fungal infection from your medication. It will need to be treated with an antifungal agent."
4. "Be sure to brush your teeth and floss daily. Good oral hygiene will treat this problem."
Use of oral inhalant corticosteroids such as flunisolide (AeroBid) can lead to the development of oral thrush, a fungal infection. Once developed, thrush must be treated by antifungal therapy; it will not resolve on its own. Fungal infections can develop even without overuse of the corticosteroid inhaler. Although good oral hygiene can help prevent development of a fungal infection, it cannot be used alone to treat the problem.
Which of the following is an appropriate expected outcome for an adult client with well-controlled asthma?
1. Chest X-ray demonstrates minimal hyperinflation.
2. Temperature remains lower than 100 ° F (37. 8 ° C).
3. Arterial blood gas analysis demonstrates a decrease in PaO2.
4. Breath sounds are clear.
Between attacks, breath sounds should be clear on auscultation with good air flow present throughout lung fields. Chest X-rays should be normal. The client should remain afebrile. Arterial blood gases should be normal.
Which of the following health promotion activities should the nurse include in the discharge teaching plan for a client with asthma?
1. Incorporate physical exercise as tolerated into the daily routine.
2. Monitor peak flow numbers after meals and at bedtime. 3. Eliminate stressors in the work and home environment. 4. Use sedatives to ensure uninterrupted sleep at night.
Physical exercise is beneficial and should be incorporated as tolerated into the client's schedule. Peak flow numbers should be monitored daily, usually in the morning (before taking medication). Peak flow does not need to be monitored after each meal. Stressors in the client's life should be modified but cannot be totally eliminated. Although adequate sleep is important, it is not recommended that sedatives be routinely taken to induce sleep.
The nurse should teach the client with asthma that which of the following is one of the most common precipitating factors of an acute asthma attack?
1. Occupational exposure to toxins.
2. Viral respiratory infections.
3. Exposure to cigarette smoke.
4. Exercising in cold temperatures.
The most common precipitator of asthma attacks is viral respiratory infection. Clients with asthma should avoid people who have the flu or a cold and should get yearly flu vaccinations. Environmental exposure to toxins or heavy particulate matter can trigger asthma attacks; however, far fewer asthmatics are exposed to such toxins than are exposed to viruses. Cigarette smoke can also trigger asthma attacks, but to a lesser extent than viral respiratory infections. Some asthmatic attacks are triggered by exercising in cold weather.
Which of the following findings would most likely indicate the presence of a respiratory infection in a client with asthma?
1. Cough productive of yellow sputum.
2. Bilateral expiratory wheezing.
3. Chest tightness.
4. Respiratory rate of 30 breaths/ minute.
A cough productive of yellow sputum is the most likely indicator of a respiratory infection. The other signs and symptoms- wheezing, chest tightness, and increased respiratory rate- are all findings associated with an asthma attack and do not necessarily mean an infection is present.